B100W%2706FINAL
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B100W%2706FINAL

Course: BIPN 100, Spring 2010

School: UCSD

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BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 1 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer 1. Positive feedback loops ______________ and negative feedback loops______________. A. Cancel a change; keep physiological parameters constant B. Amplify a change; cancel a change C. Cancel a change; amplify a change D. Keep physiological parameters constant; cancel a change E. None of the above...

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100, BIPN Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 1 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer 1. Positive feedback loops ______________ and negative feedback loops______________. A. Cancel a change; keep physiological parameters constant B. Amplify a change; cancel a change C. Cancel a change; amplify a change D. Keep physiological parameters constant; cancel a change E. None of the above 2. GLUT transporters are: A. Never open to both sides of the membrane simultaneously B. An example of facilitated diffusion C. Gated channels D. Found on the apical side of the proximal tubule epithelium E. Both A and B 3. Which of the following molecules can cross a membrane by simple diffusion? A. Urea B. Aldosterone C. ADH D. Serotonin E. Only A and B 4. Which of the following sets of substrates is co-transported into the cells of the thick ascending loop of Henle ? a. Na+/Ca++ b. Na+/glucose c. Na+/K+/2Cl d. Na+/H+ e. Cl-/HC035. Which of the following sets of substrates is exchanged in the sarcolemma of myocardial cells? a. Na+/Ca++ b. Na+/glucose c. Na+/K+/2Cl d. Na+/H+ e. Cl-/HC036. Which of the following sets of substrates is co-transported into the cells of the proximal kidney tubule? a. Na+/Ca++ b. Na+/glucose c. Na+/K+/2Cl d. Na+/H+ e. Cl-/HC03- BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 2 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer 7. Which of the following are true about Na+/K+ pumps? I. They do not contribute to repolarization of the membrane during an action potential. II. They move 3Na+ into the cell and 2K+ out of the cell III. The pump must be phosphorylated to release K+ inside cells IV. They generate electrochemical gradients for secondary active transport V. They are only located in the basolateral membrane of transport epithelial cells. a. I, II, III, V only b. III, IV, V only c. I, IV, V only d. I and IV only e. All of the above 8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about ion movements across membranes? A. The electrical potential necessary to counteract an ions concentration gradient can be calculated with the Nernst equation B. Net ion flow through a membrane depends on both the permeability of the membrane to that ion and the driving force on that ion C. The Goldman equation reduces to the Nernst equation if the membrane is permeable to only one type of ion D. The driving force on an ion can be calculated with the Goldman equation E. It is possible for ions to flow passively through a membrane against their concentration gradient The following two questions are based on data below for an alien neuron. Assume Vrest = +60 mV, temperature = 30C Ion: Inside concentration (mM) Outside concentration (mM) Na+ 14 140 Ca++ 0.001 1.0 Cl15 150 Br100 10 9. What is the Nernst equilibrium potential for Calcium? a. 180 mV b. -180 mV c. 90 mV d. -90 mV e. +60 mV 10. Which of these ions are actively transported and in what direction? a. Ca++ out, Cl- out b. Ca++ in, Cl- in c. Ca++ out, Br- in d. Ca++ in, Br- out e. Na+ out, Ca++ out. BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 3 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer For the following questions, Use the graphs that show recordings from an intracellular electrode (membrane potential in mV in the ordinate axis vs. time in ms in the abcissa). The level of the time axis (horizontal arrow) shows 0 mV. The solid line shows the normal response to an above threshold stimulus. The dotted line shows the response to a stimulus after the indicated treatment has had its full effect. Answer which treatment will result in the dotted graph shown. 11. a. b. c. d. e. 12. addition of tetraethylammonium (TEA), which blocks voltage-gated K-channels addition of tetrodotoxin (TTX), which blocks voltage-gated Na-channels addition of Ouabain, which inhibits (Na+,K+)ATPase addition of KCl to the external solution so that [Kout] = [Kin] treat the axon with scorpion toxin, which prevents Na-channel inactivation a. b. c. d. e. addition of tetraethylammonium (TEA) addition of tetrodotoxin (TTX) addition of Ouabain addition of KCl to the external solution so that [Kout] = [Kin] treat the axon with scorpion toxin, which prevents Na-channel inactivation 13. BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 4 a. b. c. d. e. 14. addition of tetraethylammonium (TEA) addition of tetrodotoxin (TTX) addition of Ouabain addition of KCl to the external solution so that [Kout] = [Kin] treat the axon with scorpion toxin, which prevents Na-channel inactivation a. b. c. d. e. Normal neuron with the exception of [Na+]out Normal neuron with the exception of [Na+]out Normal neuron with the exception of [K+]in Normal neuron with the exception of [K+]in Normal neuron, with a much stronger stimulus 15. The length constant of an axon is decreased by: A. Myelin sheath B. Decreased diameter C. Increased diameter D. Smaller number of voltage-gated Na+ channels E. Only A, C, and D 16. The absolute refractory period in nerve, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle action potentials: A. Limits the maximum frequency of action potentials B. Ensures only forward propagation of action potentials C. Is caused by inactivation of Na+ channels D. All of the above E. None of the above 17. Which of the following pairs are both inhibitory neurotransmitters? a) Glutamate and GABA. BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. b) c) d) e) Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 5 Glycine and acetylcholine. GABA and acetylcholine. Glycine and GABA. Acetylcholine and glutamate. 18. The correct pair above is inhibitory because both of these neurotransmitters: A. open K-channels B. open Cl-channels C. close Na-channels D. all of the above E. none of the above 19. Which of the following is most likely not to be involved in causing Long Term Potentiation? A. NO B. Ca++ C. NMDA receptors D. AMPA receptors E. Membrane hyperpolarization 20. During a Voltage Clamp experiment you change the membrane potential from -60 to -100 mV. You graph current (I) against time. The movement of ions and current directions are: a) Initial inward current (Na+) followed by large outward current (K+) b) Initial inward current (K+) followed by large outward current (Na+) c) Initial outward current (Na+) followed by inward current (K+) d) Initial outward current (K+) followed by inward current (Na+) e) None because this stimulus doesnt open ion channels 21. Which of the following toxins attacks docking proteins associated with vesicle fusion in the neuromuscular junction? a. Black Widow Venom b. Botulinum Toxin c. Nerve Gas d. Bungarotoxin e. Curare 22. Which of the above toxins inhibits Acetylcholinesterase? 23. Removal of extracellular Ca2+ will prevent skeletal muscle contraction, except when: A. The stimulus is applied to the motoneuron B. The stimulus is applied to the motor axon C. The stimulus is applied to the muscle fiber D. All of the above E. Only A and B 24. Which of the following pairs of adrenergic receptors cause excitatory responses? a. 1 and 1 b. 2 and 2 BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 2 e. 1 and 2 Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 6 25. People with damage to this area understand spoken and written language but are unable to express their response in normal syntax. A. Parietal lobe B. Corpus callosum C. Thalamus D. Brocas area E. Wernickes area 26. In an accident, a person has injured his/her left anterior horns of lumbar spinal cord. What would be the effect of this injury? A. Ipsilateral leg paralysis B. Contralateral leg paralysis C. Ipsilateral loss of touch, and proprioception in the leg D. Ipsilateral loss of temperature and pain sensation in the leg E. Contralateral loss of temperature and pain sensation in the leg 27. In an accident, a person has injured his/her lateral horns of sacral spinal cord. What would be the effect of this injury? A. Loss of sympathetic control of pelvic organs B. Loss of proprioception C. Leg paralysis D. Loss of parasympathetic control of pelvic organs E. None of the above 28. In an accident, a person has injured his/her right corticospinal (pyramidal) track below the medulla. What would be the effect of this injury? A. Ipsilateral loss of somatosensory of the body B. Contralateral loss of somatosensory of the body C. Ipsilateral paralysis of the body D. Contralateral paralysis of the body E. Quadriplegia 29. A person that survived a stroke in the left posterior portion of the frontal lobe will have: A. Ipsilateral paralysis of the body B. Contralateral paralysis of the body C. Ipsilateral loss of somatosensory perception of the body D. Contralateral loss of somatosensory perception of the body E. Both B and D BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. 30. Wakefulness is regulated by the: a. Midbrain b. Pons c. Basal nuclei d. Reticular activating system e. Cerebellum 31. Motor coordination is regulated by: a. Rostral part of the frontal lobe b. Caudal part of the frontal lobe c. Rostral part of the parietal lobe d. Cerebellum e. Corpus Callosum Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 7 32. Most sensory information reaches the cortex after first being processed by the: a) basal ganglia b) brainstem c) thalamus d) cerebellum e) limbic system 33. By removing this part of the brain you wouldnt be able to remember anything youve learned in BIPN 100. A. Amygdala B. Basal ganglia C. Cerebellum D. Corpus Callosum E. Hippocampus 34. In the autonomic nervous system: a) The sympathetic branch has long pre-ganglionic axons. b) Both branches share the same pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter. c) Both branches have nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in their postganglionic neurons. d) Sympathetic and parasympathetic branches never share the same targets. e) Both b and c. 35. A neurotransmitter or hormone causes release of Ca++ from intracellular stores. What specific G-protein and what second messenger(s) are in its signal pathway? a. Gs, increase cAMP b. Gi, decrease cAMP Gq c. increase cAMP d. Gq increase IP3 and DAG e. Gs increase IP3 and DAG BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 8 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer 36. Which of the following receptors are able to adapt to a stimulus and can be de-sensitized? a. Proprioceptors b. Nociceptors c. Tonic receptors d. Phasic receptors e. Baroreceptors 37. Muscle spindle receptors: a) contain modified muscle fibers b) provide information concerning muscle length c) provide information on the rate of change of length d) can have their sensitivity altered by gamma motoneurons e) all of the above 38. In the stretch reflex which of the following is NOT true? a) motoneurons innervating muscle of origin are excited b) motoneurons innervating synergistic muscles are excited c) motoneurons innervating antagonists are inhibited d) all responses occur via interneurons e) the receptor is the muscle spindle 39. Which hormone(s) enter(s) the hipothalamic-pituitary portal system? a. CRH b. Dopamine c. GnRH d. Somatostatin e. All of the above 40. In Graves disease autoimmune antibodies stimulate the TSH receptors of the thyroid gland in the absence of TSH. Such patients will have the following homonal alterations: a. Thyroid hormones, TSH, TRH b. Thyroid hormones, TSH, TRH c. Thyroid hormones, TSH, TRH d. Thyroid hormones, TSH, TRH e. Thyroid hormones, TSH, TRH 41. All of the following hormones have intracellular receptors that stimulate gene transcription, EXCEPT: a. Estrogen b. Thyroid hormones c. Epinephrine d. Cortisol e. Testosterone. BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 9 42. A large motor unit: a. Consists of a single neuron that innervates many muscle fibers b. Is the functional unit in muscles that perform fine movements c. Is involved in innervating the large muscles d. Is represented by a large area in the motor cortex e. All of the above 43. ATP binding to myosin in striated muscle: a. Changes the angle of the myosin heads from 45 to 90 before hydrolysis b. causes myosin to dissociate from actin c. is hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in the absence of Ca++ d. all of the above e. only b and c 44. In skeletal muscle: a) Ryanodine receptors physically open DHP receptors on the SR allowing Ca2+ efflux. b) Ca2+ influx depolarizes the t-tubules, allowing for excitation-contraction coupling. c) Ca2+ binds to tropomyosin allowing myosin to bind to actin. d) Unlike in smooth muscle, strength of contraction is dependent on the number of crossbridges formed. e) Action potential in the t-tubule causes DHP receptors to open Ryanodine receptors in the SR, releasing Ca2+. 45. Relaxation of smooth muscle involves all of the following except: a. Calcium is pumped back into the endoplasmic reticulum b. Myosin phosphatase inhibitss myosin ATPase activity c. Calcium is pumped out of the cell via Na+-Ca+2 antiports d. myosin light chain kinase is activated e. None of the above. All of the above choices are correct 46. Which of the following is(are) true about Starlings Law of the Heart: a. Increasing the end-diastolic volume increases the force of contraction. b. Increasing the afterload increases the force of contraction c. Stretching the myocardial fibers increases the overlap between myosin heads and actin. d. All of the above e. Only a and c. 47. Cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized because: a. Contraction is nearly over by the time the refractory period ends b. Ca++ enters during the plateau period of the action potential c. The pacemakers cannot fire fast enough to sum the single contractions d. all of the above e. none of the above BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. Final Examination Page 10 March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer 48. How are pacemaker cells in the heart able to depolarize without any external stimulus? a. Ca 2+ channels open while the cell is hyperpolarized causing a depolarization. b. The cell resting potential is above threshold for the Ca 2+ channels so they open as soon as one action potential ends. c. I funny channels are always open and allow for a gradual depolarization d. I funny channels open at hyperpolarized potentials e. K+ leak channels bring the cell to threshold after an action potential. 49. Under sympathetic stimulation of autorrhythmic nodal cells, which of the following is(are) true? a. Decrease in duration of the Action Potential b. Slope of the depolarization wave increases c. There is a more rapid depolarization to threshold. d. All of the above e. None of the above. 50. Which of the following will have a positive ionotropic effect? a. Muscarinic receptor blocker b. Norepinephrine c. Digoxin (inhibitor of Na,K-ATPase) d. Only (b) and (c) e. All of the above Below is PV diagram of a normal left ventricle. C B Pressure D A Volume of Blood 51. Which of the following segments corresponds to the QT interval of the EKG? a. C-A b. A-D-B-C c. C-A-D d. D-B-C e. B-C-A 52. Which points of the above diagram reflects the time when all of the valves are open? a. A b. D c. B d. C BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. e. None of the above Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 11 53. Which of the following segments of the above graph reflects the isovolumetric relaxation period? a. A-D b. D-B c. B-C d. C-A e. C-D 54. Since the action potentials of cardiac muscle are reflected in the electrocardiogram, one can associate the time course of the events in the action potential with the time course of the waves in the ECG. Which interval in the ECG best corresponds to the plateau period of the action potential in ventricular muscle? a. P - Q b. Q S c. Q T d. S T e. P T 55. Given a constant pressure difference between its ends, blood flow will be 16 times greater in a blood vessel if its diameter is: a) reduced by one half b) doubled c) increased 16-fold d) increased 4-fold e) increased 8-fold 56. Which of the following will produce a diastolic murmur? a. Aortic valve stenosis b. Mitral valve insufficiency c. Aortic valve insufficiency d. Mitral valve stenosis e. c and d 57. All of the following are typical after athletic training except: a. An increased stroke volume b. A decreased resting heart rate c. Increased sympathetic tone on the heart d. A larger maximum cardiac output e. Increased diastolic period during rest 58. What problem with the heart valves will cause pulmonary edema? a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Mitral Stenosis c. Pulmonary valve incompetence d. Pulmonary valve stenosis e. All of the above. 59. What is the mean arterial pressure for a man that has 180/120? a. 60mmHg BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. b. c. d. e. 80mmHg 100mmHg 120mmHg 140mmHg Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 12 60. All of the following are stimuli for arteriolar vasodilation EXCEPT: a. Decreased pH b. Decreased oxygen c. Serotonin d. Increased carbon dioxide e. adenosine 61. Which of the following is will give rise to systemic edema? a. Left ventricular failure b. Right ventricular failure c. Increased level of albumin d. Increased hydrostatic pressure of systemic tissue e. Only (b) and (d) 62. An increase in arterial pressure will cause: a. increased baroreceptor firing b. decreased renin secretion c. decreased angiotensin II d. decreased aldosterone secretion e. all of the above 63. You fly to London As you get off the plane you realize that your feet and ankles are hideously swollen and you cant fit in to your expensive new shoes. This is because: a. The hydrostatic pressure in your veins decreased and the capillary pressure was less than the oncotic pressure which caused fluid to flow out. b. The hydrostatic pressure in your veins increased and the capillary pressure was greater than the oncotic pressure which caused fluid to flow out. c. You didnt get up and walk around for the entire 16 hours. d. Both a) and c) e. Both b) and c) 64. Which of the following are true statements about the renin-angiotensin system: I. it increases blood pressure II. it increases vasoconstriction III. it decreases plasma volume IV. it is stimulated by a decrease in blood pressure V. renin is an enzyme and angiotensin II is a hormone a. all are false b. I, II, IV only are true c. III, V only are true BIPN 100, Mammalian Physiology I. Winter, 2006. d. III only is false e. all are true Final Examination March 21, 2006 Select the single best answer Page 13 65. Glomerular filtration rate(GFR) is the amount of blood is filtered in the glomerulus. Even though blood pressure can fluctuate between 80 and 180 mmHg, the GFR stays relatively constant. This is due to adjustments in afferent and efferent arterioles. What is changed if the systolic blood pressure rises to 170mmHg? a. efferent arteriole will dilate b. efferent arteriole will constrict c. afferent arteriole will dilate d. afferent arteriole will constrict e. both b and c 66. What segment of the nephron can contain hypertonic or hypotonic fluid in its lumen and cells with variable permeability to water and has receptors for antidiuretic hormone? a. Bowmans capsule b. Proximal tubule c. Loop of Henle d. Distal tubule e. Collecting duct 67. Which of the above always contains hypotonic fluid? 68. Which of the following explain(s) how a high osmolarity in the kidney medulla is generated? a. The ascending loop of Henle pumps Na to the interstitial fluid and is impermeable to water. b. The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water and ions c. The loop of Henle and vasa recta form a countercurrent multiplication mechanism. d. All of the above e. None of the above. 69. The following are effects of aldosterone on the distal nephron EXCEPT: a. Increased Na and water reabsorption b. Increased K excretion c. Increased glomerular filtration d. All of the above e. a and b only 70. If the plasma clearance of a substance is greater than the inulin clearance the substance is: a. reabsorbed b. secreted c. filtered, but neither reabsorbed nor secreted who cares about clearance anyway? GOOD LUCK AND HAVE A SUCCESSFUL CAREER!

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