This preview has intentionally blurred parts. Sign up to view the full document

View Full Document

Unformatted Document Excerpt

Animal 42 Hormones Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is a local hormone? a. Adrenaline b. Estrogen c. Histamine d. Insulin e. Thyroxine Register to View Answer2. The hormones of invertebrates a. are never secreted from glands in the head. b. are secreted only in adulthood. c. play no role in molting and metamorphosis. d. have different functions from those in vertebrates. e. require large quantities to have an effect. Register to View Answer3. Which of Wigglesworth's observations of Rhodnius bugs helped describe the role of insect hormones? a. A blood meal triggers molting in these bugs. b. If decapitated immediately following a blood meal, the bug will molt. c. When two bugs are connected, they molt simultaneously. d. When two bugs are connected, the feeding status of one can trigger molting in the other. e. When two bugs are decapitated and connected, they will never molt into adults. Register to View Answer4. Insect brain hormone serves to a. stimulate the prothoracic gland to release the hormone that stimulates molting. b. stimulate the corpora cardiaca to release molting hormone. c. directly stimulate molting if food reserves are adequate. d. inhibit molting until the insect is a certain size. e. have a general inhibitory effect on insect growth. Register to View Answer5. Which of the following hormones directly stimulates an insect larva to molt? a. Brain hormone b. Ecdysone c. Juvenile hormone d. Moltin e. Prolactin Register to View Answer6. Juvenile hormone be used by humans as an effective control of insect populations because it causes a. juvenile insects to die. b. the insects to fail to molt. c. the insects to fail to develop into adults. d. even tiny insects to pupate. e. insects to molt too quickly. Register to View Answer7. The neurohormones vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin are produced by the a. anterior pituitary and released by the posterior pituitary. b. hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. c. pituitary and signal to the hypothalamus. d. hypothalamus and signal to the brain. e. pituitary and signal to the reproductive organs. Register to View Answer8. Which of the following is an effect of oxytocin? a. Stimulation of uterine contractions at birth b. Increased reabsorption of water in the kidney c. Stimulation of tropic hormone release d. Increased productivity of the hypothalamus e. Increased rate of ovulation in the ovary Register to View Answer9. Which of these pairs correctly matches a pituitary hormone with its target organ? a. Oxytocinoviducts b. Melanocyte-stimulating hormonekidney c. Endorphinsbrain d. Growth hormoneskin and hair e. Luteinizing hormonethyroid Register to View Answer10. The best source of pituitary hormones for medical uses today is a. slaughtered sheep or cattle. b. human cadavers. c. amino acids synthesized in the laboratory. d. genetically engineered bacteria. e. human blood samples. Register to View Answer11. Under which of these conditions would a mammal need to increase thyroxine levels? a. Following childbirth in a female b. During illness and fever c. When blood glucose levels are high d. During sleep and rest e. When exposed to cold Register to View Answer12. Which of the following would signal a reduction in thyrotropin release? a. Increased levels of thyrotropin b. Decreased levels of thyrotropin c. Increased levels of thyroxine d. Decreased levels of thyroxine e. Decreased activity of the thyroid Register to View Answer13. Which type of goiter (enlarged thyroid) can be reduced by addition of iodine to the diet? a. Hyperthyroid goiter, in which the thyroxine does not turn off the pituitary b. Hyperthyroid goiter, in which the thyroid is activated c. Hypothyroid goiter, involving low functional thyroxine and high thyrotropin d. Hypothyroid goiter, involving high functional thyroxine and low thyrotropin e. All types of goiter Register to View Answer14. In addition to thyroxine, the mammalian thyroid gland produces a. adrenaline. b. calcitonin. c. iodine. d. prolactin. e. thyrotropin. Register to View Answer15. The parathyroid glands are involved in regulation of blood levels of a. calcium. b. glucose. c. iodine. d. sodium. e. thyroxine. Register to View Answer16. A lack of insulin cause diabetes mellitus because insulin is required for a. excretion of glucose. b. glucose breakdown. c. glucose uptake by cells. d. converting glucose to glycogen. e. synthesizing glucose. Register to View Answer 17. Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas? a. Cortisol b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Somatostatin e. Digestive enzymes Register to View Answer18. The adrenal medulla develops from nervous tissue and produces the hormone a. epinephrine. b. adrenocorticotropin. c. aldosterone. d. cholesterol. e. cortisol. Register to View Answer19. Which of the following is not a function of cortisol? a. Metabolizing fats for energy b. Mediating response to stress c. Slowing down metabolism of glucose d. Stimulating the immune response e. Metabolizing proteins for energy Register to View Answer20. Muscle-building anabolic steroids are known to cause all of the following effects except a. irregular menstrual periods in women. b. increased body and facial hair in women. c. increased body and facial hair in men. d. breast enlargement in men. e. kidney disease. Register to View Answer21. The hormones secreted by the gonads are synthesized from a. complex carbohydrates. b. amino acids. c. cholesterol. d. hemoglobin. e. nucleic acids. Register to View Answer22. What determines whether a developing mammalian gonad will become an ovary or a testis? a. Any gonad with cells containing the Y chromosome will become a testis. b. A steady high level of estrogens causes a gonad to become an ovary. c. The absence of estrogens causes a gonad to become a testis. d. The absence of androgens causes a gonad to become an ovary. e. Presence of a Y chromosome causes the release of androgens at a critical fetal stage, resulting in the development of testes. Register to View Answer23. Which of the following is the earliest event in puberty? a. The pituitary produces more gonadotropins. b. The level of circulating androgens rises in males. c. The menstrual cycle is initiated in females. d. The gonads differentiate into testes or ovaries. e. Subcutaneous fat increases in males. Register to View Answer24. Vitamin D a. is synthesized by skin cells. b. becomes active after passing through the liver and kidneys. c. is lipid-soluble and thus can enter cells. d. is involved in the regulation of calcium. e. All of the above Register to View Answer25. Growth factors a. are paracrine hormones. b. can be found in blood plasma and tissue extracts. c. may act as autocrine messages during negative feedback. d. a, b, and c e. None of the above Register to View Answer26. Which of the following statements about hormones is false? a. The same hormone can cause different responses in different types of cells. b. Hormone structure evolves more rapidly than hormone function does. c. The receptor for a hormone may be the secretory cell itself. d. Pheromones are chemical messages that influence other individuals of the same species. e. None of the above Register to View Answer27. Which of the following statements about hormones is false? a. Target cells have the appropriate receptors to bind a particular hormone. b. The secretion, diffusion, and circulation of hormones is much slower than the transmission of nerve impulses. c. Hormones often control long-term physiological processes. d. All hormones travel in the blood to target cells. e. Both a and b Register to View Answer28. Steroid hormones a. initiate second messenger activity. b. bind with membrane proteins. c. alter gene expression. d. activate enzyme pathways. e. bind with membrane phospholipids. Register to View Answer29. A _______ stimulus releases hormones that produce and coordinate major developmental, physiological, and behavioral changes in the male cichlid fish of Lake Tanganyika. The hormone transforms "wimpy" males into big, brightly colored, aggressive, sexually attractive "macho" males. a. chemical b. physical c. behavioral d. Both a and b e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer30. Hormones are secreted by a. endocrine glands, such as the thyroid gland. b. individual cells, such as those lining portions of the digestive tract. c. cells in the nervous system (neurohormones). d. Both a and c e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer31. Which of the following is the chronological order of events in the molting of Rhodnius, as determined by Sir Vincent Wigglesworth? a. Blood meal, brain hormone release, ecdysone release b. Blood meal, ecdysone release, brain hormone release c. Ecdysone release, blood meal, brain hormone release d. Brain hormone release, blood meal, ecdysone release e. None of the above Register to View Answer32. Hormones belong to a number of distinct chemical groups. Which of the following is not one of these groups? a. Steroids b. Proteins c. Amino acids and peptides d. Carbohydrates e. Modified fatty acids Register to View Answer33. Which of the following hormones is not produced within the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas? a. Somatostatin b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Calcitonin e. Both a and b Register to View Answer34. Somatostatin a. is released when glucose and amino acids rise rapidly in the blood. b. inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon. c. slows digestive activity. d. is produced in the pancreas and hypothalamus. e. All of the above Register to View Answer35. What was the target for the brain hormone demonstrated by Sir Wigglesworth's experiments with Rhodnius? a. Prothoracic gland b. Pupal stage c. Larval stage d. Corpora cardiaca e. Corpora allata Register to View Answer36. Hormones released by the posterior pituitary are produced in the a. anterior pituitary. b. hypothalamus. c. pineal gland. d. thymus. e. thyroid. Register to View Answer37. Which of the following hormones is (are) produced by the posterior pituitary gland? a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin c. Endorphins d. Growth hormone e. Luteinizing hormone Register to View Answer38. Tropic hormones control other endocrine glands. Which of the following is (are) not a tropic hormone? a. Thyrotropin b. Adrenocorticotropin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Enkephalins e. Follicle-stimulating hormone Register to View Answer39. Which of the following is an effect of increased levels of vasopressin in the blood? a. Letdown of milk from mammary tissues b. Uterine contractions during birth c. Water conservation by the kidney d. Production of somatomedins by the liver e. Production of enkephalins by the hypothalamus Register to View Answer40. Which of the following hormones is not paired correctly with its target organ? a. Oxytocinadrenal glands b. Prolactinmammary glands c. Endorphinspinal cord neurons d. Vasopressinkidneys e. Luteinizing hormonegonads Register to View Answer41. Which of the following statements about growth hormone or its function is false? a. Growth hormone stimulates cells to take up amino acids. b. Growth hormone is not a tropic hormone. c. Pituitary dwarfism is now preventable. d. Neurohormones of the hypothalamus influence release of growth hormone. e. None of the above Register to View Answer42. The 1972 Nobel Prize in medicine was awarded to Roger Guillemin and Andrew Schally for discoveries relating to a. the cause of hypopituitary dwarfism. b. hypothalamic releasing factors. c. production of growth hormone using genetically engineered bacteria. d. the cause of acromegaly. e. the discovery of a cure for hypothyroidism. Register to View Answer43. Malfunctioning of the thyroid gland in the human adult can result in a. cretinism. b. diabetes. c. dwarfism. d. goiter. e. hermaphroditism. Register to View Answer44. Which of the following hormones is produced by the parathyroid glands? a. Parathormone b. Thyroxine c. Calcitonin d. Oxytocin e. Pitressin Register to View Answer 47 Effectors: Making Animals Move Multiple Choice 1. What mechanism is responsible for movements of cilia and flagella? a. Muscle contraction b. The microfilament system c. The microtubule system d. Crystal formation e. The skeletal system Register to View Answer2. Which of the following does not rely on movement of cilia? a. Movement of an egg through an oviduct b. Movement of particles through the airways of lungs c. Feeding movements of a paramecium d. Movement of particles over the gills of a clam e. Amoeboid movement Register to View Answer3. Which is the most important determinant of the proportion of fast- and slow-twitch fibers in skeletal muscle? a. Diet b. Exercise c. Genetic heritage d. Age e. None of the above Register to View Answer4. The glycolytic system by which muscles obtain ATP a. relies on creatine phosphate. b. is also referred to as the immediate system. c. is the most efficient means of producing ATP. d. produces lactic acid. e. completely metabolizes carbohydrates and fats. Register to View Answer5. Anaerobic exercise such as weight lifting a. increases strength. b. can do minor tissue damage. c. induces the formation of new actin and myosin filaments in existing muscle fibers. d. produces bigger muscle fibers and hence bigger muscles. e. All of the above Register to View Answer6. Which of the following statements about fast-twitch and slow-twitch fibers is false? a. The most important factor determining the proportion of fast- and slow-twitch fibers in skeletal muscles is genetic heritage. b. Aerobic training increases the oxidative capacity of fast-twitch fibers. c. A single muscle may contain fast- and slow-twitch fibers. d. Fast-twitch fibers fatigue slowly. e. None of the above Register to View Answer7. The extension of a pseudopod in amoeboid movement occurs by means of a. the extension of actin microfilaments next to the membrane. b. contraction of the plasmagel next to the membrane. c. the changing of plasmagel to plasmasol, which expands and bulges outward. d. microfilament-generated cytoplasmic streaming of the plasmasol. e. rapid expansion of the cell membrane and the incorporation of plasmagel. Register to View Answer8. The resting potential of smooth muscle cells is a. not subject to forming action potentials. b. affected by stretching the cells. c. more negative than in most cells. d. unaffected by nearby potential change. e. nearly zero. Register to View Answer9. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to the a. dark color of myosin. b. multiple nuclei per fiber. c. regular arrangement of filaments. d. dense array of microtubules. e. dense packing of ATP molecules. Register to View Answer10. An individual sarcomere unit consists of a. a stack of actin fibers. b. a stack of myosin units. c. overlapping actin and membrane. d. overlapping myosin and membrane. e. overlapping actin and myosin. Register to View Answer11. How do muscle fibers shorten during contraction? a. Individual protein filaments contract. b. More cross-bridges are formed between filaments. c. Arrays of filaments overlap each other. d. Protein filaments coil more tightly. e. Subunits of protein polymers detach. Register to View Answer12. How do actin and myosin molecules interact? a. Globular myosin heads bind to actin filaments. b. Globular actin heads bind to myosin filaments. c. Other proteins connect the two. d. Myosin filaments bend to connect to actin. e. Actin filaments bend to connect to myosin. Register to View Answer13. Why do muscles stiffen in rigor mortis when animals die? a. Without ATP, muscles cannot contract. b. Without ATP, actin and myosin cannot bind. c. Without ATP, actin and myosin cannot separate. d. ATP is required for synthesis of protein filaments. e. ATP forms cross-bridges between filaments. Register to View Answer14. Vertebrate skeletal muscles are excitable cells because they a. can be stimulated by ATP. b. can be stimulated by an electric charge. c. can secrete neurotransmitter. d. possess voltage-gated sodium channels. e. can attain a high level of activity. Register to View Answer15. What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction? a. It stores Ca2+ ions for release during contraction. b. It surrounds and protects the muscle filaments. c. It provides sites of ATP synthesis. d. It depolarizes when stimulated by an impulse. e. It synthesizes actin and myosin filaments. Register to View Answer 16. How does tropomyosin control muscle contraction? a. It provides a bridge between actin and myosin. b. It provides a site where ATP can be utilized. c. Changing its position exposes actinmyosin binding sites. d. It transmits electric charge to the filaments. e. Changing its shape opens membrane channels. Register to View Answer17. How can muscle fibers show a range of responses to different levels of stimulation? a. Each muscle fiber contraction is all or none. b. The availability of Ca2+ sets an upper limit. c. A new contraction can occur only after the resting condition is reached. d. Following a stimulation, the fiber stays contracted. e. Individual twitches in the same fiber can summate. Register to View Answer18. The legs of cross-country skiers and long-distance runners are likely to have a. almost all slow-twitch fibers. b. almost all fast-twitch fibers. c. about the same number of slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers. d. more slow-twitch fibers. e. more fast-twitch fibers. Register to View Answer19. Fast-twitch skeletal muscle fibers, called white muscle, are characterized by a. a high concentration of myoglobin. b. abundant mitochondria. c. the rapid development of high tension. d. the ability to sustain activity for a long time. e. higher oxygen requirements than that of slow-twitch fibers. Register to View Answer20. What is a feature of cardiac muscle that helps the heart withstand high pressures without tearing? a. The fibers branch and intertwine. b. The fibers are arranged in parallel. c. Each fiber has a single nucleus. d. The fibers have gap junctions between them. e. Some fibers have pacemaking functions. Register to View Answer21. The exoskeleton of clams contains a. calcium carbonate. b. cartilage. c. chitin. d. collagen. e. cuticle. Register to View Answer22. An advantage of an arthropod's exoskeleton is that it a. protects against abrasion. b. prevents water loss. c. provides attachment sites for muscles. d. bends at the animal's joints. e. All of the above Register to View Answer23. An advantage of an endoskeleton over an exoskeleton is that it a. provides muscle attachment sites. b. provides protection. c. grows as the animal grows. d. supports the animal's weight. e. gives structure to the animal. Register to View Answer24. What is the role of cartilage in the skeleton? a. To bear a heavy load b. To add flexibility c. To be lightweight d. To sustain vibrations e. To grow rapidly Register to View Answer25. Bone tissue consists of _______ cells in a matrix of _______. a. osteocyte; polysaccharide b. osteocyte; collagen and calcium phosphate c. osteocyte; myosin and actin d. collagen; calcium phosphate e. collagen; polysaccharide Register to View Answer26. How do osteoblasts cause bone to grow? a. They lay down new matrix until surrounded. b. They increase the number of cells within the matrix. c. They lay down new matrix on bone surface. d. They tear down old bone and deposit new bone. e. They tear down old cartilage and deposit bone. Register to View Answer27. Haversian systems consist of a. osteocytes that connect different cavities. b. osteoblasts that will give rise to osteoclasts. c. a meshwork of cancellous bone tissue. d. cylindrical units surrounding a canal of blood vessels. e. a reinforced system of bone that resists fracturing. Register to View Answer28. The role of tendons is to join a. two bones. b. two ligaments. c. bone and ligament. d. muscle and ligament. e. muscle and bone. Register to View Answer29. Which of the following does not act as an effector? a. The poisonous secretion of pufferfish b. The mercaptan spray of skunks c. Pheromone secretion by butterflies d. Sensory neuron stimulation e. The secretion of saliva in the mouth Register to View Answer30. Which of the following functions is not governed by microfilaments? a. Formation of daughter cells following mitosis b. Support of intestinal cell microvilli c. Movement of flagella d. Changes in cell shape e. Phagocytosis Register to View Answer31. Whether a muscle contraction is strong or weak depends on how many motor neurons going to that muscle are firing and the rate at which they are firing. These two factors can be thought of, respectively, as spatial _______ and temporal _______. a. transmission; transduction b. transduction; transmission c. organization; summation d. summation; summation e. coordination; summation Register to View Answer32. What is the function of the hydrostatic skeleton of invertebrates? a. Skeletal muscle contraction b. Skeletal muscle expansion c. Locomotion d. Propulsion e. b, c, and d Register to View Answer 33. Which of the following joints is found in humans? a. Ball-and-socket b. Hinge c. Pivot d. Saddle and ellipsoid e. All of the above Register to View Answer34. _______ are a group of invertebrate effectors that enable animals to change color. a. Nematocysts b. Chromatophores c. Electroplates d. Poison glands e. Retractable stingers Register to View Answer35. Which of the following general statements about effectors is false? a. Any mechanism that an animal uses in order to respond is an effector. b. All effector action that involves movement is dependent on the interaction of microfilaments or microtubules. c. Muscle action depends on the movement of microtubules. d. Movement due to microfilaments and microtubules depends on the sliding action of long protein molecules. e. Effectors rely on energy made available by ATP. Register to View Answer36. Aerobic exercise such as jogging increases a. myoglobin. b. the number of mitochondria in skeletal muscle cells. c. enzymes involved in energy utilization. d. the density of capillaries. e. All of the above Register to View Answer37. In which of the following locations would you not expect to find cilia? a. Within the air passages of the human lung b. Within the human female reproductive tract c. On the surface of intestinal cells in the human digestive tract d. On the surface of a clam gill e. On a filter-feeding animal Register to View Answer38. Which of the following statements about the growth of long bones is false? a. Ossification starts at the center of long bones. b. Elongation occurs at epiphyseal plates. c. Secondary sites of ossification occur at the ends of long bones. d. Long bones begin as cartilaginous bones. e. Long bones form as scaffolding on a connective tissue membrane. Register to View Answer39. The three systems by which muscles obtain ATP a. differ in the capacity and rate at which they produce ATP. b. rely on the large amounts of ATP stored in muscle. c. produce similar amounts of ATP. d. rely on reactions within mitochondria. e. have similar time courses. Register to View Answer40. The polymerization and depolymerization of tubulin is involved in helping to cause all of the following phenomena except a. the movement of chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis. b. the growth of neurons during development. c. changes in cell shape. d. amoeboid movement. e. organelle movement. Register to View Answer41. The dominant microfilament component in cells is a. actin. b. myosin. c. tubulin. d. dynein. e. troponin. Register to View Answer42. Microfilaments are involved in helping to cause all of the following phenomena except a. the movement of chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis. b. the division of cytoplasm during animal cell mitosis. c. changes in cell shape. d. amoeboid movement. e. phagocytosis and pinocytosis. Register to View Answer43. Which of the following statements about amoeboid movement is false? a. Plasmasol is located in the interior of the cell. b. Plasmagel contains a network of actin microfilaments that interact with myosin. c. The cell moves by flowing into its pseudopodia. d. The plasmasol contracts during amoeboid movement. e. The pseudopod stops forming when the cytoplasm at the leading edge converts to gel. Register to View Answer 44. Which of the following statements about bone is false? a. When astronauts spend long periods of time in zero gravity, they experience decalcification of their bones. b. Osteoclasts are derived from the lineage of cells that produce red blood cells. c. Most bones have compact and cancellous regions. d. Bones may become thicker or thinner depending on the amount of stress placed on them. e. None of the above Register to View Answer45. Which of the following statements about smooth muscle is false? a. Smooth muscle is under the control of the autonomic nervous system. b. Smooth muscle cells are multinucleate. c. Smooth muscle appears unstriated when viewed with the microscope. d. Gap junctions are common in smooth muscle. e. Stretched smooth muscle will contract. Register to View Answer46. Which of the following events does not occur during muscle contraction? a. The distance between Z lines increases. b. The sarcomere shortens. c. The H zone is reduced. d. The I band is reduced. e. The area of actin and myosin overlap increases. Register to View Answer47. Which of the following statements about the molecular arrangement of actin and myosin in myofibrils is false? a. A thin filament consists of actin and tropomyosin. b. Two chains of actin monomers are twisted into a helix. c. Two strands of tropomyosin lie in the grooves of the actin. d. Troponin forms the head of the myosin molecule. e. The myosin heads have ATPase activity and interact with the actin. Register to View Answer48. Starting with the arrival of an action potential at the neuromuscular junction, which of the following is the correct order of events? a. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, an action potential travels down the T tubules, depolarization spreads through the T tubule, and myosin binds actin. b. An action potential travels down the T tubules, depolarization spreads through the T tubule, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and myosin binds actin. c. An action potential travels down the T tubules, depolarization spreads through the T tubule, calcium is taken up by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and myosin binds actin. d. An action potential travels down the T tubules, depolarization spreads through the T tubule, ATP binds to myosin, and myosin binds actin. e. A T tubule is depolarized, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, an action potential is created in the muscle cell, and myosin binds actin. Register to View Answer49. When troponin binds calcium, a. it allows tropomyosin to bind actin. b. ion channels open and sodium rushes into the muscle cells. c. it changes conformation, twisting tropomyosin and exposing the actinmyosin binding site. d. it changes conformation, exposing the ATP binding site and allowing the actinmyosin bond to break. e. calmodulin binds to calcium and starts a cascade by activating myosin kinase. Register to View Answer50. Muscle tone is the condition in which a. different muscles are taking responsibility for maintaining posture. b. the muscle has generated maximum tension. c. the muscle will eventually exhaust its supply of ATP. d. a small but changing number of motor units is active. e. the maximum number of action potentials is being received by the muscle. Register to View Answer51. Fast- and slow-twitch fibers differ in all of the following ways except for the a. number of mitochondria. b. amount of myoglobin. c. amount of glycogen and fat. d. number of neuromuscular junctions. e. number of blood vessels. Register to View Answer52. Which of the following phenomena does not involve a hydrostatic skeleton? a. Burrowing in earthworms b. Swimming in scallops c. Retraction of tentacles and body in the sea anemone d. Jet propulsion in squid e. Both b and d Register to View Answer53. Which of the following statements about exoskeletons is false? a. During molting, the old exoskeleton is reabsorbed and a new exoskeleton forms. b. A clam shell is a exoskeleton. c. The outer layer of the arthropod cuticle prevents water loss in terrestrial species. d. The inner layer of the arthropod exoskeleton is used for muscle attachment. e. The arthropod exoskeleton is a continuous covering that is thinned at the joints. Register to View Answer 54. Which of the following statements about the endoskeletons of vertebrates is false? a. The muscles are attached to a living support structure. b. The rib bones are part of the appendicular skeleton. c. Molting is unnecessary in animals with endoskeletons. d. Endoskeletons consist of bone and cartilage. e. At least two bones are required to form a joint. Register to View Answer55. Which of the following statements about cartilage and bone is false? a. Some vertebrates are composed entirely of cartilage and no bone. b. Some vertebrates are composed entirely of bone, with no cartilage. c. Bone has crystals of calcium phosphate. d. The endoskeleton in many vertebrates serves as a reservoir of calcium. e. The principal protein in cartilage is collagen. Register to View Answer56. Long bones begin as _______ bones. At maturity the shaft of a long bone consists of a _______ of _______ bone. a. dermal; cylinder; compact b. dermal; solid rod; cancellous c. cartilage; cylinder; compact d. cartilage; cylinder; cancellous e. cartilage; solid rod; compact Register to View Answer57. Which of the following statements about skeletal systems as a series of joints and levers is false? a. An extensor muscle moves a bone closer to the body. b. Antagonistic pairs include an extensor muscle and a flexor muscle associated with the same joint. c. Ligaments hold together bones that meet at joints. d. Tendons attach muscles to bones. e. The knee joint is a hinge joint. Register to View Answer58. If you were designing a skeletal lever system for maximum power, you would a. insert both the muscle and the load force close to the joint. b. insert both the muscle and the load force far from the joint. c. insert the muscle close to the joint and place the load far from the joint. d. insert the muscle far from the joint and place the load close to the joint. e. use a large muscle. Register to View Answer59. Which of the following mechanisms is not known to occur in chromatophoremediated color adaptation? a. Rapid synthesis or destruction of pigment within chromatophores b. Dispersal or aggregation of pigment granules within chromatophores c. Shape change of chromatophores due to amoeboid movement d. Shape change of chromatophores due to interaction with muscle tissue e. All of the above Register to View Answer60. Glands are involved in all of the following, except a. intracellular communication. b. intercellular communication. c. communication between different individuals. d. defense against predators. e. prey capture. Register to View Answer61. Which of the following statements about electric organs is false? a. In some species, production of electric fields is used for defense or for capture of prey. b. In some species, production of electric fields is used for orientation. c. Electric organs are derived from nervous tissue. d. Nerves, muscles, and electric organs use the same mechanisms to produce electric potentials. e. Large electric currents are achieved by coordinating the discharge of the cells in the electric organ. Register to View Answer Chapter 48 Gas Exchange in Animals Multiple Choice 1. Breathing provides the body with oxygen required to support the energy metabolism of all cells. Breathing also eliminates _______, one of the waste products of cell metabolism. a. CO2 b. CO c. carbon tetrachloride d. calcium carbonate e. carbonic acid Register to View Answer5. Gas exchange in animals always involves a. cellular respiration. b. breathing movements. c. neural control of exchange. d. diffusion across membranes. e. active transport of gases. Register to View Answer14. Which of the following structures is the site of gas exchange in the lungs? a. Alveoli b. Bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Trachea e. Both a and b Register to View Answer15. Which factor maximizes the rate of gas exchange in mammals? a. Exceedingly high partial pressures of O2 in the blood b. The larynx (voice box) opening into the trachea c. Enormous surface area for gas exchange d. The small increase in size during inhalation e. Production of mucus and surfactants Register to View Answer16. Surfactant produced by cells lining the alveoli serves to a. increase surface tension. b. increase stretching of the alveolar walls. c. assist muscular movements of breathing. d. reduce cohesion of surface molecules. e. reduce ciliary movement. Register to View Answer17. One effect of cigarette smoking on the lungs is to a. remove mucus from the airways. b. immobilize cilia the lining airways. c. speed air flow through the airways. d. increase surfactant action. e. increase surface area in alveoli. Register to View Answer18. The lower side of the thoracic cavity is formed by the a. diaphragm. b. esophagus. c. stomach. d. ribs. e. intercostal muscles. Register to View Answer19. The lungs expand in inhalation because a. the diaphragm contracts upward. b. the shoulder girdle moves upward. c. the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. d. lung tissue actively stretches. e. the lung tissue rebounds from exhalation. Register to View Answer20. The process of exhalation is brought about by a. the contraction of intercostal muscles. b. the relaxation of muscles. c. the contraction of the diaphragm. d. complete collapse of the lung tissue. e. low pressure in the thoracic cavity. Register to View Answer21. If the thoracic wall is punctured, air leaking in will cause the lung to collapse. Thus in the normal, intact thoracic cavity, a. lung expansion is passive. b. air pressure is the same as it is on the outside. c. a slight suction keeps lungs inflated. d. breathing movements keep lungs inflated. e. Both a and b Register to View Answer22. Which part of the blood is most efficient at carrying oxygen? a. Blood plasma solution b. Blood plasma proteins c. Blood platelets d. Membrane molecules of red blood cells e. Hemoglobin molecules of red blood cells Register to View Answer24. Each molecule of hemoglobin, when fully saturated, carries how many molecules of oxygen? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 20 e. Nearly 100 Register to View Answer25. Hemoglobin delivers O2 to body cells from the red blood cells a. until the hemoglobin is depleted of O2. b. until the partial pressures of O2 in the cells are equivalent. c. although the hemoglobin is never completely saturated. d. by releasing O2 to cells with higher partial pressure of oxygen. e. until the fluid pressure in the red blood cells is lower. Register to View Answer27. What is the advantage of having myoglobin in muscle cells? a. It binds with O2 just as easily as hemoglobin does. b. It contributes to the dark color of flight muscle in birds. c. It increases the effectiveness of muscles used in short bursts. d. It releases bound O2 at lower PO2 conditions than hemoglobin does. e. It uses hemoglobin as a reserve source of oxygen. Register to View Answer31. Most of the CO2 in the blood is transported a. bound with hemoglobin. b. as dissolved gas. c. as HCO3. d. as H2CO3. e. as calcium carbonate. Register to View Answer33. Neural control of breathing is a function of the a. cerebrum. b. diaphragm. c. medulla. d. olfactory lobe. e. spinal cord. Register to View Answer34. The breathing center initiates ventilation in response to a. a decrease in air pressure. b. a decrease in O2. c. an increase in CO2. d. the time since the last breath. e. the rate of gas exchange in the alveoli. Register to View Answer37. Which of the following is not an expected response from a fish to a drop in water temperature? a. Increase in metabolism b. Increase in amount of O2 available c. Decrease in blood flow d. Decrease in O2 consumption e. All of the above Register to View Answer47. In the following equation, which quantity represents the volume of your normal breath? Total lung capacity = residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume a. Total lung capacity b. Residual volume c. Expiratory reserve volume d. Inspiratory reserve volume e. Tidal volume Register to View Answer49. Carbon monoxide (CO) a. binds to hemoglobin with a higher affinity than O2 does. b. may be released by faulty furnaces or the burning of charcoal or kerosene in unventilated areas. c. exposure may cause death from lack of O2. d. All of the above e. None of the above Register to View Answer50. Which of the following statements about surfactants in the lungs is false? a. Water coating the respiratory surfaces of the lungs creates surface tension. b. Surfactants increase the cohesive forces between water molecules. c. Certain cells in the alveoli produce surfactants. d. Surface tension influences the amount of effort required to inflate the lungs. e. Premature infants suffer respiratory distress syndrome if natural surfactants are not present within the lungs. Register to View Answer53. Which of the following statements about the binding of oxygen by hemoglobin is false? a. The percent of completely O2-saturated hemoglobin increases as PO2 increases. b. The oxygen-binding curve is S-shaped. c. There is a narrow range of the O2-binding curve where O2 dissociationassociation is rapid. d. It requires a very low PO2 to cause all four hemoglobin subunits to bind to O2. e. If one subunit of a completely oxygen-saturated hemoglobin loses its O2, the affinity of the remaining subunits for their O2 increases. Register to View Answer 49 Circulatory Systems Multiple Choice 1. A cardiovascular system is not necessary in the hydra because it a. is an aquatic animal. b. has no skeleton. c. is only two cells thick. d. has tentacles to move water. e. does not move rapidly. Register to View Answer2. In an open circulatory system, a. there is no heart. b. there is a gastrovascular cavity. c. there are no blood vessels. d. blood flows out of the body. e. there is no distinction between blood and tissue fluid. Register to View Answer3. An example of an animal with an open circulatory system is the a. bat. b. earthworm. c. hydra. d. snail. e. lizard. Register to View Answer4. In humans, which vessel empties into the right atrium? a. Pulmonary veins b. Inferior vena cava c. Superior vena cava d. Pulmonary artery e. Both b and c Register to View Answer5. In vertebrates, exchange of substances between the blood and the interstitial fluids occurs in the a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. capillaries. d. veins. e. venules. Register to View Answer6. In the fish circulatory system, blood a. moves from the muscular ventricle to the gills. b. entering the aorta is under high pressure. c. leaving the heart moves to body tissues. d. leaving the gills is under high pressure. e. is received from the body into a muscular atrium. Register to View Answer7. Circulatory systems of adult amphibians demonstrate which of the following advantages over those of fishes? a. A four-chambered heart b. Heart metamorphosis c. Partial separation of pulmonary and systemic circulation d. A pocket of the gut that serves as an air bladder e. Separation of oxygenated from deoxygenated blood Register to View Answer8. The advantage of having a heart with two atria is that a. oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are separated. b. blood is pumped directly from heart to tissues. c. blood can be slowed down before going to tissues. d. the body can support a higher blood pressure. e. there are two muscular regions for pumping. Register to View Answer9. In which way are crocodilians different from other reptiles? a. They have a separate pulmonary circulation. b. They have lungs and no gills. c. They have an open circulatory system. d. They have more muscular atria. e. They have a four-chambered heart. Register to View Answer10. In the human heart, blood is pumped from the left ventricle into the a. right ventricle. b. left atrium. c. right atrium. d. pulmonary circuit. e. systemic circuit. Register to View Answer11. Which vessel transports oxygenated blood from the lung into the heart? a. Pulmonary artery b. Pulmonary vein c. Superior vena cava d. Inferior vena cava e. Coronary artery Register to View Answer12. In the cardiac cycle, blood pressure is at a maximum when the a. atria are contracting during systole. b. atria are contracting during diastole. c. ventricles are contracting during systole. d. ventricles are relaxing during systole. e. ventricles are relaxing during diastole. Register to View Answer13. The heart beats because of cardiac muscle's unique properties, such as a. high resistance to outside stimulation. b. cell communication via gap junctions. c. a low level of electric activity. d. an external pacemaking system. e. rapid chemical communication. Register to View Answer14. The specific location of the heart pacemaker is the a. sinoatrial node. b. atrioventricular node. c. Purkinje fibers. d. bundle of His. e. ventricular mass. Register to View Answer15. The timing of the spread of the action potential from atrium to ventricle is controlled by the a. sinoatrial node. b. atrioventricular node. c. Purkinje fibers. d. bundle of His. e. ventricular mass. Register to View Answer16. The diameter of a capillary is about the same as that of a(n) a. arteriole. b. nerve. c. red blood cell. d. valve. e. venule. Register to View Answer17. As blood enters the capillaries from the arterioles, the blood pressure _______ and the osmotic potential _______. a. decreases; decreases b. decreases; increases c. increases; decreases d. decreases; remains steady e. increases; remains steady Register to View Answer18. Histamine causes swelling by a. making blood vessels expand and decreasing the permeability of capillaries. b. making blood vessels contract and decreasing the permeability of capillaries. c. making blood vessels expand and increasing the pressure in capillaries. d. decreasing the permeability of and increasing the pressure in capillaries. e. increasing the permeability of and increasing the pressure in capillaries. Register to View Answer19. Lymph nodes are sites a. where bacteria can grow. b. where inflammation occurs. c. that regulate blood fluid. d. where new cells enter. e. of mechanical filtering. Register to View Answer20. What causes blood to move in the veins toward the heart? a. Gravity b. The contraction of venous walls c. Pulsing movement from the heart d. The contraction of nearby muscles e. Venous capacitance Register to View Answer21. The FrankStarling law suggests that during exercise the a. flow of blood through the heart speeds up. b. heart is stretched and contracts more forcefully. c. veins expand to handle increased blood flow. d. heart fills to capacity with blood at each beat. e. valves in veins can no longer prevent backflow. Register to View Answer22. In normal humans the hematocrit, or percentage of the blood made up of cells, is about _______ percent. a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 70 e. 90 Register to View Answer23. The most abundant cells in the blood are a. erythrocytes. b. leukocytes. c. phagocytes. d. platelets. e. None of the above Register to View Answer24. The hormone erythropoietin is released by the kidney a. to remove old red blood cells from circulation. b. in response to high levels of oxygen in circulation. c. in response to low levels of hemoglobin. d. to stimulate production of red blood cells. e. to stimulate platelet formation. Register to View Answer25. The lifetime of an individual red blood cell is approximately a. 4 hours. b. 4 days. c. 4 weeks. d. 40 days. e. 4 months. Register to View Answer26. The mature red blood cells of humans a. are more than 75 percent hemoglobin. b. contain no nuclei or endoplasmic reticulum. c. have a nearly spherical shape. d. have a relatively low surface area-to-volume ratio. e. have a rigid shape and low flexibility. Register to View Answer27. A platelet is activated to initiate clotting a. during a histamine reaction. b. when leukocytes are activated. c. when collagen fibers are encountered. d. when blood flow rates drop. e. in the presence of prothrombin. Register to View Answer28. How does the circulating protein fibrinogen contribute to blood clotting? a. It polymerizes to form fibrin threads. b. It acts as a catalyst for thrombin activation. c. It binds to red blood cells. d. It activates the platelets. e. It triggers phagocytosis by the leukocytes. Register to View Answer29. Heart murmurs result from defective a. heart muscle. b. arterioles. c. ventricular contraction. d. blood supply to the heart. e. heart valves. Register to View Answer30. Which of the following will lead to autoregulatory increase of blood flow to a tissue? a. High blood pressure b. High CO2 concentration c. High O2 concentration d. High ATP concentration e. High glucose concentration Register to View Answer31. Which of the following statements about gastrovascular cavities is false? a. Organisms with gastrovascular cavities tend to be only a few cells thick. b. Gastrovascular cavities are always highly branched. c. Gastrovascular cavities are filled with interstitial fluid. d. The diffusion path length in organisms with gastrovascular cavities is usually short. e. Large organisms do not usually have gastrovascular cavities. Register to View Answer32. Which of the following statements about open circulatory systems is false? a. A pump is usually present. b. Blood is pumped out of openings in the heart called ostia. c. The blood is the interstitial fluid. d. Tissue fluid bathes the tissues directly. e. Many mollusks and all arthropods have open circulatory systems. Register to View Answer33. Which of the following structures is not part of the circulatory system of an earthworm? a. Contractile vessels b. A major dorsal vessel c. Capillary beds in the lungs d. Capillary beds in each segment e. A major ventral vessel Register to View Answer34. The left ventricle in humans is more muscular than the right ventricle because a. resistance is higher in the systemic circuit. b. resistance is higher in the pulmonary circuit. c. it pumps more blood. d. it pumps more viscous blood. e. None of the above Register to View Answer35. Which of the following vertebrates has a three-chambered heart with both pulmonary and systemic circuits? a. Fish b. Lungfish c. Amphibian d. Crocodile e. Both b and c Register to View Answer36. Which of the following structures in a vertebrate with a four-chambered heart has blood with the lowest O2 concentration? a. Pulmonary vein b. Pulmonary artery c. Left atrium d. Aorta e. Arteriole end of a capillary Register to View Answer37. When submerged, frogs receive most of their O2 from capillaries within the skin. Which of the following structures would contain blood with the highest O2 concentration in a submerged frog that is not able to breath using its lungs? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Aorta d. Ventricle e. Pulmonary vein Register to View Answer38. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary vein c. Pulmonary artery d. Both a and b e. Both a and c Register to View Answer39. A blood pressure represented as 140/100 means that the a. pressure during ventricular contraction is 140, while the pressure during ventricular relaxation is 100. b. pressure during ventricular contraction is 100, while the pressure during ventricular relaxation is 140. c. pressure during ventricular contraction is 140, while the pressure during atrial contraction is 100. d. pressure during atrial contraction is 140, while the pressure during ventricular contraction is 100. e. diastolic pressure is 140 and the systolic pressure is 100. Register to View Answer40. During the cardiac cycle, the blood pressure in the aorta is at a minimum a. at the end of systole. b. at the beginning of systole. c. at the beginning of diastole. d. when the physician hears the "dub" sound with the stethoscope. e. None of the above Register to View Answer41. Which of the following heart regions is third in sequence of action potential propagation during a normal heartbeat? a. Bundle of His b. Atrioventricular node c. Purkinje fibers d. Sinoatrial node e. Ventricular muscle cells Register to View Answer42. Which of the following statements concerning the heartbeat is true? a. Only the ventricles contract together. b. Only the atria contract together. c. The atria contract together, and the ventricles contract together. d. Only the atrium and ventricle on the right side of the heart contract together. e. Only the atrium and ventricle on the left side of the heart contract together. Register to View Answer43. Gap junctions a. electrically isolate cardiac muscle cells. b. allow large numbers of cardiac muscle cells to contract in unison. c. provide enough strength to withstand the large pressure generated by the ventricles. d. are only found in the cardiac muscle cells of the ventricles. e. are especially abundant in the muscles between the atria and ventricles. Register to View Answer44. The blood vessels with the greatest total cross-sectional area are the a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. capillaries. d. venules. e. veins. Register to View Answer 45. The _______ have blood with the lowest pressure. a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. venules e. veins Register to View Answer46. In the electrocardiogram (EKG) of a normal cardiac cycle, the wave called T corresponds to a. depolarization of the atria. b. depolarization of the ventricles. c. repolarization of the atria. d. repolarization of the ventricles. e. More than one of the above Register to View Answer47. Blood pressure is _______ than osmotic pressure at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and the process of _______ occurs there. a. greater; reabsorption b. greater; filtration c. lesser; reabsorption d. lesser; filtration e. lesser; edema Register to View Answer48. Blockage of a coronary artery can cause a. heart attack. b. stroke. c. fainting. d. edema. e. anemia Register to View Answer49. Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is false? a. The lymphatic system conducts lymph from the lymph capillaries to the thoracic duct, where it enters the circulatory system. b. Lymph is identical to blood except that it does not contain erythrocytes. c. Lymphoid capillaries are distributed throughout the body. d. Contraction of skeletal muscles propels the lymph. e. Lymph nodes are an important part of the defense system that combats infections. Register to View Answer50. Which of the following is not a mechanism that facilitates return of venous blood to the heart? a. Gravity when veins are above the heart b. Contraction of skeletal muscles c. Breathing d. Contraction of smooth muscle in most of the veins of the body e. Valves in veins Register to View Answer51. The blood vessels with the greatest capacity to store blood are the a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. capillaries. d. venules. e. veins. Register to View Answer52. Which of the following statements about blood cells is false? a. There are at least 500 times as many red as white blood cells. b. Erythrocytes are anucleate in mammals. c. The biconcave shape of the erythrocyte creates a large surface area for gas exchange. d. Red blood cells are generated by stem cells in the spleen. e. Leukocytes destroy foreign cells. Register to View Answer53. Which of the following circulatory components is not normally found circulating in the plasma? a. Platelets b. Thrombin c. Albumin d. Fibrinogen e. Both a and c Register to View Answer54. The purpose of precapillary sphincters is to a. increase blood pressure to the arteries. b. decrease blood pressure to the veins. c. shut off the supply of blood to the capillary bed. d. increase blood pressure to the capillaries. e. provide blood to smooth muscles surrounding capillary beds. Register to View Answer55. Which of the following statements about veins is true? a. As much as 80 percent of total blood volume may be in the veins at any one time. b. Veins are capacitance vessels. c. The walls of veins are more expandable than the walls of arteries are. d. Veins are resistance vessels. e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer 56. Which one of the following responses characterizes the diving reflex? a. Reduction in the heartbeat rate b. Increase in systolic pressure c. Increase in diastolic pressure d. Tachycardia e. Dilation of arteries to most organs Register to View Answer57. Advantages of closed circulatory systems over open circulatory systems include which of the following? a. Exchange occurs more rapidly. b. Closed systems can direct blood to specific tissues. c. Cells and large molecules can be kept separate from the animal's intercellular material. d. Closed circulatory systems can support higher levels of metabolic activity. e. All of the above Register to View Answer58. In the evolution of the vertebrate circulatory system, the _______ is the organism that reveals the transition step leading to separate pulmonary and systemic circuits. a. lungfish b. ancient ostracoderm c. bird d. amphibian e. reptile Register to View Answer59. Systole and diastole describe the _______ and _______, respectively, of the _______ in mammals. a. relaxation; contraction; ventricles b. contraction; relaxation; ventricles c. relaxation; contraction; atria d. contraction; relaxation; atria e. None of the above Register to View Answer60. Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing atherosclerosis? a. A high fat and high cholesterol diet b. Smoking c. High altitude d. Inactive lifestyle e. Hypertension Register to View Answer61. Which of the following statements about valves is false? a. Defective heart valves produce sounds called heart murmurs. b. Veins and lymphatic vessels have two-way valves. c. Varicose veins result when valves within veins can no longer prevent backflow of blood. d. The pulmonary valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. e. Atrioventricular valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract. Register to View Answer62. When a piece of thrombus breaks loose and lodges in a smaller vessel, blocking the flow of blood, it is called a. thrombosis. b. an infarction. c. an embolism. d. atherosclerosis. e. a hematocrit. Register to View Answer63. When whole blood is centrifuged, it is separated into a liquid component called _______ and a bottom layer of _______. a. hematocrit; cells b. plasma; cells c. plaque; cells d. hematocrit; plasma e. packed cell volume; plasma Register to View Answer64. The function of leukocytes is a. defense against infection. b. transport of respiratory gases. c. blood clotting. d. distribution of nutrients to tissues. e. production of the different types of blood cells. Register to View Answer65. Which of these hormones causes constriction of the blood vessels? a. Epinephrine b. Vasopressin c. Angiotensin d. Both b and c e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer66. Stretch receptors in the aorta and carotid arteries a. detect atherosclerosis. b. detect changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brain. c. constrict arteries when available O2 is low. d. detect when a flexor muscle is stretched too far and then pump more blood to the muscle. e. None of the above Register to View Answer67. Which of these factors contributes to increased blood flow to tissues? a. Low O2 concentration b. Increased concentration of lactate c. High concentration of carbon dioxide d. Both a and b e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer 51 Salt and Water Balance and Nitrogen Excretion Multiple Choice 1. The extracellular fluids in our bodies a. have the same composition as seawater. b. have a much higher osmotic concentration than fluids in cells have. c. contain no proteins. d. have a fixed water concentration. e. can supply water and nutrients to cells. Register to View Answer2. Water moves into tissues as a result of all of the following processes except a. osmotic gradient. b. fluid pressure. c. active transport. d. principles of diffusion. e. the salinity gradient. Register to View Answer3. Ammonia and urea are waste products derived from the metabolic breakdown of a. carbohydrates. b. lipids. c. sugars. d. proteins. e. salts. Register to View Answer4. Marine invertebrates in which the salinity of body fluids changes with the osmotic potential of their environments are known as a. osmoconformers. b. osmoregulators. c. osmoexcretors. d. hypotonic. e. hypertonic. Register to View Answer5. Which of the following molecules is most toxic to cells? a. Water b. Sodium chloride c. Ammonia d. Urea e. Uric acid Register to View Answer6. Which of the following animals is most likely to excrete mostly urea or uric acid instead of ammonia? a. Freshwater fishes b. Saltwater fishes c. Tadpoles d. Shrimp e. Seagulls Register to View Answer7. Which of the following substances is the least soluble in water? a. Ammonia b. Uric acid c. Urea d. Sodium chloride e. Amino acids Register to View Answer8. Organisms that are ionic regulators maintain an a. osmotic concentration that may differ from the environment. b. osmotic concentration that is the same as the environment. c. ion concentration that may differ from the environment. d. ion concentration that is the same as the environment. e. ion concentration by diffusion only. Register to View Answer9. Which of the following operates by filtering fluids into a tube, and then secreting or resorbing specific substances? a. Flame cells of flatworms b. Metanephridia of annelid worms c. Malpighian tubules of insects d. Vertebrate nephrons e. All of the above Register to View Answer10. In which of the following are nitrogenous waste solutes eliminated via the gut? a. Flame cells of flatworms b. Metanephridia of annelid worms c. Malpighian tubules of insects d. Vertebrate nephrons e. All of the above Register to View Answer11. The functional unit of the kidney is the a. Bowman's capsule. b. capillary. c. glomerulus. d. nephron. e. renal tubule. Register to View Answer12. Which process drives the process of filtration from the capillaries into the glomerulus? a. Active transport b. Arterial blood pressure c. Venous blood pressure d. Osmotic pressure e. Secretion Register to View Answer13. During filtration, which of the following does not enter Bowman's capsule from the bloodstream? a. Water b. Glucose c. Ions d. Amino acids e. Plasma proteins Register to View Answer14. Analysis of kidney function in simple vertebrates suggests that the earliest vertebrate nephron functioned mainly to a. remove excess fluid. b. remove excess salts. c. remove excess nutrients. d. filter nitrogenous wastes. e. conserve water. Register to View Answer 15. Marine bony fishes acquire excess salt when they drink seawater. They handle this salt load in all of the following ways except by a. producing very dilute urine. b. producing very little urine. c. excreting ions from gills. d. secreting salt from the renal tubules. e. not absorbing some ions from the gut. Register to View Answer16. Cartilaginous fishes maintain an osmotic concentration in their tissue fluids that matches that of seawater by a. excreting large amounts of water. b. drinking large amounts of seawater. c. concentrating seawater salts in their blood. d. concentrating urea in their tissue fluids. e. excreting salts at their gills. Register to View Answer17. Water conservation adaptations of reptiles include all of the following except a. scaly skin. b. excretion of uric acid. c. shelled eggs. d. internal fertilization of gametes. e. excretion of salts. Register to View Answer18. Water conservation adaptations of amphibians living in dry environments include all of the following except a. waxy secretions on the skin. b. estivation during dry periods. c. production of concentrated urine. d. burrowing into the ground. e. large urinary bladders. Register to View Answer19. Which structure is found in the inner medulla of the kidney? a. Bowman's capsule b. Convoluted tubule c. Glomerulus d. Loop of Henle e. Both a and d Register to View Answer20. Of the fluid that is filtered into Bowman's capsule, approximately what percent is resorbed into the blood within the kidney? a. Less than 5 b. About 25 c. About 50 d. About 75 e. Over 95 Register to View Answer21. The cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule have numerous microvilli and mitochondria. Such structures indicate that _______ is conducted in these cells. a. rapid diffusion of water b. active transport c. conservation of water d. storage of salts e. production of urea Register to View Answer22. Valuable molecules like glucose, amino acids, and vitamins are resorbed into the blood at which location in the nephron? a. Bowman's capsule b. Collecting duct c. Glomerulus d. Loop of Henle e. Convoluted tubule Register to View Answer23. The loops of Henle are considered to function as a countercurrent multiplier because a. ascending and descending limbs have different permeabilities. b. the amount of water conserved is related to the length of the loop. c. as urine flows in the loop, a concentration gradient is established in the medulla. d. as urine flows in the loop, it becomes more concentrated in the nephron. e. active transport in the ascending and descending limbs multiplies the concentration gradient. Register to View Answer24. Which of the following responses would not correct for a drop in glomerular blood pressure? a. Angiotensin elevating the body's blood pressure b. Angiotensin stimulating thirst in the brain c. Angiotensin constricting arterioles entering the kidney d. Stretch receptors triggering antidiuretic hormone release e. Aldosterone stimulating sodium resorption Register to View Answer25. The effect of antidiuretic hormone is to a. reduce permeability in the loop of Henle. b. reduce permeability of the collecting ducts. c. reduce blood volume. d. increase urine volume. e. increase urine concentration. Register to View Answer26. Antidiuretic hormone secretion increases when the hypothalamus is stimulated by a. angiotensin receptors. b. glucose receptors. c. osmoreceptors. d. renin receptors. e. stretch receptors. Register to View Answer27. _______ produce urine that is more concentrated than their body fluids. a. Birds b. Catfish c. Crocodiles d. Frogs e. Sharks Register to View Answer28. In adult humans, urination is controlled by a. a smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urethra. b. the autonomic nervous system. c. a skeletal muscle sphincter at the base of the urethra. d. the voluntary nervous system. e. All of the above Register to View Answer29. Which of the following is a function of excretory systems? a. They help regulate osmotic potential and the volume of extracellular fluids. b. They excrete molecules that are present in excess. c. They conserve molecules that are valuable or in short supply. d. They eliminate toxic waste products of phosphorus metabolism. e. a, b, and c Register to View Answer30. Excretory systems control a. filtration. b. excretion. c. resorption. d. homeostasis. e. All of the above Register to View Answer31. Which of the following is true of the human kidney? a. Functional units are called hepatocytes. b. Nephrons consist of proximal and distal convoluted tubules as well as collecting ducts and loops of Henle. c. Most of the substances and water filtered from the blood in the glomerulus return to the venous blood draining the kidney. d. Anything coming into the kidney has to come from the renal artery. e. b, c, and d Register to View Answer32. The kidneys help regulate acidbase balance by controlling the level of _______ in the blood. a. CO2 b. H+ c. HCO3 d. Both b and c e. All of the above Register to View Answer33. The terms "ammonotelic," "ureotelic," and "uricotelic" are used to describe a. the actions of hormones on the excretory system. b. the types of nitrogenous waste produced by various classes of vertebrates. c. pathways of kidney evolution. d. modifications of kidney tubules to enhance excretion. e. modes of excretory system development. Register to View Answer34. Organisms living in a freshwater environment normally a. excrete copious dilute urine and retain salts. b. excrete a small volume of dilute urine and retain salts. c. excrete copious concentrated urine. d. excrete small amounts of concentrated urine. e. conserve both water and salts. Register to View Answer35. A ureotelic organism excretes most of its nitrogenous waste as a. ammonia. b. water. c. carbon dioxide. d. uric acid. e. urea. Register to View Answer36. Terrestrial organisms must conserve water. The least amount of water is lost with the excretion of which nitrogenous waste product? a. Carbon dioxide b. Uric acid c. Ammonia d. Salt e. Urea Register to View Answer37. Gout results from an accumulation of _______ in the joints. a. carbon dioxide b. water c. ammonia d. uric acid e. urea Register to View Answer38.42. Choose the appropriate excretory system or component from the list below. a. Protonephridia b. Nephron c. Malpighian tubule d. Green gland e. Metanephridia 38. Annelid worms are associated with which type of excretory system? Register to View Answer39. The vertebrate system is associated with which type of functional unit? Register to View Answer40. Flatworms are distinguished by which type of excretory unit? Register to View Answer41. Insects and most terrestrial arthropods have an excretory system composed of which type of functional unit? Register to View Answer42. The primary excretory system of humans utilizes which type of functional unit? Register to View Answer43. Which of the following is not part of a nephron? a. Podocyte b. Flame cell c. Renal corpuscle d. Glomerulus e. Bowman's capsule Register to View Answer44. Blood enters a nephron's vascular component by way of the a. peritubular capillaries. b. glomerulus. c. efferent arteriole. d. afferent arteriole. e. renal vein. Register to View Answer ... View Full Document

End of Preview

Sign up now to access the rest of the document