StudyGuideT2Sp05Web
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StudyGuideT2Sp05Web

Course Number: SOC 3344, Fall 2009

College/University: Minnesota

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Soc 3344 Study Guide Test 2 Sp 05 True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. Som e researchers believe that police d epartments could save m illions of dollars annu ally through more judicious selection procedures. 2. Police organizations should attempt to "screen out" rather than "screen in" personnel in their...

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3344 Soc Study Guide Test 2 Sp 05 True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. Som e researchers believe that police d epartments could save m illions of dollars annu ally through more judicious selection procedures. 2. Police organizations should attempt to "screen out" rather than "screen in" personnel in their selection processes. 3. "Screenint in" of applicants is a process through which applicants who are unqualified are identified through various procedures and removed from consideration. 4. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits the use of statistical adjustments in employee tests to give advantage to minority candidates. 5. Title VII of the Civil Rights act was the first legislative action taken in this country to prohibit discrimination in em ploym ent. 6. Selection standards are rooted in departmental regulations. 7. Minorities are still underrepresented in American police organizations. 8. All jurisdictions mand ate that the minimum age for a candidate is 21 years. 9. Vision standards are clearly rejected by Title V II. ____ 10. The oral interview board is generally the last step in the selection process. ____ 11. A large majority of police agencies in the United States require some college education for employm ent. ____ 12. Assessment centers are being used in a majority of departm ents across the country. ____ 13. Hum an values training is viewed as a means of ensuring that officers afford minorities and females greater respect and regard toward their problems when interacting with them. ____ 14. In-service training refers to training that is designed to provide veteran officers w ith new skills or to update them regarding changes in the law and procedures. ____ 15. Lateral expansion refers to job specialization within a departm ent. ____ 16. Women and minorities are just as likely as white m ales to retire from p olicing after a long career. ____ 17. Organization refers to how a police department is structured. ____ 18. Management refers to the processes that occur within an organization's structure. ____ 19. Administrators are routinely involved in both organization and m anagement decisions. ____ 20. Middle managers in law enforcement organizations are usually responsible for establishing the mission of the organization, devising program s by which to achieve goals, and obtaining resources. ____ 21. Hierarchy in an organization equates to levels of authority and chain of command. ____ 22. Hierarchy decreases as the number of em ployees increases. ____ 23. "Appointment based on qualifications" was a management technique that resulted from the Hawthorne studies. ____ 24. Classical organizational principles and theory emphasize the importance and welfare of the employee. ____ 25. Participative management allows officers at lower levels of the organization to have input into departmental matters. ____ 26. Vertical staff meetings were among the first efforts to establish participative management in police departmen ts. ____ 27. Problem-solving groups are organized to focus on a specific problem. ____ 28. An "open system" rationally considers its environment when making a decision. ____ 29. Management by objectives represents the application of systems theory from the top down within an organization. ____ 30. Contin gency management represents a distinct management theory. ____ 31. Culture refers to the values that reside within an organization. ____ 32. The patrol function is considered to be the "backbone" of policing. ____ 33. Allocating personnel refers to m aking decisions about how many officers should be assigned to various units in the departm ent. ____ 34. The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment demonstrated the effectiveness of, and citizen satisfaction with, differential response. ____ 35. Police p atrol has been demonstrated to be effective in preventing all types of crim inal activity. ____ 36. A rapid police response to citizen calls for service has been found to reduct crime and increase the rate of criminal apprehension. ____ 37. The investigative function centers around solving crimes reported to or discovered by the police. ____ 38. Research has demonstrated that criminal investigators are the most effective police personnel in apprehending criminal suspects. ____ 39. Police detectives or investigators solve the majority of all crimes through follow-up investigations. ____ 40. No police activity affects more people than the patrol function. ____ 41. Seat belt en forcement is of paramount im portance to law enforcement today. ____ 42. Police Paramilitary Units (PPUs) often refer to themselves as "heavy weapon units." ____ 43. Discretion is the foundation of the American system of criminal justice. ____ 44. Administrative discretion refers to decisions concerning the allocation of police personnel and the developm ent of plans and policies. ____ 45. Police officers are the only workers in the criminal justice system who exercise discretion. ____ 46. Discretion can have both positive and negative connotations ____ 47. Discrimination is a reflection of one's values and attitudes that develop through the socialization process. ____ 48. Enforcem ent discretion refers to the operational decisions of street enforcement officers. ____ 49. Police officers are considered to be the gatekeepers of the criminal justice system. ____ 50. Community expectations and standards influence police officer's interpretation and application of the law. ____ 51. When an officer decides to arrest an individual, the most significant factor affecting his/her decision is the offender's attitude. ____ 52. Historically, police have viewed domestic violence as problematic and have been willing to becom e quickly involved in these types of cases. ____ 53. The enforcement of vice laws is problematic because t here is no societal consensus on the issues involved. ____ 54. Vice statutes generally are enacted to regulate or control m orality. ____ 55. Pornography is a complex area of law enforcement primarily because of the varying levels of public acceptance. ____ 56. It is possible to totally eliminate police discretion. ____ 57. Attempts at con trolling police discretion have taken two form s, internal and external. ____ 58. The greatest amount of police discretion is found in the duties of investigators. ____ 59. Departmental policies provide guidance when officers are confronted with situations where they need assistance. ____ 60. Force is considered "excessive" if the action constitutes a crime. ____ 61. Excessive force is present when an officer applies too much force in a specific situation. ____ 62. The number of shootings by the Memp his Police Department increased after the Garner ruling. ____ 63. A majority of police/citizen contracts involve force. ____ 64. Police officers kill approximately 1,000 citizens each year in the Un ited States. ____ 65. The use of a baton increases the likelihood that there will be a p hysical injury to a suspect. ____ 66. In Tennessee v. Garner, the Supreme Court expanded the use of deadly force by police by establishing the "fleeing felon doctrine." ____ 67. Off-duty officers involved in deadly force are more likely to violate department policies. ____ 68. A Philadelphia study indicates that officers are less likely to be injured while off duty than while on duty. ____ 69. The Christopher Commission in Los Angeles found that some officers were over-represented in use of force statistics. ____ 70. One indicator of a problem officer involves receiving five or more reprimands in a two-year period. ____ 71. Less-than-lethal weapons have not significantly decreased the number of deaths caused by police. ____ 72. Pepper spray is rarely used by police departments. ____ 73. The highest rate of police homicide of citizens involves young African-American m ales. Mu ltiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 74. Which screening process in recommended for achieving the best pool of applicants? a. screening in b. screening out c. lateral screening d. vertical screening ____ 75. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in employment based on all of the following EXCEPT: a. race b. age c. sex d. religion ____ 76. Which of the following m ost accurately describes the court's likely reaction when it has determined that a police departmen t has discriminated against groups or classes in hiring practices? a. It will likely dem and a settlem ent to the plaintiff, but not require changes in hiring practices. b. It will likely strike dow n some of the department's promotion practices, but not hirin g practices. c. It will likely strike down some or all of the department's hiring practices. d. It will likely call for the chief to be fired. ____ 77. Which of the following best describes "disparate rejection?" a. It applies to groups when the employer adopts a policy that excludes memb ers of a minority. b. It applies to groups and is commonly referred to as the 80 percent rule. c. It applies to groups and consists of a practice where the courts compare the pecentage of minority employees with the percentage of minorities in the community. d. It applies to individuals and consists of a policy by which a qualified minority applies for an advertised position and is rejected. ____ 78. Wh ich of the folowing is true regarding Griggs v. Duke P ower Co.? a. The Court foun d that it did not matter if discrimination was intention al or unintentional. b. The court found that once it established the existence of discrimination, the burden of proof fell upon the plaintiff to prove that the selection process was discriminatory. c. T here could be NO d iferrences in hiring rates, even if the hiring practices were related to job performance. d. all of the above ____ 79. Which of the following court cases was the first to establish reverse discrimination? a. Griggs v. Duke P ower Co. b. Bakke v. California c. Wards Cove Packing Co. v. Antonio d. Thom as v. City of Evanston ____ 80. When was the first African-American police officer hired in the United States? a. the 1860s b. the 1920s c. the 1950s d. the 1960s ____ 81. Approximately what percentage of police officers in America are African-Americans? a. 4 b. 8 c. 11 d. 15 ____ 82. Which of the following are the two broad categories of explanations for the lack of minority representation in law enforcement agencies? a. institutional barriers and educational standards b. institutional barriers and personal preference c. personal preference and educational stand ards d. personal preference and residency requirem ents ____ 83. Which of the following is a type of "institutional barrier" that dissuades minorities from seeking employment? a. complicated applications b. multi-stages selection process c. the department's image regarding minorities d. all of the above ____ 84. Why has policing been such a male-dominated vocation? a. Women have always preferred to stay home and care for the children. b. Smaller size limits the duties they can perform. c. Males have been the powerholders in society. d. Women were believed too emotional for police work. ____ 85. Which of the following is true regarding the first female police officer in the United States? a. She quickly rose up the ranks to become the chief of her department. b. She was responsible for investigating serious violent crimes. c. She was responsible for enforcing laws in skating rinks. d. She was hired in 1890. ____ 86. Poulos and Doerner studied Florida police departments to determine female representation. According to their study, what percentage of officers in Florida are female? a. 8 b. 25 c. 40 d. 51 ____ 87. What percentage of police officers in America are women? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ____ 88. Which of the following best describes the primary difference between male and female police officers? a. Males subscribe to a "morality of care" while females subscribe to a "morality of justice." b. Males subscribe to a "morality of crime fighting" while females subscribe to a "morality of crime nurture." c. Males subscribe to a "morality of justice" while females subscribe to a "morality of care." d. There really are no differences between male and female officers. ____ 89. Which of the following best defines police "recruitment?" a. the development of a pool of sufficiently qualified applicants b. the develop ment of a pool of minimally qualified applicants c. the development of a pool of exceedingly qualified applicants d. the process of transferring officers from other departments ____ 90. Wh ich of the following is a result of limiting recruitment to a specific geographic area? a. It assures th at the best people will be hired because they can better serve the comm unity they know. b. It assures that the worst people will be hired. c. It limits the pool of applicants. d. It increases the number of qualified applicants. ____ 91. Davis vs. Dallas (1985) dealt with which recruitment standard? a. education b. vision c. residency d. physical ability ____ 92. In Thomas v. City of Evanston (1985) the Supreme Court determined that in order for phsyical agility tests in law enforcement to be acceptable, the tests must: a. be based on job analysis. b. represent the content of the job. c. be equally challenging for both gen ders. d. both a and b ____ 93. When a department develops a drug usage policy regarding recruits, which of the following should be considered? a. recency of usage b. patterns or frequency of usage c. types of drugs used d. all of the above ____ 94. In Hild v. Bruner (1980) the Court made which of the following rulings? a. It found a police department negligent for not perform ing a psychological assessment of its app licants. b. It found a police d epartm ent negligent for not performing a polygraph examination on its applicants c. It found that police departments could not have height requirements because it discrimates against females and certain minorities. d. It foun d apolice department negligent for failing to provide firearm training for its recruits. ____ 95. Which of the following tests are used in the selection of police officers? a. written examinations b. physical agility tests c. polygraph tests d. all of the above ____ 96. Which of the following best describes the "role-play" exercise sim ulated in an assessment center? a. It consists of candidates acting out scenerios, such as takin g a report. b. It tests the candidates' ability to use facts an d other information. c. It is an exercise in w hich candidates review paperwork and decide how it should be processed. d. It consists of candidates displaying their verbal skills in front of groups. ____ 97. Basic training serves to orient personnel with the police department. Which of the following is a function of orientation? a. creating favorable impressions b. enhancing interpersonal acceptance c. increasing performance d. all of the above ____ 98. Wh ich of the following is a topic covered in basic training? a. criminal law b. human values c. patrol and investigation procedures d. all of the above ____ 99. Which of the following is a justification for field training officer (FTO) programs? a. Some police concepts are not amenable to classroom instruction. b. Most officers do not learn well in a classroom environment. c. Most departments do not have the resources for classroom training. d. all of the above ____ 100. In-service training may include all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. radio training. b. departmental training sessions. c. roll-call training. d. basic academy training. ____ 101. Which of the following best describes the two directions of career develop ment in law enforcement? a. promotions and testing b. service and enforcement c. education and training d. lateral and vertical expansion ____ 102. The ex pansion of the numb er of levels of rank within a police organization is referred to as: a. vertical expansion. b. horizontal expansion. c. lateral expansion. d. parallel expansion. ____ 103. Which of the following is best defined as "how a department is structured?" a. management b. organization c. administration d. rank ____ 104. Which of the following is best defined as "the processes that occur within a structure?" a. management b. administration c. duties d. regulation ____ 105. Which of the following is NOT one of Luther Gulick's function of police administration? a. budgeting b. coordinating c. planning d. training ____ 106. Which of the following best defines "organization?" a. the structuring and staffing of a department b. deciding the goals and objectives of a department c. keeping everyone informed of operations d. all of the above ____ 107. The definition of "adm inistration" consists of two comp onents. W hat are they? a. evaluation and forecasting b. politics and law c. organization and management d. crime and policymaking ____ 108. What is the acronym developed by Luther Gulick to identify the most basic administrative processes? a. MANAGER b. OPSIT c. ORGMAN d. POSDCORB ____ 109. Which of the following is a responsibility of upper level administrators? a. training new recruits b. scheduling patrol c. determining the department's mission d. recruiting new officers ____ 110. Which of the following is the typical administrative foundation of the typical police organization? a. classical organizational theory b. systems theory c. human relations theory d. none of the above ____ 111. Which of the following are classical organizational principles? a. hierarchy and specialization b. decentralization and internal expansion c. decentralization and vertical expansion d. none of the above ____ 112. Another name comm only used for "hierarchy" is: a. span of control b. chain of command c. unity of command d. specialization ____ 113. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of classical organization? a. coordination b. specialization c. procedural guidelines d. organizational documentation ____ 114. The concept of _________ ensures that everyon e in the organization has a superior to whom they should report. a. authority b. division of labor c. hierarchy d. specialization ____ 115. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of specialization? a. simplified training b. administrative control c. develop ment of expertise d. enh anced solidarity ____ 116. __________ are important because they outline to everyone in the department their duties, responsibilities, and limitations. a. Proced ural guidelines b. D irective c. Objectives d. G oals ____ 117. Wh o is the theorist associated with comparing classical organizational theory to the "McDon aldization" of society? a. Ritzer b. Hawthorne c. Maslow d. Weber ____ 118. Theory _______ assum es that employees are basically lazy and need to be directed if they are to accomplish organizational objectives. a. X b. Y c. Z d. none of the above ____ 119. Which of the following best describes the results of the Hawthorne studies? a. Productivity increased because employees felt they were important. b. Productivity increased because they liked the new patterns of illumination. c. Productivity decreased because employees did not like the new break pattern. d. none of the above ____ 120. The perspectives presented in Th eory X include w hich of the following statements? a. Peop le are by nature resistant to change. b. People are inh erently self-centered. c. Average workers are not interested in the organization. d. all of the above ____ 121. Maslow's hierarchy of needs included all EX CEPT w hich of the following human needs? a. self-actualization b. social c. esteem d. economic ____ 122. Which of the following statements is true regard ing participative m anagement? a. Low-ran king officers are allowed to make departmental decisions. b. Low-ran king officers are allowed to provide input toward the decision-making process. c. Only sergeants and captains provide input. d. none of the above ____ 123. Developing formalized organizational arrangements whereby officers at lower levels of the organization can have inpu t into departmental matters is known as: a. participative management. b. classical management. c. systems theory. d. contingency management. ____ 124. Who participates in quality circles? a. management volunteers b. non-management volunteers c. community volunteers d. all of the above ____ 125. A group of volunteer employees from the same unit who meet on a regular basis to discuss and study problems confronting their area is known as a(an): a. focus group. b. employee assistance program. c. quality circle. d. contingency plan. ____ 126. When was "systems theory" first utilized in police departments? a. 1860s b. 1890s c. 1930s d. 1970s ____ 127. Which of the following is true regarding "open systems?" a. Administrators recognize the impact of the environment on the police department. b. Administrators do not recognize the impact of the environm ent on the police department. c. Supervisors have an "open door" policy for subordinates. d. Supervisors work only with upper managem ent to determine missions and goals. ____ 128. Which of the follwoing best describes "systems theory?" a. It dictates that administrators view organizations as a part of the criminal justice system. b. It dictates that administrators view organizations as a complex set of pieces that must be coordinates, maintained, and controlled. c. It requires administrators to perform their tasks with little or no consultation w ith subordinates. d. all of the above ____ 129. Which of the following are the attributes that contribute to the success of "Management by Objectives?" a. goals and goal setting, participation, and feedback b. goal setting, communication, and mission c. mission, communication, and feedback d. participation, mission, and goal setting ____ 130. ________ is the idea that there is no one best way to manage an organization. Classical a. management b. Systems management c. Contingency management d. Human relations management ____ 131. A philosophy and set of guiding principles that represent the foundation of a continuously improving organization, all of the processes within the organization, and the degree to which present and future needs of the customer are met is known as: a. contingency management. b. management by objectives. c. system s management. d. total quality management. ____ 132. Which of the following are the three primary areas of "Total Quality Management?" a. counting, output, and customers b. culture, customers, and counting c. customers, goals, and counting d. culture, goals, and counting ____ 133. A traffic un it is charged with reducing accidents and facilitating the flow of traffic. How do such units accomplish these two goals? a. enforcement, education, engineering b. enforcement, direction, counseling c. patrolling, ticketing, arresting d. enforcement, education, commu nication ____ 134. Which of the following best defines the allocation of p olice personnel? a. deciding how many officers will patrol a specific area b. deciding how many officers will work during each shift c. d eciding how many officers will work on each unit d. deciding how many officers will investigate a case ____ 135. According to Alpert and D unham, which of the following is NOT a police p atrol activity? a. deterring crime b. enforcing laws c. maintaining order d. prosecuting criminals ____ 136. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors used to determine police patrol beats? a. number of serious Part 1 crimes b. number of calls for service c. population density d. desired criminal apprehension rate ____ 137. The police have used foot patrol to accomplish a number of objectives. Which of the following is NOT one of the legitimate objectives of foot patrol? a. pu nish prob lem officers b. increase citizen perception of safety c. deliver service consistent with comm unity needs d. create comm unity awareness ____ 138. Which of the following best defines "downtime?" a. the time an officer is not responding to calls b. the time an officer is at the station doing paperwork c. the time an officer is committed to some call or police activity d. th e time an officer is off duty ____ 139. Which of the following is a benefit of mounted patrols? a. They are not as expensive as automobile patrols. b. It is easy to enforce traffic laws. c. It increases the area that can be covered by foot patrol officers. d. Officers can carry all the necessary equipment. ____ 140. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of bicycle patrols? a. They can be used in inclement weather. b. They are more maneuverable in traffic than cars. c. They can be used at night. d. The cost is low. ____ 141. What percentage of departments serving populations of more than 250,000 report using at least one fixedwing aircraft? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 30 percent d. 40 percent ____ 142. What percentage of dep artments serving a population of more than 250,000 use boats as patrol vehicles? a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 50 ____ 143. The type of patrol in which officers are assigned to beats in marked vehicles and randomly patrol to reduce opportunities for criminal acts when not involved in police activities is known as: a. split-force patrol. b. differential response. c. rou tine preven tive patrol. d. delayed response patrol. ____ 144. Which of the following best describes routine preven tive patrol? a. saturating a problem area with officers in marked patrol cars b. dispersing officers during certain times of the day to problem areas c. dispersing officers in marked patrol cars throughout the agency's jurisdiction d. none of the above ____ 145. Which of the following m ost accurately describes the results of the K ansas City Patrol Experim ent? a. Citizens were very aware that their patrol levels had been altered. b. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, decreased in the areas of increased patrol. c. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, increased in the areas of decreased patrol. d. Citizen fear of crime, and victimization, showed no significant differences. ____ 146. The effectiveness of police patrol at reducing crime was called into question by research conducted in the _______ police department. a. New York City b. Chicago c. Kansas City d. Flint, Michigan ____ 147. The Kansas City patrol study found that _______ percent of the department's patrol time is uncommitted. a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60 ____ 148. The National Commission on Productivity concluded that a rapid police response accomplished which of the following objectives? a. deterrent to criminal activity b. decreased aprehension rate c. decreased citizen confidence in the police d. decrease in citizen safety ____ 149. Wh ich of the following statements is true regarding rapid police response? a. Response time does not necessarily influence apprehension rates. b. Response time greatly influeces apprehension rates. c. Response time is only influenced by police action, and not affected by individual citizens. d. Dispatchers should never tell a citizen when there w ill be a delay. ____ 150. Wh at do most police organizations use to categorize calls for service? a. prioritization b. random selection c. systematic selection d. routinization ____ 151. McEwen has identified several possible alternatives to an imm ediate police patrol respon se to citizens' calls for service. Which of the following is NOT one of those alternatives? a. taking rep orts over the phone b. refusing to take certain types of calls c. develop ing procedu res for a delayed response d. referring calls to other agencies ____ 152. Wh at type of patrol attempts to deter crime or problems in a specific area by deploying large numbers of officers? a. unlimited patrol b. random patrol c. routine patrol d. saturation patrol ____ 153. According to Osterburg and Ward, which of the following is NOT an objective of a crim inal investigator? a. to determine w hether a crim e has been comm itted b. to discover all the facts pertaining to the crime c. to locate and apprehend the perpetrator d. to prosecute the perpetrator ____ 154. Wh ich of the following is a primary responsibility of a detective? a. locating a suspect b. being the first at the scene c. identifying a suspect d. both a and c ____ 155. Which of the following was characteristic of the "detective as secretive rogue?" a. They focused on criminals rather than crimes. b. They focused on investigating crimes. c. They performed intricate, detailed investigations. d. They were mostly female. ____ 156. The movement toward the bureaucratization of criminal investigation was great ly affected by which of the following? a. the Vietnam War b. the ratification of the Eighteenth Amendment c. the due process revolution d. a focus on individu al criminals ____ 157. What is a "preliminary investigation?" a. The investigation done prior to arrest. b. The investigation done prior to a preliminary hearing. c. The initial investigation of a reported crime. d. T he investigation done prior to the sentencing of the defend ant. ____ 158. The Rand study on the effectiveness of criminal investigation foun d that: a. Criminal investigators were the most effective members of the police department. b. 80 percent of the cases cleared by the police were the result of on-the-scene arrests. c. Forensic science has greatly improved a detective's ability to solve crimes. d. Most crimes are cleared through the collection of physical evidence. ____ 159. Enforcement of traffice laws falls under which function of police? a. Order-maintenance b. Law enforcement c. Convenience norm enforcement d. none of the above ____ 160. Research conducted by Mastrofski and Ritti asserts that police officers fail to enforce DUI laws for several reasons. Which of the following is one of those reasons? a. They are concerned about productivity. b. They are lazy or incompetent. c. They realize that many police officers are alcoholics. d. They know that is can be financially devastating to the arrestee. ____ 161. Kraska and Kappeler conducted a su rvey of 6 90 law enforcement agencies. W hat percen tage of depart ments has paramilitary units? a. about 10 b. about 20 c. about 50 d. about 90 ____ 162. Which of the following statements is true regarding discretion in the criminal justice system? a. Only police officers are allowed to use discretion. b. Only judges and police officers are allowed to use discretion in decision-making. c. O nly prosecutors and police officers are allowed to use d iscretion in decision-making. d. Judges, prosecutors, and police officers are allowed to use discretion in decisionmaking. ____ 163. Which of the following is best defined as "effective limits on a public official's power leave him or her free to make a choice among a number of possible courses of action?" a. discretion b. control c. policy formation d. authority ____ 164. Which model of criminal justice emphasizes individual rights? a. crime control model b. due process model c. conflict model d. consensus model ____ 165. Reflection of one's values and attitudes that develop throu gh the socialization process is: a. prejudice. b. discrimination. c. perspective. d. perception. ____ 166. Which of the followin g is a characteristic of police officers who apply discretion correctly? a. curiosity b. empathy c. decisive d. all of the above ____ 167. Which of the following is a form of administrative discretion? a. allocating personnel b. focus on particular crimes c. regulation of pursuits d. all of the above ____ 168. Making d ecisions concerning the allocaiton of police personnel, and developing plans and policy, are examples of which type of discretion? a. enforcement b. administrative c. selective d. managerial ____ 169. The decision of an individual police officer to investigate or report a crime or to effect an arrest are each examples of which type of discretion? a. administrative b. vice c. enforcement d. issue ____ 170. Which of the following is the most common objective or goal of police officers and detectives? a. arrest b. patrol c. promotion d. all of the above ____ 171. In what way do administrators attempt to control officer discretion? a. by establishing policies b. by providing direction through orders c. by providing direction through supervision d. all of the above ____ 172. Which of the following is NO T a decision element w hen an officer contemplates arrest? a. offender variables b. officer variables c. situation variables d. system variables ____ 173. Which of the following statements is true regarding offender-based criteria as it relates to police discretion? a. If the victim is young and the offender is old, an arrest is likely. b. If the victim is black and the offender is white, an arrest is likely. c. If the victim is wealthy and the offender is poor, an arrest is likely. d. If the victim or the offender is famous, an arrest is likely. ____ 174. The nuances of the interaction between officers and citizens are known as: a. situation variables. b. offender variables. c. system variables. d. officer variables. ____ 175. Wh ich of the following best describes the historical police view of domestic violence? a. a serious crime b. a private matter c. a threat to the family d. a situation that called for mandatory arrest ____ 176. Wh ich of the following is best defined as "idiosyncrasies of the criminal justice system that may influence officers to exercise their discretion?" a. situation variables b. officer variables c. system variables d. offender variables ____ 177. Which of the following m ost accurately describes the results of studies examining police decision-making in domestic violence cases? a. The demeanor of the victim is most important. b. The demeanor of the offender is most important. c. The officer's mood is most important. d. none of the above ____ 178. Support for the idea of mandatory arrests in cases of domestic violence was provided by research conducted in: a. Minneapolis, M innesota b. Kansas C ity, Missouri c. Washington, D.C. d. N ew Y ork, New Y ork ____ 179. Wh ich of the following is a vice crime? a. prostitution b. pornography c. gambling d. all of the above ____ 180. Which of the following best defines "vice crimes?" a. Criminal activity that does not com ply with religious beliefs. b. C riminal activity that is against the public order or public morality. c. Criminal activity that results in money laundering. d. all of the above ____ 181. Which of the following is a problem associated with the enforment of vice laws? a. The laws are almost unenforceable. b. There is no uniformity in the manner in which the law s are enforced. c. Enforcement of vice laws is extremely time-consuming and expensive. d. all of the above ____ 182. Wh ich of the following makes enforcement of vice laws problematic for police? a. Claims of entrapment b. The department can be corrupted. c. The officer can become involved in illegal activity. d. all of the above ____ 183. Which type of prostitute is m ost likely to found in a city's drug district? a. B-girls b. streetwalkers c. call girls d. bar girls ____ 184. Which of the following statements best described the Supreme Court's ruling in Miller ...

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Fleischman Soc 3344 LAW ENFORCEMENT TOPICS Topics Citizen Review Boards Dom estic Violence Arrest Policy Male dom inated Police Culture Minority Hiring Modern Police Agency Administration Occupational Deviance Police Ethics Police Sub-C ulture Police
Minnesota - SOC - 3344
Fleischman Soc 3344 02/16/07 LAW ENFORCEMENT TOPICS SPRING 2007 Topics Citizen Review Boards & Commissions Names Anderson, Baumann, Bigler, Bonstrom, BrackmanCode of SilenceCashin, Chowen, Conway, Ebert, FincherDomestic Violence Arrest Policy
Minnesota - SOC - 3344
The Criminal Justice SystemStructure & ProcessThe Criminal Justice Process Cycles individuals from the status of "free citizen" to that of suspect, then defendant, to convicted offender, probationer/inmate, parolee/released "offender" as such "i
Minnesota - SOC - 3344
Law Enforcement Role AnalysisGuide to understanding behavior in Law Enforcement settingsKey Assumptions All persons act in reference to expectations Expectations are integral to social structure Both formal and informal patterns of behavior are
Idaho - WEBPAGES - 548
PROJECT SUMMARY This project will expand dissertation research on the circumstances leading to cheating in mutualistic interactions by testing explicit hypotheses on geographically structured coevolution and history. The obligate pollination mutualis
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Spring 2009Exercises Chapter #10PHYS-2081.0 ids r . 4 r3 For the left straight line segment, the direction of the current, which is the same as the direction of ds, is +ix and the direction of r is also +ix as we are interested in the magnet
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Spring 2009Exercises Chapter #9PHYS-2081. v = vx ix + vy iy , Therefore, F = qv B = q vx ix + vy iy B ix = -qvy B iz . Thus, F = -(-1.6 10-19 C) (4 105 m/s) (0.1 W/m2 ) iz = 6.4 10-15 N iz . 2. v = 0.01 c = 3 106 m/s, e/m = 1.76 1011
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Spring 2009Exercises Chapter #8PHYS-2081. (a) The power dissipated in R is P1 = i2 R. If the two resistors are connected in series, the current i is the same both for R1 and R2 . Therefore, i2 R1 R1 P1 = 2 = . P2 i R2 R2 (b) If the two resistor
UCSD - ARIES - 0305
ARIES-CS Configuration Development Plan Summary discussion at ARIES-CS Meeting 5/7/03 G. H. Neilson Working Configuration Raise B-field of NCSX-8m to make it self-consistent (LPK: R = 8.25 m, = 4.1%, B = ~6.5-7.0 T, Pfus = 2 GW), or. Move to large
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Physics 208Exam IIIApril 23, 2009Family Name: First Name: Student ID Number: Your Section Number:USEFUL INFORMATION 1 q1 q2 r, 4 0 r2 0 i ds r 4 r3F =dB =dy dr d dr dx ix + iy = ir + r i = dt dt dt dt dt E dr = Q , V d d B = dt dt B
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Physics 208Exam IIMarch 24, 2009Family Name: First Name: Student ID Number: Your Section Number:USEFUL INFORMATION For two point particles, F = 1 q1 q2 r ^ 4 0 r2dr dx dy dr d = ix + iy = ir + r i dt dt dt dt dt V (r2 ) - V (r1 ) = - Q , Vr2
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
Texas A&M - PHYS - 208
UCSD - ARIES - 0305
ARIES-CS Maintenance Scheme and Blanket Design for Modular ApproachPresented by A. R. Raffray University of California, San Diego L. El-Guebaly S. Malang D. K. Sze X. Wang and the ARIES Team ARIES Meeting Hilton Garden Inn, Livermore, CA May 6-7, 20
Auburn - CHEN - 7110
E*nrtr T(t)\-r( ?wbhr" -t)l</Lot= -J * I,3"o,,( i - c :\ ) {*=; ?:,"*=[,3'+Da, TrTo(3._\r \I u - F) ( t ) . r)( o. 5-)I B .c . l IIItl . c.Zc>)+ k(7)- ol ). _ r -r- ,r Jt(-ry)) ?"vl \-\ , ')7.(+)J*'1
Western Washington - MATH - 225
Math 225 Exam II November 8, 2001 Dr. Chalice 1. (a) Graph the vector field hy, 1i : Name(b) Find the equation of the streamline of the point starting at (0, -1) in the vector field at time 0, and then graph this streamline. 2. Find the work don
Western Washington - MATH - 525
Page 1 of 4Donald Chalice5/7/2008Page 2 of 45/7/2008Page 3 of 45/7/2008Page 4 of 45/7/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 125
Chapter 5. The Definite Integral5.1 Finding Distance Traveled from VelocityIf s(t) is the distance traveled to time t, s0 (t) is the velocity. How can we go backwards from the velocity to the distance traveled? That is, given the velocity at each t
Western Washington - MATH - 438
APPLICATIONS1PhasersDefinition. The phaser of order n is the function e2int where t [0, 1]. The phaser of order n spins n times around the circle in unit time. 1.21.5 Itegrating a function f (z) on the circle against the phasers allows us to c
Western Washington - MATH - 204
Page 1 of 4Donald Chalice4/22/2008Page 2 of 44/22/2008Page 3 of 44/22/2008Page 4 of 44/22/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 204
Page 1 of 4Donald Chalice4/29/2008Page 2 of 44/29/2008Page 3 of 44/29/2008Page 4 of 44/29/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 204
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Western Washington - MATH - 204
Page 1 of 4Donald Chalice5/1/2008Page 2 of 45/1/2008Page 3 of 45/1/2008Page 4 of 45/1/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 204
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Western Washington - MATH - 204
Page 1 of 2Donald Chalice5/12/2008Page 2 of 25/12/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 204
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Western Washington - MATH - 204
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Western Washington - MATH - 204
Page 1 of 3Donald Chalice5/29/2008Page 2 of 35/29/2008Page 3 of 35/29/2008
Western Washington - MATH - 204
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Western Washington - MATH - 204
Math 204 Homework (may be modified slightly at current lecture): (updated 5/29/08) Section 1.1: odd 1-5, 6-8, 10, 11, 14, 29-34 Section 1.2: 1, 3, 7, 9, 11, 14, odd 17-33, 30 Section 1.3: 1, 5, 9, 15, 17, 18, 21-25, 29ab, 29, 32 Section 1.4: 1, 5, 13
Western Washington - MATH - 124
Math 124 Syllabus- Fall 2007 - meeting at 9 AM Daily in Miller Hall 164 Dr. Don Chalice Bond Hall 232 Office Hours: 11 Daily TEXT: CALCULUS-Hughes-Hallette, Gleason, et al. Edition 4. Chapters and topics Differential Calculus 1.1-1.8 A Library of Fun
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1. Differentiating a Function of Several Variables(Revised 2/26/06 3P M) Control Click 1.8 to go to current lecture.1.1. Partial Derivatives (14.1)Remark 1. Given a function of one variable or even a table it is easy to differentiate or approxima
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PipeliningChapter606/08/09 10:191 of 86OverviewofPipeliningPipeliningisanimplementationtechniquein whichmultipleinstructionsareoverlappedin execution. Pipeliningimprovesperformanceby increasinginstructionthroughput. Theexecutiontimeofan
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Database Design and ManagementCPTG 424Functions of a DatabaseStore dataSchool: student records, class schedules, enrollment information. Manufacturer: customer orders, employee data, sales data, revenue data, profit data, supply sources, p
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Conceptual Design and Data ModelingChapter 2Database Design ProcessConceptual Design Investigate business requirements and data used. How to present the data to the end user. Independent of hardware and software. Database Design Physica
Kentucky - CS - 689
MRI vs. fMRIhigh resolution (1 mm)MRIfMRIlow resolution (~3 mm but can be better)one imagefMRI Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent (BOLD) signal indirect measure of neural activity.many images (e.g., every 2 sec for 5 mins) neural activ
Kentucky - CS - 689
FunctionalMRICS689 Computational Medical Imaging ProcessingSpring 2007 University of KentuckyOutline1. 2. 3. 4. 5.fMRIvs.MRI ProceduresoffMRI MedicalSignificanceoffMRI MethodsoffMRI TypesoffMRI4/3/2007UniversityofKentuckyCS689Computati
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DTI-Based White Matter Fiber Analysis and VisualizationJun Zhang, Ph.D.Laboratory for Computational Medical Imaging & Data Analysis Laboratory for High Performance Scientific Computing and Computer Simulation Computer Science Department University
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Kentucky - CS - 689
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Chapter 8: Functional MRICS689 Computational Medical Imaging analysisSpring 2009 University of KentuckyOutline1. 2. 3. 4. 5.fMRI vs. MRI Procedures of fMRI Medical Significance of fMRI Methods of fMRI Types of fMRI
Kentucky - CS - 689
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Kentucky - CS - 689
Computational Medical Imaging Analysis Chapter 3: Image Representations, Displays, Communications, and DatabasesJun ZhangLaboratory for Computational Medical Imaging & Data Analysis Department of Computer Science University of Kentucky Lexingto
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Kentucky - CS - 689
Homework 1: CS689, Spring 2009Due Date: 2:50pm, February 20, 2009Please type your work. 1. (10 points) Is it necessary to understand the physics and instrumentation of medical imaging modality before processing the data for image reconstruction, p
Kentucky - CS - 689
Homework 1: CS689, Spring 2009Due Date: 2:50pm, March 11, 2009Please type your work. 1. (10 points) Why is 3D visualization important in medical imaging? Explain your answer with the help of an example. 2. (10 points) What is the difference betwee
Kentucky - CS - 689
Homework 3: CS689, Spring 2009Due Date: 2:50pm, April 10, 2009Please type your work. You should work on the homework independently. 1. (50 points) You need to choose to work on one of the popular methods for medical image registration or segmentat
Kentucky - CS - 689
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Computational Medical Imaging Analysis Chapter 7: Biomedical Applications Jun ZhangLaboratory for Computational Medical Imaging & Data Analysis Department of Computer Science University of Kentucky Lexington, KY 40506Chapter 7: CS689 17.1a: Ne
Stanford - C - 040802
1345678911121415171819202122232425283341Additional SlidesPDF wurde mit pdfFactory Pro-Prfversion erstellt. www.context-gmbh.de210131626272930313234353637383940
Stanford - C - 040802
Stanford - C - 040802
Stanford - C - 040802
Neutrino Oscillations:experimental triumphs, remaining puzzlesGiorgio Gratta Physics Department, StanfordWhat we do know:- Status of neutrino mixing Solar neutrino Atmospheric neutrino Reactor neutrinos K2KHow did we learn it: -Addressing
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Neutrinos in AstrophysicsSLAC Summer InstituteAugust 4, 2004 Stanford Linear Accelerator CenterGeorge M. Fuller Department of Physics University of California, San DiegoCore Collapse Supernovae as the Ultimate Neutrino Physics LaboratoriesEx
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NOT FOR DISTRIBUTION OUTSIDE OF SAGENAP COMMITTEEThe Search for Dark Matter in the form of WIMPs: CDMS (Cryogenic Dark Matter Search)SLAC Summer Institute August 2, 2004Blas Cabrera for CDMS Collaboration1NOT FOR DISTRIBUTION OUTSIDE OF SAGEN
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PROPERTIES OF THE TOP QUARKXXXII SLAC SUMMER INSTITUTEStockholm University - C. Clement - on behalf of CDF and D0 CollaborationsINTRODUCTIONThe top quark was discovered by the CDF and D0 collaborations at Fermilab in 1995, after 15 years of sea
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Anthropology News February 2009in focusThird-Party Reproductioncreating Kinship through an intent to ParentSuzanne Pelka uC loS angeleS From last summer's box office hit Baby Mama, starring Tina Fey and Amy Poehler, to the November 2008 New Yo
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