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20: Chapter DNA Technology and Genomics MULTIPLE CHOICE 1) Plasmids are important in biotechnology because they are A) a vehicle for the insertion of foreign genes into bacteria. B) recognition sites on recombinant DNA strands. C) surfaces for protein synthesis in eukaryotic recombinants. D) surfaces for respiratory processes in bacteria. E) proviruses incorporated into the host DNA. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 2) If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained no restriction enzymes, which of the following would you expect to happen? A) The cell would be unable to replicate its DNA. B) The cell would create incomplete plasmids. C) The cell would be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages. D) The cell would become an obligate parasite. E) Both A and D would occur. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 3) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure below? A) B) C) D) E) ligase transcriptase a restriction enzyme RNA polymerase DNA polymerase PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 ANS: C 4) Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to A) insert the fragments cut with X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid. B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the plasmid. C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme. D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X. E) cut the plasmid with enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 5) What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes? A) to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA B) to join nucleotides during replication C) to join nucleotides during transcription D) to cleave nucleic acids at specific sites E) to repair breaks in sugar-phosphate backbones ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 6) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes? A) by adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines B) using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle C) adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA D) by forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching E) by reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 7) What is a cloning vector? A) an enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments B) a DNA probe used to locate a particular gene in the genome C) an agent, such as a plasmid, used to transfer DNA from an in vitro solution into a living cell D) the laboratory apparatus used to clone genes E) the sticky end of a DNA fragment ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 8) What are the typical characteristics of a cloning vector? A) Bacterial cells cannot survive without it when grown under certain conditions. B) It contains restriction sites that allow the insertion of foreign DNA segments. C) It can replicate in bacterial cells. D) Only B and C are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 9) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. II. III. IV. V. A) B) C) D) E) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA. I, II, IV, III, V II, III, V, IV, I III, II, IV, V, I III, IV, V, I, II IV, V, I, II, III PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 ANS: C 10) Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process? A) examining the cells with an electron microscope B) using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids C) exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the plasmid D) removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids E) producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 Use the following information to answer the questions below. A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics. 11) Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but without the eukaryotic gene, would grow A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline. B) only in the broth containing both antibiotics. C) in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin. D) in all four types of broth. E) in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 12) Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in A) the nutrient broth only. B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only. C) the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth. D) all four types of broth. E) the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 13) Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media? A) the nutrient broth B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth C) the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth D) the tetracycline and ampicillin broth E) all four broths ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 14) The principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that A) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes. B) bacteria translate polycistronic messages only. C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns. D) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA. E) bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 15) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene. B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces. C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA. D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product. E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 16) Yeast cells are frequently used as hosts for cloning because A) they are easy to grow. B) they can remove introns from mRNA. C) they have plasmids. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 17) The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in A) recombinant plasmids of bacteria. B) recombinant viral DNA. C) eukaryotic chromosomes. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 18) A eukaryotic protein can be made in bacteria by inserting the gene encoding the protein into a(n) A) protein plasmid. B) expression vector. C) yeast artificial chromosome (YAC). D) PCR vector. E) restriction plasmid. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 19) How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library? A) A genomic library contains both noncoding sequences and coding sequences, whereas a cDNA library contains only coding sequences. B) A genomic library is identical regardless of the cell type used to make it, whereas the content of a cDNA library depends on the cell type used in its construction. C) A genomic library can be made using a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase only, whereas a cDNA library requires both of these as well as reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase. D) Only B and C are correct. E) A, B and C are correct. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 20) The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to A) B) C) D) E) insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids. incorporate genes into viruses. make DNA from RNA transcripts. make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA. insert regulatory sequences into eukaryotic genes. PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 ANS: D 21) Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements? A) centromere B) telomeres C) origin of replication D) both A and B E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 22) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used to amplify DNA from which of the following? A) fossils B) fetal cells C) viruses D) bacteria E) all of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 23) Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. 2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double stranded target DNA. 3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added. 4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. A) 2, 1, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C) 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 3, 4, 2 E) 2, 3, 4 ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 The following questions refer to the techniques, tools, or substances listed below. Answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. restriction enzymes B. gene cloning C. DNA ligase D. gel electrophoresis E. reverse transcriptase 24) ____ produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for large-scale production of a gene product A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 25) ____ separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 26) ____ seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 27) ____ is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 28) ____ cuts DNA molecules at specific locations A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.1 29) Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process? A) filtering B) centrifugation C) gel electrophoresis D) PCR E) electron microscopy ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 30) Which of the following is least related to the others? A) denaturation B) DNA ligase C) sticky ends D) restriction enzymes E) cloning vector ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 31) Probes are short, single-stranded DNA or RNA segments that are used identify to DNA fragments with a particular sequence. In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done? A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis. B) The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix. C) The probe must be hybridized with the fragment. D) Only A and B are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 32) Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis? A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 33) DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. The purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper is to A) permanently attach the DNA fragments to a substrate. B) separate the two complementary DNA strands. C) transfer only the DNA that is of interest. D) prepare the DNA for digestion with restriction enzymes. E) separate out the PCRs. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 34) Which of the following is least related to the others? A) Southern blotting B) denaturation C) nucleic acid probe D) RNA interference E) nucleic acid hybridization ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 35) RFLP analysis can be used to distinguish between alleles based on differences in A) restriction enzyme recognition sites between the alleles. B) the amount of DNA amplified from the alleles during PCR. C) the ability of the alleles to be replicated in bacterial cells. D) the proteins expressed from the alleles. E) the ability of nucleic acid probes to hybridize to the alleles. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 36) After being digested with a restriction enzyme, genomic DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis. Specific fragments can then be identified through the use of a A) plasmid. B) C) D) E) restriction enzyme. sticky end. nucleic acid probe. RFLP. PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 ANS: D 37) The segment of DNA shown in the figure below has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments? A) B) C) D) E) ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 38) Which of the following procedures would produce RFLPs? A) incubating a mixture of single-stranded DNA from two closely related species B) incubating DNA nucleotides with DNA polymerase C) incubating DNA with restriction enzymes D) incubating RNA with DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase E) incubating DNA fragments with "sticky ends" with ligase ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 39) Which of these is not one of the procedures used in Southern blotting? A) electrophoresis B) hybridization C) autoradiography D) restriction fragment preparation E) DNA microarray assay ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.2 40) Which of the following types of genomes have been sequenced? A) fungal B) C) D) E) plant bacterial B and C only A, B, and C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.3 ANS: E 41) The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs instead of plasmids for cloning genes is that A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells. B) only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell. C) YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than plasmids can. D) YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot. E) all of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.3 42) RFLPs played an important role in the Human Genome Project because they A) make bacterial cells grow faster, increasing the amount of cloned DNA that was available for sequencing. B) dramatically enhance the rate at which DNA can be sequenced. C) increase the amount of DNA that can be produced during PCR. D) do not vary between individuals, so they were used to produce a "universal" genome sequence representative of all humans. E) provided genetic markers scattered throughout the genome, allowing the construction of a genome-wide linkage map. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.3 43) Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of A) cloning DNA. B) sequencing DNA. C) digesting DNA. D) synthesizing DNA. E) separating DNA fragments. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.3 44) The "shotgun" approach used by Craig Venter to sequence the human genome skipped which of the following steps that were used by the Human Genome Project? A) genetic mapping B) physical mapping C) DNA sequencing D) A and B only E) A, B, and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.3 45) The completion of the Human Genome Project revealed that the human genome contains fewer genes than expected, not so many more than simpler organisms. How can this be reconciled with the greater complexity of humans relative to many other organisms? A) RNA transcripts of human genes are more likely to undergo alternative splicing. B) Post-translational processing adds diversity to the resulting polypeptides. C) Polypeptide domains are combined in a variety of ways. D) Gene expression patterns in humans are often more complex than those in other organisms. E) All of the above are correct. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 46) Genomics includes the study of all of the following except A) identifying the location of all of the genes present in the genome. B) comparing genomes between different organisms. C) studying the coordinated expression of groups of genes under various conditions or in different cell types. D) studying how the genome is duplicated and segregated within the cell cycle. E) identifying the functions of all of the genes in the genome. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 47) Upon the completion of genome sequencing projects, how do scientists generally go about asking how many genes there are in the genome and where they are located? A) mutating nucleotides throughout the genome and looking for phenotypes B) using software to scan the genome sequence for gene-related sequence elements such as promoters and transcription start and stop sites C) using RNA interference to pinpoint gene regulatory elements such as enhancers D) examining the expression of all potential genes using DNA microchips E) using PCR to amplify sequences throughout the genome and looking for gene-like amplification patterns ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 48) The function of a gene can be determined by A) comparing its sequence to genes of known function from other organisms. B) eliminating the function of the gene by in vitro mutagenesis and examining the consequences. C) eliminating the expression of the gene using RNA interference and examining the consequences. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 49) DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome. B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells. C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once. D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time. E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 50) Proteomics presents a particular challenge because A) the number of proteins in humans probably far exceeds the number of genes. B) a cell's proteins differ with cell type. C) proteins are extremely varied in structure and chemical properties. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.4 Use the figure below to answer the following questions. The DNA profiles below represent four different individuals. 51) Which of the following statements is consistent with the results? A) B is the child of A and C. B) C is the child of A and B. C) D is the child of B and C. D) A is the child of B and C. E) A is the child of C and D. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 52) Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) D is the child of A and C. B) D is the child of A and B. C) D is the child of B and C. D) A is the child of C and D. E) B is the child of A and C. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 53) Which of the following are probably siblings? A) A and B B) A and C C) A and D D) C and D E) B and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 54) Gene therapy A) has proven to be beneficial to HIV patients. B) involves replacement of a defective allele in sex cells. C) cannot be used to correct genetic disorders. D) had apparent success in treating disorders involving bone marrow cells. E) is a widely accepted procedure. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 55) Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses? A) production of human insulin B) production of human growth hormone C) production of tissue plasminogen activator D) genetic modification of plants to produce vaccines E) creation of products that will remove poisons from the human body ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 56) The most powerful way of increasing the specificity of a DNA profile analysis is to A) select markers present on the sex chromosomes rather than on the autosomes. B) analyze each marker by PCR rather than RFLP analysis. C) increase the number of markers used. D) repeat the analysis multiple times. E) analyze DNA obtained from skin cells rather than blood cells. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 57) A DNA profile is produced by A) treating selected segments of DNA with restriction enzymes. B) electrophoresis of restriction fragments. C) using a probe to locate specific nucleotide sequences. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 58) Genetically engineered plants A) are more difficult to engineer than animals. B) include a transgenic rice plant that could help prevent vitamin A deficiency. C) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants. D) are able to fix nitrogen themselves. E) are banned throughout the world. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 59) Current applications of biotechnology include A) cleaning up toxic waste. B) development of artificial photosynthetic machines. C) manufacturing human growth hormone. D) A and C only E) A, B, and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5 60) Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures? A) Microorganisms used in recombinant DNA experiments are genetically crippled to ensure that they cannot survive outside of the laboratory. B) Genetically modified organisms cannot be part of our food supply. C) Transgenic plants are engineered so that the plant genes cannot hybridize. D) Experiments involving HIV or other potentially dangerous viruses have been banned. E) Recombinant plasmids cannot be replicated. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 20.5

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