Which 1. topic is NOT a research area that environmental scientists would study? A. Human values B. Space travel C. Exotic plant species D. Whales 3. Which of the following statements about environmental science is false? A. It is a relatively new field of study. B. It involves the study of the natural environment, not the technological environment. C. It incorporates information from many disciplines, including political science. D. It implies individual responsibility for dealing with environmental problems. 5. Which of the following is the best definition of environment? A. The conditions and circumstances surrounding an organism or group of organisms B. The natural world C. Ecosystems unaffected by man D. The earths biological, chemical, and physical makeup 7. Which of the following is NOT an example of a currently accepted scientific paradigm? A. Tectonic plate movement B. Quantum mechanics C. Noahs flood D. Darwins theory of evolution 9. What is a hypothesis? A. An explanation that CANNOT be tested by a majority of experts in a given field B. An explanation that the majority of the experts already agree is correct C. An explanation that is supported by a vast amount of data and experience D. A conditional explanation that can be tested by further observations or experiments 11. Which of the following best describes the logical steps followed in the scientific method? A. Collect data, formulate and test hypothesis, interpret data B. Identify question, formulate and test hypothesis, collect and interpret data C. Formulate and test hypothesis, identify question, collect and interpret data D. Identify question, collect and interpret data, formulate hypothesis
13. Which idea tries to measure how likely something is going to happen? A. Probability B. Risk C. Chance D. All of the above 15. If you flip a coin 3 times, what is the probability that you will get 3 heads in a row? A. 1/3 B. 3/8 C. 1/8 D. 1/2 17. John Muir, the first president of the Sierra Club, believed in the fundamental right of other organisms to exist and pursue their own interests regardless of their use to humans. This value system is best known as: A. environmentalism B. biocentric preservation C. ecological responsibility D. utilitarian conservation 19. The environmental movement began in the United States in the A. early 1900 B. 1860s C. early 2000 D. 1960s 21. ___________ thinking involves breaking a problem down into its constituent parts. A. Analytical B. Creative C. Subjective D. Interpretive 23. ___________ thinking is sometimes referred to as thinking about thinking. It involves examining theories, facts, and options in a systematic, purposeful, and responsible manner. A. Creative B. Analytical C. Critical D. Subjective 25. If you say that a particular activity is immoral, you are making a(n) _______ statement. A. Value B. Impersonal C. Objective D. Factual
27. In the last 100 years, __________% of the worlds wetlands have been lost. A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 90 29. In the last 50 years, soil degradation has affected about __________ of the worlds agricultural lands. A. none B. one-third C. two-thirds D. all 31. From 1970-2000, most of the worlds populations living in poverty were NOT found in A. North America B. Latin America C. Asia D. Africa 33. Which of the following is a renewable resource? A. biomass B. oil C. natural gas D. coal 35. Which of the following activities does NOT directly result in the release of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases? A. Burning fossil fuels B. Making cement C. Clearing forests D. Wind power 37. The World Bank estimates that about _________ people live in acute poverty, with an income of less than $1 (U.S.) per day. A. 250 million B. 500 million C. 1.4 billion D. 2.1 billion 39. Satellite images revealed a 3-km (2-mile)-thick toxic haze of ash, acids, aerosols, dust and photochemical products covering the entire Indian subcontinent. This could be viewed as evidence of A. worsening air quality B. land-use changes C. climate change D. introduction of exotic species 41. It takes about _________ pounds of raw
materials to get an average American through the day. A. 100 B. 500 C. 1000 D. 1500 43. In the worlds richest countries, life expectancy is about 77.8 years. In the worlds poorest countries, its about _________ years. A. 37.3 B. 49.3 C. 57.5 D. 67.5 45. Indigenous or native peoples account for __________% of the worlds population. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 47. More than __________ humans lack access to clean water and twice that many dont have adequate sanitation. A. 100,000 B. 1 million C. 1.2 billion D. 3 billion 49. Environmental science integrates the following disciplines: natural, __________ and technological worlds. A. Cultural B. Spiritual C. Domestic D. Educational 51. Conservation history and environmental activism can be divided into 4 distinct stages. Which of the following is NOT one of the four stages? A. Pragmatic resource conservation B. Moral and aesthetic nature preservation C. Widespread corruption D. A growing concern about health and ecological damage caused by pollution.
ESRM100. Questions. Autumn 2006: Chapter 2 1. In 2002 a train car filled with ammonia (NH3) common nitrogen fertilizer applied in farms overturned. Residents ___________________.
A. had to be evacuated for health reasons because ammonia is a strong basic compound and caustic to living tissues. B. had free fertilizer to use on their lawns. C. did not need to worry about their health because ammonia is not caustic to living tissues. D. did not need to worry about ammonia spills because it evaporates in a matter of seconds. 2. Rust forming on a car body is an example of the ____________. A. oxidation of iron. B. reduction of iron. C. combustion of iron. D. balancing a chemical equation. 3. A value of 7 on the pH scale indicates a __________ solution. A. Neutral B. Acidic C. Basic D. Compound 4. The basic unit of an organic compound is _____________. A. a glucose molecule. B. hydrogen atoms. C. carbon atoms. D. nitrogen atoms. 5. Elements that have economic importance are also important elements in ______________. A. living things. B. the atmosphere. C. the earth and rocks. D. the human body. 6. Heat is infrared radiation from the sun and is characterized by having __________. A. low energy and short wavelengths. B. low energy and long wavelengths. C. high energy and short wavelengths. D. high energy and long wavelengths. 7. Most energy in ecosystems originates as sunlight. Photosynthesis is the conversion of energy from the sun into chemical energy by ___________. A. microorganisms. B. predators. C. animals. D. green plants.
8. The membranous organelle where photosynthesis happens is called a __________. A. mitochondria. B. chloroplast. C. nucleus. D. cell wall. 9. __________is the byproduct of photosynthesis and becomes part of a diversity of organic molecules. A. Protein B. Glucose C. Oxygen D. Water 10. Humans do not photosynthesize, so we get our chemical energy from ___________. A. sunlight B. eating plants or animals that eat plants C. water and mineral nutrients D. carbon dioxide 11. Even though nitrogen makes up 78% of the air around us, __________ CANNOT directly use this nitrogen for growth. A. blue green algae B. plants C. bacteria D. legumes with nitrogen fixing bacteria 12. Organisms that are genetically similar enough to breed and to produce live, fertile offspring are called ________________. A. omnivores B. species C. biological community D. producers 13. A(n) __________ includes the biological community and its immediate physical environment (e.g., water, mineral resources, air, sunlight). A. ecosystem B. population C. food web D. closed system 14. Organisms that photosynthesize are referred to as ____________. A. synthesizers B. tertiary consumers C. primary producers D. secondary producers 15. Individual food chains interconnect to form a _________ which reflects the feeding relationships in an ecosystem.
A. B. C. D.
biological community population trophic level food web
16. An example of carbon recycling is ______________. A. Coal and oil being burned B. Respiration and decomposition C. Breathing out CO2 D. All of the above 17. Plants in the __________ family have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the tissues of their roots. A. Corn B. Legume (pea) C. Peat D. Oak 18. During the Phosphorus Cycle, phosphorus is made available to organisms after it is released from ________. A. the atmosphere B. rocks and minerals C. oceans and rivers D. live old growth trees 19. One natural source of inorganic sulfur inputs into the air and water is ___________. A. phytoplankton B. plant uptake C. volcanic eruptions D. synthetic fertilizers 20. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy ___________________. A. is conserved since it is not created or destroyed under normal circumstances when doing work. B. the total amount of energy increases with work. C. is less available and has a lower energy quality each time energy is used to do work. D. can be recycled continuously whle doing work so there is no need for external sources of high quality energy. 21. Energy captured by green plants during photosynthesis supports nearly all life on earth. Photosynthesis converts _________ energy into ________ energy that holds organic molecules together. A. oxygen; gamma rays B. X rays; chemical C. radio wavelengths; chemical D. radiant; chemical
22. Liquid water covers nearly ________ of the earth's surface. A. one-fourth B. one-half C. three-fourths D. seven-eights 23. Primary production (photosynthesis) is a process by which plants take carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and produce complex carbohydrates. Knowing this process does NOT help us to understand _________. A. global carbon cycles. B. why animals eat plants. C. global nitrogen cycles. D. how carbon is stored by plants in the tropics. ESRM100 Questions. Autumn 2006: Chapter 3. 1. The principle of _______ describes how each environment has lower and upper thresholds beyond which a particular species cannot survive or reproduce. A species abundance B. natural selection C. tolerance limits D. selective pressure 2. _____________ is a term used to describe an individual organism that is able to adapt to a changing environment using a limited range of physiological adaptation which is not passed onto their offspring. A. Evolution B. Acclimation C. Mutation D. Speciation 3. Cheetahs are the fastest-running mammals in the world. This evolutionary adaptation has not been achieved by the other big cats living in the same territory. This process of separating species into new types is called __________. A. divergent evolution B. ecological niche C. acclimation D. tolerance limits 4. The _______ is a description of either the role played by a species or the total set of environmental factors that determine species distribution. A. Biotic potential B. Commensal function C. Ecological niche D. Synergistic function
5. The _______ states that no two species will occupy the same niche and compete for exactly the same resources in the same habitat for very long (example: several species of wood warblers use different strata of the same forest). A. Principle of Limiting Factors B. Law of Competitive Exclusion C. Theory of Divergent Evolution D. Law of Competitive Advantage 6. The giant panda is an example of a(n) _______ that has adapted to feed exclusively on bamboo and many starve when huge acreages of bamboo flower and die. A. opportunist B. commensalist C. generalist D. specialist 7. Weeds such as dandelions, which reproduce quickly and easily spread their seeds long distances, can be described as _______. A. epiphytes B. opportunists C. consumers D. parasites 8. Which of the following is not a predator? A. Herbivores B. Carnivores C. Omnivores D. Detritovores 9. Competition among members of the same species is called _______ competition. A. mutualistic B. intraspecific C. antagonistic D. interspecific 10. Young grizzly bears are forced to leave their parents' territory as soon as they are independent. This is an example of how organisms cope with _______ competition. A. Mutualistic B. Intraspecific C. Antagonistic D. Interspecific 11. Which of the following is NOT an example of a keystone species? A. wolfs B. tropical figs C. mycorrhizal associations D. poison arrow frogs 12. Some species demonstrate a cyclic overshoot followed by dieback as the carrying capacity of the environment is passed when the population size increases. Which of the following is a GOOD
example of this pattern of boom and bust population cycle? A. algae growing in a lake B. migratory locust in the desert C. tropical trees D. symbiotic partnerships 13. _______ is a symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and the other is harmed. A. Parasitism B. Commensalism C. Endemism D. Antagonism E. Mutualism 14. _______ mimicry involves two dangerous or unpalatable species that have evolved to look alike so predators avoid both species. A. Mullerian B. Batesian C. Darwinian D. Straussian 15. Which of the following would describe the exponential growth of a population? A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B. 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, 1 C. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 D. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 16. The graph of a positive exponential growth curve resembles _______. A. the letter S B. the letter C C. the letter J D. the letter U 17. When a population overshoots or surpasses the carrying capacity of its environment, which of the following is NOT likely to happen? A. Death rates will begin to surpass birth rates. B. The population growth curve will become negative. C. A population crash may occur. D. Birth rates will begin to surpass death rates. 18. In _______ growth, species are more in equilibrium with the availability of environmental resources so that population sizes are more stable. A. exponential B. logistic C. irruptive D. cyclic 19. Some growth-limiting factors, such as disease and stress, increase mortality rates as populations increase. These factors are called _______. A. intrinsic
B. extrinsic C. density-dependent D. density-independent 20. Some organisms such as dandelions persist in a given environment by depending on a high rate of reproduction and growth. These organisms tend to have exponential growth rates and are described as _______. A. H-adapted B. K-adapted C. g-adapted D. r-adapted 21. A community's _______ is the rate of biomass accumulation, or the conversion of solar energy into chemical energy stored in living (or once-living) organisms. A. recycling potential B. primary productivity C. biotic transformation rate D. successional rate 22. _______ is the number of different species in an area. It is a useful measure of the variety of ecological niches or genetic variation in a community. A. Complexity B. Density C. Abundance D. Diversity 23. _______ refers to the number of species at each trophic level and the number of trophic levels in a community. A. Resilience B. Complexity C. Profusion D. Abundance 24. _______ refers to patterns of spatial distribution of individuals and populations within a community, as well as the relation of a particular community to its surroundings. A. Community complexity B. Successional stage C. Ecological structure D. Ecological stability 25. The boundaries between adjacent communities are called _______. A. ecotones B. ecosystem divisions C. niche overlap zones D. ecological partitions 26. _______ is the process by which organisms occupy a site and gradually change environmental conditions by creating soil, shade, shelter, or increasing humidity.
A. Ecotone development B. Resource partitioning C. Ecological succession D. Competitive exclusion 27. _______ occurs when an existing community is disrupted by a natural catastrophe or human activity and a new one subsequently develops at the site. A. Primary succession B. Secondary succession C. Niche overlap D. Habitat fragmentation ESRM100 Questions. Autumn 2006: Chapter 4 1. Family planning and birth control are essential for stabilizing populations. A. True B. False 3. Human populations began to grow rapidly after _______, partly due to increased communication among nations, agricultural developments, and better health care and hygiene. A. 5000 B.C. B. A.D. 1000 C. A.D. 1600 D. A.D. 1850 5. The human population is now in a(n) _______ pattern of growth. A. logistic B. exponential C. oscillatory D. cyclic 7. At current growth rates, world population will double in about ____ years. A. 20 B. 51 C. 70 D. 90 9. According to the writings of _______, human populations inevitably outstrip their food supply and eventually collapse into starvation, crime, and misery. A. Karl Marx B. Justus von Liebig C. Thomas Malthus D. Victor Shelfor 11. Which of the following is a neo-Malthusian belief? A. Population problems can be solved by making birth control a top priority.
B. Population problems can only be solved through technological development and social justice. C. Population problems are caused primarily by the unfair distribution of and wealth resources. D. Population growth, poverty, and environmental degradation are all interrelated; no factor exclusively causes any other. 13. _______ encompasses vital statistics about people, such as births, deaths, where they live, and total population size. A. Taxonomy B. Demography C. Genealogy D. Entomology 15. _______, Germany and Hungary have negative population growth rates. A. China B. Nigeria C. Japan D. Ethiopia 17. _______ is the physical ability to reproduce, while _______ describes the actual production of offspring. A. Fertility; fecundity B. Fecundity; fertility C. Fertility; pregnancy D. Pregnancy; fertility 19. The _______ is the number of children born to an average woman in a population during her entire reproductive life. A. dependency ratio B. birth ratio C. total birth rate D. total fertility rate 21. _______ occurs when births plus immigration in a population just equal deaths plus emigration. A. Zero population growth B. Negative population growth C. Demographic transition D. Demographic reversal 23. The world as a whole has an average fertility rate of _______ children per woman. A. 1.2 B. 2.7 C. 4.3 D. 5.1 25. The world's life expectancy rates (average age at death) for humans have increased from an average of 40 years to 65 years over the past
century. Which of the following is NOT one of the key factors contributing to longer life expectancies? A. Better nutrition B. Education C. Improved sanitation D. Miracle drugs 27. A population growing rapidly by natural increase has a high proportion of people who are _______ then a stationary population. A. male B. old C. women D. young 29. Social and economic factors that increase people's desires to have children are called _______ pressures. A. demographic B. pronatalist C. Malthusian D. Marxian 31. Education and socioeconomic status are usually inversely related to fertility in developed nations. A. True B. False 33. Falling death rates and birth rates due to improved living conditions usually accompany economic development. This pattern is called _______ from high birth and death rates to lower birth and death rates. A. population overshoot B. irruptive growth C. demographic transition D. economic transition 35. The economist Lester Brown of the Worldwatch Institute has a pessimistic view of the impact of world population growth. He stated that populations are growing so rapidly in some countries that human demands exceed the sustainable yield of local forests, grasslands, croplands, and water resources. These countries are said to be caught in a _______ trap. A. demographic B. growth C. dependency D. prosperity 37. Russia is experiencing declining populations today for several different reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons? A. Poor nutrition and health care. B. Horrific pollution levels left over from the Soviet era. C. They are becoming a major oil supplier. D. Crime and corruption have demoralized the population.
39. Often, the best way to improve child survival is to ensure the rights of women. A. True B. False 41. Studies indicate that our early ancestors had stable populations mainly because they _______. A. killed each other B. often starved to death C. controlled fertility D. possessed little medical knowledge 43. Current world population growth rate is about ________ percent per year. A. 0.50 B. 1.14 C. 3.20 D. 4.15 45. Several reasons have been presented by those holding optimistic views that human population can be stabilized. Which of the following is one of their reasons? A. Growing prosperity and social reform increases the need for a large family. B. Technological developments are being utilized by a larger proportion of the global population. C. Transmittal of diseases to countries with resources to pursue cures improves health globally. D. Modern communication is lowering expectations among people on how technology can improve their lives. ESRM100 Questions. Autumn 2006: Chapter 5 1. Broad types of biological communities with similar climatic conditions, growth patterns, and vegetation types are called __________. A. ecosystems B. ecotones C. habitats D. biomes 2. Which biome occurs mostly in cold regions near the poles? A. Tundra B. Montane forest C. Thorn scrub D. Coniferous forest 3. The largest desert in the world is located in________. A. Northern Africa B. Russia C. The southwestern U.S. D. the Arctic
4. Most desert animals (e.g., pocket mice, kangaroo rats, gerbils) acquire water from the seeds and plants they eat. A. True B. False 5. Which of the following is NOT an adaptation typical of desert plants? A. salt tolerance B. water-storage in leaves and stems C. thin epidermal layers on leaves to reduce water loss D. dropping or loss of leaves during the dry season 6. Historically, the greatest threat to _________ was its conversion to farmlands because these soils were ideal for growing agricultural crops. A. tundra B. grasslands C. deserts D. boreal forests 7. _______ ecosystems are treeless and have long, harsh winters. A. Grassland B. Tundra C. Taiga D. Boreal 8. The greatest threats to the sustainability of tundra ecosystems are ________ and air pollution. A. climate change B. agriculture C. urban expansion D. clear-cutting of trees 9. Temperate rainforests (i.e., cool, rainy forests often enshrouded in fog) are found close to the equator. A. True B. False 10. _______ ecosystems characterized by hot, dry summers and cool, moist winters are often dominated by evergreen shrubs with small leathery and waxy leaves. A. Tundra B. Mediterranean C. Taiga D. Montane forest 11. _______ is a term used to describe dry, sparsely vegetated African landscapes dominated by acacia and other spiney plants. A. Chaparral B. Taiga C. Thorn scrub D. Tienda
12. _______ occur where rainfall is abundant and temperatures are warm to hot year-round. A. Cloud forests B. Tropical rainforests C. Temperate rainforests D. Boreal forests 13. Runoff from adjacent land usually makes coastal areas much more nutrient-rich than the open ocean. A. True B. False 14. In Siberia, Canada, and the western US, _________ forests are an important part of the regional economies. A. deciduous B. conifer C. semi-deciduous D. broad-leaved 15. Nearly two-thirds of all marine fish and shellfish rely on _______ and saline wetlands for spawning and juvenile development. A. barrier islands B. estuaries C. littoral zones D. fens 16. _______ diversity is a measure of the variety of different versions of the same genes within individual species, while _______ diversity means the richness and complexity of a biological community. A. Genetic; species B. Genetic; ecological C. Species; ecological D. Species; genetic 17. About 70 percent of all known species in the world are _______. A. invertebrates B. amphibians C. birds D. bacteria 18. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. Biodiversity is culturally and aesthetically important, but it does not benefit humans economically. B. Many drugs and medicines have been discovered in nature, and more than half of all prescriptions contain some natural products. C. The total value of the world's ecological services (such as air and water purification) has been estimated to be worth at least $33 trillion per year.
D. Observing and protecting nature has religious or moral significance for many people. 19. Which of the following does NOT correctly describe tropical rainforests? A. Soils are old, thin, acidic and nutrient poor. B. One-half to two-thirds of all species of terrestrial plants and insects live here. C. When the forest is removed for agriculture, the soil does not support continued growth of crops. D. Most of the nutrients are found in the soil. 20. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. In undisturbed ecosystems, the rate of extinction is about one species lost every decade. B. If current trends continue, human activity may cause millions of species to go extinct in the next few decades. C. Current theories suggest that past mass extinctions were caused by climate change. D. Past mass extinctions, like the disappeance of the dinosaurs, was caused by human activities. 21. We spend billions of dollars each year building protective walls and barriers, and pumping sand onto beaches from off-shore areas to stabilize ___________ so we can keep houses on them. A. mangroves B. tropical forests C. barrier islands D. edges of lakes 22. _______ is the reduction of habitat into smaller and more scattered patches. A. Parceling B. Apportionment C. Fragmentation D. Subdivision 23. Currently, ________ percent of all commercial oceanic fish species are overharvested. A. one quarter B. one fourth C. half D. three quarters 24. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. Exotic species threaten biodiversity because they can turn into superaggressive "weedy" invaders.
B. Some animal populations have been greatly reduced or deliberately exterminated because they compete with our use of resources. C. Exotic species introduced to new locations do not modify native biodiversities. D. The American chestnut, once the major tree species of the east coast, was nearly wiped out by a fungal blight that was accidentally brought in from China. 25. When comparing between taxonomic groups, __________ have significantly fewer species than what is found with _________. A. fungi; mammals B. fish and sharks; mammals C. insects; mammals D. mammals; insects
3. Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Boreal forests are found mostly at high latitudes. B. Temperate forests are found at midlatitudes. C. Tropical forests are largely found in a belt around the equator. D. Boreal forests are found around the equator. 4. Less developed countries, mainly in the tropics, produce more than _______ of all industrial wood (lumber, panels) but use only 20% of this total. A. a quarter B. half C. three-fourths D. seven-eights
5. Commercial forestry that involves reforestation in 26. The purpose of the CITES convention was large plantations of single-species, single-use, ________. intensive cropping is called __________. A. to eliminate trade restrictions and tariffs A. clear-cutting among countries. B. sustainable forestry B. to facilitate family planning in poorer C. new forestry countries. D. monoculture forestry C. to regulate international trade in threatened or endangered species. 6. In the undeveloped nations of the world, forest D. to provide financing for development projects products are ___________. throughout the world. A. available in virtually unlimited quantities 27. Many non-native or invasive species are B. harvested only in the winter organisms ________________. C. bought from richer, more developed A. that arrive at new locations on their own nations so that humans have little to do with D. a primarily used for cooking and their introductions. heating B. who have no aesthetic appeal to humans. C. who have no economic value to society. 7. In the tropics, deforestation can result in D. that originally were grown as food crops. ______________. A. A lower fire frequency B. changes in regional rainfall patterns C. setting aside areas as productive ESC110 Questions and Answers 2004: Chapter 6 agricultural fields D. in the formation of good grazing lands 1. In Monteverde, Costa Rica, scientists have found that __________. 8. In tropical forests, vines _____________ A. intact lowland forests supply moisture responsible for increasing the loss of more trees that maintain the cloud forest habitat after the harvesting of 1 or 2 trees per hectare. B. deforestation is increasing the amount of A. are extremely rare so they are not clouds in the mountains B. increase the fire risk of forests and C. cloud forests are important in supplying therefore are moisture to the mountains C. strongly link the canopies of several D. cutting trees in cloud forests are making trees and are mountain peaks warmer and dry D. have no impact on logging operations even though they are 2. For a forest to be considered an old-growth forest, it must contain trees that are thousands of 9. Much of the industrial logging in North America years old. and Europe occurs in _______ forests while much A. True of the logging is from _______ forests in southeast B. False Asia, Africa and Latin America.
A. unmanaged; young B. unmanaged; old-growth C. managed; young D. managed; old-growth 10. In the Pacific Northwest, government economists say that road building associated with logging ___________________. A. has no potential recreational value B. is currently prohibited C. has the potential to open up the country to motorized recreation D. increases the amount of logging possible on federal lands 11. Today because of controlling fires in forests, allowing natural periodic fires to burn in forests will ____________. A. increases the amount of woody debris on the forest floor B. generally kill all trees C. can be risky if excess biomass is not removed beforehand D. pose no threat to human lives and property 12. Which of the following will increase your impact on forests? A. reusing and recycling paper B. buying products made from tropical hardwoods such as ebony, mahogany, rosewood, or teak C. storing information in digital format D. buying Brazil nuts, cashews, rattan furniture, and other non-timber forest products harvested sustainably by local people from intact forests 13. Which of the following statements is true? A. Ranchers raising native species such as bison on their land can produce more meat and enjoy greater financial returns than those who raise cattle. B. Rotational grazing tends to eliminate desirable forage species. C. Grazing on rangelands is always detrimental to plants and soils, and sometimes results in irreversible desertification. D. all of the above 14. The United States established the first national park in the world in 1872. The name of the Park is ___________. A. Banff National Park B. Glacier Bay National Park C. Crater Lake National Park D. Yellowstone National Park
15. The presence of predators (such as wolves) in national parks generally prevents species such as elk from overpopulating and overgrazing the land. A. True B. False 16. If you were creating a new national park, and you wanted to preserve all of the park's ecological values, what would be the ideal basis for developing a resource management strategy? A. political boundaries B. the natural biogeographical area C. private landholding interests D. commercial development on the park borders 17. Remoteness of forests instead of laws has been mainly responsible for the persistence of old growth forests around the world. A. True B. False 18. Which of the following tend to benefit from edge effects? A. shade-loving species B. deep-forest species C. sun-loving species D. large and highly specialized species 19. What are the goals expected for wilderness areas? A. Set aside areas for extracting critical mineral resources needed by society. B. Allow adjacent communities to get economic return from these areas so rural livelihoods can become sustainable. C. Provide a refuge for indigenous communities. D. Maintain some land from any development. 20. The biggest threat to elephants now residing in Serengeti National Park is ________. A. the West Nile Virus B. poaching C. water shortages D. ecotourism 21. Loss of forest lands in Borneo and Sumatra has been linked to _______ used to clear land for _____ and to hide illegal logging (ex: 1997 was an especially bad year). A. agricultural clearing; agriculture B. herbicide applications; agriculture C. fire; agriculture D. regeneration; planting commercial species
22. Good forest management requires __________ which maintains habitat for many forest species. A. cutting all young trees B. removing all logging residues C. removing all dead trees D. keeping dead trees 23. The least disruptive tree harvesting method is called _______ in which only a small percentage of the mature trees are taken at decadal time frames. A. clear-cutting B. selective cutting C. strip-cutting D. preferred cutting 24. In the United States, fire control resulted in every blaze on public land to be put out. This policy has _______________. A. decreased the fire risk of these forests B. allowed forest communities to regenerate C. decreased the amount of woody debris that accumulates D. increased the amount of wood debris in these forests 26. In the Man and Biosphere (MAB) program, protected areas are divided into different zones for different purposes. Which of the following is NOT part of this model biosphere reserve design? A. endangered wildlife are protected in the central core region of the reserve. B. Ecotourism is restricted to the buffer reserves. C. Local communities are excluded from all parts of the reserve. D. Research facilities are located in the buffer zones. 27. Most of our US national parks are intended to preserve an area as we believe it looked like before any human inhabitation. A. True B. False