Section_______ NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 1 OF 10
BIOLOGY 200 EXAM 3 Version A
Make sure you have 10 pages. PRINT your name & lab info on EACH page. Points will be deducted this time if you don't do this. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------1. You are studying a species of snail whose coiling pattern is maternally derived. In this species, the right hand coiling pattern (D) is dominant to the left hand coiling pattern (d). In your laboratory, there is a tank that contains snails that are hemizygous for the coiling trait (hemizygous is the condition of having only one set of alleles instead of two, and is noted with an minus sign -). One day, you are watching a (D/-) snail embryo, whose mother was D/D, divide under a microscope and you notice that nondisjunction occurs in the first mitotic cleavage division. Specifically, this non-disjunction results in a daughter cell that contains both chromosomes with the dominant D allele. What do you predict this developing embryo will look like after several rounds of cell division? A. B. C. D. E. All cells in the embryo will make a left-handed coiling pattern All cells in the embryo will make a right-handed coiling pattern 50% of the cells will make a left-handed coiling pattern 50% of the cells will make a right-handed coiling pattern None of the cells will make a coiling pattern, resulting in a disorganized cell mass
2. During fertilization, the calcium wave: A. Starts at the point of sperm entry B. Starts along the entire circumference of the egg and moves to the middle C. Starts in the center of the egg and moves towards the circumference D. Occurs before sperm entry E. Occurs only if the egg has cortical granules 3. In humans, an human oocyte is defined as a mature egg: A. During the release of the prophase I block B. After fertilization has occurred C. When an oocyte completes meiosis I D. When the cell enters into metaphase II E. None of the above 4. Price et al. work on sperm competition in Drosophila melanogaster showed that when a female mates with 2 males: A. The proportion of offspring fathered by each male is close to 50% B. The sperm from the second male displaces all of the sperm from the first male C. The sperm from the first male fertilizes the majority of the eggs D. Females produce more offspring when there is one male rather than two males E. None of the above
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 2 OF 10 5. Which of the following statements about the hormones involved in the human menstrual cycle is FALSE? A. Luteinizing hormone is secreted from the pituitary gland and increases just prior to ovulation B. Progesterone, secreted from the follicle cells, helps create a uterine environment that could support a developing embryo C. Low levels of estradiol have a negative effect on the secretion of luteinizing hormone, whereas high levels of estradiol promote the secretion of luteinizing hormone D. Follicle stimulating hormone promotes follicle growth E. Pulses of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone occur in response to the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus Production of offspring from unfertilized egg include Asexual Reproduction is a type of Budding is defined as Offspring forms within or on a parent and breaks free is defined as is a type of
Modes of Reproduction include Sexual Reproduction
E
A
Parthenogenesis can reproduce via
reproduce is a type of B via reproduce via Daphnia Hemaphrodism is defined as
D
reproduce via Hydra
Turkeys
C
Individual with male and female gonads
6. In the concept map above, which terms are incorrectly linked? A. B. C. D. E. 7. Which of the following the correctly describes the fertilization sequence? A. A sea urchin sperm contacts the egg jelly layer, binds the vitelline envelope, undergoes the acrosome reaction, and fuses with the egg membrane B. A mouse sperm binds the zona pellucida, undergoes an acrosome reaction, and fuses with the egg membrane C. A hamster sperm binds the vitelline envelope, undergoes an acrosome reaction, and fuses with the egg membrane D. A sea urchin sperm contacts the jelly layer, undergoes an acrosome reaction, binds the zona pellucida, and fuses with the egg membrane
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 3 OF 10
A B D
8. The image above is a cross-section of a mammalian seminiferous tubule. Which of the following cells is a primary spermatocyte? A. B. C. D. E. none of the labeled cells is a primary spermatocyte 9. You decide to fertilize a sea urchin egg. The sperm nuclei enters into the egg but you do not see the embryo undergoing mitosis. Which of the following is a possible explanation for this phenotype? A. The sperm centrioles did not replicate B. The sperm did not undergo an acrosome reaction C. The egg released its metaphase II block upon fertilization D. All of the above explain this phenotype E. None of the above explain this phenotype 10. Which sequence of the cell cycle is common to most Eukaryotes? A. G1 to G2 to S to M to cytokinesis B. G1 to M to G2 to S to cytokinesis C. G1 to S to M to G2 to cytokinesis D. G1 to S to G2 to M to cytokinesis E. none of the above 11. The class of enzymes that are involved in triggering the cell cycle are: A. Proteases B. Transferases C. Kinases D. Nucleases E. All of the above are involved
C
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 4 OF 10 12. Neurulation in vertebrates involves (choose best answer) A. bending of the neural plate B. fusion of the neural folds C. mediolateral convergence of the neural plate D. apical constriction of neuroepithelial cells E. all of the above 13. Which of the following statements about cyclin is true? A. At the G1 checkpoint in the cell cycle, growth factors such as PDGF cause a decrease in cyclin levels B. In some human cancers, cyclin is overproduced at the G1 checkpoint C. Cyclin is only present in cells when they reach the G1 checkpoint D. Cyclin directly catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to the target of a cell cycle protein E. All of the above are true 14. The allantois is an extraembryonic tissue that: A. stores urinary wastes and mediates gas exchange in amphibians B. is a vestigial organ in all vertbrates C. is involved in the pathway of germ cell migration in mice D. is an invagination (pushed in portion) of the hindgut E. only mediates gas exchange in reptiles and birds Which of the following experimental results would refute the germ plasm theory? A. If one blastomere of a two cell embryo is damaged with a hot needle, organogenesis will only result in a half-embryo B. If blastomeres are separated from a 4-cell sea urchin embryo, they form deformed larvae C. If newt blastomeres are completely separated at the 2 cell stage with baby's hair, only the nucleated half of the egg undergoes cleavage D. When a nuclei is removed from a frog embryo undergoing organogenesis and transplanted into an unfertilized egg without a nucleus, it leads to the formation of a tadpole E. All of the above refute the germ plasm theory Which of the following statements about oogenesis in humans is true? A. Primary oocytes stay arrested in prophase I until sexual maturity B. At telophase of meiosis I the first polar body is produced C. At the time of ovulation secondary oocytes are arrested in metaphase II D. A second polar body is produced at the end of meiosis II E. All of the above are true
15.
16.
17. Spina bifida is caused by a failure A. to close the anterior neuropore B. to close the posterior neuropore C. to close the lateral neuropores D. to form a spinal cord E. all of the above
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 5 OF 10 18. The yellow/orange cytoplasm in sea squirt embryos contains A. the female pronucleus B. determinants that induce neural tissue C. determinants that induce muscle cell fates D. determinants that induce endodermal cell fates E. none of the above 19. Cortical rotation in fertilized frog eggs A. occurs in a meridional plane through the animal-vegetal axis which is determined by the sperm entry point B. results in gray crescent formation C. causes dorsalizing determinants to be translocated from the animal pole to the equatorial region of the egg D. all of the above E. only A and B are true 20. Fertilization in humans usually occurs A. within the uterus B. within the oviduct C. within the endometrium D. after the second meiotic division is completed E. before the first meiotic division is completed 21. MPF is A. Cyclin + CSF B. Cyclin + FGF C. Cyclin Cdk + D. Cdk + CSF E. Cdk + histone 22. Convergence and extension in the notochord rudiment is driven by A. cell intercalation B. apical constriction C. cell spreading D. cell division E. all of the above 23. The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in the A. formation of a fertilization membrane B. production of a fast block to polyspermy C. release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell D. generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell E. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 6 OF 10 24. Maintenance of Mullerian Ducts in a human male fetus in response to a teratogen would result in A. a normal female fetus B. a normal male fetus C. a hermaphrodite fetus D. no effect E. increased number of urethras 25. In the early development of an amphibian embryo, an important "organizer" is the A. neural tube B. notochord C. archenteron roof D. dorsal lip of the blastopore E. dorsal ectoderm 26. If a sperm had the wrong molecule for binding to receptor molecules on vitelline membranes, then it could not A. fertilize the egg B. be motile C. have an acrosome D. release enzymes that dissolve the jelly coat E. all of the above 27. Which of the following is localized in the vegetal cortex of the amphibian oocytes? A. Vg1 RNA B. microtubules C. microtubule RNA D. microfilament RNA E. nuclei 28. After a sperm penetrates an egg, a fertilization membrane forms. This membrane A. secretes important hormones B. enables the fertilized egg to implant in the wall of the uterus C. prevents more than one sperm from entering the egg D. attracts additional sperm to the egg E. activates the egg for embryonic development 29. Mutation in the Retinoblastoma gene would result in A. increased probability of disrupting the metaphase-anaphase checkpoint B. increased probability of disrupting the G1 to S checkpoint C. increased probability of disrupting the G2 to M checkpoint D. increased probability of mitotic non-dysjunction E. inability to activate the transcription of S phase proteins
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 7 OF 10 30. Incomplete cleavage of the animal pole cytoplasm in an early chick embryo is known as ____________ cleavage. A. holoblastic B. meroblastic C. semiblastic D. hemiblastic E. aveoblastic 31. Which of the following traces the path of the sperm out of the body of a human male? A. epididymis, seminiferous tubule, vas deferens, urethra B. epididymis, seminiferous tubule, urethra, vas deferens C. seminiferous tubule, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra D. seminiferous tubule, epididymis, urethra, vas deferens E. seminiferous tubule, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra 32. Which of the following tissues is NOT made from the inner cell mass? A. chorion B. yolk sac C. amnion D. allantosis E. endoderm 33. What happens during the acrosome reaction? A. Bindin binds to the egg-cell receptor for sperm B. the sperm- and egg-cell membranes fuse C. enzymes that digest the egg jelly layer are released, and microfilaments in the tip of the sperm head polymermize to form a point D. the centriole released from the sperm orients microtubules in the fertilized egg and causes the cortical cytoplasm to rotate 30o E. none of the above 34. What is a cadherin? A. a glycoprotein found in the zona pellucida of mammal eggs B. a molecule secreted by the organizer that induces changes in target cells C. a cell-adhesion protein found on the surface of animal cells D. a cytoplasmic determinant found in the cortical cytoplasm of frog eggs E. none of the above 35. What are the two most important structures involved in moving chromosomes during mitosis? A. centrosomes and chromosomes B. kinetochores and chromosomes C. kinetochores and mitotic spindle fibers D. centrosomes and mitotic spindle fibers E. none of the above
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 8 OF 10
36. Progression through the cell cycle is regulated by oscillations in the concentration of which type of molecule? A. centrosomes B. microtubules C. cyclin-dependent kinases D. cyclins E. Cdk's 37. What happens during gastrulation? A. the neural tube - precursors to the spinal cord and brain - forms. B. basal and apical cells form, which are the precursors to the suspensor and embryo, respectively C. the fertilized egg divides without growth occuring, forming a ball of cells D. massive movements of cell make the primary body axes visible and organize the three embryonic tissues E. The embryo develops an animal-vegetal axis for the first time 38. What is the concept induction in embryology? A. the belief that electrical currents induce magnetic fields in the spinal cord B. the theory that early embryonic development is controlled by the zygote's genes C. the theory that early embryonic development is controlled by maternal genes D. the process by which the mature organism is produced gradually from an essentially formless embryo E. the theory that cell fate can be influenced by signals from neighboring cells 39. . Recall that the maternal effect gene D stand for "dextral" in snails. The dominant phenotype is righthanded coiling the snail's shell. In a cross between a Dd female and a Dd male (Dd x Dd), what fraction of the offspring will show left-handed coiling? A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0% E. cannot predict with a maternal effect gene 40. Which statement about the daughter cells of mitosis is correct? A. They differ genetically from one another and the parent cell. B. They are genetically identical to one another and to the parent cell. C. They are genetically identical to one another but different from the parent cell. D. One of the two daughter cells is genetically identical to the parent cell. 41. How do cancer cells differ from normal cells? A. uncontrolled division and invasiveness. B. uncontrolled division only - many normal cell types are invasive C. invasive only - many normal cell types grow in an uncontrolled fashion D. interphase and M phase E. cancer cells do not have a S phase.
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 9 OF 10 42. What happens during the cleavage stage of embryological development? A. the neural tube - precursor to the spinal cord and brain - forms. B. basal and apical cells form, which are the precursors to the suspensor and embryo, respectively. C. the fertilized egg divides without growth occurring, forming a ball of cells. D. massive movements of cells make the primary body axes visible and organize the three embryonic germ layers. 43. What is differential gene expression? A. the process by which different cell types express different combinations of genes from the common set found in nearly all cells. B. the fact that different cell types contain different sets of genes in their DNA C. the asymmetric segregation of nuclear determinants during early embryonic cleavage D. the loss of chromosomes during development 44. Many flowering plants have elaborate mechanisms to prevent pollen from the same individual from germinating on its own female reproductive parts. Why? A. to prevent self-pollination and inbreeding B. to prevent polyspermy C. to prevent cross-species fertilization and the production of dysfunctional hybrid offspring D. to prevent double fertilization and the formation of endosperm 45. Sexual reproduction involves the formation of A. diploid gametes B. haploid gametes C. both A and B D. neither A or B E. triploid gametes 46. What term describes the mode of asexual reproduction in which offspring develop from unfertilized eggs? A. parthenogenesis B. budding C. regeneration D. fission E. abnormal 47. In terms of hormone production, how do the follicle and corpus luteum compare? A. both primarily produce estradiol B. both primarily produce progesterone C. the follicle produces more estradiol than progesterone; the corpus luteum produces more progesterone than estradiol D. the follicle produces mostly progesterone; the corpus luteum produces estradiol and progesterone E. none of the above
NAME___________________________TA_____________Lab Section_______ Biology 200 EXAM 2 Page 10 OF 10
48. What pituitary hormones are involved in regulating the human menstrual cycle? A. GnRH and LH B. estradiol and progesterone C. oxytocin and LH D. FSH and LH E. oxytocin and progesterone 49. The corpus luteum is retained upon embryo implantation due to the presence of which hormone? A. LH B. estradiol C. progesterone D. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) E. ovarian retention hormone 50. OLO in Biology 200 stands for A. online loss of objectivity B. online learning outlet C. online learning opportunity D. online lost opportunities E. none of the above