12
1) Chapter A key difference between mitosis and meiosis is: synapsis of homologous chromosomes in meiosis 2) If a typical diploid somatic cell has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?
16
3) Assume that a particular human cell is examined under a microscope, and it contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome. This cell is most likely to be a sperm cell 4) Synapsis is a critical event in the progression of meiosis. What is the key outcome of a completed chromosomal synapsis? Side by side alignment of homologous chromosomes 5) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that: Sister chromatids separate during anaphase. 6) A human somatic (body) cell normally contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in a male's meiotic prophase I cell? 46 7) Which of the following figures would most likely represent a correct configuration of the complete chromosomal complement in a meiotic metaphase I cell of a female jumper ant (Myrmecia pilosula) female (these animals have two different chromosomes; 2n = 2)? XX 8) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid chromosome number of 8 9) Name two evolutionarily significant benefits of meiosis that are not present in mitosis. reshuffling of homologous chromosomes and crossing over 10) Crossing over usually contributes to genetic variation by exchanging chromosomal segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes 11) Genetic variation, provided through sexual reproduction, offers more opportunity for offspring to survive in changing environments. What two aspects of meiosis provide sources of such variation? crossing over and allelic exclusion
Chapter 13
1) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What is the probability that their first child will be an albino girl? 1/4 2) In tigers, a recessive allele causes a white tiger (virtual absence of fur pigmentation). If two phenotypically normal tigers that are heterozygous at this recessive gene are mated, what percentage of their offspring are expected to be white? 25% 3) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, 6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation? Albino is recessive; black is dominant. 4) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring? 1/8 5) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow-seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio is expected? 1:1 6) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? 8 7) In Drosophila melanogaster, vestigial (short) wings (vg) are caused by a recessive gene that independently assorts with a gene pair that influences body hair. Hairy (h) results in a hairy body. A cross is made between a fly with normal wings and a hairy body and a fly with vestigial wings and a normal body. The phenotypically normal F1 flies were crossed among each other, and 1024 F2 flies were reared. What phenotypes would you expect in the F2, and in what actual numbers (not ratio) would you expect to find them? phenotypes--wild, vestigial, hairy, vestigial hairy; numbers expected--wild (576), vestigial (192), hairy (192), vestigial hairy (64) 8) A heterozygous, but phenotypically wild-type fruit fly (gray body color and normal wings) was mated to a black fly with vestigial wings. The offspring had the following
phenotypic distribution: wild type, 720; black-vestigial, 780; black-normal, 280; gray-vestigial, 220. What conclusion is likely from these results? The black and vestigial loci are linked and crossing over occurred. 9) Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a human disorder that causes gradual deterioration of the muscles. Only boys are affected, and they are always born to phenotypically normal parents. Due to the severity of the disease, the boys die in their teens. Is this disorder likely to be caused by a dominant or recessive allele? Is its inheritance sex-linked or autosomal? recessive, sex-linked 10) Hemophilia is caused by several genetic factors: one, a sex-linked recessive gene, is the subject of this problem. Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a normal woman whose father had hemophilia. What is the probability that any son they have will have hemophilia? 1/4 11) In a Drosophila experiment, a cross was made between homozygous wild-type females and yellow-bodied males. All of the resulting F1's were phenotypically wild type. However, adult flies of the F2 generation (resulting from matings of the F1's) had the following characteristics: Sex male male female Phenotype wild yellow wild Number 123 116 240
(a) Is the mutant gene for yellow body recessive or dominant? (b) Is the yellow locus autosomal (not sex-linked) or sex-linked? (a) recessive; (b) sex-linked 12) Whenever either or both gene A or gene B is present, red color is produced. A cross of AaBb AaBb can be expected to yield how many red offspring out of 16? Assume the genes are not linked. 15
Chapter 14
1) In the 1950s, Hershey and Chase conducted a now famous experiment to determine whether DNA or protein carried the hereditary information in virus T2. What method did they used to tag the DNA and protein constituents of T2?
35
S to tag the protein and
32
P to tag the DNA
2) In the 1920s Fredrick Griffith, a British medical officer, discovered that Streptococcus pneumonia caused pneumonia in mice. In his experiments, mice were injected with different strains of treated and untreated bacteria. Which of the following is not likely to have occurred in a Griffith series of experiments? Mice injected with living S + heat-killed R live. 3) Assume that you have determined the percentages of bases in DNA samples from a variety of organisms, each having DNA in the customary double-stranded form. What relationships would you expect to find in the percentage data? (Choose all that apply.) A + C = G + T 4) DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because: Each new DNA molecule is composed of one old strand and one new strand. This table gives the results of assays of percentages of bases from nucleic acids isolated from different sources. For each source, what type of nucleic acid (RNA or DNA) is most likely specified? State whether it is likely to be single or double stranded. Source (1) (2) (3) A 20 20 20 G 30 30 20 T 0 20 30 C 10 30 30 U 40 0 0
5) The nucleic acid from source #2 is _________ and most likely __________. DNA; double stranded
6) Here is a diagram (not to scale) of DNA in the process of replication. Choose the answer below that correctly identifies structures shown in the figure. 1 = 5 end; 2 = leading side; 3 = lagging side; 6 = topoisomerase
7) During DNA replication, DNA ligase is most active on the lagging strand. This is because: The lagging strands contain more short DNA segments than the leading strand, and these short segments are ligated together with DNA ligase. Here is a sketch of an incomplete replication fork, as might be seen in E. coli.
8) At which letter--(a), (b), (c), (d), or a combination of letters--would you expect to see the enzyme class commonly called topoisomerase? (a) 9) This figure depicts the survival of cells from two individuals after irradiation with UV light. The top line (open circles) is most likely from a(n) _________, while the bottom line (closed circles) is most likely from a(n) __________.
normal individual; person with xeroderma pigmentosum 10) Given the three strands of DNA below (1, 2, 3), which would support the synthesis of additional DNA with DNA polymerase?
3 only
Chapter 15
1) In 1902, a physician named Archibald Garrod observed that people suffering from alkaptonuria excreted large quantities of homogentisic acid in their urine. Given the metabolic pathway shown here, where would you suppose that the genetic block occurs in individuals with alkaptonuria?
at position D in the pathway Here is a set of petri plates that originally contained minimal medium similar to that used by Beadle and Tatum in their classic experiments of the 1940s. While the medium was in its liquid state, Neurospora cells from various strains (11, 12, 13, and 14) were added, and the plates were cooled to solidify. The plates were then separated into thirds, and minute amounts of related metabolic substances (A, B, and C) were added at the positions shown. The plates were incubated overnight, and growth was assessed (shaded areas). It is expected that the area in the center of each plate received no additive and would support growth of only the wild-type strain.
2) Which strain is most likely free of nutritional mutations, in other words, the wild-type strain? strain 12 3) DNA is the information-coding component of cells. Of the following structures, which one is coded for by the longest sequence of DNA? mRNA having 75 codons Human neurodegenerative disorders including Huntington's disease, fragile X syndrome, and myotonic dystrophy are
caused by stretches of repeated sequences of three bases each. Such trinucleotide repeats are members of a larger category of repeats of 1 to 6 bases (N1 to N6) called microsatellites. When Toth et al. (Genome Research 10 (2000): 967981) examined the frequency of classes of microsatellites among genes of various taxonomic groups, the distribution was far from random, as indicated by the following sample data: Organism Fungi Yeast Primates Number of N1 N2 9 4 36 19 49 10 Nucleotides N3 N4 318 2 706 7 1126 29 in Repeat N5 N6 35 219 52 330 57 244
4) What general conclusion is apparent from examining the table? The most common microsatellite category is the trinucleotide repeat. 5) When examining the genetic code, it is apparent that: There can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid. 6) A bacterial protein is 300 amino acids long. Remembering that DNA is typically double stranded, which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the section of DNA that codes for this protein? 1800 7) The following is a short segment of an mRNA molecule. The polypeptide it codes for is also shown: 5 AUGGUGCUGAAG 3 : methionine-valine-leucine-lysine A mutation in the DNA occurs so that the fourth base (counting from the 5 end) in the messenger RNA now reads A rather than G. What sequence of peptides will the mRNA now code for? (You do not need a copy of the genetic code to answer the question.) methionine-methionine-leucine-lysine 8) What do UAA, UAG and UGA code for? stop sequence in the RNA message 9) Which of the following mutations would have the greatest negative impact on the protein product of a gene? a single base insertion near the start of the coding region of the gene
Chapter 23
1) Which of the following best supports the idea that local environments on Earth have changed drastically over time? the discovery of fossilized shells in sedimentary rocks high in the Rocky Mountains
2) Many crustaceans (e.g., lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish) use their tails to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming. This is an example of: a vestigial trait 3) You sequence the genes that code for an important glycolytic enzyme in a moth, a mushroom, a worm, and an alga and find a high degree of sequence similarity among these distantly related species. This is an example of: analogy/convergent evolution 4) The HOM genes of insects and the Hox genes of vertebrates are . . . homologous because they are due to convergent evolution 5) After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks did because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is true, what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where Tribulus cistoides is the primary available food in all years? Assume that (1) even the survivors of the 1977 drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough Tribulus fruits and would eat other seeds when offered a choice; and (2) food availability is the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island. evolution of yet larger deeper beaks over time
6) For the streamlined bodies shown in the diagram above to be homologous instead of analogous, which of the following groups would also have to have streamlined bodies? A. lizards and elephants B. pterosaurs, dinosaurs, birds, and lizards C. synapsids, monotremes, marsupials, rodents, primates, and elephants D. all of the above 7)Evolutionary theory predicts that species are related, not independent. Four of the following examples provide support for this prediction, but one is irrelevant. Which of examples listed below does not support the claim that species are related? Many dinosaurs and other organisms went extinct following a huge asteroid impact at the end of the Cretaceous.
8 The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several Arizona populations found either on light-colored granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (shown in black). A fully white or clear circle indicates that 100% of the animals observed/captured had light coat color, whereas a fully black circle means that all animals observed/captured had dark coat coloration. Which of the following hypotheses might best explain these data? Dark coats in mice living on volcanic rock are an adaptation for camouflage to avoid predators.
Chapter 24
1) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. If 4 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model? f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200
2) Currently the only predators of Galpagos marine iguanas are Galpagos hawks. Iguana body size has little influence on the risk of hawk predation, even though small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. Apparently the hawks can catch these marine iguanas regardless of how fast they run!! If a predator like a cat or rat that preferably catches and eats slower moving iguanas are introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to __________ in the absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under __________ selection. decrease; directional 3) Researchers (Helle et al., 2004) analyzed rates of twin births in the Sami population of Northern Scandinavia during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. They found that (1) a baby born from a singleton pregnancy was more likely to survive to adulthood than a baby born from a twin pregnancy, and (2) the average number of offspring raised to adulthood was higher for women who had twins than for those who never had twins. These data suggest that in this population, human twinning rate was: under directional selection 4) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including their original homeland. Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population? founder effect and genetic drift 5) Why doesn't inbreeding depression, by itself, cause evolution? It does not change the population's allele frequencies. 6) Male reproductive success, measured as the number of offspring surviving to adulthood (pupating), is found for two closely related beetle species and graphed below. Which of these statements would you expect to be true of sexual dimorphism in the two species?
Species A should have greater sexual dimorphism than species B. 7) Why is the Hardy-Weinberg principle useful to biologists? It functions as a null hypothesis when testing for evolution in populations. 8) What does it mean when an allele reaches fixation? It has a frequency of 1.0. 9) What is an important consequence of gene flow in natural populations? Gene flow tends to reduce genetic differences among populations. 10) Evolution by natural selection is a powerful force of change. What keeps organisms from becoming perfectly adapted to their environment? All of the above processes impede, constrain, or prohibit evolution by natural selection 11) Hominid brain size has increased over the last 3 million years. This is probably due to: directional selection
Chapter 25
1) Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees. What keeps the two populations separate?
spatial reproductive isolation 2) Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in speciation? genetic isolation, genetic drift, divergence 3) The snake family Typhlopidae consists of small, burrowing species with vestigial eyes. They are found in Australia, sub-Saharan Africa, India and some adjacent areas, and
South America. What is the most likely explanation for this distribution? origin on Gondwana followed by continental drift and some range expansion 4) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy? Animals rarely self-fertilize, so diploid gametes are much less likely to fuse. 5) A small number of birds arrive on an island from a neighboring larger island. This small population begins to adapt to the new food plants available on the island, and their beaks begin to change. About twice a year, one or two more birds from the neighboring island arrive. What effect do these new arrivals have? Their arrival tends to retard adaptation to the new food plants. 6) A storm brings two formerly separated populations of beetles together. They look very similar. Under the biological species concept, which of the following would show that the two populations are different species? A. One population breeds in spring, the other in fall. B. Males of the two populations have different flight patterns in courtship. C. When individuals from the two populations mate with each other in the laboratory, the eggs fail to hatch. D. All of the above are correct. 7) The two key responsible factors for speciation among populations are: genetic isolation and genetic divergence 8) The biological species concept defines species in terms of: reproductive isolation 9) Which of the following would not be a good example of prezygotic reproductive isolation? two frog species that meet and can mate with each other, but the hybrid offspring are infertile 10) A monophyletic group would be best described as: a grouping of all species descended from a common ancestor, including that ancestor 11) Paleontologists studying fossilized therapsids (a group of mammal-like reptiles that are now extinct) would probably be using which of the following species concepts? The morphospecies concept
Chapter 34
1) As obligate intracellular parasites, viruses have which of these characteristics? the ability to enter a cell and make more copies of themselves using host proteins 2) When the HIV virus infects people, it does not immediately induce AIDS and kill its host. When people die from AIDS it is because: They have few T cells and cannot fight off secondary infections. 3) The influenza virus infects the lungs, and the Coxsackie virus infects the heart. What is the most likely reason for this specificity? Lung cells do not contain the Coxsackie virus receptor. 4) Which of the following statements is true for an enveloped virus? The nucleic acid is surrounded by a capsid, and the capsid is surrounded by a membrane. 5) Which of the following statements applies to the lysogenic cycle? The viral genome integrates into the host cell's genome. 6) HIV contains an RNA genome in the viral particle. When the virus infects, the RNA is copied into DNA by the reverse transcriptase enzyme. Reverse transcriptase is a very sloppy enzyme and makes frequent mistakes. Which of the following statements is true due to this property of reverse transcriptase? A. It is very difficult to make a vaccine for HIV. B. HIV accumulates mutations in its genome. C. HIV evolves very quickly. 7) HIV is inactivated in the laboratory after a few minutes of sitting at room temperature; the flu virus is still active after sitting for several hours. The practical consequences of these findings are: A. HIV can be transmitted from person to person by sexual contact or injection of infected blood products. B. The flu virus can be transmitted from person to person by contact with a contaminated surface. C. The flu virus can be transmitted from person to person by direct physical contact. 8) Emerging viruses are: viruses that have recently switched from one host to a new host
9) Your flower garden is being overrun with rice and corn plants. What type of viruses could you spray it with to get rid of these plants? dsRNA viruses 10) To make a vaccine against mumps, measles, or rabies, which type of viruses would be useful? negative-sense ssRNA viruses
Chapter 27
1) What organisms are most numerous on Earth? Prokaryotes 2) To establish a link between a specific bacterium and a skin disease, researchers have shown that bacterium was present in sick persons but not in healthy individuals. They isolated the bacterium in a pure culture and demonstrated that experimental healthy animals injected with this culture became sick. What other experiment do researchers need to perform to be absolutely sure that the bacterium is responsible for the disease? Isolate bacterium from a sick animal and demonstrate that it is the same bacterium as the one used for infection. 3) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya? absence of nucleus 4) Use of synthetic fertilizers often leads to the contamination of groundwater with nitrates. Nitrate pollution is also a suspected cause of anoxic dead zones in the ocean. Which of the following might help reduce nitrate pollution? growing improved crop plants that have nitrogen-fixing enzymes 5) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Bacteria? DNA is associated with histones. 6) Microbiologists use the Gram stain to aid in identification of bacteria. What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria? overall structure of the cell wall 7) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs. How do these two groups differ? They use different sources of carbon. 8) What is the major goal of cellular respiration? Produce ATP. 9) Bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle through which mechanism? A. nitrogen fixation
B. nitrification C. denitrification D. decomposition 10) You have found a prokaryote that is able to form colonies and produce oxygen. To what lineage does it belong? Cyanobacteria
Chapter 28
1) Which of the following protists causes the human disease malaria? Plasmodium 2) Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming. Why? Photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. 3) Phytoplankton is comprised of photosynthetic protists and bacteria. For the most part, humans do not consume phytoplankton. Why, then, are they important to humans? They are food for many marine organisms that humans eat. 4) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists? unicellular 5) Which of the following movements are matched correctly with the appendage that facilitates that movement in protists? swimming; flagella 6) A particular species of protist lacks the ability to engulf food and does not contain chloroplasts. However, gene sequencing data indicates that this species evolved from a lineage containing many species that have the ability to engulf food. What does this information suggest about this species of protist? It is likely aquatic. 7) During the life cycle of a protist, what process results in the formation of a zygote? syngamy 8) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis. How can you tell? The chloroplasts have three or four membranes.
Chapter 29 Chapter 30
1) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil? A. Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times smaller than plant roots. B. Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules. C. Fungi can transport compounds through their mycelium from areas of surplus to areas of need. 2) Why are terrestrial fungal mycelia nearly always found within their food sources (underground, within wood, inside the bodies of dead organisms)? Their high surface area, which is so efficient for absorptive feeding, makes them prone to drying out. 3) In animals, why are fungal infections such as athlete's foot so much harder to cure than bacterial infections? Fungi and animals are more closely related than bacteria and animals. 4) The ability to degrade lignin is fairly rare in mycorrhizal fungi, but comparatively common in saprophytic fungi. Why? Mycorrhizal fungi receive most or all of their carbon as simple sugars from their plant partner. 5) In which phase of the life cycle do ectomycorrhizal fungi (basdiomycetes and ascomycetes) spend most of their time heterokaryotic mycelium 6) Which group of fungi most likely assisted plants' evolutionary colonization of land? Glomeromycota 7) Many species of fungi appear to be entirely asexual; because no sexual reproduction has ever been observed in these species, they cannot be classified into one of the fungal phyla. Which of the following explanations is the most plausible for why no sexual forms have been observed? These species are highly adapted to (very successful in) common habitats. Section 30.4 8) Which part of the Basidiomycete and Ascomycete life cycles is most analogous to the human eggs and sperm in that it disperses new genetic information and is capable of fusing with cells from another individual? hyphal cell where plasmogamy occurs
9) Based on the idea that fungi have pores between their cell walls allowing cytoplasm to move from one end of the mycelium to the other, which of the following hypotheses is the most plausible? If a single mycorrhizal fungus formed symbiotic associations with more than one tree, carbon could travel from one plant to another.
Chapters 31-33
1) Bilateral symmetry is advantageous primarily because it allows for the development of a specialized head and posterior 2) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells. How might this affect the adult mosquito? It would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function. 3) In the food web of a typical terrestrial ecosystem, where would you expect to find the highest proportion of deuterostomes? tertiary consumers 4) If the albumen were removed from an amniotic egg, what would happen to the embryo inside? The embryo would suffer from lack of water. 5) Which evolutionary innovation was most significant in helping tetrapods move to dry terrestrial environments? the amniotic egg 6) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation, your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island. You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms, and you, as a student of biology, decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase). You select three organisms and observe them in detail, making note of the following: Organi sm A
Appearance
Microscopic, unicellular, with a flagellum
B
Shaped like a basketball,
Nutrient Acquisitio n Swims Envelops around in and freshwate consumes r pools other microscopi c organisms Rolls Thrives slowly with
Habitat/ Activity
Reproduction Mates with others; young bud off
Mates with others; young
C
covered with purple filaments, multicellular Hard and branched, multicellular , covered in a sticky coating
across grassy fields Attached to rocky surfaces
access to only fresh water and sunlight Traps insects in sticky coating and dissolves them
emerge from hardened spherical structures No mating; releases winged young that fly off and affix to bare rocks
From the information provided in the table, how would you characterize the feeding strategy of organism A? predation 7) A typical ectoparasite does all of the following except have a wormlike body 8) From an evolutionary perspective, it is more important for an organism to avoid predation 9) Which of the following characteristics would not facilitate a sessile (stationary) lifestyle? internal fertilization 10) Limbs are an important evolutionary development because they allow animals to move quickly and precisely
Chapter 50
1) Which abiotic factor would have the most significant physiological effect on migrating salmon? water solute content 2) Which of the following is not a biotic component of a burrow community? the air quality of the burrow 3) What is the main difference between climate and weather? Climate typically describes longer-term conditions. 4) Besides sunlight, which would be the most important climatic factor(s) for plants? temperature and moisture 5) Which of the following statements regarding altitude and climate is false? One side of a mountain range always receives large amounts of precipitation. 6) The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are average annual temperature and moisture levels annual variation in temperature and precipitation
7) Looking at the above two figures, which of the following statements is false? Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature. 8) Which of the following can be used to characterize plant growth in a biome? productivity net primary productivity aboveground biomass 9) According to the latest hypotheses, why do evergreens predominate in cold environments? Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring, even before the snow melts. Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients.
10) Based on the figure above and your knowledge about cattle, what is the most logical conclusion? Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.
Chapter 51
1) Which of the following examples best illustrates classical conditioning? cats running into the kitchen when they hear a food can being opened 2) Which of the following statements about imprinting is false? Imprinting occurs only on a specific color/shape. 3) The recognition and manipulation of facts about the world is termed cognition 4) Which would be the best way to obtain evidence of a bird's cognitive abilities? In captivity, have them attempt to solve novel problems. 5) Learning has the most influence on behavior when Making mistakes does not result in death. Animals have parents or other sources from which to learn. 6) You have captured some rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons. What would best explain this observation? Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment, and learn to avoid them.
7) How could you test whether male dewlaps (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat) were an important cue for female egg production? Remove dewlaps from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production. 8) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behavior of a recipient individual is termed communication 9) Migration in birds is guided in part by celestial navigation 10) It is rather easy to understand why relatives help each other in the animal kingdom--they share some of the same genes, and some self-sacrificing behavior will help the greater sum of their genes. What would be a reason for self-sacrificing behavior to have evolved in animals that are unrelated? This behavior might elicit a benefit at some future point in time.
Chapter 52
1) The definition of a generation is the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring
2) In the diagram above, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay thousands of eggs, of which only a few will survive to reproduce? curve C
3) Looking the data above, what can be said about survival and clutch size? Animals with high fecundity tend not to live as long as animals with low fecundity.
4) In the diagram above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)? line A
5) In the diagram above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity? arrow C 6) Which statement about K is false? K is specific for a given species. 7) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed population cycles
8) Which of the following statements about the above graphs is false? A. Primrose populations in large gaps (high light) have many juveniles. B. Primrose populations in small gaps (low light) have few juveniles. C. Primrose populations change in structure over time. D. The age structure of primrose determines the gap size. 9) What can we not determine from examining age pyramids of human populations? the success of future generations 10) A model that estimates the likelihood that a population will avoid extinction for a given period of time is termed? population viability analysis
Chapter 53
1) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of
the way of the ants. This is an example of what kind of species interaction? commensalism 2) In biology, a coevolutionary arms race occurs when: A pair of species influence each others' evolution.
3) Looking at the above figure, what conclusions can be drawn? Both species compete for seeds of intermediate size. 4) The competitive exclusion principle states that: A. It is not possible for two species with the same niche to coexist. 5) Which of the following is not a type of consumption? mutual 6) You stumble across a red, yellow, and black banded snake while traveling in Texas. You somehow remember that this could be a poisonous coral snake or a harmless milk snake, but you forget how to differentiate them because they both have similar colors and banding patterns. You wisely decide not to pick up the snake. What defense was successful in preventing you from grabbing the snake? Batesian mimicry 7) Which hypothesis supports the observation that herbivores do not generally eat all of the available plants? A. top-down control hypothesis B. poor nutrition hypothesis C. plant-defense hypothesis
8) What does the above graph tell you about the definition of a keystone species? A keystone species removed from a community could have drastic effects. 9) Recall that Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable structure and that Gleason's view of biological communities is that they are more random and therefore unpredictable. If we set up many identical sterilized ponds in the same area and allowed them to be colonized, what should we predict if Gleason's hypothesis is the one we believe is correct? Different plankton communities will develop in all ponds. 10) What is the main difference between a disturbance and a disturbance regime? A disturbance regime includes defining the predictable frequency and severity of the disturbance.
Chapter 54
1) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue, this is: net primary productivity the amount of energy available to consumers 2) Which of the following consume other living organisms? Carnivores and herbivores Use the following figure when answering questions 3 and 4:
3) Which habitat type makes available the most new tissue to consumers? open ocean 4) What is the leading hypothesis as to why terrestrial productivity is higher in equatorial climates? A. Productivity increases with temperature. B. Productivity increases with water availability. C. Productivity increases with available sunlight.
5) Looking at the experiment above, what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems? Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
6) Looking at the above figure, what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem? Between 80 and 90% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level. 7) Plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for photosynthesis on a yearly basis. What is a reasonable explanation for this?
A. Plants cannot photosynthesize during winter (in cold winter climates). B. Plants cannot photosynthesize during dry periods. C. The pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the wavelengths available. 8) Considering the global carbon cycle, where is the largest reservoir of carbon? oceans 9) According to the dynamic-stability hypothesis for food-chain length, food chains will be shorter in which type of environment? variable 10) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important? Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas, and increasing atmospheric concentrations could alter Earth's climate.