Soc3344StudyGuideTest2Sp09
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Soc3344StudyGuideTest2Sp09

Course Number: SOC 3344, Fall 2009

College/University: Minnesota

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Soc 3344 Study Guide Test 2 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which of the following is best defined as "how a department is structured?" c. administration a. management d. rank b. organization 2. Which of the following is best defined as "the processes that occur within the structure?" c. duties a. management d. regulations...

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3344 Soc Study Guide Test 2 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which of the following is best defined as "how a department is structured?" c. administration a. management d. rank b. organization 2. Which of the following is best defined as "the processes that occur within the structure?" c. duties a. management d. regulations b. administration 3. Which of the following is NOT one of Luther Gulick's functions of police administration? c. planning a. budgeting d. training b. coordinating 4. Which of the following best defines "organization?" a. the structuring and staffing of a department b. deciding the goals and objectives of a department c. keeping everyone informed of operations d. all of the above 5. The definition of "administration" consists of two components. What are they? c. organization and management a. evaluation and forecasting d. crime and policymaking b. politics and law 6. What is the acronym developed by Luther Gulick to identify the most basic administrative ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____ 10. ____ 11. ____ 12. processes? c. ORGMAN a. MANAGER d. POSDCORB b. OPSIT Which of the following is a responsibility of upper level administrators? c. determining the department's mission a. training new recruits d. recruiting new officers b. scheduling patrol Which of the following is the typical administrative foundation of the typical police organization? c. human relations theory a. classical organizational theory d. none of the above b. systems theory Which of the following are classical organizational principles? c. decentralization and vertical expansion a. hierarchy and specialization b. decentralization and internal expansion d. none of the above Another name commonly used for "hierarchy" is: c. unity of command. a. span of control. d. specialization. b. chain of command. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of classical organization? c. procedural guidelines a. coordination d. organizational documentation b. specialization The concept of __________ ensures that everyone in the organization has a superior to whom they should report. c. hierarchy a. authority b. division of labor d. specialization ____ 13. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of specialization? c. development of expertise a. simplified training d. enhanced solidarity b. administrative control ____ 14. __________ are important because they outline to everyone in the department their duties, ____ 15. ____ 16. ____ 17. ____ 18. ____ 19. ____ 20. ____ 21. ____ 22. ____ 23. responsibilities, and limitations. c. Objectives a. Procedural guidelines d. Goals b. Directives Who is the theorist associated with comparing classical organizational theory to the "McDonaldization" of society? c. Maslow a. Ritzer d. Weber b. Hawthorne Theory __________ assumes that employees are basically lazy and need to be directed if they are to accomplish organizational objectives. c. Z a. X d. none of the above b. Y Which of the following best describes the results of the Hawthorne studies? a. Productivity increased because employees felt they were important. b. Productivity increased because they liked the new patterns of illumination. c. Productivity decreased because employees did not like the new break patterns. d. none of the above The perspectives presented in Theory X include which of the following statements? a. People are by nature resistant to change. b. People are inherently self-centered. c. Average workers are not interested in the organization. d. all of the above Maslow's hierarchy of needs included all EXCEPT which of the following human needs? c. esteem a. self-actualization d. economic b. social Which of the following statements is T regarding participative management? a. Low-ranking officers are allowed to make departmental decisions. b. Low-ranking officers are allowed to provide input toward the decision-making process. c. Only sergeants and captains provide input. d. none of the above Developing formalized organizational arrangements whereby officers at lower levels of the organization can have input into departmental matters is known as: c. systems theory. a. participative management. d. contingency management. b. classical management. Who participates in quality circles? c. community volunteers a. management volunteers d. all of the above b. nonmanagement volunteers A group of volunteer employees from the same unit who meet on a regular basis to discuss and study problems confronting their area is known as a(an): c. quality circle. a. focus group. b. employee assistance program. d. contingency plan. ____ 24. When did the human relations school of organizational theory begin? c. 1920s a. 1900s d. 1930s b. 1910s ____ 25. Who was the first person to outline the principles of organization? c. Maslow a. Ritzer d. Weber b. Hawthorne ____ 26. According to police department hierarchy, which of the following holds the highest rank? c. operations captain a. patrol lieutenant d. patrol sergeant b. patrol officer ____ 27. Which of the following are the attributes that contribute to the success of "Management by ____ 28. ____ 29. ____ 30. ____ 31. ____ 32. ____ 33. ____ 34. Objectives"? a. goals and goal setting, participation, and feedback b. goal setting, communication, and mission c. mission, communication, and feedback d. participation, mission, and goal setting __________ is the idea that there is no one best way to manage an organization. c. Contingency management a. Classical management d. Human relations management b. Systems management A philosophy and set of guiding principles that represent the foundation of a continuously improving organization, all of the processes within the organization, and the degree to which current and future needs of the customer are met is known as: c. systems management. a. contingency management. d. total quality management. b. management by objectives. Which of the following are the three primary areas of "Total Quality Management?" c. customers, goals, and counting a. counting, output, and customers d. culture, goals, counting b. culture, customers, and counting A traffic unit is charged with reducing accidents and facilitating the flow of traffic. How do such units accomplish these two goals? c. patrolling, ticketing, arresting a. enforcement, education, engineering d. enforcement, education, b. enforcement, direction, counseling communication Which of the following best defines the allocation of police personnel? a. deciding how many officers will patrol a specific area b. deciding how many officers will work during each shift c. deciding how many officers will work on each unit d. deciding how many officers will investigate a case According to Alpert and Dunham, which of the following is NOT a police patrol activity? c. maintaining order a. deterring crime d. prosecuting criminals b. enforcing laws Which of the following is NOT one of the factors used to determine police patrol beats? c. population density a. number of serious Part I crimes d. desired criminal apprehension rate b. number of calls for service ____ 35. The police have used foot patrol to accomplish a number of objectives. Which of the following is ____ 36. ____ 37. ____ 38. ____ 39. NOT one of the legitimate objectives of foot patrol? a. punish problem officers b. increase citizen perception of safety c. deliver service consistent with community needs d. create community awareness Which of the following best defines "downtime?" a. the time an officer is not responding to calls b. the time an officer is at the station doing paperwork c. the time an officer is committed to some call or police activity d. the time an officer is off duty Which of the following is a benefit of mounted patrols? a. They are not as expensive as automobile patrols. b. It is easy to enforce traffic laws. c. It increases the area that can be covered by foot patrol officers. d. Officers can carry all the necessary equipment. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of bicycle patrols? a. They can be used in inclement weather. b. They are more maneuverable in traffic than cars. c. They can be used at night. d. The cost is low. What percentage of departments serving populations of more than 250,000 report using at least one fixed-wing aircraft? c. 30 percent a. 10 percent d. 40 percent b. 20 percent ____ 40. QUESTION BLANK a. CHOICE BLANK c. CHOICE BLANK b. CHOICE BLANK d. CHOICE BLANK ____ 41. The type of patrol in which officers are assigned to beats in marked vehicles and randomly patrol to reduce opportunities for criminal acts when not involved in police activities is known as: c. routine preventive patrol. d. delayed response patrol. ____ 42. Which of the following best describes routine preventive patrol? a. saturating a problem area with officers in marked patrol cars b. dispersing officers during certain times of the day to problem areas c. dispersing officers in marked patrol cars throughout the agency's jurisdiction d. none of the above ____ 43. Which of the following most accurately describes the results of the Kansas City Patrol Experiment? a. Citizens were very aware that their patrol levels had been altered. b. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, decreased in the areas of increased patrol. c. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, increased in the areas of decreased patrol. d. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, showed no significant differences. ____ 44. The effectiveness of police patrol at reducing crime was called into question by research conducted in the __________ police department. c. Kansas City a. New York City a. split-force patrol. b. differential response. d. Flint, Michigan b. Chicago ____ 45. QUESTION BLANK a. CHOICE BLANK c. CHOICE BLANK b. CHOICE BLANK d. CHOICE BLANK ____ 46. The National Commission on Productivity concluded that a rapid police response accomplished ____ 47. ____ 48. ____ 49. ____ 50. ____ 51. ____ 52. ____ 53. ____ 54. which of the following objectives? a. deterrent to criminal activity b. decreased apprehension rate c. decreased citizen confidence in the police d. decrease in citizen safety Which of the following statements is T regarding rapid police response? a. Response time does not necessarily influence apprehension rates. b. Response time greatly influences apprehension rates. c. Response time is only influenced by police action, and not affected by individual citizens. d. Dispatchers should never tell a citizen when there will be a delay. What do most police organizations use to categorize calls for service? c. systematic selection a. prioritization d. routinization b. random selection McEwen has identified several possible alternatives to an immediate police patrol response to citizens' calls for service. Which of the following is NOT one of those alternatives? a. taking reports over the phone b. refusing to take certain types of calls c. developing procedures for a delayed response d. referring calls to other agencies What type of patrol attempts to deter crime or problems in a specific area by deploying large numbers of officers? c. routine patrol a. unlimited patrol d. saturation patrol b. random patrol According to Osterburg and Ward, which of the following is NOT an objective of a criminal investigator? a. to determine whether a crime has been committed b. to discover all the facts pertaining to the crime c. to locate and apprehend the perpetrator d. to prosecute the perpetrator Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a detective? c. identifying a suspect a. locating a suspect d. both a and c b. being the first at the scene Which of the following was characteristic of the "detective as secretive rogue?" a. They focused on criminals rather than crimes. b. They focused on investigating crimes. c. They performed intricate, detailed investigations. d. They were mostly female. The movement toward the bureaucratization of criminal investigation was greatly affected by which of the following? ____ 55. ____ 56. ____ 57. ____ 58. ____ 59. ____ 60. ____ 61. ____ 62. ____ 63. ____ 64. the Vietnam War the ratification of the Eighteenth Amendment the due process revolution a focus on individual criminals What is a "preliminary investigation?" a. The investigation done prior to arrest. b. The investigation done prior to a preliminary hearing. c. The initial investigation of a reported crime. d. The investigation done prior to the sentencing of the defendant. The Rand study on the effectiveness of criminal investigators found that: a. criminal investigators were the most effective members of the police department. b. 80 percent of the cases cleared by the police were the result of on-the-scene arrests. c. forensic science has greatly improved a detective's ability to solve crimes. d. most crimes are cleared through the collection of physical evidence. Enforcement of traffic laws falls under which function of police? c. Convenience norm enforcement a. Order-maintenance d. none of the above b. Law enforcement Research conducted by Mastrofski and Ritti asserts that police officers fail to enforce DUI laws for several reasons. Which of the following is one of those reasons? a. They are concerned about productivity. b. They are lazy or incompetent. c. They realize that many police officers are alcoholics. d. They know that it can be financially devastating to the arrestee. Kraska and Kappeler conducted a survey of 690 law enforcement agencies. What percentage of departments has paramilitary units? c. about 50 a. about 10 d. about 90 b. about 20 Which of the following statements is True regarding discretion in the criminal justice system? a. Only police officers are allowed to use discretion. b. Only judges and police officers are allowed to use discretion in decision-making. c. Only prosecutors and police officers are allowed to use discretion in decisionmaking. d. Judges, prosecutors, and police officers are allowed to use discretion in decisionmaking. Which of the following is best defined as "effective limits on a public official's power leave him or her free to make a choice among a number of possible courses of action?" c. policy formulation a. discretion d. authority b. control Which of the following elements influence police officer's decision-making process? c. system variables a. offender variables d. all of the above b. situational variables Reflection of one's values and attitudes that develop through the socialization process is: c. perspective. a. prejudice. d. perception. b. discrimination. Which of the following is a characteristic of police officers who apply discretion correctly? a. b. c. d. a. curiosity b. empathy c. decisive d. all of the above ____ 65. Which of the following is a form of administrative discretion? c. regulation of pursuits a. allocating personnel d. all of the above b. focus on particular crimes ____ 66. Making decisions concerning the allocation of police personnel, and developing plans and policy, are examples of which type of discretion? a. enforcement b. administrative c. selective d. managerial ____ 67. The decisions of an individual police officer to investigate or report a crime or to effect an arrest are ____ 68. ____ 69. ____ 70. ____ 71. ____ 72. ____ 73. ____ 74. ____ 75. each examples of which type of discretion? c. enforcement a. administrative d. issue b. vice Which of the following is the most common objective or goal of police officers and detectives? c. promotion a. arrest d. all of the above b. patrol In what way do administrators attempt to control officer discretion? a. by establishing policies b. by providing direction through orders c. by providing direction through supervision d. all of the above Which of the following is NOT a decision element when an officer contemplates arrest? c. situation variables a. offender variables d. system variables b. officer variables Which of the following statements is T regarding offender-based criteria as it relates to police discretion? a. If the victim is young and the offender is old, an arrest is likely. b. If the victim is black and the offender is white, an arrest is likely. c. If the victim is wealthy and the offender is poor, an arrest is likely. d. If the victim or the offender is famous, an arrest is likely. The nuances of the interaction between officers and citizens are known as: c. system variables. a. situation variables. d. officer variables. b. offender variables. Which of the following best describes the historical police view of domestic violence? a. a serious crime b. a private matter c. a threat to the family d. a situation that called for arrest mandatory Which of the following is best defined as "idiosyncrasies of the criminal justice system that may influence officers to exercise their discretion?" c. system variables a. situation variables d. offender variables b. officer variables Which of the following most accurately describes the results of studies examining police decisionmaking in domestic violence cases? a. The demeanor of the victim is most important. b. The demeanor of the offender is most important. c. The officer's mood is most important. d. none of the above ____ 76. Support for the idea of mandatory arrests in cases of domestic violence was provided by research ____ 77. ____ 78. ____ 79. ____ 80. ____ 81. ____ 82. ____ 83. ____ 84. ____ 85. conducted in: c. Washington, DC. a. Minneapolis, Minnesota. d. New York, New York. b. Kansas City, Missouri. Which of the following is a vice crime? c. gambling a. prostitution d. all of the above b. pornography Which of the following best defines "vice crimes?" a. Criminal activity that does not comply with religious beliefs. b. Criminal activity that is against the public order or public morality. c. Criminal activity that results in money laundering. d. all of the above Which of the following is a problem associated with the enforcement of vice laws? a. The laws are almost unenforceable. b. There is no uniformity in the manner in which the laws are enforced. c. Enforcement of vice laws is extremely time-consuming and expensive. d. all of the above Which of the following makes enforcement of vice laws problematic for police? a. Claims of entrapment. b. The department can be corrupted. c. The officer can become involved in illegal activity. d. all of the above Which type of prostitute is most likely to be found in a city's drug district? c. call girls a. B-girls d. bar girls b. streetwalkers Which of the following statements best describes the Supreme Court's ruling in Miller v. California (1973)? a. The Court defined pornography so that local officials would know exactly what to look for. b. The Court left the definitional problems to each local community. c. The Court made the possession of pornography illegal. d. The Court allowed adult but not child pornography. In 1970, the National Commission on Obscenity and Pornography called for which of the following? a. the elimination of anti-pornography laws b. strict enforcement of pornography laws c. police use of discretion in enforcing pornography laws d. allowing adult pornography, but not child pornography Which best describes the priority departments give to the enforcement of gambling laws? c. middle a. no priority d. priority equal to prostitution b. top Crimes that manifest evidence of prejudice based on certain group characteristics are known as: c. domestic crimes. a. vice crimes. b. hate crimes. d. violent crimes. ____ 86. Which of the following is member of a "disenfranchised" population? A. the mentally ill c. all of the above a. the homeless b. public inebriates ____ 87. Which of the following is NOT a form of internal control of police discretion? c. civilian review boards a. policies d. supervision b. training ____ 88. Which of the following has attempted external controls on police discretion? c. judicial a. citizens d. all of the above b. legislative ____ 89. Which of the following is (are) legislative means of control of police discretion? a. enactment of laws b. training and supervision guidelines for organizations c. allocation of funds d. both a and c ____ 90. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that officers must read a suspect his/her rights upon arrest? c. Gideon v. Wainwright a. Escobedo v. Illinois d. Miranda v. Arizona b. Mapp v. Ohio ____ 91. Which of the following is one of the three criteria used to identify excessive force? c. fear of scandal a. criminal law d. all of the above b. civil liability ____ 92. Which of the following is True regarding courts' reactions in cases involving use of force? a. They almost always rule for the victim. b. They almost always rule for the police. c. They rule for the victim and police at the same rate. d. They rule for the victim slightly more than for the police. ____ 93. Which of the following best defines "excessive force?" a. When officers legally apply force in too many incidents. b. When an officer willfully uses force that exceeds the boundaries of authority. c. When an officer applies too much force in a specific situation. d. When well-intentioned officers are unable to handle a situation and resort to force too quickly. ____ 94. Which of the following best describes the court's ruling in Tennessee v. Garner? a. Police cannot use deadly force to prevent the escape of a felon unless the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious injury to the officer or others. b. Police can use deadly force to prevent the escape of a felon in any circumstance. c. Proper use of deadly force is an issue to be defined by police departments within the confines of state law. d. The court indicated that an officer's situational discretion is the most important determinant of when deadly force is necessary. ____ 95. Which of the following statements is True regarding police/citizen contacts? a. A large majority are initiated by c. About half are initiated by citizens. citizens. b. A large majority are initiated by d. Almost all are initiated by police. ____ 96. ____ 97. ____ 98. ____ 99. ____ 100. ____ 101. ____ 102. ____ 103. ____ 104. ____ 105. ____ 106. police. Which of the following is True regarding the number of citizens killed each year by police? a. Police kill about 400 citizens each year. b. Police kill about 800 citizens each year. c. Police kill about 1,000 citizens each year. d. Police kill about 3,000 citizens each year. Which of the following is True regarding race and rates of police homicide? a. African-Americans are about two times more likely to be killed by police. b. African-Americans are about four times more likely to be killed by police. c. Whites are far more likely to be killed by police. d. There is no difference in police homicide rates by race. Which of the following is best defined as "physically grabbing a suspect to control him/her?" c. threatening force a. soft-handed force d. excessive force b. hard hands Which of the following is defined as "fighting with a suspect?" c. threatening force a. soft-handed force d. excessive force b. hard hands Which of the following best describes deadly force? a. When an officer unholsters a firearm. b. When an officer uses a baton. c. When an officer threatens to shoot the suspect. d. When an officer discharges his/her weapon. Which of the following best describes use of force by the Phoenix police department? a. Officers rarely used threats or shouts. c. Officers often used restraints. b. Officers rarely pursued fleeing d. all of the above suspects. Which of the following is True regarding pepper spray? a. Another name for pepper spray is OC spray. b. Pepper spray contains derivatives from cayenne peppers. c. Pepper spray is not used when the suspect is using passive resistance. d. all of the above A national study of the use of impact munitions was done by: c. Norwicki. a. Morabito and Doerner. d. Lumb and Friday. b. Hubbs and Klinger. Which of the following is a difference between the use of force by on and off-duty officers? a. Off-duty officers are usually without radio contact. b. On-duty officers are less likely to follow procedural guidelines. c. Off-duty officers are less likely to be involved in personal disputes that lead to force. d. There are no differences. Which police department implemented the first early warning system to identify problem officers? c. Miami a. Boston d. Los Angeles b. New York Which of the following best describes the four performance criteria in an early warning system used to identify problem officers? a. b. c. d. ____ 107. ____ 108. ____ 109. ____ 110. ____ 111. ____ 112. ____ 113. ____ 114. use of force, reprimands, breach of duty, alcoholism complaints, use of force, reprimands, discharge of firearms discharge of firearms, alcoholism, domestic violence, corruption corruption, breach of duty, complaints, reprimands Which of the following is an example of a "less-than-lethal" weapon? c. tear gas a. water cannons d. all of the above b. rubber bullets Which of the following best describes the use of pepper spray in Concord, North Carolina? a. The introduction of pepper spray increased the frequency of use of force. b. The introduction of pepper spray decreased the frequency of use of force. c. Pepper spray became the most common form of force used by police. d. Pepper spray had no impact on policing and use of force. Which of the following best defines "net-widening?" a. when police officers arrest more people for violation of laws previously unenforced b. when police officers arrest more suspects for a single offense. c. when police officers are more likely to use force due to having less-than-lethal weapons d. when police officers use lethal weapons even though non-lethal weapons are available How many police officers are killed in the line of duty each year? c. An average of 70. a. An average of 43. d. An average of 150. b. An average of 58. Which of the following is True regarding assaults against police officers? a. The rate of deadly force against the police is lower than in the past. b. Most who shoot at police officers miss their targets. c. Body armor and emergency medical care have impacted the death rate of officers shot. d. all of the above Which of the following is True according to the FBI report on officers killed in the line of duty? a. Many made improper approaches to suspects or automobiles. b. The officers rarely made mistakes in the situations that lead to the homicides. c. The officers killed were high-strung and disliked by the community. d. all of the above Which of the following is True regarding "hidden suicide?" a. It is a phenomenon that only utilizes "suicide by cop." b. The victim can accomplish the goal of suicide while maintaining self-esteem. c. It has little to do with the victim's inability to complete the act him/herself. d. It has been studied for decades by social science researchers. Which of the following is True regarding "suicide by cop?" a. There is rarely a threat to police officers in these situations. b. There is rarely a threat to citizens in these situations. c. In most cases, a real threat to police is present. d. none of the above True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____ 115. Organization refers to how a police department is structured. ____ 116. Management refers to the processes that occur within an organization's structure. ____ 117. Administrators are routinely involved in both organization and management decisions. ____ 118. Middle managers in law enforcement organizations are usually responsible for establishing the mission of the organization, devising programs by which to achieve goals, and obtaining resources. ____ 119. Hierarchy in an organization equates to levels of authority and chain of command. ____ 120. Hierarchy decreases as the number of employees increases. ____ 121. "Appointment based on qualifications" was a management technique that resulted from the Hawthorne studies. ____ 122. Classical organizational principles and theory emphasize the importance and welfare of the employee. ____ 123. Participative management allows officers at lower levels of the organization to have input into departmental matters. ____ 124. Vertical staff meetings were among the first efforts to establish participative management in police departments. ____ 125. Problem-solving groups are organized to focus on a specific problem. ____ 126. COMPSTAT is a managerial process that uses crime analysis information. ____ 127. Today 95 percent of all police departments have some form of collective bargaining. ____ 128. Contingency management represents a distinct management theory. ____ 129. Culture refers to the values that reside within an organization. ____ 130. The patrol function is considered to be the "backbone" of policing. ____ 131. Allocating personnel refers to making decisions about how many officers should be assigned to various units in the department. ____ 132. The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment demonstrated the effectiveness of, and citizen satisfaction with, differential response. ____ 133. Police patrol has been demonstrated to be effective in preventing all types of criminal activity. ____ 134. A rapid police response to citizen calls for service has been found to reduce crime and increase the rate of criminal apprehension. ____ 135. The investigative function centers around solving crimes reported to or discovered by the police. ____ 136. Research has demonstrated that criminal investigators are the most effective police personnel in apprehending criminal suspects. ____ 137. Police detectives or investigators solve the majority of all crimes through follow-up investigations. ____ 138. No police activity affects more people than the patrol function. ____ 139. Seat belt enforcement is of paramount importance to law enforcement today. ____ 140. Police Paramilitary Units (PPUs) often refer to themselves as "heavy weapons units." ____ 141. Discretion is the foundation of the American system of criminal justice. ____ 142. Administrative discretion refers to decisions concerning the allocation of police personnel and the development of plans and policies. ____ 143. Police officers are the only workers in the criminal justice system who exercise discretion. ____ 144. Discretion can have both positive and negative connotations. ____ 145. Discrimination is a reflection of one's values and attitudes that develop through the socialization process. ____ 146. Enforcement discretion refers to the operational decisions of street enforcement officers. ____ 147. Police officers are considered to be the gatekeepers of the criminal justice system. ____ 148. Community expectations and standards influence police officer's interpretation and application of the law. ____ 149. When an officer decides to arrest an individual, the most significant factor affecting his/her decision is the offender's attitude. ____ 150. Historically, police have viewed domestic violence as problematic and have been willing to become quickly involved in these types of cases. ____ 151. The enforcement of vice laws is problematic because there is no societal consensus on the issues involved. ____ 152. Vice statutes generally are enacted to regulate or control morality. ____ 153. Pornography is a complex area of law enforcement primarily because of the varying levels of public acceptance. ____ 154. It is possible to totally eliminate police discretion. ____ 155. Attempts at controlling police discretion have taken two forms, internal and external. ____ 156. The greatest amount of police discretion is found in the duties of investigators. ____ 157. Departmental policies provide guidance when officers are confronted with situations where they need assistance. ____ 158. Today, there are jobs for everyone, and homeless people just don't want to work. ____ 159. Homelessness is very rare in rural areas. ____ 160. Force is considered "excessive" if the action constitutes a crime. ____ 161. Excessive force is present when an officer applies too much force in a specific situation. ____ 162. The number of shootings by the Memphis Police Department increased after the Garner ruling. ____ 163. A majority of police/citizen contracts involve force. ____ 164. Police officers kill approximately 1,000 citizens each year in the United States. ____ 165. The use of a baton increases the likelihood that there will be physical injury to a suspect. ____ 166. In Tennessee v. Garner, the Supreme Court expanded the use of deadly force by police by establishing the "fleeing felon doctrine." ____ 167. Off-duty officers involved in deadly force are more likely to violate departmental policies. ____ 168. A Philadelphia study indicates that officers are less likely to be injured while off duty than while on duty. ____ 169. The Christopher Commission in Los Angeles found that some officers were over-represented in use of force statistics. ____ 170. One indicator of a problem officer involves receiving five or more reprimands in a two-year period. ____ 171. Less-than-lethal weapons have not significantly decreased the number of deaths caused by police. ____ 172. Pepper spray is rarely used by police departments. ____ 173. The highest rate of police homicide of citizens involves young African-American males.
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