test 4
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test 4

Course Number: HUN hun4221, Spring 2009

College/University: University of Florida

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Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Mutations which arise in nature, from no particular external agent are called A) natural mutations. B) cosmic mutations. C) induced mutations. D) spontaneous mutations. E) chromosomal aberrations. Answer: D Explanation: A) B) C) D) E) 2) 1) 2) Nutritional...

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Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE Exam CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Mutations which arise in nature, from no particular external agent are called A) natural mutations. B) cosmic mutations. C) induced mutations. D) spontaneous mutations. E) chromosomal aberrations. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 2) 1) 2) Nutritional mutations can be defined as A) all strains that are not auxotrophic. B) those mutations that change the composition of the medium. C) those mutations that do not allow an organism to grow on minimal medium, but do allow the organism to grow on complete medium. D) those belonging to the group called prototrophs. E) those mutations caused by site-specific mutagenesis. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 3) Assume that you are examining a series of human pedigrees and observe the following: there are more males abnormal than females; there are approximately half the grandsons of abnormal males, abnormal; and some females are abnormal, but usually only if their maternal grandfather was abnormal and their mother married an abnormal male. What type of inheritance might be occurring? A) multiple factor B) Y-linked dominant C) sex-linked recessive D) autosomal dominant, sex-limited E) sex-linked dominant Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 3) 1 4) Two formal terms used to describe categories of mutational nucleotide substitutions in DNA are called A) error prone and spontaneous. B) sense and antisense. C) euchromatic and heterochromatic. D) transversions and transitions. E) base analogues and frameshift. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 4) 5) Name two mutagens that would be classified as base analogues. A) 5-bromouracil and 2-aminopurine B) acridine orange and proflavin C) hydroxyurea and peroxidase D) ethylmethane sulfonate and ethylmethylketone peroxide E) ultraviolet light and cosmic radiation Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 5) 6) A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins is likely to be the following: A) transversion. B) frameshift. C) base analogue. D) recombinant. E) transition. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 6) 2 7) Ultraviolet light causes pyrimidine dimers to form in DNA. Some individuals are genetically incapable of repairing some dimers at "normal" rates. Such individuals are likely to suffer from A) xeroderma pigmentosum. B) Huntington disease. C) phenylketonuria. D) muscular dystrophy. E) SCID. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 7) SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 8) Assume that you are working with a mutant, nutritionally deficient strain of Escherichia coli and that you isolate "revertants," which are nutritional-normal. Describe, at the molecular level, possible causes for the "reversion to wild type." Answer: There are two general classes of events that could be involved: true reversion or suppression. True reversion would involve a precise correction of the original mutation. Suppression could be intragenic or intergenic. In intragenic suppression, a change in some other part of the mutant gene product serves to "compensate" for the original mutation. In intergenic suppression, a mutation in some other gene, such as a transfer RNA, serves to "compensate" for the original mutation. Explanation: 9) Present a general description (diagram) of a typical transposable element and give two examples of transposable elements, one each, in corn and Drosophila. Answer: For diagrams, see appropriate figures in the text. Corn = Ac, Drosophila = copia Explanation: 10) Present a description of the mutagenic action of any two of the following mutagens:5-bromouracil, proflavin, ultraviolet light. Answer: 5-bromouracil is an analogue of thymine, which anomalously pairs with guanine and can result in a substitution. Proflavin adds or removes single bases from DNA, thus causing frameshift mutations. Ultraviolet light causes thymine dimers that may slow or arrest DNA replication. Explanation: 11) Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be "corrected" by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen. Other mutagens do not behave in this way. Provide one example of each of these two types of agents and describe the mutational changes caused in DNA. Explain why some mutagens behave in one way, while others do not. Answer: Mutagens that cause base substitutions are "corrected" by mutagens of the same class (nitrous acid, 2-aminopurine, and 5-bromouracil). Frameshift mutations, caused by proflavin or acridine orange are "corrected" by the same class of frameshift mutagens, but not by mutagens that cause base substitutions. X-rays cause major structural changes in chromosomes (deletions, translocations, etc.) and are not "corrected" by any mutagen, including X-rays. Explanation: 3 11) 10) 9) 8) 12) It is found that a particular "+ -" combination of frameshift mutations in gene X gives a wild type phenotype whereas a "- +" combination gives a mutant phenotype even though the sites of insertion/deletion are the same. Propose a simple model to explain these results. Register to View Answerframeshift in the "- +" direction may have introduced a nonsense triplet, which was not introduced, by chance, by the "+-" combination. Explanation: 13) Mutations may exert a variety of effects on living systems. List at least three categories of mutations based on their biological effects. Answer: morphological mutations, nutritional or biochemical mutations, behavioral mutations, regulatory mutations, lethal mutations, conditional mutations Explanation: 14) Under certain conditions, the rate of mutation of a particular gene may be determined in humans. What properties of the mutation would favor the most direct determination of mutation rate in humans? Answer: dominant, fully expressed, 100% penetrant, single locus Explanation: 15) In a survey of 240,000 human births, six achondroplastic births were recorded to parents who were unaffected. Given that this form of dwarfism is caused by a fully penetrant, dominant, autosomal gene, what is the mutation rate? Answer: 6/(4.8 105 ) Explanation: 16) Three human disorders fragile-X syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, and Huntington disease are conceptually linked by a common mode of molecular upset. Describe the phenomena that link these disorders. Answer: All three are caused by disparate genes, but each gene was found to contain repeats of a unique trinucleotide sequence. In addition, the number of repeats may increase in each subsequent generation (genetic anticipation). Explanation: 17) What is meant by the term photoreactivation repair? Answer: Photoreactivation repair, discovered in 1949, is a process described in E. coli in which UV-induced DNA damage, specifically pyrimidine dimers, can be partially reversed if cells are briefly exposed to light in the blue range of the visible spectrum. Explanation: 18) List five general terms that describe various aspects of mutations. Answer: induced, spontaneous, morphological, nutritional/biochemical, behavioral, regulatory, lethal, conditional Explanation: 19) What chromosomal complements are present in progeny of crosses between attached-X females and normal males in Drosophila? Answer: triplo-X females, which die; viable attached-X females (XXY); viable XY males; YY zygotes that die Explanation: 12) 13) 14) 15) 16) 17) 18) 19) 4 20) Describe how acridine dyes cause frameshift mutations. Answer: intercalation between bases of intact DNA causes DNA polymerase to add or skip a base during replication Explanation: 21) Regarding the nature of the ABO blood groups, what condition leads to the O blood type? Answer: failure to modify the H substance due to lack of glycosyltransferase activity Explanation: 22) Under what condition(s) might one have an amino acid substitution in a protein that does not result in an altered phenotype? Answer: The possibility of a change in protein function, therefore phenotype, depends on the location and chemical properties of the involved amino acid(s). Explanation: 23) Recent discoveries on causes of fragile-X syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, and Huntington disease indicate what type of genetic alteration? Answer: changes in trinucleotide repeats Explanation: 24) What is the Ames test and how does it work? Answer: Four tester strains of Salmonella typhimurium are used to test for sensitivity and specificity of mutagenesis. The rate of mutation in the presence of a suspected mutagen is compared to the rate of spontaneous mutation. Explanation: 25) What is the common influence of ultraviolet light on DNA? Answer: generation of pyrimidine dimers Explanation: 26) Describe the phenomenon of photoreactivation repair. Answer: Described by A. Kelner in 1949, photoreactivation repair is mediated by the photoreactivation enzyme (PRE), which cleaves covalent bonds between the dimers. Explanation: 27) The process of error correction of mismatched bases carried out by DNA polymerases is called ________. Answer: proofreading Explanation: 28) Recombinational repair is activated when damaged DNA has escaped repair and the distortion disrupts the process of replication, which is dependent on the product of which gene? Answer: recA Explanation: 29) What human condition is caused by unrepaired UV-induced lesions? Answer: xeroderma pigmentosum Explanation: 20) 21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) 29) 5 30) When X-rays penetrate cells, electrons are ejected from atoms of molecules. Stable molecules can be transformed into what types of hazardous materials? Answer: free radicals and reactive ions Explanation: 31) Site-directed mutagenesis is a technique used to study specific aspects of mutant genes. What is the specific technical goal of site-specific mutagenesis? Answer: to alter one or more specific nucleotides within a gene in order to change a specific codon Explanation: 32) Describe the Alu class of mobile elements in humans. Answer: Alu family consists of about 300,000 copies of 200-300 base pair sequences interspersed throughout the genome. Explanation: 33) Three major types of RNAs were discussed in some detail: mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. For each of the conditions below predict the consequences in terms of the population of proteins being synthesized in a particular cell. What qualitative and quantitative changes, if any, are expected in the individual protein involved (if one is involved) and in the population of proteins produced in that cell? (a) An acridine dye-induced mutation in mRNA. The condition is heterozygous in the involved cell. population of proteins: individual protein: (b) A deletion (homozygous) that removes approximately half of the rRNA genes. population of proteins: individual protein: 30) 31) 32) 33) Answer: (a) Population of proteins: Half of the protein products of that gene will be defective, the other half will be normal. Individual protein: The protein should show multiple amino acid substitutions "downstream" from the point of the mutation. If a nonsense triplet is introduced, the protein would be shortened in the substituted region. (b) Population of proteins: There would be an overall reduction in protein synthesis. Individual protein: All of the proteins would be made in their normal form, but at reduced levels. Explanation: 6 34) Given below is a hypothetical "wild type" polypeptide containing twelve amino acids (each letter arbitrarily represents one amino acid). Assume that gene X is responsible for its synthesis. A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I-J-K-L The amino acid "A" is at the C terminus and the amino acid "L" is at the N terminus. Present sequences of amino acids from gene X under the following circumstances. In other words, modify the sequence (if appropriate) and write it down under each of the statements below. Use any other letter to indicate an altered amino acid. (a) A substitution of adenine for cytosine in the 7th base in the coding region of the mRNA (counting from the 5' end of the coding region of the mRNA). (b) A frameshift mutation resulting in an insertion of a base between the 9th and 10th positions of the coding region of the mRNA (counting from the 5' end of the coding region of the mRNA). (c) A nonsense mutation involving bases 4,5, and 6 in the coding region of the mRNA (counting from the 5' end of the coding region of the mRNA). 34) Answer: (a) A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I-Q-K-L (b) O-S-E-Y-I-U-T-S-R-J-K-L (c) -L Explanation: 35) Apurinic sites (AP sites) involve a spontaneous loss of ________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule. Register to View Answerpurine Explanation: 36) Name two chemical mutagens that are collectively called acridine dyes. Answer: proflavin and acridine orange Explanation: 37) One type of mutation involves the replacement of a purine with a purine, while another causes the replacement of a pyrimidine with a purine. What general terms are associated with these two mutational phenomena? Answer: transition and transversion, respectively Explanation: 38) In general, mutation rates in humans occur in the range of ________ (frequency) per gamete per generation. Answer: 10-5 to 10-6 Explanation: 38) 37) 36) 35) 7 39) Assuming one mutational event in a gene, on average, which of the following mutagens would be expected to cause the most damage to a protein synthesized by such a mutagenized gene? 5-bromouracil, 2-amino purine, ethylmethane sulfonate, acridine orange Answer: acridine orange Explanation: TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 39) 40) Of the two cell lines that can contain a mutation in an organism, somatic and germline, the latter is most consequential to subsequent generations. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 40) 41) Certain base analogues such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in nonreplicating DNA. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 41) 42) When treating an organism with a mutagen, while it is possible that homozygous mutations will occur, it is more likely that most new mutations will be heterozygous or hemizygous. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 42) 43) The shorter the wavelength of a radiation source, the greater its likelihood of causing damage. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 43) 44) Acridine orange is an alkylating agent. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 44) 45) While mutation is the original source of genetic variation, its direct influence on changing allelic frequencies is relatively minor. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 45) 46) When using the attached-X method of mutation assessment in Drosophila, sons inherit their X chromosome from their mother, and their Y chromosome from their father. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 46) 47) When using the attached-X method of mutation assessment in Drosophila, sons inherit their X chromosome from their father, and their Y chromosome from their mother. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 47) 48) Pyrimidine dimers are typically caused by the mutagen 2-amino purine. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 48) 8 49) A missense mutation causes premature chain (protein) termination. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 49) 50) Strand discrimination during the process of DNA repair is based on DNA methylation in E. coli. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 50) 51) Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 51) 52) P elements in Drosophila were discovered because they are uniquely involved in stabilizing DNA and the dampening of mutation rates. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 52) MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 53) What term refers to a contiguous genetic complex that is under coordinated control? A) prototroph B) operon C) allosteric D) lysogen E) attenuation Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 54) 53) 54) Genetic regulation in eukaryotes can take place at a variety of levels from transcriptional to posttranslational. At what level is genetic regulation considered most likely in prokaryotes? A) exon processing B) polyadenylation of the 3' end of the mRNAs C) capping D) intron processing E) transcriptional Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 9 55) What term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription? A) positive control B) negative control C) induction D) stimulation E) activation Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 55) 56) Which term most appropriately refers to a regulatory protein in prokaryotes? A) DNA binding protein B) helicase activation C) RNA processing D) translation E) gyrase action Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 56) 57) In the lac operon, the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of A) splitting the b-linkage of lactose. B) forming ATP from pyruvate. C) nonautonomous replication. D) replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis. E) forming lactose from two glucose molecules. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 57) 10 58) Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lac operon in E. coli? A) negative control B) positive control C) constitutive D) repressible system E) inducible system Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 58) 59) When referring to attenuation in regulation of the trp operon, it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism ________ A) the trp operon is being transcribed at relatively high levels. B) ribosomes are stalling during translation of the attenuator region. C) tryptophan is inactivating the repressor protein. D) translational termination is likely. E) transcriptional termination is likely. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 59) 60) Which of the following clusters of terms applies when addressing enhancers as elements associated with eukaryotic genetic regulation? A) cis-acting, variable orientation, variable position B) trans-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation C) cis-acting, variable position, fixed orientation D) trans- and cis-acting, variable position E) cis-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 60) 11 61) Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are A) rDNA and nucleolar organizers. B) TATA and CAAT. C) TTAA and CCTT. D) enhancers and telomeres. E) microsatellites and transposons. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 61) 62) Regarding eukaryotic and prokaryotic genetic regulation, what process seems to be the most similar between the two? A) transcriptional regulation B) poly-A tail addition C) 5'-capping regulation D) RNA splicing regulation E) intron/exon shuffling Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 62) 63) DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to A) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets. B) changes in DNA-DNA hydrogen binding. C) alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine residues. D) altering RNA polymerase activity by methylation. E) altering translational activity especially of highly methylated tRNAs. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 63) SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 64) Certain mutations in the regulator gene of the lac system in E coli result in maximal synthesis of the Lac proteins ( -galactosidase, etc.) even in the absence of the inducer (lactose). Provide an explanation for this observation. Answer: There has been a mutation in the gene that produces the repressor, or the operator is mutated so that it will not interact with the repressor. Explanation: 64) 12 65) Present a detailed description of the actions of the regulatory proteins in inducible and repressible enzyme systems. Answer: Inducible system: the repressor is normally active but the inducer inactivates the repressor. Repressible system: the repressor is inactive but is activated by the corepressor. Active repressors turn off transcription. Explanation: 66) Compare and contrast positive and negative control of gene expression in bacteria. Answer: Both forms of control result from an interaction of a molecule (usually considered to be a protein) with the genetic material (either RNA or DNA). Positive control results when the interaction stimulates transcription, whereas negative control occurs when the interaction inhibits transcription. Explanation: 67) (a) Describe by labeled diagram the structural components of the lac operon in E coli. (b) State the function of the lac regulator gene. (c) State the function of -galactosidase in the lac system. (d) Show by diagram the manner in which lactose brings about transcription of the three structural genes of the lac operon. (e) Explain why certain mutations in the regulator gene (I- ) of the lac system result in 65) 66) 67) maximal synthesis of -galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase even in the absence of the inducer (lactose). Answer: (a) See appropriate diagrams in the text. (b) The regulator gene produces a repressor protein that interacts with the operator to shut off transcription. In the presence of lactose, the repressor protein does not interact with the operator. (c) -galactosidase cleaves the lactose sugar into its components glucose and galactose. (d) See appropriate diagrams in the text. (e) Such mutations provide modified proteins that are unable to associate with the operator to shut off transcription. Explanation: 13 68) The table below lists several genotypes associated with the lac operon in E. coli. For each, indicate with a "+" or "-" a whether functional -galactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels. -galactosidase production No Lactose With Lactose 68) Genotype (a) (b) (c) (d) I+ O+ Z+/F' I - O+ Z+ I- Oc Z+ /F'I - O+ ZIs Oc Z+/F'I + O+ Z+ I- O+ Z+/F' I - O+ Z+ I+ = wild type repressor I- = mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) Is = mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) O+ = wild type operator Oc = constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) Answer: (a) (b) (c) (d) Explanation: + + + + + + + 69) The table below lists several genotypes associated with the lac operon in E. coli. For each, indicate with a "+" or a "-" whether -galactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels. -galactosidase production No Lactose With Lactose 69) Genotype (a) I+ O+ Z+ /F' I+ O+ Z+ (b) I- Oc Z-/F' I- Oc ZI- Oc Z+/F' I- O+ Z+ (d) Is Oc Z- /F' Is O+ Z+ (c) I+ IIs O+ Oc = wild type repressor = mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) = mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) = wild type operator = constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) Answer: (a) (b) (c) (d) Explanation: + - + + - 14 70) State whether the following statement is true or false, then give your reasoning. The terminating "hairpin" loop occurs in the trp operon when sufficient tryptophan is present. Register to View Answerthe "hairpin" loops terminates transcription. Explanation: 71) Describe what is meant by a gratuitous inducer. Give an example. Register to View Answergratuitous inducer is a chemical analogue of a natural inducer. It serves as an inducer but is not a substrate for the reactions related to the natural inducer. Isopropylthiogalactoside (IPTG) is a gratuitous inducer of the lactose operon. Explanation: 72) Describe the positive control exerted by the catabolite activating protein (CAP). Include a description of catabolite repression. Answer: Regarding regulation of the lac operon, in the absence of glucose, CAP (dependent on cAMP and adenyl cyclase) binds to the CAP site and facilitates transcription (positive control). Transcription of the operon is inhibited in the presence of glucose (catabolite repression). Explanation: 73) Present an overview of prokaryotic regulation in terms of growth efficiency. Answer: Genetic systems have evolved that allow for "inhouse" production of growth substances when not supplied in the environment or when in full supply. When needed substances are in full supply, such genetic systems are repressed. Explanation: 74) Within the control region of the trp operon is a section of DNA that is sensitive to levels of tryptophan in the system. What is the name of this region? Answer: Leader or attenuator region Explanation: 75) Given the diagram below, what type of control, positive or negative, is operating? 70) 71) 72) 73) 74) 75) Answer: positive Explanation: 76) Regrading regulation of the trp operon, what might one appropriately call the amino acid tryptophan? Answer: corepressor Explanation: 76) 15 77) Mutations in the lacI and lacO genes of the lac regulatory system in E. coli often lead to full transcription of the three structural genes, even with no lactose is available to the organism. Such mutations would be called ________. Answer: constitutive Explanation: 78) A constitutive mutation in the lac operon may be of several types. Name two types of constitutive mutation. Answer: lacI - and lacOc Explanation: 79) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon? Answer: The lacY gene codes for permease, a membrane-bound protein that transports lactose into the bacterial cell. Explanation: 80) Explain why lacOc mutations are cis-acting while lacI mutations can be trans-acting. Answer: The operator region does not produce a diffusible product, while the lacI gene does. Explanation: 81) What experimental results would indicate that the mutation lacIs is dominant to lacI+ ? Answer: In lacIs / lacI+ partial diploids, the lac operon is in a repressed state in the presence of lactose. Explanation: 82) Monod discovered that if tryptophan is present in relatively high quantities in the growth medium, the enzymes necessary for its synthesis are repressed. How does this occur? Answer: Tryptophan acts as a corepressor to activate the tryptophan repressor protein; it also is involved in an attenuation system, which causes termination of transcription. Explanation: 83) The cAMP-CAP complex and RNA polymerase, both bind more efficiently to the lac operon together than either does alone. What term is applied to this increased efficiency of binding? Answer: cooperative binding Explanation: 84) An allosteric molecule is one in which ________. Answer: can change shape, and therefore function, in interactions with other molecules Explanation: 85) What symbols are used to describe constitutive mutations at specific regions of the lac regulatory system? Answer: I- and Oc Explanation: 77) 78) 79) 80) 81) 82) 83) 84) 85) 16 86) Regarding the trp operon, trpR- maps to a considerable distance from the structural genes. The mutation either inhibits the interaction with tryptophan or inhibits repressor formation entirely. In the presence of tryptophan in the medium, would you expect the trp operon to be transcriptionally active? Explain. Answer: With either of the two scenarios mentioned in the problem, the absence of repressor function in a repressible system means that there would be no repression of the operon. The operon would be transcriptionally active. Explanation: 87) The catabolite repression system in E. coli essentially represses the lac operon when glucose is present. What evolutionary advantage would favor evolution of such a system? Answer: Glucose can enter glycolysis "as is," while lactose must first be split into glucose and galactose. To do so, the energy-requiring synthesis of b-galactosidase is required. It is more energy-efficient to burn glucose than lactose. Explanation: 88) Enhancers are said to be cis-acting. What is meant by cis-acting and what are enhancers? Answer: Cis-acting means that the genes under control must be in the same chromosome as the cis-acting element. Enhancers are sections of DNA which regulate transcription of other sections of DNA. Explanation: 89) Describe three characteristics of enhancers. Answer: position need not be fixed, orientation may be inverted without significant effect; they are not gene-specific Explanation: 90) What is the significance of the homeodomain? Answer: The homeodomain is a highly conserved protein of 60 amino acids found in many proteins in a variety of organisms, which, in conjunction with other factors (such as POU domains), are thought to play a role in DNA binding and transcriptional activation. Explanation: 91) Transcription factors appear to be important molecules relating to the regulation of gene activity. In eukaryotes, two general classes or transcription factors exist. Briefly describe each. Answer: One class assembles at promoter regions adjacent to the site of transcription. The other class binds at more distant regions (enhancers). Explanation: 92) What are zinc fingers, and why are they frequently encountered in descriptions of genetic regulation in eukaryotes? Answer: Zinc fingers are protein domains that consist of amino acid sequences containing two cysteine and two histidine residues at repeating intervals. Interspersed cysteine and histidine residues covalently bind zinc atoms, folding the domains into loops (zinc fingers). They are one of the major groups of eukaryotic transcription factors. They were originally discovered in the Xenopus, and this structural motif has been identified in a variety of significant regulatory circumstances, including protooncogenes and developmental control genes in Drosophila. Explanation: 17 86) 87) 88) 89) 90) 91) 92) 93) Describe the function and general nature of promoters in eukaryotes. Answer: Promoter regions are necessary for the initiation of transcription. Promoters that interact with RNA polymerase II are usually located within 100 bp upstream of a gene and usually contain a TATA box and a CAAT box. Explanation: 94) What is meant by the term helix-turn-helix (HTH)? Answer: HTH domains were the first DNA-binding motifs to be identified. They are found in the cro, lac, and trp repressors. A geometric conformation is formed by two adjacent a-helices separated by a "turn" of several amino acids. Such motifs bind to the major groves of DNA and interact with the DNA backbone. They are present in developmentally significant sections of DNA called homeoboxes. Explanation: 95) What is a homeobox, and what is its significance? Register to View Answerhomeobox is a 180 bp sequence of DNA that specifies a 60-amino acid sequence that forms a helix-turn-helix structure (homeodomain). Explanation: 96) List at least three different types of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Answer: binding of transcription factors, DNA methylation, gene amplification, posttranscriptional regulation Explanation: 97) In what way might gene amplification be related to gene regulation? Give an example. Answer: Gene amplification involves an increase in the number of copies of genes, which in turn provides the potential for increasing the amount of gene products because more genes are present. Amplification of ribosomal genes during oogenesis in Xenopus is an example. Explanation: 98) In what way is gene rearrangement related to gene regulation? Give an example. Answer: The reshuffling of genes provides a way for certain gene segments to rearrange to produce new products or change the amounts of gene products. The relative positions of promoters and/or enhancers with respect to structural genes may influence transcription. In the production of immunoglobulins, such gene reshuffling occurs. Explanation: 99) Describe the general structure of a transcription factor. Answer: Transcription factors are modular proteins with at least two functional domains: one binds to DNA in promoters and enhancers, and another activates transcription. Explanation: 100) List three major structural classifications of DNA-binding domains found in eukaryotic transcription factors. Answer: helix-turn-helix (HTH), zinc finger, and leucine zipper Explanation: 93) 94) 95) 96) 97) 98) 99) 100) 18 101) In what ways are eukaryotic transcription factors thought to function? Answer: By binding to promoter and enhancer regions of the DNA, they appear to influence the structural organization of chromatin and possibly the looping out of DNA that separates the enhancer from the transcription initiation complex (transcription factors, promoter, RNA polymerase, etc.) Explanation: 102) What type of genetic control, positive or negative, typically results when transcription factors interact with DNA? Answer: positive control Explanation: 103) Approximately 5 % of the cytosine residues are methylated in the genome of any given eukaryote. In what way is DNA methylation related to genetic regulation? Answer: There is an inverse relationship between the degree of methylation of eukaryotic DNA and the degree of gene expression. Explanation: 104) Alternative RNA splicing is a method that apparently evolved for the production of many different polypeptides from the same pre-mRNA. Provide an example of alternative splicing. Answer: Various splicing schemes occur in the CT/CGRP gene in different tissues. In thyroid tissue, only the first four exons remain, while in the brain, exons 5 and 6 are included, but not exon 4. Explanation: 105) Name at least three different levels of regulation in eukaryotes. Answer: pretranscriptional, transcriptional, processing, transport, translational, posttranslational Explanation: 106) Name two consensus sequences or modular DNA sequences that may be found upstream from coding regions of some eukaryotic genes. Answer: TATA, and CAAT sequences (boxes) Explanation: 107) In what way is chromosomal organization within the nucleus of an interphase cell thought to be related to gene activity? Answer: In general, transcriptionally active genes tend to be positioned at the edges of chromosome territories so as to border interchromosomal channels. Explanation: 108) Mutagenic studies of the promoter region of the -globin gene indicate that some areas are likely to affect transcription rates than mutations in other areas. When mutations occur in consensus sequences (modular elements such as GC box, CAAT box, TATA box), transcription ________. Answer: decreases Explanation: 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 19 109) What is the location of an enhancer in relation to the gene it affects?. Answer: The position of an enhancer need not be fixed; it can be upstream, downstream, or within the gene it regulates. Explanation: 110) Describe how nucleosomes may influence gene transcription. Answer: The binding of transcription factors requires accessing nucleosomal DNA, and such factors may displace nucleosomes. The removal of a nucleosome from a stretch of DNA exposes it to binding by transcription factors and RNA polymerase, allowing transcription to proceed. Explanation: TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 109) 110) 111) The lac operon consists of three structural genes as well as the adjacent region of DNA known as the regulator. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 111) 112) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E. coli, a consititutive mutant is one in which the three enzymes are produced regardless of the presence or absence of lactose. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 112) 113) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E. coli, a gratuitous inducer is a molecule that is chemically analogous to lactose and induces the operon, but is not a substrate for the enzymes of the lac operon. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 113) 114) Under a system of negative control, genetic expression occurs unless such expression is shut off by some form of regulator. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 114) 115) Under a system of positive control, transcription does not occur unless a regulator molecule directly stimulates RNA production. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 115) 116) The enzyme permease cleaves the linkage between glucose and galactose residues in lactose. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 116) 117) The trp operon is typically characterized as being both under negative control and repressible. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 117) 20 118) Attenuation is known to occur in the lac operon. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 118) 119) Attenuation involves the termination of mRNA synthesis. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 119) 120) The trp and lac operons are both subject to forms of control that are typically called "negative." Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 120) 121) Transcription factors are proteins with at least two functional domains, one that binds to DNA and one that binds to RNA polymerase or to other transcription factors. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 121) 122) Transcription in eukaryotes is generally influenced by enhancers, just as in prokaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 122) 123) A homeobox is a DNA stretch of 180 bp that specifies a 60-amino-acid homeodomain. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 123) 124) In general, one could say that there are fewer levels of regulation possible in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 124) 125) In the eukaryotic promoters that have it, the CAAT box appears to be critical to the promoter's ability to facilitate transcription. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 125) 126) Regulation of RNA transport through the nuclear membrane is as common in prokaryotes as in eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 126) 127) Homeodomains appear to play a critical role in developmental processes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 127) 128) Alternative RNA processing generates different mRNAs that can direct the synthesis of different polypeptides. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 128) 21 129) Alternative RNA processing can result in different mRNAs that start with exons. different Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 129) MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 130) What term refers to a contiguous genetic complex that is under coordinated control? A) allosteric B) lysogen C) attenuation D) prototroph E) operon Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 131) 130) 131) Genetic regulation in eukaryotes can take place at a variety of levels from transcriptional to posttranslational. At what level is genetic regulation considered most likely in prokaryotes? A) polyadenylation of the 3' end of the mRNAs B) transcriptional C) exon processing D) capping E) intron processing Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 132) What term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription? A) activation B) negative control C) stimulation D) positive control E) induction Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 132) 22 133) Which term most appropriately refers to a regulatory protein in prokaryotes? A) gyrase action B) RNA processing C) helicase activation D) translation E) DNA binding protein Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 133) 134) In the lac operon, the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of A) replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis. B) forming ATP from pyruvate. C) forming lactose from two glucose molecules. D) nonautonomous replication. E) splitting the b-linkage of lactose. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 134) 135) Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lac operon in E. coli? A) repressible system B) positive control C) constitutive D) inducible system E) negative control Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 135) 23 136) When referring to attenuation in regulation of the trp operon, it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism ________ A) the trp operon is being transcribed at relatively high levels. B) translational termination is likely. C) tryptophan is inactivating the repressor protein. D) ribosomes are stalling during translation of the attenuator region. E) transcriptional termination is likely. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 136) 137) Which of the following clusters of terms applies when addressing enhancers as elements associated with eukaryotic genetic regulation? A) cis-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation B) trans- and cis-acting, variable position C) trans-acting, fixed position, fixed orientation D) cis-acting, variable position, fixed orientation E) cis-acting, variable orientation, variable position Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 137) 138) Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are A) rDNA and nucleolar organizers. B) microsatellites and transposons. C) TATA and CAAT. D) TTAA and CCTT. E) enhancers and telomeres. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 138) 24 139) Regarding eukaryotic and prokaryotic genetic regulation, what process seems to be the most similar between the two? A) RNA splicing regulation B) transcriptional regulation C) poly-A tail addition D) 5'-capping regulation E) intron/exon shuffling Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 139) 140) DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to A) altering RNA polymerase activity by methylation. B) altering translational activity especially of highly methylated tRNAs. C) changes in DNA-DNA hydrogen binding. D) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets. E) alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine residues. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 140) SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 141) Certain mutations in the regulator gene of the lac system in E coli result in maximal synthesis of the Lac proteins ( -galactosidase, etc.) even in the absence of the inducer (lactose). Provide an explanation for this observation. Answer: There has been a mutation in the gene that produces the repressor, or the operator is mutated so that it will not interact with the repressor. Explanation: 142) Present a detailed description of the actions of the regulatory proteins in inducible and repressible enzyme systems. Answer: Inducible system: the repressor is normally active but the inducer inactivates the repressor. Repressible system: the repressor is inactive but is activated by the corepressor. Active repressors turn off transcription. Explanation: 143) Compare and contrast positive and negative control of gene expression in bacteria. Answer: Both forms of control result from an interaction of a molecule (usually considered to be a protein) with the genetic material (either RNA or DNA). Positive control results when the interaction stimulates transcription, whereas negative control occurs when the interaction inhibits transcription. Explanation: 143) 142) 141) 25 144) (a) Describe by labeled diagram the structural components of the lac operon in E coli. (b) State the function of the lac regulator gene. (c) State the function of -galactosidase in the lac system. (d) Show by diagram the manner in which lactose brings about transcription of the three structural genes of the lac operon. (e) Explain why certain mutations in the regulator gene (I- ) of the lac system result in 144) maximal synthesis of -galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase even in the absence of the inducer (lactose). Answer: (a) See appropriate diagrams in the text. (b) The regulator gene produces a repressor protein that interacts with the operator to shut off transcription. In the presence of lactose, the repressor protein does not interact with the operator. (c) -galactosidase cleaves the lactose sugar into its components glucose and galactose. (d) See appropriate diagrams in the text. (e) Such mutations provide modified proteins that are unable to associate with the operator to shut off transcription. Explanation: 145) The table below lists several genotypes associated with the lac operon in E. coli. For each, indicate with a "+" or "-" a whether functional -galactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels. -galactosidase production No Lactose With Lactose 145) Genotype (a) (b) (c) (d) I+ O+ Z+/F' I - O+ Z+ I- Oc Z+ /F'I - O+ ZIs Oc Z+/F'I + O+ Z+ I- O+ Z+/F' I - O+ Z+ I+ = wild type repressor I- = mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) Is = mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) O+ = wild type operator Oc = constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) Answer: (a) (b) (c) (d) Explanation: + + + + + + + 26 146) The table below lists several genotypes associated with the lac operon in E. coli. For each, indicate with a "+" or a "-" whether -galactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels. -galactosidase production No Lactose With Lactose 146) Genotype (a) I+ O+ Z+ /F' I+ O+ Z+ (b) I- Oc Z-/F' I- Oc ZI- Oc Z+/F' I- O+ Z+ (d) Is Oc Z- /F' Is O+ Z+ (c) I+ IIs O+ Oc = wild type repressor = mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) = mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) = wild type operator = constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) Answer: (a) (b) (c) (d) Explanation: + - + + - 147) State whether the following statement is true or false, then give your reasoning. The terminating "hairpin" loop occurs in the trp operon when sufficient tryptophan is present. Register to View Answerthe "hairpin" loops terminates transcription. Explanation: 148) Describe what is meant by a gratuitous inducer. Give an example. Register to View Answergratuitous inducer is a chemical analogue of a natural inducer. It serves as an inducer but is not a substrate for the reactions related to the natural inducer. Isopropylthiogalactoside (IPTG) is a gratuitous inducer of the lactose operon. Explanation: 149) Describe the positive control exerted by the catabolite activating protein (CAP). Include a description of catabolite repression. Answer: Regarding regulation of the lac operon, in the absence of glucose, CAP (dependent on cAMP and adenyl cyclase) binds to the CAP site and facilitates transcription (positive control). Transcription of the operon is inhibited in the presence of glucose (catabolite repression). Explanation: 150) Present an overview of prokaryotic regulation in terms of growth efficiency. Answer: Genetic systems have evolved that allow for "inhouse" production of growth substances when not supplied in the environment or when in full supply. When needed substances are in full supply, such genetic systems are repressed. Explanation: 147) 148) 149) 150) 27 151) Within the control region of the trp operon is a section of DNA that is sensitive to levels of tryptophan in the system. What is the name of this region? Answer: Leader or attenuator region Explanation: 152) Given the diagram below, what type of control, positive or negative, is operating? 151) 152) Answer: positive Explanation: 153) Regrading regulation of the trp operon, what might one appropriately call the amino acid tryptophan? Answer: corepressor Explanation: 154) Mutations in the lacI and lacO genes of the lac regulatory system in E. coli often lead to full transcription of the three structural genes, even with no lactose is available to the organism. Such mutations would be called ________. Answer: constitutive Explanation: 155) A constitutive mutation in the lac operon may be of several types. Name two types of constitutive mutation. Answer: lacI - and lacOc Explanation: 156) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon? Answer: The lacY gene codes for permease, a membrane-bound protein that transports lactose into the bacterial cell. Explanation: 157) Explain why lacOc mutations are cis-acting while lacI mutations can be trans-acting. Answer: The operator region does not produce a diffusible product, while the lacI gene does. Explanation: 158) What experimental results would indicate that the mutation lacIs is dominant to lacI+ ? Answer: In lacIs / lacI+ partial diploids, the lac operon is in a repressed state in the presence of lactose. Explanation: 158) 157) 156) 155) 154) 153) 28 159) Monod discovered that if tryptophan is present in relatively high quantities in the growth medium, the enzymes necessary for its synthesis are repressed. How does this occur? Answer: Tryptophan acts as a corepressor to activate the tryptophan repressor protein; it also is involved in an attenuation system, which causes termination of transcription. Explanation: 160) The cAMP-CAP complex and RNA polymerase, both bind more efficiently to the lac operon together than either does alone. What term is applied to this increased efficiency of binding? Answer: cooperative binding Explanation: 161) An allosteric molecule is one in which ________. Answer: can change shape, and therefore function, in interactions with other molecules Explanation: 162) What symbols are used to describe constitutive mutations at specific regions of the lac regulatory system? Answer: I- and Oc Explanation: 163) Regarding the trp operon, trpR- maps to a considerable distance from the structural genes. The mutation either inhibits the interaction with tryptophan or inhibits repressor formation entirely. In the presence of tryptophan in the medium, would you expect the trp operon to be transcriptionally active? Explain. Answer: With either of the two scenarios mentioned in the problem, the absence of repressor function in a repressible system means that there would be no repression of the operon. The operon would be transcriptionally active. Explanation: 164) The catabolite repression system in E. coli essentially represses the lac operon when glucose is present. What evolutionary advantage would favor evolution of such a system? Answer: Glucose can enter glycolysis "as is," while lactose must first be split into glucose and galactose. To do so, the energy-requiring synthesis of b-galactosidase is required. It is more energy-efficient to burn glucose than lactose. Explanation: 165) Enhancers are said to be cis-acting. What is meant by cis-acting and what are enhancers? Answer: Cis-acting means that the genes under control must be in the same chromosome as the cis-acting element. Enhancers are sections of DNA which regulate transcription of other sections of DNA. Explanation: 166) Describe three characteristics of enhancers. Answer: position need not be fixed, orientation may be inverted without significant effect; they are not gene-specific Explanation: 159) 160) 161) 162) 163) 164) 165) 166) 29 167) What is the significance of the homeodomain? Answer: The homeodomain is a highly conserved protein of 60 amino acids found in many proteins in a variety of organisms, which, in conjunction with other factors (such as POU domains), are thought to play a role in DNA binding and transcriptional activation. Explanation: 168) Transcription factors appear to be important molecules relating to the regulation of gene activity. In eukaryotes, two general classes or transcription factors exist. Briefly describe each. Answer: One class assembles at promoter regions adjacent to the site of transcription. The other class binds at more distant regions (enhancers). Explanation: 169) What are zinc fingers, and why are they frequently encountered in descriptions of genetic regulation in eukaryotes? Answer: Zinc fingers are protein domains that consist of amino acid sequences containing two cysteine and two histidine residues at repeating intervals. Interspersed cysteine and histidine residues covalently bind zinc atoms, folding the domains into loops (zinc fingers). They are one of the major groups of eukaryotic transcription factors. They were originally discovered in the Xenopus, and this structural motif has been identified in a variety of significant regulatory circumstances, including protooncogenes and developmental control genes in Drosophila. Explanation: 170) Describe the function and general nature of promoters in eukaryotes. Answer: Promoter regions are necessary for the initiation of transcription. Promoters that interact with RNA polymerase II are usually located within 100 bp upstream of a gene and usually contain a TATA box and a CAAT box. Explanation: 171) What is meant by the term helix-turn-helix (HTH)? Answer: HTH domains were the first DNA-binding motifs to be identified. They are found in the cro, lac, and trp repressors. A geometric conformation is formed by two adjacent a-helices separated by a "turn" of several amino acids. Such motifs bind to the major groves of DNA and interact with the DNA backbone. They are present in developmentally significant sections of DNA called homeoboxes. Explanation: 172) What is a homeobox, and what is its significance? Register to View Answerhomeobox is a 180 bp sequence of DNA that specifies a 60-amino acid sequence that forms a helix-turn-helix structure (homeodomain). Explanation: 173) List at least three different types of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Answer: binding of transcription factors, DNA methylation, gene amplification, posttranscriptional regulation Explanation: 167) 168) 169) 170) 171) 172) 173) 30 174) In what way might gene amplification be related to gene regulation? Give an example. Answer: Gene amplification involves an increase in the number of copies of genes, which in turn provides the potential for increasing the amount of gene products because more genes are present. Amplification of ribosomal genes during oogenesis in Xenopus is an example. Explanation: 175) In what way is gene rearrangement related to gene regulation? Give an example. Answer: The reshuffling of genes provides a way for certain gene segments to rearrange to produce new products or change the amounts of gene products. The relative positions of promoters and/or enhancers with respect to structural genes may influence transcription. In the production of immunoglobulins, such gene reshuffling occurs. Explanation: 176) Describe the general structure of a transcription factor. Answer: Transcription factors are modular proteins with at least two functional domains: one binds to DNA in promoters and enhancers, and another activates transcription. Explanation: 177) List three major structural classifications of DNA-binding domains found in eukaryotic transcription factors. Answer: helix-turn-helix (HTH), zinc finger, and leucine zipper Explanation: 178) In what ways are eukaryotic transcription factors thought to function? Answer: By binding to promoter and enhancer regions of the DNA, they appear to influence the structural organization of chromatin and possibly the looping out of DNA that separates the enhancer from the transcription initiation complex (transcription factors, promoter, RNA polymerase, etc.) Explanation: 179) What type of genetic control, positive or negative, typically results when transcription factors interact with DNA? Answer: positive control Explanation: 180) Approximately 5 % of the cytosine residues are methylated in the genome of any given eukaryote. In what way is DNA methylation related to genetic regulation? Answer: There is an inverse relationship between the degree of methylation of eukaryotic DNA and the degree of gene expression. Explanation: 181) Alternative RNA splicing is a method that apparently evolved for the production of many different polypeptides from the same pre-mRNA. Provide an example of alternative splicing. Answer: Various splicing schemes occur in the CT/CGRP gene in different tissues. In thyroid tissue, only the first four exons remain, while in the brain, exons 5 and 6 are included, but not exon 4. Explanation: 174) 175) 176) 177) 178) 179) 180) 181) 31 182) Name at least three different levels of regulation in eukaryotes. Answer: pretranscriptional, transcriptional, processing, transport, translational, posttranslational Explanation: 183) Name two consensus sequences or modular DNA sequences that may be found upstream from coding regions of some eukaryotic genes. Answer: TATA, and CAAT sequences (boxes) Explanation: 184) In what way is chromosomal organization within the nucleus of an interphase cell thought to be related to gene activity? Answer: In general, transcriptionally active genes tend to be positioned at the edges of chromosome territories so as to border interchromosomal channels. Explanation: 185) Mutagenic studies of the promoter region of the -globin gene indicate that some areas are likely to affect transcription rates than mutations in other areas. When mutations occur in consensus sequences (modular elements such as GC box, CAAT box, TATA box), transcription ________. Answer: decreases Explanation: 186) What is the location of an enhancer in relation to the gene it affects?. Answer: The position of an enhancer need not be fixed; it can be upstream, downstream, or within the gene it regulates. Explanation: 187) Describe how nucleosomes may influence gene transcription. Answer: The binding of transcription factors requires accessing nucleosomal DNA, and such factors may displace nucleosomes. The removal of a nucleosome from a stretch of DNA exposes it to binding by transcription factors and RNA polymerase, allowing transcription to proceed. Explanation: TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 182) 183) 184) 185) 186) 187) 188) The lac operon consists of three structural genes as well as the adjacent region of DNA known as the regulator. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 188) 189) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E. coli, a consititutive mutant is one in which the three enzymes are produced regardless of the presence or absence of lactose. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 189) 32 190) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E. coli, a gratuitous inducer is a molecule that is chemically analogous to lactose and induces the operon, but is not a substrate for the enzymes of the lac operon. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 190) 191) Under a system of negative control, genetic expression occurs unless such expression is shut off by some form of regulator. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 191) 192) Under a system of positive control, transcription does not occur unless a regulator molecule directly stimulates RNA production. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 192) 193) The enzyme permease cleaves the linkage between glucose and galactose residues in lactose. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 193) 194) The trp operon is typically characterized as being both under negative control and repressible. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 194) 195) Attenuation is known to occur in the lac operon. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 195) 196) Attenuation involves the termination of mRNA synthesis. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 196) 197) The trp and lac operons are both subject to forms of control that are typically called "negative." Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 197) 198) Transcription factors are proteins with at least two functional domains, one that binds to DNA and one that binds to RNA polymerase or to other transcription factors. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 198) 199) Transcription in eukaryotes is generally influenced by enhancers, just as in prokaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 199) 200) A homeobox is a DNA stretch of 180 bp that specifies a 60-amino-acid homeodomain. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 200) 33 201) In general, one could say that there are fewer levels of regulation possible in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 201) 202) In the eukaryotic promoters that have it, the CAAT box appears to be critical to the promoter's ability to facilitate transcription. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 202) 203) Regulation of RNA transport through the nuclear membrane is as common in prokaryotes as in eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 203) 204) Homeodomains appear to play a critical role in developmental processes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 204) 205) Alternative RNA processing generates different mRNAs that can direct the synthesis of different polypeptides. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 205) 206) Alternative RNA processing can result in different mRNAs that start with different exons. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 206) MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 207) When considering the initiation of transcription one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s) bind. Which are common bacterial consensus sequences? A) CAAT, TATA B) any trinucleotide repeat C) GGTTC, TTAT D) satellite DNAs E) TTTTAAAA, GGGGCCCC Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 207) 34 208) What is the name given to the three bases in a messenger RNA that bind to the anticodon of tRNA to specify an amino acid placement in a protein? A) cistron B) rho C) codon D) protein E) anti-anticodon Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 208) 209) An intron is a section of A) carbohydrate that serves as a signal for RNA transport. B) protein that is clipped out posttranslationally. C) DNA that is removed during DNA processing. D) transfer RNA that binds to the anticodon. E) RNA that is removed during RNA processing. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 209) 210) The genetic code is fairly consistent among all organisms. The term often used to describe such consistency in the code is A) exceptional. B) universal. C) trans-specific. D) overlapping. E) none of the above Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 210) 35 211) Which of the following two terms relates most closely to split genes? A) transcription, translation B) 5'-cap, 3'-poly-A tail C) heteroduplex, homoduplex D) introns, exons E) elongation, termination Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 211) 212) Significant in the deciphering of the genetic code was the discovery of the enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase. What was this enzyme used for? A) production of ribosomal proteins B) degradation of RNA C) ribosomal translocation D) the manufacture of synthetic RNA for cell-free systems E) peptide bond formation Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 212) 213) In 1964, Nirenberg and Leder used the triplet binding assay to determine specific codon assignments. A complex of which of the following components was trapped in the nitrocellulose filter? A) ribosomes and DNA B) free tRNAs C) charged tRNA, RNA triplet, and ribosome D) sense and antisense strands of DNA E) uncharged tRNAs and ribosomes Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 213) 36 214) What is the initiator triplet in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? What amino acid is recruited by this triplet? A) AUG, methionine B) UAA, no amino acid called in C) UAA or UGA, arginine D) AUG, arginine E) UAA, methionine Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 214) 215) Select three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes. A) 5'-poly(A) tail addition, insertion of introns, capping B) 3'-capping, 5'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing C) 5'-capping, 3'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing D) removal of exons, insertion of introns, capping E) heteroduplex formation, base modification, capping Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 215) 216) The genetic code is said to be triplet, meaning that A) there are three amino acids per base in mRNA. B) there are three "nonsense" triplets. C) there are three bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid. D) there may be three ways in which an amino acid may terminate a chain. E) none of the above Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 216) 37 217) When scientists were attempting to determine the structure of the genetic code, Crick and co-workers found that when three base additions or three base deletions occurred in a single gene, the wild type phenotype was sometimes restored. These data supported the hypothesis that A) there are three amino acids per base. B) the code is triplet. C) AUG is the initiating triplet. D) the code contains internal punctuation. E) the code is overlapping. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 217) 218) When examining the genetic code it is apparent that A) there can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid. B) there can be more than one amino acid for a particular codon. C) the code is ambiguous in that the same codon can code for two or more amino acids. D) there are 44 stop codons because there are only 20 amino acids. E) AUG is a terminating codon. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 218) 219) The relationship between a gene and a messenger RNA is that A) messenger RNA is directly responsible for making Okazaki fragments. B) all genes are made from mRNAs. C) mRNAs are made from genes. D) mRNAs make proteins, which then code for genes. E) genes are made from mRNAs. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 219) 38 220) A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous (side-by-side) amino acid changes in proteins is probably caused by the following type of mutation: A) base analogue. B) frameshift. C) transversion. D) transition. E) recombinant. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 220) 221) Introns are known to contain termination codons (UAA, UGA, or UAG) yet these codons do not interrupt the coding of a particular protein. Why? A) Introns are removed from mRNA before translation. B) Exons are spliced out of mRNA before translation. C) UAA, UGA, and UAG are initiator codons, not termination codons. D) More than one termination codon is needed to stop translation. E) These triplets cause frameshift mutations, but not termination. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 221) 222) It has been recently determined that the gene for Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is over 2000 kb (kilobases) in length, but the mRNA produced by this gene is only about 14 kb long. What is a likely cause of this discrepancy? A) The DNA represents a double-stranded structure, while the RNA is single-stranded. B) When the mRNA is produced, it is highly folded and therefore shorter. C) There are more amino acids coded for by the DNA than the mRNA. D) The introns have been spliced out during mRNA processing. E) The exons have been spliced out during mRNA processing. Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 222) 39 223) If one compares the base sequences of related genes from different species one is likely to find that corresponding ________ are usually conserved, but the sequences of ________ are much less well conserved. A) exons; introns B) introns; exons C) introns; proteins D) introns; chaperons E) chaperons; exons Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 223) 224) Three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes occur in which cellular organelle? A) mitochondrion B) nucleus C) Golgi D) lysosome E) cytoplasm Register to View AnswerExplanation: A) B) C) D) E) 224) SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 225) Describe the direction of information flow in living systems. Use appropriate, scientific terms in your description. Answer: DNA is replicated and passed to offspring through a variety of reproductive processes. Information contained in the base sequences of DNA is transcribed into a variety of RNAs. Certain RNAs (tRNA) carry amino acids to the site of translation where proteins are assembled.Other RNAs (mRNA and rRNA) provide a mechanism for ordering the sequence of amino acids in proteins. Explanation: 226) Describe the function of N-formylmethionine in prokaryotes. Answer: N-formylmethionine is a modified amino acid, which serves as the starting amino acid in protein synthesis. Explanation: 227) What is polycistronic mRNA? Answer: Polycistronic mRNA is seen primarily in prokaryotes. One mRNA carries coding information and internal punctuation for the translation of more than one protein. Explanation: 227) 226) 225) 40 228) What is meant by punctuation in terms of the genetic code? Answer: Certain triplets (AUG) commonly signal the start point for protein synthesis, while other triplets (UAA, UGA, UAG) typically signal the termination of translation. Explanation: 229) In the period from the late 1950s to the mid-1960s numerous experiments using in vitro cell-free systems provided information on the nature of the genetic code. Briefly outline significant experiments in the determination of the genetic code. Answer: The use of polynucleotide phosphorylase for the random assembly of nucleotides provided for the assembly of RNA homo- and random heteropolymers, which when placed in the cell-free protein-synthesizing system, provided products (polypeptide chains) for analysis. The triplet binding assay along with the use of repeating copolymers was used to verify information provided earlier and to establish the ordered codon assignments. Explanation: 230) What is meant by the term heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)? Answer: pre-mRNA, primary transcripts before processing in eukaryotes Explanation: 231) "Breaking the Genetic Code" has been referred to as one of the most significant scientific achievements in modern times. Describe (in outline or brief statement form) the procedures used to "break the code." Answer: - use of polynucleotide phosphorylase for the production of synthetic "mRNAs" - introduction of synthetic mRNAs into the cell-free protein-synthesizing system - frameshift mutations in the rII region of T4 phage to show code is triplet and degenerate - triplet binding assay to produce mRNA-tRNA-ribosome complex - development of regular copolymers for use in the cell-free protein-synthesizing system Explanation: 232) Describe how the sigma subunit of E. coli RNA polymerase participates in transcription. Answer: The sigma subunit may give specificity to the RNA polymerase and play a regulatory function. It may be involved in the recognition of initiation sites or promoters. Explanation: 233) The finding that virtually all organisms use the same genetic code provides the basis for declaring that the code is universal. Name two exceptions to such universality. Answer: mitochondrial DNA, Mycoplasma capricolum, some protozoans Explanation: 234) Suppose that in the use of polynucleotide phosphorylase A and C are added in a ratio of 1A:5C. What is the probability of an AAA sequence occurring? Answer: 1/6 1/6 1/6 Explanation: 228) 229) 230) 231) 232) 233) 234) 41 235) Describe a difference between the RNA polymerases of eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Answer: In eukaryotes, three polymerases (I, II, III) have been identified, while only one has been described in prokaryotes. Explanation: 236) What two experimental procedures allowed deciphering of the ordered triplet assignments of the genetic code? Answer: the triplet binding assay and the use of repeating RNA polymers with known sequence Explanation: 237) Referring to the genetic code, what is meant by "wobble"? Answer: relaxed pairing specificities in the third-base position of a codon Explanation: 238) There is some indication that specific sequences of individual codons are in some way ordered; a certain pattern exists. Name an observation that supports this view. Answer: Certain amino acids may be grouped according to the middle base, for example, U or C in the second position often specifies hydrophobic amino acids. Also, frequently, codons with the same two starting letters encode the same amino acid. Explanation: 239) Describe four base triplets that are clearly responsible for punctuation (initiation, termination). Answer: AUG (rarely GUG) for initiation; UAA, UGA, UAG for termination Explanation: 240) What is a nonsense mutation? Register to View Answermutation that creates a termination triplet that occurs in frame in the coding region of a gene Explanation: 241) In eukaryotes, what DNA elements and proteins appear to encourage the specific association of RNA polymerase(s) to a specific region of DNA? Answer: promoters, enhancers, and transcription factors Explanation: 242) Regarding the efficient initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II, what specific "upstream" signals appear to be involved? Answer: TATA and CAAT base sequences, and enhancers Explanation: 243) Sidney Brenner argued that the genetic code is nonoverlapping because he considered that coding restrictions would occur if it were overlapping. A second major argument against an overlapping code involved the effect of a single nucleotide change. In an overlapping code ________ adjacent amino acids would be affected by a substitution mutation, while in a nonoverlapping code ________ amino acid(s) would be affected. Answer: two, one Explanation: 235) 236) 237) 238) 239) 240) 241) 242) 243) 42 244) A base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mRNA. Answer: third Explanation: 245) The relationship between codon and anticodon can be characterized as involving ________. Answer: hydrogen bonds between complementary bases (usually) in typical antiparallel fashion Explanation: 246) Of the following three types of polynucleotides DNA, mRNA, and tRNA which is most likely to contain modified bases? Answer: tRNA Explanation: 247) In the context of molecular genetics, how does one reconcile the terms, overlapping genes and nonoverlapping code? Answer: The genetic code contains codons that are nonoverlapping; however, overlapping genes are observed in some viruses where, due to differential use of AUG to initiate translation, the same mRNA can yield different protein products. Explanation: 248) What is meant by the term antisense oligonucleotide? Of what importance might such a material have in human health? Answer: Antisense oligonucleotides are relatively short stretches of nucleotides (usually about 20 nucleotides long), which are likely to bind with sense RNAs in a given cell. Theoretically, such oligonucleotides can be used to compromise the output of a hazardous gene. Explanation: 249) What is meant by the term RNA interference? Of what importance might such a process have in human health? Answer: RNA interference (RNAi) is a gene silencing technology (similar to antisense RNA) in which short interfering RNAs (siRNA) are used to target and silence specific mRNAs in cells. If a gene is producing a potentially hazardous product, siRNAs may theoretically be able to silence that gene. Explanation: TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 250) An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 244) 245) 246) 247) 248) 249) 250) 251) Messenger RNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 251) 43 252) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is transcribed RNA in eukaryotes that is not yet finished being processed prior to involvement in translation. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 252) 253) The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase is capable of generating a random assembly of ribonucleotides. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 253) 254) The code is nonoverlapping, meaning that, assuming "standard translation" a given base participates in the specification of one and only one amino acid. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 254) 255) Transcription factors function to help move ribosomes along the mRNA. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 255) 256) RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 256) 257) A 3' poly-A tail and a 5'-cap are common components of prokaryotic RNAs. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 257) 258) When one speaks of a 5'-cap, one is describing the addition of a base, usually thymine, to the 5' end of a completed peptide. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 258) 259) The triplet AUG is commonly used as a start codon during translation. Register to View AnswerExplanation: False 259) 44

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University of Florida - HUN - hun4221
1. Smokers have a higher RDA for vit C b/c increase carnitine synthesis a. FALSE 2. Riboflavin def decr. Amnt plp formed in liver a. False 3. 4 d's pellagra a. False 4. Dairy foods concentrated source of thiamina. False 5. Thymidylate synthase is a c
University of Florida - HUN - hun4221
I.ChromiumI I. Iodine a. Thyroid follicles with colloid b. Thyroperoxidase-adds iodine to c. Glutathione peroxidase d. Thyroperoxidase e. Rt3-inactive-doesn't leave thyroid gland f. In blood i. Thyroxine bindingii. Albumin iii. Trans iv. Free h
University of Florida - HUN - hun4221
IRON Essential transition metal element o o Outer shell is incomplete so it can ACCEPT/DONATE ELECTRONS to assume multiple valence states MOSTLY USED FOR REDOXFe2+ and Fe3+ become complexed with six water molecules o Their solubility depends on t
University of Florida - HUN - hun4221
Review for Hun4221 Test 2Biotin Glyocprotein-avidin Binds irreversibly Raw egg whites-affect biotin status because its irreversible Cook egg and fine Biotin bound to lycine-biocytin o o o o o End products of digestion Don't usually abso
University of Florida - HUN - hun4221
FOLATE-------FOLIC ACID RDA: 400 ug DFE/day- Adults 600 ug DFE/day- pregnant women 500 ug DFE/day- lactating women Upper Level: 1000ug/day folic acid Folate is necessary in DNA synthesis and metabolism of several amino acids. Folic Ac
University of Florida - HUN - hun4446
GALL BLADDER Function of the gall bladder - store and concentrate bile - CCK-PZ (pancreozymin) stimulate bile secretion - CCK-PZ causes o Contraction of gall bladder o Relaxation of sphincter of Oddi Bile Components o bilirubin (from hemoglobin) o bi
University of Florida - HUN - hun4446
TEST TWO: NUTRITION AND DISEASE II Describe the symptoms/clinical manifestations associated with ulcerative colitis. -20-30 bowel movements a day! this causes distress obviously -bloody diarrhea (more likely than Crohn's) -abdominal pain -tenesmus
University of Florida - HUN - hun4446
Name the two types of inflammatory bowel disease. o Two forms of disorders are Crohn's Disease & Ulcerative Colitis Describe the underlying etiology of Crohn's disease. o Crohn's Disease is hereditary. There is a 15-20% chance patient will receive d
University of Florida - HUN - hun4446
Diseases/Disorders of the Intestinal TractDiseases of the Intestinal TractObjectives Compare normal gastrointestinal (GI) structure and function to the changes that occur in diseases/disorders of the lower GI tract. Describe the etiology, sympt
University of Florida - CHM - chm2210
Tuesday, September 23, 2008CHM 2210 Sec. 4830Exam #1 Form AAnswer Page 1 of 2 pts.Answer sheetLast name: First name: UFID:KEY/100Put your answers in the spaces, or check your answer1. (17 pts) Formamide resonance.(a) H O C NH2 (
University of Florida - HUN - hun4445
HUN 4445 Skillbuilder Parenteral Nutrition1. For which of the following patients would parenteral nutrition be indicated? A patient with intractable nausea and vomiting A comatose patient A patient with a fractured jaw A patient with pancreatitis A
University of Florida - HUN - hun4445
HUN 4445 Skillbuilder Practicing Enteral Formula Calculations1. If a patient requires 1876 kcals, how much tube feeding formula would you need to give him of your standard formula that provides 1.2 kcal/ml? 1876 kcals/1.2 = 1563 ml of formula 2. RB
University of Florida - HUN - hun4445
Ch 13The structure of NAD+ does not include: a flavin nucleotide. Biological oxidation-reduction reactions never involve: formation of free e-. Biological oxidation-reduction reactions always involve: transfer of electron(s). If the deltaG' of the r
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 1, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 2, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 3, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 4, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 5, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 6, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 7, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 8, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 9, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trade
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 10, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trad
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 11, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trad
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 12, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trad
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Financial Accounting:The Impact on Decision MakersFifth EditionGary A. Porter and Curtis L. NortonChapter 13, Slide #1Copyright 2007 Thomson South-Western, a part of the Thomson Corporation. Thomson, the Star logo, and South-Western are trad
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
FINANCIAL INFORMATION MANAGEMENT (AIM3320003 SP09) REVIEW FOR FINAL EXAMFINANCIAL INFORMATION MANAGEMENT (AIM3320003 SP09) REVIEW FOR FINAL EXAM.1Figure 1.1 Assignment Chart..5Chapter 6 Cash & Internal Controls.5Cash equivalent..5 Bank statemen
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER 6 Cash and Internal ControlOVERVIEW OF EXERCISES, PROBLEMS, AND CASESLearning Outcomes Exercises Estimated Time in Minutes Level1. Identify and describe the various forms of cash reported on a balance sheet. 2. Show that you understand va
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER 7 Investments and ReceivablesOVERVIEW OF EXERCISES, PROBLEMS, AND CASESLearning Outcomes Exercises Estimated Time in Minutes Level1. Show that you understand the accounting and disclosure of various types of investments companies make. 2.
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER 8 Operating Assets: Property, Plant, and Equipment, Natural Resources, and IntangiblesOVERVIEW OF EXERCISES, PROBLEMS, AND CASESLearning Outcomes Exercises Estimated Time in Minutes Level1. Understand the balance sheet disclosures for ope
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER 11 Stockholders' EquityOVERVIEW OF EXERCISES, PROBLEMS, AND CASESLearning Outcomes Exercises Estimated Time in Minutes Level1. Identify the components of the Stockholders' Equity category of the balance sheet and the accounts found in eac
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER 12 The Statement of Cash FlowsOVERVIEW OF EXERCISES, PROBLEMS, AND CASESLearning Outcomes Exercises Estimated Time in Minutes Level1. Explain the purpose of a statement of cash flows. 2. Explain what cash equivalents are and how they are
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Technology In Action 2008 Prentice-Hall, Inc.1Technology In ActionChapter 2 Looking at Computers: Understanding the Parts 2008 Prentice-Hall, Inc.2Chapter Topics Hardware components Input devices Output devices System unit Ergonomic
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Introduction to MISMIS Foundation1What is an Information System Information System (IS). Collects, processes, stores, analyzes and disseminates information for a specific purpose. Computer-based Information System (CBIS). An information syste
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Course SyllabusBA 3351 Introduction to MIS Summer 2008 (Revised May 27th, 2008)Contact Information Instructor: Mark Thouin Office: SOM 3.217 (3 rd Level Management Bldg) Instructor Office Hours: Mon 4:00 P.M. 6:00 P.M. E-Mail: Students please us
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Test 2Review SheetAgenda Exam Review 65 questions, Multiple Choice and True/False MyITLab Assessment Due Tuesday, June 29th at Midnight Group Project PresentationsExam The Internet Databases Networking SecurityThe InternetThe term In
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Technology In Action 2008 Prentice-Hall, Inc.1Technology In ActionChapter 1 Why Computers Matter to You: Becoming Computer Fluent 2008 Prentice-Hall, Inc.2Chapter Topics Computer fluency Computers and careers Computer functions Da
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
CHAPTER SUMMARIES CHAPTER 17 west Indian culture varied o goods, culture, language and disease o Economy: livestock raising, hunting, fishing Gathering, trading and raiding o Corn was common crop, sheep and horses, buffalo was primary prey Great Pla
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Dust bowl: An ecological and economical disaster in the 1930's caused by over harvesting of the Southern Great Plains. The price of wheat shot-up dramatically during WWI, so in turn farmers of the Great Plains produced vast amounts of wheat. As the p
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Exam 2 Review IDs 1. Dust Bowl: caused by overproduction by farmers; ecological and economic disaster ofunprecedented proportions in mid-1930s; federal assistance for relief, AAA paid farmers not to produce; Soil Conservation Service; Mexicans no lo
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Evolution of American foreign policy (late 19th century-end of 1920s) Late 1800's: new era of American imperialism Open up business to new markets because production was > than consumption WHITE MAN'S BURDEN: spread Christianity, evangelism, missio
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Course SyllabusCourse InformationHIST 1302: U.S. History Survey from the Civil War Spring, 2008, JO4.614Professor Contact InformationJeff Schulze, JO5.205, 972-883-2985, jeffrey.schulze@utdallas.edu Office hours: MW 11:30-12:30 and T 3-4, or by
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Perils of ProsperityMonday, February 04, 2008 10:37 AM Prologue Thesis: pg 8 The greatness of America led to the demise Pg 39 The cause of WWI was capitalism Structure to facilitate world order (wilson wanted it) QUIZ general assessment celeb
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
BA 4371 COURSE SYLLABUSSchool of Management The University of Texas at Dallas Course Course Number/Section Course Title Term and DatesBA 4371.002 International Business Spring 2009Professor's Contact Information Professor Habte G. Woldu Office P
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
15Assessing and Analyzing MarketsThis chapter covers: Environmental analysis and market screening Market indicators and factors Market demand Trade missions Problems with marketing research Country and segment screening The internet as a market re
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
4The Dynamics of International InstitutionsThis chapter covers: The influence of international institutions The structure of the United Nations The importance of the WTO The European Union and NAFTA OECD OPEC Economic Integration Regional Trade Ag
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
5Understanding the International Monetary SystemThis chapter covers: Historical and present uses of gold Developments shaping the world monetary system Balance of payments Purchasing power parity theory Major foreign currency markets Currency conf
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
12-2Chapter Objectives Recognize forces beyond management control that affect the availability of labor Understand the reasons that cause people to leave their home countries Discuss guest workers Understand the basics of the immigration s
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Integrating components of Globalization Nations Competitiveness: -Based on Freedman's Vision of Globalization Phase one: countries going global Phase two: firms going global Phase three: individuals going global Question for Discussion - Is it possib
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Chapter ObjectivesRemember some of the complications of compensation packages for expatriate executives 19-2 Human Resource Management Human Resource Management includes Estimation of work force needs Recruitment and selection Training and developm
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
3Theories of International Trade and InvestmentThis chapter covers: Why goods are traded internationally Arguments for imposing trade restrictions Kings of import restrictions Weakness of GNP/capita as economic indicator Characteristics of develop
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
9Political ForcesThis chapter covers: Ideological forces that affect business Privatization Sources and reasons for terrorism Steps a traveling business executive should take The importance of government stability Power sources of international or
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
10Legal ForcesThis chapter covers: Legal forces that confront international business The importance of foreign law International contracts Protection of intellectual property Purposes of taxes Enforcement of antitrust laws Product liabilityMcGra
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
12Labor ForcesThis chapter covers: Forces that affect availability of labor Reasons people leave their home countries Guest workers The U.S. immigration system Labor productivity Women's labor Labor unions Labor's voice in managementMcGrawHill/I
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
19Human Resource ManagementThis chapter covers: Differences in labor conditions The growing role of women The "Global Mindset" The relationship between strategy and HR approaches IC executives The difficulties of finding qualified IC executives Ex
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
BA 4371: Essay questions for final examination 1) Distinguish the difference between guest worker and refugees. Discuss why guest workers are more preferred to refugees by the citizens and governments of a host country. 2) Discuss the overall trend o
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Case 9: Female Executives in International Business: How do Corporations Reverse the Myth "Many Nations are not ready to Accept Female Executives" Erika Cavazos Seo Choi David Malicoat Mike Ohikhuare Palka Patel Jeff Pollock1Introduction The numb
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Recommendations Hazardous gas detection system Public awarenessTelevision advertisements Awareness workshops School visits Documentation circulation in native language6/16/09
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
Unstable v. StableSaad Shah March 26, 2009 International Business Prof. WolduOverviewThis research presents the comparison of the economic performance of "unstable countries" versus "stable countries". "Stability" was determined by following fact
UT Dallas - BUSINESS - 4444
country Sudan U.S. dollars | Billions 9.9 7.11 5.17 7.06 8.7 Zimbabwe U.S. dollars | Billions Chad U.S. dollars | Billions 0.65 0.77 0.75 0.75 0.8 Congo, Democratic Repu U.S. dollars | Billions 15.47 13.47 14.65 11.81 7.88