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Babies 1) in their first year of life are referred to as A) neonates. B) toddlers. C) infants. D) none of the above. 2) Toddlers are children between the ages of A) conception and birth. B) three years old and five years old. C) one year old and three years old. D) birth and one year old. 3) At birth the average newborn weighs A) nine and one-half pounds. C) six pounds.
3) _______ B) eight pounds. D) seven and one-half pounds. 4) _______
4) Sammy is born at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following terms best characterizes his birth? A) low birth weight B) preterm birth C) very low birth weight D) small for gestational age 5) Newborns who weigh less than 3 1/2 pounds at birth are best classified as being A) at very low birth weight. B) at low birth weight. C) spontaneous abortions. D) a preterm birth. 6) Small for gestational age (SGA) are babies that are A) below the tenth percentile for head circumference. B) less than 3 1/2 pounds at birth. C) born before 37 weeks gestation. D) below the tenth percentile of birth weight for their gestational age. 7) Which of the following conditions is the most likely to mean serious health risks for a child? A) small for gestational age B) low birth weight C) very low birth weight D) preterm birth 8) Lack of prenatal care consistently correlates with A) microcephaly. B) placenta previa. C) difficult labor and delivery. D) preterm birth and low birth weight. 9) The term infant mortality refers to deaths that occur A) between 1 years and 3 years. B) before 1 year of age. C) before leaving the hospital after delivery. D) before delivery.
10) The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (2002) reported that the United States ranked ________ for overall infant mortality rates. A) equal with the United Kingdom. B) above Mexico. C) below Hungary. D) above Japan. 11) Which of the following ethnic groups has an infant mortality rate of 13.8 deaths per 1,000 live births? A) Asian-Americans B) Caucasians C) African-Americans D) American Indians 12) Which of the following factors is NOT related to infant mortality? A) hospital delivery B) poor prenatal care C) poor nutrition D) teenage pregnancy 13) Which of the following statements about infant mortality in America is TRUE? A) The rates of infant mortality is roughly the same for Caucasian and Hispanic populations. B) The African-American population has an infant mortality rate that is three times the national average. C) The national average rate for infant mortality is 7.0 deaths per 1,000 live births. D) Hispanic populations have the highest rate of infant mortality. 14) Which of the following statements about the physical growth of newborns is FALSE? A) It takes time for newborns to adjust to life outside the womb. B) It takes time for newborns to adjust to the process of feeding. C) Newborns spend most of their time sleeping. D) Newborns' weight nearly doubles in the first month. 15) The main benefit of initial breastfeeding is to A) pass antibodies from the mother to the baby. B) increase the attachment between mother and baby. C) increase the baby's weight after birth. D) decrease the milk production for the mother. 16) Which of the following conclusions about infant feeding and nutrition did the American Academy of Pediatrics (2005) make ? A) Infants should only be fed twice daily to reduce the American obesity problem. B) Human breast milk provides the best form of nutrition for most infants. C) Formula is the best form of nutrition, as it contains added nutrients that babies need. D) Infants should not be given breast milk because of its high fat content.
17) The thick yellowish substance in breast milk that contains important antibodies that are passed on to the newborn is called A) organogenesis. B) weaning milk. C) synaptogenesis. D) colostrum. 18) Which of the following statements about the first few days of breastfeeding is TRUE? A) After about three days, mothers produce a higher volume of milk. B) Breastfeeding should not begin until after the first week after delivery. C) Mothers produce the highest amount of milk on the day of their delivery. D) Breast milk is thicker than colostrum. 19) Which of the following statements about infant nutrition is FALSE? A) Breastfeeding should begin preferably within the first hour after birth. B) From 6 months to 12 months of age, iron-rich solid foods should be introduced gradually. C) Breastfeeding should continue at least until the infant is 12 months of age. D) During the first six months after birth, infants need nutritional supplements for optimal growth. 20) How many babies in the United States are still being breastfed at 3 months? A) less than 50 percent B) 75 percent C) more than 75 percent D) 50 percent 21) Which of the following populations are the least likely to breastfeed? A) upper income mothers B) younger mothers C) married women D) highly educated mothers 22) The World Health Organization (2003) reported that in the poorer areas of central Africa, ________ of infants under 4 months of age are exclusively breastfed. A) about 5 percent B) 10-20 percent C) more than 75 percent D) almost half 23) Sammy is eight months old. Which of the following best describes what his eating habits should look like? A) no breast milk; some baby cereal, fruits and vegetables and some solid finger foods B) some breast milk and some baby cereal, fruits and mild-flavored vegetables C) exclusively breast milk D) exclusively solid finger foods, such as cheese, plain crackers, sliced fruits, and cooked vegetables
24) By ________ of age, children are able to have meals at the table, eating most of the same foods as the rest of the family. A) 2 years B) 18 months C) 6 months D) 1 year 25) Which of the following statements best represents the evidence of the cephalocaudal principle in newborns? A) Towards the end of the first year of life, infants enjoy finger foods, such as cheese and sliced fruit. B) Babies who are breastfed are at a lower risk for a variety of infant diseases and illnesses. C) Exposure to PCBs in breastmilk has been linked to a variety of neurological impairments. D) The head represents of fourth of a newborn's total length but only one eighth of an adult's height. 26) Which structure does your text refer to as the "information superhighway" of the body? A) the cerebellum B) the spinal cord C) the cerebral cortex D) the brainstem 27) The spinal cord A) controls automatic functions and regulates the general level of alertness. B) allows vast amounts of information to be exchanged between the body and the brain. C) controls posture, body orientation, and complex muscle movements. D) all of the above. 28) Which of the following structures controls breathing and heart rate? A) the spinal cord B) the cerebrum C) the cerebellum D) the brain stem 29) The cerebellum A) controls posture, body orientation, and complex muscle movements. B) is used in higher-order thinking, creativity, and executive functions. C) controls automatic functions and regulates the general level of alertness. D) allows vast amounts of information to be exchanged between the body and the brain. 30) What structure is described in your text as the "gray matter" that forms the top portion of the brain? A) cerebral cortex B) cerebellum C) frontal lobe D) brain stem
31) The central nervous system is comprised of A) nerve cells that innervate the major organs. B) the spinal cord. C) the brain. D) the brain and the spinal cord. 32) The area of the cortex which processes speech input is called A) Broca's area. B) Wernicke's area. C) the frontal lobe. D) the motor area. 33) Higher-level thinking, problem solving, and creativity occur in A) the motor area B) the frontal lobe. C) Broca's area D) Wernicke's area 34) Broca's area organizes A) speech output. C) memory.
34) ______ B) speech input. D) visual input. 35) ______
35) Communication throughout the nervous system is controlled by A) the brain stem. B) neurons. C) the frontal lobes. D) the neural tube. 36) The chemical impulses that transmit the impulses from one neuron to another are called A) dendrites. B) synapses. C) colostrum. D) neurotransmitters. 37) The branchlike structures that receive input from other neurons are called A) neurotransmitters. B) dendrites. C) synapses. D) colostrum. 38) The ________ carries electrical impulses that send messages to other cells. A) dendrite B) colostrum C) axon D) neurotransmitter 39) Which of the following correctly identifies the lobes of the cerebral cortex? A) cephalo, caudal, proximo, distal B) frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital C) Broca's area, Wernicke's area, motor area, somatosensory area D) spinal cord, brain stem, cerebellum, cerebrum
40) Why is the cerebral cortex folded in so many convolutions? A) The electrical impulses of the neurons burn away sections of the brain as they start to make their connections, making the brain look like it has folds. B) The many folds allow a greater amount of surface area to fit within the skull. C) During prenatal development, the neural tube continues to fold over and over on itself, creating a hollow, convoluted structure. D) The cerebral cortex is very thick, so the folds allow for blood and other fluids to penetrate to the inside of the brain. 41) Shannon is a year old, and she is blind. Her doctors have checked her eyes and have said that the problem is in her brain. Which part of Shannon's brain is probably damaged? A) the temporal lobe B) the occipital lobe C) the parietal lobe D) the frontal lobe 42) The motor area of the brain is responsible for A) processing of speech input. B) voluntary muscle movements. C) articulation for speech output. D) involuntary muscle movements. 43) The frontal lobes are responsible for A) organizing and planning. C) Both A and B.
43) ______ B) problem solving. D) Neither A nor B. 44) ______
44) The myelin sheath is responsible for A) releasing the chemical neurotransmitters. B) receiving input from other neurons. C) insulating the axon. D) carrying electrical impulses that send messages to other cells 45) The developing organism folds over to form the neural tube A) once it has six layers of neurons. B) approximately 4 weeks after conception. C) right after synaptogenesis is completed. D) approximately 10 weeks after conception. 46) By 20 weeks of gestation, the cerebral cortex has approximately ________ neurons, and this is the approximate number with which infants are born. A) 80 thousand B) 80 trillion C) 80 million D) 80 billion 47) One form of neuron maturation in which dendrites and axons branch out to form an enormously large number of connections with neighboring neurons is called A) programmed cell death. B) organogenesis. C) synaptogenesis. D) myelination.
48) Myelination is when A) many neurons die during periods of migration. B) specialized cells allow communication in the nervous system. C) dendrites and axons branch out and form connections with neighboring neurons. D) the fatty insulation grows around the axons. 49) A type of neuron maturation in which the fatty insulation grows around the axon is called A) programmed cell death. B) synaptogenesis. C) organogenesis. D) myelination. 50) Before babies are born, neurons proliferate at a tremendous rate and these cells migrate to their final locations. Which of the following occurs during neuronal migration? A) the formation of the neural tub B) organogenesis C) the creation of cell bodies D) programmed cell death 51) The process by which many neurons die during periods of migration is called A) myelination. B) programmed cell death. C) organogenesis. D) synaptogenesis. 52) The ability of an infant to see fine detail is called A) synaptogenesis. B) organogenesis. C) myelination. D) visual acuity. 53) Connor's parents took him to visit the eye doctor. They were told that he has fairly poor vision. His optometrist said that Connor needs to be 20 feet away to read what someone with normal vision could read from 120 feet away. Which of the following summarizes Connor's vision? A) 120/20 B) 20/120 C) 100/20 D) 20/100 54) It is estimated that the visual acuity is newborns is between A) 20/40 and 1/64. B) 20/20 and 20/150. C) 20/600 and 20/800. D) 20/150 and 20/600. 55) Researchers believe that infants have 20/20 vision A) by 6 to 12 months. B) at birth. C) by 3 months to 6 months. D) by 3 months. 56) In visual acuity tasks, infants prefer to look at A) the squares rather than the circles. B) the gray square more than the stripes. C) the circles rather than the squares. D) the stripes more than the gray square.
57) According to the research presented in your text, which of the following statements about infant color vision is TRUE? A) Newborns appear to be able to distinguish blue from white. B) Infants appear to show no preference for looking at colors over gray. C) Newborns appear to be able to distinguish red from white. D) Infants appear to show a preference for looking at gray over color. 58) The "visual cliff" is used to assess ________ in infants. A) visual acuity B) photopigmentation C) color vision D) depth perception 59) As an infant's head and eyes move, the elements on the solid side of the visual cliff move more rapidly across the field of vision. This is known as A) motion parallax. B) binocular disparity. C) visual acuity. D) pictorial cues. 60) ________ is the difference between the images projected on the two eyes and helps an infant judge depth. A) Visual acuity B) Pictorial cues C) Binocular disparity D) Motion parallax 61) The relative size and density of the pattern elements shown beneath the glass during the visual cliff is known as A) binocular disparity. B) motion parallax. C) pictorial cues. D) visual acuity. 62) Which of the following statements is NOT a conclusion that can be drawn from the research on young infants' auditory capabilities? A) By 6 months of age, infants are capable of responding to a broad range of sounds. B) The auditory system is functional before birth. C) Newborns are able to detect a 0.5 percent frequency change, easily hearing the softest whisper. D) Even the youngest infants easily distinguish among rattles, voices, and other environmental noises. 63) Child-directed speech is the way that A) children speak to adults. B) adults ask children to do something. C) children speak to other children. D) adults talk to infants in a singsong pattern. 64) Researchers have devoted extensive study to infant reactions to smell. Their research has shown that A) newborns prefer the smell of their fathers over their mothers. B) newborns are unable to show a preference for smell. C) newborns prefer the smell of their mothers more than other women. D) newborns prefer the smell of their fathers over other men.
65) Infants, as young as 3 or 4 days, prefer the smell of A) formula milk over breast milk. B) cow's milk over formula milk. C) breast milk over formula milk. D) cow's milk over breast milk. 66) Which of the following tastes causes babies to spit? A) sweet B) salty C) sour
66) ______ D) bitter 67) ______
67) ________ are involuntary movements that are elicited by environmental stimuli. A) Motor cortex B) Gross motor skills C) Fine motor skills D) Reflexes 68) Nia just gave birth to her son, Kevin. As Nia gets ready to breastfeed her son, her nipple grazes Kevin's cheek. Kevin instantly turns toward the nipple. This is an example of A) the postural reflex. B) the feeding reflex. C) the rooting reflex. D) the sucking reflex. 69) The sucking reflex occurs whenever A) the brain is mature enough to have control over this reflex. B) an infant is hungry. C) liquid enters an infant's mouth. D) something touches an infant's lips. 70) Which of the following is NOT a function of reflexes? A) Reflexes allow the spinal cord to communicate with the brain. B) Reflexes help find nourishment. C) Reflexes serve as protective mechanisms inherited from primate ancestors. D) Reflexes exercise muscles. 71) The three main classes of reflexes described in your text are A) ancestral, attitude, and movement. B) rooting, sucking, and grasping. C) crawling, walking, and swimming. D) primitive, postural, and locomotor. 72) The type of reflexes that help the infant to find nourishment is called ________. A) primitive reflexes B) postural reflexes C) gross motor reflexes D) locomotor reflexes 73) Which of the following are considered to be a primitive reflex? A) rooting reflex B) when an infant makes swimming motions with their arms and legs in water C) the ability of an infant to keep his or her head upright D) stepping reflex
74) The Moro reflex is also known as the A) startle reflex. C) environmental factor.
74) ______ B) parachute reflex. D) perimeter response. 75) ______
75) Curtis is frightened by a loud noise in his crib. He extends his arms and legs outward and spreads his fingers and toes. What reflex is Curtis demonstrating? A) the grasping reflex B) the rooting reflex C) the swimming reflex D) the Moro reflex 76) The disappearance of the stepping reflex is related to brain maturation and to weight gain during infancy. Using one-month-old infants, researchers found that when fitted with leg weights approximating the amount of weight they would gain in the coming weeks, the stepping reflex A) was heightened. B) reappeared. C) was diminished. D) disappeared. 77) The type of reflexes that help infants to maintain balance is called A) postural reflexes. B) primitive reflexes. C) locomotor reflexes. D) gross motor reflexes. 78) Mandy is 6 months old. Mandy's dad loves to play with her. One of his favorite "games" is to hold her upright and then quickly tilt her forward. Mandy responds by stretching out her arms and bracing against the movement. This is an example of the A) parachute reflex. B) swimming reflex. C) Moro reflex. D) rooting reflex. 79) The type of reflexes that mimic movements such as crawling, stepping, and swimming is called A) postural reflexes. B) locomotor reflexes. C) gross motor reflexes. D) primitive reflexes. 80) The locomotor reflexes tend to disappear around A) birth. B) one year. C) eight months. D) four months. 81) Zelazo (1983) and Zelazo, Zelazo, & Kolb's (1972) research indicates that infants who are given regular practice with the stepping reflex A) tend to show voluntary walking about a month earlier than other infants who are not given practice. B) tend to maintain the stepping reflex longer than other infants who are not given practice. C) Both A and B. D) Neither A nor B.
82) Which of the following assessment measures, designed to assess the health of infants, measures some 20 different reflexes? A) the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale B) the Reflex Aptitude Assessment Scale C) the Apgar Test D) the Primitive, Postural, Locomotor Test 83) Charles was given a measure of "reflex irritability" when he was born. Which of the following tests was he most likely given? A) the Apgar Test B) the Reflex Aptitude Assessment Scale C) the Primitive, Postural, Locomotor Test D) the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale 84) Anthony's grandfather puts his index finger in Anthony's hand, Anthony curls his whole hand around his grandfather's finger. What reflex is Anthony demonstrating? A) the parachute reflex B) the Moro reflex C) the grasping reflex D) the holding reflex 85) ________ is the process of coordinating movements with the large muscles in the body. A) Primitive reflexes B) Gross motor development C) Locomotor reflexes D) Fine motor development 86) Twelve-month-old Karen, is taking her first steps. The muscles that control her legs are coordinated by A) gross motor development B) fine motor development C) locomotor reflexes D) primitive reflexes 87) ________ is the process of coordinating intricate movements with smaller muscles. A) Gross motor development B) Primitive reflexes C) Locomotor reflexes D) Fine motor development 88) Lily picks up a Cheerio from table on her high chair. The muscles that control her fingers are coordinated by A) gross motor development. B) fine motor development. C) locomotor reflexes. D) primitive reflexes. 89) By 1 month of age, infants are able to A) sit up without support. C) hold their head up. 90) Most infants are able to sit upright by A) 7 months. C) 1 month.
89) ______ B) crawl. D) roll over from front to back. 90) ______ B) 6 months. D) 3 months.
91) Which of the following places gross motor development tasks in their proper order? A) hold head up, roll over, sit upright, crawl B) roll over, hold head up, sit upright, crawl C) hold head up, sit upright, roll over, crawl D) hold head up, roll over, crawl, sit upright 92) Most infants take their first unaided steps around A) 9 months. B) 7 months. C) 15 months. D) 12 months. 93) Which of the following best explains the effects of the cephalocaudal principle on gross motor development? A) First, infants can hold their heads upright, then they can roll over. B) Infants exhibit a number of reflexes, including Moro, stepping, and parachute reflexes. C) At first, infants reach with their arms, then they grasp with their fingers. D) Infants can put their foot in their own mouth. 94) Which of the following is an example of the effects of the proximodistal principle on fine motor development? A) Infants exhibit a number of reflexes, including Moro, stepping, and parachute reflexes. B) First, infants can hold their heads upright, then they can roll over. C) At first, infants reach with their arms, then they grasp with their fingers. D) Infants can put their foot in their own mouth. 95) Voluntary control over the upper arm is shown by A) birth. B) approximately 1 year. C) 6 to 9 months. D) 4 to 5 months. 96) The palmar grasp occurs when A) infants pull an object to themselves using their open palm. B) infants use the thumb and opposite forefinger to pick up an object. C) infants wrap all four fingers and the thumb around an object to pick it up. D) none of the above. 97) Cameron, who is 11 months old, sees a bug on the ground outside. He picks it up using his thumb and forefinger. Which type of grasp is he using? A) tripod grasp B) pincer grasp C) grasping reflex D) palmar grasp
98) Which of the following statements about motor development in young infants is TRUE? A) The reflexes that are seen in early infancy are mainly controlled by the motor area of the cerebral cortex. B) Young infants first start reading for toys and other objects, they actually tend to reach with their feet first and do not try to reach with their hands until they are several weeks older. C) Brain maturation appears to have no influence on the appearance of infant reflexes. D) When researchers fitted infants with leg weights that mimicked the amount of weight that infants would gain in the next few weeks, the steeping reflex increased in strength to compensate for the weight. 99) Dennis & Dennis' (1939/1991) research on the Hopi Indian tribe found that the use of cradle boards ________ compared to infants who had not been confined by a cradle board. A) resulted in an increased rapidity of the onset of walking by two or more months. B) delayed the onset of walking by two or more months C) caused a higher rate of mild to moderate deformities in the lower extremities D) showed very little difference in the onset of walking 100) Which of the following statements about Shum et al.'s (2002) study on potty training is FALSE? A) It showed that many of the African-American toddlers in their sample began potty training before 15 months. B) It noted that the average age of daytime dryness was about 24 months during the 1950s. C) It found that at least half of girls showed an interest in using the toilet by 24 months of age. D) It found that boys achieve an interest in using the toilet and staying dry through the night an average of two months earlier than girls. 101) When researchers are interested in studying questions, such as "What do infants really understand about the world?" and " How do babies put together information from their senses?", these researchers are interested in the area of ________ development. A) physical B) psychoanalytic C) cognitive D) socioemotional 102) An emotional tie to a specific person that continues over time is called A) goal-corrected partnership. B) attachment. C) sensitive responsiveness. D) temperament.
103) Which of the following represents the foundation of modern attachment research? A) Harlow's primate experiments B) ethological theory C) the strange situation D) both A and B 104) "Attachment comes from traits and behaviors that have evolved over time to increase the infant's chances of survival." This is the basic tenet of what theory? A) Bowlby's ethological theory B) Ainsworth's Strange Situation theory C) Harlow's primate theory D) Chess's goodness of fit theory 105) Which of the following is NOT one of Bowlby's stages of attachment? A) stranger anxiety B) orientation without discrimination C) orientation with discrimination D) safe-base attachment 106) Keisha is 9 months old. She became distressed the first time her mother left her at a new babysitter's house. According to Bowlby, what stage of attachment is Keisha in? A) orientation with discrimination B) safe-base attachment C) orientation without discrimination D) goal-corrected partnership 107) According to Bowlby's stages of attachment, the main characteristic of stage 3 is A) babies prefer their primary caregivers. B) young children understand the feelings and motives of their caregivers. C) attachment to a particular person has not yet formed. D) babies use their primary caregivers as a base for exploration of their environment. 108) The results of Harlow's primate experiments contradicted which theory/ies? A) ethological B) behavioral C) psychoanalytic D) both B and C 109) Harlow's experiments with infant monkeys gave support to the hypothesis that attachments form through A) food as a reinforcer. B) imprinting to the first moving object seen by the infant. C) oral gratification through feeding. D) close contact with a soft, comforting person or thing.
110) The feeling infants get from clinging to a soft attachment figure is called A) separation anxiety. B) surrogating. C) coordinated imitation. D) contact comfort. 111) In Harlow's experiments, when the wire mesh "mother" gave milk, the infant monkeys spent the majority of their time A) with the cloth "mother". B) hanging on to the side of the cage. C) in the corner of the cage, alone. D) with the wire "mother". 112) Harlow's research with infant monkeys used which technique? A) naturalistic observation B) experimental C) cross-sectional D) correlational 113) Ainsworth's Strange Situation was designed to measure A) activity level. B) the effects of day care. C) temperament. D) attachment. 114) Jose is 10 months old. His mother enrolled him in day care now that she is returning to work full-time. On his first morning at the day care center he cries when his mother leaves. Jose is showing A) contact comfort. B) insecure attachment. C) orientation without discrimination. D) separation anxiety. 115) Separation anxiety in Ainsworth's research is similar to which stage in Bowlby's theory? A) orientation without discrimination B) self-base attachment C) orientation with discrimination D) goal-corrected partnerships 116) An infant who displays separation anxiety and stranger anxiety is considered A) to be a normal infant. B) to have an insecure attachment. C) to have an emotional attachment to a specific person. D) both A and C 117) Of the thousands of U.S. infants and parents observed in the Strange Situation, the majority show which type of attachment? A) insecure-avoidant B) insecure-resistant C) secure D) insecure-disorganized
118) Baby Michael and his mother are doing the Strange Situation for a research project. When his mother leaves, Michael becomes upset, but when she returns he doesn't want her to pick him up. This child would be considered to have which type of attachment according to Ainsworth's classification system? A) secure B) insecure-avoidant C) insecure-disorganized D) insecure-resistant 119) Rasheed is 10 months old. His mother takes him to an unfamiliar neighbor's house while she goes to the doctor. Rasheed cries when she leaves and is happy when his mother returns. Rasheed probably has which type of attachment? A) insecure-avoidant B) secure C) insecure-resistant D) none of the above 120) Chantelle is a year old now. When she and her mother were tested in the Strange Situation she did not get upset when her mother left and did not seem happy when her mother returned. Overall, Chantelle looked confused and dazed. Which type of attachment did Chantelle display? A) secure B) insecure-disorganized C) insecure-resistant D) insecure-avoidant 121) Mothers who respond positively, consistently and warmly to their infants tend to have children with what type of attachment? A) insecure-avoidant B) secure C) insecure-resistant D) insecure-disorganized 122) Mrs. Patel is reading to 13-month-old Puja. Puja sees a cat run across the front lawn and points to the cat. Her mother stops reading and carries Puja to the window, saying, "Look at the kitty." Mrs. Patel is demonstrating A) sensitive responsiveness. B) indifferent parenting. C) goal-corrected partnership. D) overstimulating parenting. 123) Matthew's mother abused him when he cried. She had been abused herself as a child. It is likely that Matthew will have which type of attachment? A) insecure-resistant B) insecure-avoidant C) secure D) insecure-disorganized 124) Which of the following countries had the highest percentage of infants with secure attachments? A) Great Britain B) U.S.A. C) Germany D) Chile 125) Within the U.S., which ethnic group most values independence and competence in infants? A) Puerto Rican B) Asian C) African-American D) Caucasian
126) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Twin studies show that the father's interaction style is more important than genetics in the father-infant interaction. B) The type of attachment an infant displays is usually consistent from mother to father. C) Babies are as likely to form secure attachments with their fathers as with their mothers. D) All of the above are true. 127) Marcus, an 18-month-old, lives in a two parent family. He is securely attached to his mother. According to research, what type of attachment is he likely to have with his father? A) insecure-avoidant B) insecure-resistant C) secure D) There is not enough research on father-infant attachment to know Marcus's attachment. 128) Day care research in the 1980s suggested that attachment is affected if the infant A) spent more than 40 hours per week in day care. B) was placed in day care after 9 months old. C) spent more than 20 hours a week in day care. D) was placed in day care before 6 months old. 129) A recent nationwide study of time spent in day care by infants found A) the age at which infants began day care affected the type of attachment. B) day care of infants caused insecure types of attachment. C) day care affected attachment only when there was not a father in the home. D) time spent in day care only affected attachment if the mother was not sensitive and responsive. 130) Out of the most developed countries in the world, A) European countries generally had the best family leave policies. B) the U.S. is one of the few to NOT guarantee paid maternity leave. C) both A and B D) none of the above 131) Which of the following would be the BEST way to learn about the long term effects of infant attachment on children's development? A) correlational studies B) naturalistic observations C) longitudinal research D) cross-sectional research
132) Research on the long term effects of attachment has found A) preschoolers with secure attachments were more popular and had higher self-esteem. B) preschoolers who had been securely attached were happier and more compliant. C) teens who had been insecurely attached as infants had more psychological problems. D) All of the above have been found. 133) In addition to the Strange Situation, another frequently used measure of attachment is the A) Rothbart Dimensions Test. B) Attachment Q Sort. C) Chess and Thomas Scale. D) Infant Behavior Questionnaire. 134) An infant or child's behavioral style or primary pattern of reacting to the environment is his/her A) threshold of responsiveness. B) temperament. C) goodness of fit. D) attachment type. 135) How many temperament dimensions are present in Thomas and Chess's classification system? A) 9 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 136) Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions of temperament developed by Thomas and Chess? A) intensity of reaction B) quality of mood C) activity level D) goodness of fit 137) Thomas and Chess conducted longitudinal studies of infants to learn about A) cognitive development. B) attachment. C) temperament. D) social relationships. 138) Nyguen is 14 months old. He generally is a happy baby who "goes with the flow" and is predictable in his eating and sleeping routines. Which temperament type is Nyguen? A) insecure-avoidant B) easy C) difficult D) slow to warm up 139) Megan, now 9 months old, has been a handful for her parents. They have not been able to get her into a regular sleep or feeding schedule. Megan cries a great deal and her grandmother describes her as "colicky." What temperament does Megan have? A) slow to warm up B) insecure-disorganized C) easy D) difficult
140) The mother of Leilani, a 6-month-old, has noticed that it seems to take Leilani more time to adjust to new things than it took for her older sister. For example, the first time Leilani was given strained carrots she spit them out. Her mother tried giving her carrots again the next day with the same result. By the third day, however, Leilani ate the carrots. Which temperament type best fits Leilani? A) slow to warm up B) insecure-resistant C) difficult D) easy 141) In Thomas and Chess's original study, 40% of the children were classified as A) easy. B) slow to warm up. C) secure. D) difficult. 142) Thomas and Chess believed temperament is determined by A) environment. B) heredity. C) both A and B D) goodness of fit. 143) Research has found that the heritability of temperament is A) moderately low. B) very low. C) very high. D) moderately high. 144) The degree to which a child's temperament and his/her environment go together is called A) social referencing. B) goodness of fit. C) emotional contagion. D) secure attachment. 145) Tyrone is a very active child. Fortunately, his father played sports in college and enjoys playing ball with Tyrone. Tyrone's mother is also athletic and takes Tyrone and his sister on long walks and is teaching them soccer. This compatibility between Tyrone's temperament and his environment is called A) social referencing. B) coordinated imitation. C) goodness of fit. D) emotional contagion. 146) A poor match between a child's temperament and his/her environment may lead to A) parent-child conflict. B) impaired development. C) behavior disorders. D) all of the above 147) Which of the following is TRUE? A) Temperament is highly consistent from infancy through adulthood. B) Measures of temperament are not very stable over time. C) Of the dimensions of temperament, only distractibility was consistent over time. D) Easy temperament is more consistent over time than difficult temperament.
148) Stability or instability of temperament over time is NOT influenced by A) parenting style. B) orientation without discrimination. C) children's self-awareness. D) culture. 149) Which of the following can lead to children's temperament changing over time? A) controlling their reactions to their environment B) adaptations to their environment C) how they express their temperament D) all of the above 150) A measure of temperament is the A) Social Referencing Measure. B) Kagan Arousal Measure. C) Bowlby Infant Scale. D) Infant Behavior Questionnaire. 151) Rothbart's instrument for measuring temperament has all of the following dimensions EXCEPT A) activity level. B) orientation without discrimination. C) soothability. D) All of the above are dimensions of Rothbart's instrument. 152) Kagan's longitudinal research on shyness demonstrated A) little consistency from infancy to childhood in levels of shyness. B) stability in shyness from infancy through adolescence. C) low arousal thresholds in children who were not shy. D) high arousal thresholds in shy children. 153) From his research, Kagan believes the roots of shyness in children are due to A) difference in the amygdala and hypothalamus. B) genetic predisposition. C) low levels of arousal. D) all of the above 154) Shauna has always been an outgoing child who reacted calmly to new things and situations. She has never seemed nervous and does not easily. frighten According to Kagan, without proper socialization and positive role models, Shauna is at risk of becoming A) emotionally contagious. B) hysterical. C) phobic. D) delinquent. 155) Hannah is 2 days old and lying quietly in her crib in the hospital nursery. The infant in the crib next to her wakes up hungry and begins crying. Hannah starts crying too. This is an example of A) coordinated imitation. B) difficult temperament. C) social referencing. D) emotional contagion.
156) Newborns are more likely to cry when they hear A) artificially produced crying sounds. B) their older siblings cry. C) a recording of their own cry. D) other newborns cry. 157) Researchers had mothers display joy, sadness and anger in their facial expressions and voice. Their 10-week-old infants A) imitated their mothers' facial expressions. B) responded differently to each emotion. C) showed more interest when their mothers acted angry. D) both A and B 158) Although infants can discriminate between facial expressions, they A) cannot tell the difference between joy and anger. B) do not respond to sadness. C) depend more on body movement to determine others' emotions. D) rely more on vocal expressions to determine others' emotion. 159) Which of the following is FALSE? A) 10-week-old infants showed more joy and interest when their mothers displayed joy. B) 4-month-olds can understand basic emotions such as joy, anger and surprise. C) 2-month-olds respond differently to happy faces than to emotionless faces. D) All of the above are true. 160) In a study of 12-month-old babies using the visual cliff, researchers found that most of the infants crossed to the "deep" side A) if an interesting toy was present. B) if their mothers displayed fear. C) when their mothers displayed happiness or interest. D) when their mothers displayed anger. 161) In the study using the visual cliff and 12-month-olds, A) it was not clear whether the babies were responding to their mothers' facial expressions or the loudness of their voices. B) none of the babies crossed to the deep side even when their mothers displayed happiness. C) only the babies with easy temperaments crossed to the "deep" side. D) the majority of the babies refused to cross to the "deep" side. 162) When infants look to their parents to determine their own emotions in ambiguous situations, they are using A) self conscious emotions. B) social referencing. C) coordinated imitation. D) mutual gaze.
163) 13-month-old Kayla is learning to walk alone. When walking across the kitchen, she falls. Kayla immediately looks at her father, who seems worried. Kayla starts to cry. This demonstrates A) mutual gaze. B) self conscious emotions. C) social referencing. D) Kayla's secure attachment. 164) Josh's mom is carrying him from the grocery store to their car when a strange looking homeless man approaches her. Josh looks at his mother's worried face and begins crying. This is an example of A) sensitive responsiveness. B) goodness of fit. C) Josh's temperament. D) social referencing. 165) Self conscious emotions begin to emerge by A) 6 months. B) 15 months. C) 3 years. D) 2 years. 166) Emotions that relate to a person's self image are called A) coordinated emotions. B) negative emotions. C) self conscious emotions. D) primary emotions. 167) Before self conscious emotions occur, the young child must have A) sensitive responsiveness. B) a sense of what others expect. C) a sense of his/her own identity. D) both B and C 168) Which of the following is NOT a self conscious emotion? A) embarrassment B) pride C) shame D) surprise 169) Roberto, age 2, puts on his socks by himself as his mother watches. The pride he feels in this achievement is A) social referencing. B) emotional contagion. C) coordinated imitation. D) self-conscious emotion. 170) While Marissa's mother answers the telephone, Marissa tries to pour her own juice. Marissa, who is only 2 1/2, can't manage the large bottle and it spills all over the floor. Which SELF CONSCIOUS emotion is Marissa likely to feel? A) sadness B) guilt C) surprise D) all of the above 171) At what age do infants typically show interest in other infants? A) 12 months B) 2 months C) 6 months D) 4 months 172) The first interactions infants typically have with each other is A) symbolic play. B) mutual gaze. C) coordinated imitation. D) sensorimotor play.
173) By 6 moths old, infants interact with each other in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) smiling. B) touching each other. C) babbling. D) coordinated imitation. 174) Shayna is 3 months old. Her mother's best friend from high school is visiting with her 4-month-old son, Manuel. Shayna and Manuel look at each other intently. This is an example of A) sensitive responsiveness. B) mutual gaze. C) self conscious emotion. D) emotional contagion. 175) Variability in infants' social responsiveness can be due to A) temperament. B) their opportunity to practice social skills. C) their parent-infant relationship. D) all of the above 176) By what age do infants typically play by imitating each other and sharing toys? A) 2 years B) 6 months C) 12 months D) 9 months 177) Infants who have more opportunities to interact with peers A) have higher levels of social skills. B) are more self-conscious. C) show less mutual gaze. D) have more conflicts. 178) The play that is typical of young infants involves practicing using their senses and developing their movement skills. This type of play is called A) coordinated imitation. B) sensorimotor play. C) symbolic play. D) preoperational play. 179) The first noticeable signs of play activity in young infants is A) repeating actions with their own bodies. B) imitating other infants. C) using toys appropriately. D) all of the above 180) Three-month-old Alex is laying in his crib. As he moves, he accidentally gets his foot in his mouth. He laughs and puts his foot in his mouth again. This activity is called A) symbolic play. B) sensorimotor play. C) assimilation. D) fine motor skills. 181) Around 3 months of age, infants' hand-eye coordination improves. Their play typically involves A) small objects. B) household objects. C) large objects. D) their own bodies.
182) Skylar is a normally developing 5-month-old. Her favorite play involves A) pretending to feed her doll. B) waving her hands in the air. C) dropping toys from her high chair. D) scribbling with crayons. 183) When playing, 6-month-olds typically A) treat all objects the same way. B) begin symbolic play. C) imitate their older siblings. D) pay attention to the characteristics of each object. 184) Six-month-old Ryoko is given a plastic spoon to play with. She bangs it against her high chair. Her grandmother hands her a soft doll. What is Ryoko likely to do with the doll? A) hug it B) bang it against her high chair C) put it in her mouth D) try to feed it 185) Mr. Chen gives his 10-month-old a ball. Which of the following is the infant MOST LIKELY to do? A) bang it on the floor B) walk over and kick the ball C) throw it D) put it in her mouth 186) Toys that respond to the infant's actions, such as a jack-in-the-box, A) allow the infant to be in control. B) teach them that the environment is responding to them. C) encourage learning of cause and effect relationships. D) all of the above 187) Which of the following objects would be MOST interesting to a 10month-old child? A) blocks B) plastic car C) Tickle Me Elmo D) wind up crib mobile 188) According to the Professional Perspective in Chap. 6, what influences the kind of toys companies manufacture for babies? A) the toys' ability to stimulate the senses B) educational benefits of the toy C) types of materials available to make the toys D) both A and B
189) According toy the toy company executive interviewed in "A Professional Perspective," how is child development research used by toy manufacturers? A) They must know how technology is important to children of each age group. B) They must know what skills a child of a certain age has developed. C) They must know what characters are popular with children of each age group. D) All of the above 190) Interactions during which toddlers take turns copying each other, and are aware they are being copied, are called A) coordinated imitation. B) symbolic play. C) sociodramatic play. D) sensorimotor imitation. 191) Coordinated imitation typically does not appear before age A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. 192) The earliest games played by toddlers usually involve A) concrete operational thought. B) taking turns. C) playing roles. D) both B and C 193) Which of the following are typical games for toddlers? A) putting toys in a container B) stacking and knocking over blocks C) running and chasing D) all of the above 194) Two toddlers are on a playground. Katie crawls through the pipe tunnel and yells "Look at me!" Sarah crawls through the tunnel too and then yells "Look at me!" Katie climbs the slide and shouts "Look at me!" before sliding down. Sarah climbs the slide, yells "Look at me!" and slides down. The girls are engaging in A) symbolic play. B) social referencing. C) emotional contagion. D) coordinated imitation. 195) Interactions between toddlers help children A) adapt to different playmates. B) learn to maintain interest for both children. C) acquire social skills. D) all of the above 196) Toddlers choose playmates largely based on A) goodness of fit. B) similar interests. C) convenience. D) similar personalities.
197) Which of the following is NOT a quality of a true friendship? A) It is based on the other child's toys B) It is mutual. C) It persists over time. D) All of the above are qualities of a true friendship. 198) Conflicts among toddlers are common. What is the typical cause of these conflicts? A) a lack of goodness of fit B) struggles over toys C) different temperament types D) One child has a dominant personality. 199) Which of the following is the BEST was to to help toddlers resolve peer disputes? A) distracting them with another activity B) making them feel ashamed of fighting C) asking them to imagine how the other child feels D) All of the above are effective for resolving toddlers' peer disputes. 200) The best example of the symbolic play of a 12-month-old would be: A) Yuki puts on her mothers' shoes and carries her diaper bag to pretend she is going to work. B) Marcus uses toy dishes to pretend he is eating. C) Safi pretends to row a boat using a mop and a broom as oars. D) Emily climbs into her parents' bed and sings. 201) Between 2 and 3 years old, how does children's symbolic play change? A) They no longer use imitation. B) They stop playing make believe games. C) They can pretend an object is something else. D) They primarily engage in sensorimotor play. 202) The term, cognitive, refers to A) the process of organizing, coordinating, and interpreting information in the brain that has come from the senses. B) the technique used to test infant visual perception. C) the physical process of detecting information about a stimulus in the environment through the five senses and transmitting that information to the brain. D) mental processes of perceiving, thinking, remembering, solving problems, and communicating with language 203) The physical process of detecting information about a stimulus in the environment through the five senses is called A) sensation. B) primitive reflexes. C) visual acuity. D) perception. 204) The cognitive process of organizing, coordinating, and interpreting sensory information is called A) primitive reflexes. B) visual acuity. C) sensation. D) perception.
205) John Locke and other early philosophers claimed that the newborn's mind was A) inherently good. B) a blank slate. C) inherently evil D) unable to be accessed due to a lack of language capabilities. 206) Which of the following individuals claimed that the mental experience of the infant was "one great blooming, buzzing confusion"? A) William James B) John Locke C) Robert Fantz D) Sigmund Freud 207) ________ is a technique used to test infant visual perception. A) Child-directed speech B) Equilibration C) Reflective abstraction D) Preferential-looking technique 208) Robert Fantz and his associates studies whether or not perception of different forms was innate or learned in human infants by using an apparatus called A) habituation-dishabituation technique. B) the looking glass. C) a looking chamber. D) the visual cliff. 209) Fantz's early experiments showed that newborns, who were only 2 to 5 days old, A) looked more at newsprint than faces. B) looked more at plain colored disks than faces. C) looked more at bull's-eyes than faces. D) looked more at faces than bull's eyes. 210) All of the following are types of visual information that babies prefer EXCEPT A) patterns that resemble the human face. B) bright colors, like black and red. C) pastel colors, like pink and blue. D) moving stimuli. 211) Courtney and David are expecting their first child. They have decided to purchase a crib mobile. Which of the following features of the crib mobile will NOT capture their child's attention? A) pastel colors B) curves C) symmetrical patterns D) moving parts
212) Goren, Sarty, & Wu (1975) found that newborns, who were only a few minutes old, prefer patterns that most resemble A) patterns with great complexity and detail. B) disk-shaped patterns in bold colors. C) the arrangement of the human face, although they had never seen one. D) muted colors and patterns, like those in the womb. 213) Langlois et al. (1987) had college students rate the "attractiveness" of a face using photos of female adults. When an "attractive" photo was paired with an "unattractive" photo and shown to two-month-old children, the infants looked longer at the attractive photo. Langlois et al. concluded that A) infants are able to observe and favor particular faces at a very early age. B) infants prefer female faces to male faces. C) infants prefer male faces to female faces. D) infants are born with an innate sense of beauty. 214) In order to recognize faces, one must focus on the internal features such as the eyes, nose, and mouth. At what age do infants begin switching their focus from external features (hairline and chin) and show recognition of familiar faces? A) two months of age B) one month of age C) three months of age D) four months of age 215) Which of the following statements about infant scanning of faces is TRUE? A) 2- to 3-month-olds tend to show recognition of familiar faces. B) Infants do not learn to scan facial features until approximately 3 months of age. C) 2-month-olds tend to fixate more on the chin and hairline. D) 1-month-olds tend to fixate more on internal facial features. 216) Which of the following questions is the habituation-dishabituation technique designed to answer? A) Do infants prefer faces or newsprint? B) Is it possible for infants to prefer to look at one stimulus over another? C) What if infants can see the difference between two stimuli but find both stimuli to be equally interesting? D) Can infants visually discriminate between colors? 217) In the ________ technique, infants are shown a stimulus repeatedly until they respond less to it. A) child-directed speech B) preferential-looking technique C) habituation-dishabituation D) visual acuity
218) Habituation is A) the recovery or increase in infant's response when a new stimulus is presented. B) the technique used to test infant visual perception. C) the tendency of infants to reduce their response to stimuli that are presented repeatedly. D) the cognitive process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. 219) When an infant increases their response because a familiar stimulus has been replaced by a novel one is called A) habituation. B) preferential looking. C) perception. D) dishabituation. 220) An important limitation of the preferential-looking technique lies in the fact that A) if there is no preference, one cannot assume the infants are able to visually discriminate the selections. B) many infants tested show extreme claustrophobia in the chamber. C) if there is a preference, researchers are unable to record the time spent fixating on the selection. D) illumination within the chamber is distracting to many infants. 221) Four-month-old Barry is shown an orange circle. He looks at it for eight seconds. Upon successive showings, Barry's interest falls with each repeated trial until he looks for only two seconds. When a purple circle is substituted, Barry looks at the object for nine seconds. From this test one may conclude that Barry A) is unable to discern the difference between orange and purple. B) prefers the color orange over the color purple. C) is able to discern the difference between orange and purple. D) prefers the color purple over the color orange. 222) ________ is the process of combining or integrating information across sensory modalities. A) Habituation B) Dishabituation C) Intermodal Perception. D) Perception 223) Peter, a 9-month-old infant, sees his mother's face above his crib, hears her singing to him, and feels the breeze from the fan in his room. Which of the following terms best explains the sensory input that he is receiving? A) intermodal perception B) preferential looking C) dishabituation D) habituation 224) The ________ view states that people construct their own knowledge of the world by using what they already know to interpret new experiences. A) constructivist B) separatist C) nativist D) dishabituationist
225) Jean Piaget believed that young infants are not aware that what they see is related to what they hear. He hypothesized that infants need to learn, through experience, to coordinate their sensory systems. This is an example of the ________ view of sensory perception. A) constructivist B) dishabituationist C) separatist D) nativist 226) Which of the following correctly pairs the researcher with his or her view? A) Eleanor Gibson, separatist B) William James, separatist C) Jean Piaget, constructivist D) T.G.R. Bower, constructivist 227) ________ believe that infants initially confuse their sensory impressions and are unsure whether they are seeing or hearing, tasting or smelling. A) Dishabituationists B) Constructivists C) Separatists D) none of the above 228) Which of the following theories would conclude that "the initial primitive unity [of the sensory systems] must go, leaving differentiated sensory systems in place of a unitary perceptual world"? A) separatists B) dishabituationists C) habituationists D) constructivists 229) ________ is an important feature in the environment that can be detected by multiple sensory systems. A) A habituation B) A dishabituation C) A variable D) An invariant 230) Individuals who hold the theory that invariants can be detected by multiple sensory systems would believe which of the following statements? A) An infant cannot tell whether breastmilk is sweet because they smell its sweetness or taste its sweetness. B) An infant can both smell and taste the sweetness of breastmilk or formula. C) An infant cannot distinguish between the taste of breastmilk and formula. D) An infant does not know whether they are not they are smelling or tasting the sweetness of breastmilk.
231) The insights regarding children's cognitive development that Piaget gained from working in the Binet Laboratory were important because they A) challenged the prevailing position among child development experts that children are active learners whose reasoning abilities change over time. B) led to the eventual development and wide use of the Simon-Binet intelligence test in Europe and the United States. C) challenged the prevailing position among child development experts that children are passive learners with few consistencies in their thinking. D) led to the development of a theory comparing the cognitive abilities of young children and non-human primates. 232) Piaget believed that children were ________ in their reasoning. A) passive B) logical C) active D) disorganized 233) Which of the following is NOT a part of Piaget's theory about children's cognitive development? A) Children were active in their thinking, not passive. B) Children realized that a clinical method could be an invaluable asset in his research. C) Children's thinking is highly irregular and inconsistent. D) Children seem to have age-related patterns in their thinking. 234) Piaget's method of research, in which children are asked to explain the reasons for their answers, is called A) equilibration. B) the preferential-looking technique. C) the clinical method. D) the habituation-dishabituation method. 235) Which of the following theorists determined that the clinical method could be an invaluable tool in his research with children? A) Sigmund Freud B) Jean Piaget C) B.F. Skinner D) T.G.R. Bower 236) When using the clinical method, children are A) examined by Ph.D. clinical psychologists and medical doctors in a hospital setting. B) first asked to give an answer to a problem and then explain their reasons for their answers. C) tested in small groups in a laboratory setting without their parents present. D) first given the Simon-Binet intelligence test and then observed in a laboratory.
237) The view that people construct their own knowledge and understanding of the world by using what they already know and understand to interpret new experiences is called A) the constructivist view. B) organization. C) a scheme. D) the clinical method. 238) According to a constructivist perspective, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) People perceive the environment as it actually exists and do not make any interpretations. B) There is only one reality and individuals should not differ in their interpretations of it. C) People interpret their experiences using their already existing knowledge and experiences. D) Young children create their own independent interpretations of reality but adults do not. 239) Which of the following statements about "schemes" is FALSE? A) Schemes can involve both physical and mental activity. B) Schemes cannot be altered once they are formed. C) Schemes are organized patterns of thought and action. D) Schemes are the major building block of human cognition. 240) An organized pattern of physical or mental action is called A) a scheme. B) organization. C) habituation. D) perception. 241) According to Piaget, a young child's ability to use a spoon to feed herself and a teenager's ability to play the trumpet are both examples of A) biological maturation. B) stratagems. C) schemes. D) genetic predetermination. 242) Organization is A) an organized pattern of physical or mental action. B) the tendency to integrate separate elements into increasingly complex higher-order structures. C) the process of combining or integrating information across sensory modalities. D) when people to construct their own knowledge of the world by using what they already know. 243) According to Piaget, the three main processes that guide our interactions with the environment are A) adaptation, scaffolding, and operational thought. B) scaffolding, mediation, and internalization. C) organization, adaptation, and reflective abstraction. D) biological maturation, mediation, and collaborative learning.
244) Which of the following statements regarding the concept of organization is FALSE? A) In humans, organization occurs at both the physical and psychological level. B) Because organization is a biological concept, the way in which information is organized is never inaccurate. C) Organization helps people interpret and understand the many events they encounter. D) People cannot help but try to organize their knowledge and impressions of the world around them. 245) ________ is the process of changing a cognitive structure in order to understand the environment. A) Accommodation B) Perception C) Adaptation D) Assimilation 246) Adaptation refers to changes A) that an organism makes to insure its survival in its current environment. B) in cognitive structures or the environment that lead to greater understanding. C) Neither A nor B define adaptation. D) Both A and B define adaptation. 247) The process of bringing new objects or information into a scheme that already exists is called A) perception. B) assimilation. C) adaptation. D) accommodation. 248) Thomas and his mother are at the zoo. When they reach the area where the tigers are, Thomas, who has never seen a tiger before, exclaims "Look, Mommy, it's a kitty!" This demonstrates the principle of A) adaptation. B) accommodation C) assimilation. D) perception. 249) The process of modifying old schemes or creating new ones to better fit assimilated information is called A) perception. B) assimilation. C) adaptation. D) accommodation. 250) Lily has never seen a cow before. At first she thinks it is a doggie, but after her mom explains that cows give us milk and are bigger than dogs, Lily adjusts her understanding of animals. This demonstrates the principle of A) perception. B) assimilation. C) adaptation. D) accommodation 251) Which of the following terms best explains the process of moving between states of cognitive disequilibrium and equilibrium? A) equilibration B) assimilation C) adaptation D) accommodation
252) Humans are never satisfied with the state of equilibrium because A) of our innate tendency to organize and make sense of existing information. B) humans find it difficult to adapt to various physical environments. C) equilibration is an unchanging cognitive state in both adults and children. D) most human beings lack the ability to engage in formal operational thought. 253) Piaget believed that the normal state of mind is A) accommodation. B) equilibrium. C) assimilation. D) disequilibrium. 254) Reflective abstraction is the process of A) modifying old schemes or creating new ones to better fit assimilated information. B) noticing and thinking about the implications of information and experiences. C) bringing new objects or information into a scheme that already exists. D) moving between states of cognitive disequilibrium and equilibrium. 255) Which of the following represents the clearest example of reflective abstraction? A) "I see that birds come in different shapes and sizes, but all birds have wings." B) "This animal can't fly, but the teacher called it a bird." C) "This bird is very tiny." D) "This bird is huge and eats meat." 256) Which of the following list the stages of cognitive development in their correct order? A) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational B) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor C) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational D) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational 257) The stage of thought that is based only on sensory input and motor actions is called A) preoperational thought. B) symbolic thought. C) intentionality. D) sensorimotor thought.
258) Which of the following statements regarding the beginning of the sensorimotor stage is FALSE? A) Children in this stage "think" by making sensory contact with objects. B) Children in this stage learn about the world through their senses (e.g., hearing, seeing, tasting). C) Children in this stage "think" by making motor contact with objects. D) Children in this stage are able to create mental representations of physical objects outside themselves. 259) ________ is the ability to form symbols that stand for objects or events in the world. A) Sensorimotor thought B) Symbolic thought C) Intentionality D) Preoperational thought 260) Children in the sensorimotor stage can learn about their world through all of the following activities EXCEPT A) grasping. B) babbling. C) sucking. D) reaching. 261) Intentionality is when infants A) have the ability to form symbols that stand for objects or events in the world. B) begin to take actions that they expect to have specific outcomes. C) begin to purposely form words to communicate with others. D) base their thought on sensory input and physical actions. 262) Ten-month-old Mark gleefully drops his spoon to the floor from his high chair for the tenth time. He smiles as the spoon drops from his hand and he is quite pleased when it bounces on the floor. He laughs when his older sister hands it back to him to try again. Mark's behavior indicates that he is A) not yet able to predict possible outcomes. B) engaging in reflexive actions only. C) unable to notice the effects of random actions. D) developing intentionality. 263) When infants take an action and modify their next action by watching what happened, this is called A) intentionality B) trial and error. C) cause and effect D) object permanence. 264) ________ is the fact that objects, events, and people continue to exist even when they are out of a child's direct line of sensory input or motor action. A) Intentionality B) Trial and error C) Cause and effect D) Object Permanence
265) When your niece's toy rolls out of sight under her bed, she immediately begins to search for it. What Piagetian concept does her behavior illustrate? A) symbolic thought B) object permanence C) centration D) animism 266) Piaget traced understanding of object permanence from nonexistence at birth to its full achievement at about A) one year of age. B) eighteen months of age. C) six months of age. D) two years of age. 267) Achievement of object permanence can be tested using A) visible and invisible displacement problems. B) trial-and-error learning problems. C) reaction times to unfamiliar stimuli. D) Piaget's conservation problems. 268) By about eighteen months of age, an infant can solve ________ displacement problems but not ________ displacement problems. A) visible; invisible B) invisible; visible C) physical; mental D) mental; physical 269) By about ________ of age, a child can solve invisible displacement problems. A) 6 months B) 18 months C) two years D) 3 months 270) Which of the following is NOT a key feature that distinguishes human language? A) semanticity B) productive C) displacement D) equilibration 271) The idea that language represents thoughts, objects, and events through specific and abstract symbols is known as A) semanticity. B) equilibration. C) productivity. D) displacement. 272) ________ is the idea that there is no limit to the number or types of utterances that humans can create. A) Equilibration B) Productivity C) Displacement D) Semanticity 273) Displacement is the idea that language A) can communicate about a vast range of things instead of being limited to immediate circumstances. B) represents thoughts, objects, ad events through specific and abstract symbols. C) is the comprehension and production of spoken words. D) has no limit to the number of types of utterances that humans can create.
274) An arbitrary system of symbols that is rule-governed and allows communication about things that are distant in time or space is called A) nativist theory. B) a language acquisition device. C) learning theory. D) language. 275) The ability of children to understand and respond appropriately to spoken language is known as A) language production B) language comprehension. C) language imitation. D) a language acquisition device. 276) Language production is the A) arbitrary system of symbols that allows communication. B) approach that views language as a behavior that people learn. C) ability to understand spoken language. D) production of grammatical speech. 277) ________ is the theory that sees language as a skilled behavior that children learn through operant conditioning, imitation, and modeling. A) Symbolic thought B) Language Acquisition Device C) Nativist theory D) Learning theory 278) The ________ theory emphasizes the role of the environment on language. A) language acquisition device B) symbolic thought C) learning D) nativist 279) When a parent tends to reinforce the sounds that a child makes that resemble real words and ignore those that do not, this exemplifies the principle of A) object permanence. B) language. C) habituation. D) shaping. 280) When a child says something that they have never heard before, such as "I goed to the store," this is an example of A) the nativist theory. B) productivity. C) shaping. D) language comprehension. 281) The theory that sees language as an innate human capability that is triggered by language input is called A) the nativist theory. B) the language acquisition device. C) symbolic thought. D) the learning theory.
282) Which of the following does the language acquisition device (LAD) NOT contain? A) the ability to preprogram a child to learn a specific language. B) general operating principles C) assumptions and biases that cause children to treat the language environment in special ways D) an innate knowledge of universal grammar 283) Which of the following areas of the brain enables human beings to understand spoken words and produce coherent written and spoken language? A) arcuate fasciculus B) Wernicke's area C) Broca's area D) the right hemisphere 284) Which of the following areas of the brain directs the patterns of muscle movements necessary for producing speech? A) arcuate fasciculus B) Wernicke's area C) the right hemisphere D) Broca's area 285) The arcuate fasciculus A) processes written language. B) is a band of fibers that connects Wernicke's area to Broca's area. C) allows us to understand spoken words and produce coherent written and spoken language. D) directs the patterns of muscle movements necessary for producing speech. 286) Which of the following structures allows the processing of written language? A) arcuate fasciculus B) Broca's area C) Wernicke's area D) angular gyrus 287) ________ is one of Piaget's theories that sees language as one of several abilities that depend on overall cognitive development. A) Cognitive developmental theory B) Language acquisition device C) Sensorimotor thought D) Nativist theory 288) Which of the following is the best example of a recast? A) A child who is at a pet store says to his mom, "I saw a bunch of mouses." His mother replies, "You saw a bunch of mice? What were they doing?" B) A child who is looking at a cow exclaims, "Look, Mom, a doggie!" His mother replies, "No, honey, that's a cow. Dogs are smaller, and cows give us milk." C) A mother asks her child, "Does my baby-waby want to go sleepyweepy?" D) A child tries to repeat his mother's requests for him to say Mommy, by saying "Mmaa."
289) Echolalia is A) the production of vowel-like sounds. B) the immediate imitation of others' sounds or words. C) repeated consonant-vowel syllables. D) the passive, natural sounds that lack intentional meaning. 290) An infant's first sounds are reflexive, nonintentional sounds, such as crying and sneezing, are called A) echolalia. B) cooing. C) true babbling. D) vegetative sounds. 291) The production of vowel-like sounds that are present by 2 months are called A) vegetative sounds. B) echolalia. C) true babbling. D) cooing. 292) True babbling begins at approximately A) 8 months. B) 4 months. C) 6 months. D) 2 months. 293) ________ is where children acquire at least a partial understanding of a word after only a single exposure. A) Variegated babbling B) Overextensions C) Fast mapping D) Protowords 294) ________ refers to consistent patterns of sounds that refer to specific people objects, or events. A) Variegated babbling B) True babbling C) Vegetative sounds D) Protowords 295) Zoe calls her pacifier a "bee-bee." This is an example of A) variegated babbling. B) vegetative sounds. C) true babbling. D) protowords. 296) When a child expands a word's meaning to include more objects than it should, this is called A) fast mapping. B) underextensions. C) overextensions. D) protowords. 297) ________ is when a child uses a word too narrowly. A) A protoword B) Fast mapping C) An overextension D) An underextension 298) Single words used to express an entire idea or sentence are called A) universal grammar. B) telegraphic speech. C) adaptation. D) holophrases. 299) Telegraphic speech is speech that uses A) only words that are essential to get the meaning across. B) narrow meanings of words. C) gestures, babbling, and protowords. D) single words used to express an entire idea or sentence.
300) Between eighteen months and two years of age, toddlers start to A) use protowords. B) produce two and three word sentences. C) use holophrases. D) experiment with variegated babbling.
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