11 Chapter Cell Division Quiz 15 Bold = speak one language, non-bold speak 2 or more. 1. If a eukaryotic cell has a single set of chromosomes, it is called A. haploid B. diploid C. polypoid D. monoloid
1. The physical distribution of cytoplasmic material into the two daughter cells is called A. DNA replication B. mitosis C. cytokinesis D. binary fission E. syngamy
2. A. B. C. D. E.
The bacterial genome exist as a. single, circular, protein-coated, double stranded DNA molecule single, circular, uncoated, double stranded DNA molecule single, circular, uncoated, double stranded RNA molecule single, linear, uncoated, double stranded DNA molecule many, circular, uncoated, double stranded DNA molecules The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the cell wall develops cracks around the equator of the cell chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell cytoplasm forms a cell plate around the middle of the cell microfilaments and microtubules constrict the cytoplasm plasma membrane pinches inward constricting the cell
2. A. B. C. D. E.
3. Eukaryotic chromosomes are coated with proteins containing a high proportion of basic amino acids. These proteins are given the name A. albumins B. antibodies C. enzymes D. histamines E. histones 3. Some of the portions of the chromatin are permanently condensed so that their DNA is never expressed. All of these portions stain very intensely and are given a common name of A. DNA dark bands B. euchromatin C. heterochromatin D. genome E. haploid DNA
4. The two copies of each chromosome in body cells are called A. chromatids B. homologous chromosomes C. sister chromosomes D. daughter chromosomes E. genes
4. Before cell division of the body cells, each homologue replicates into two parts. These parts are connected by a centromere and are called A. sister chromatids B. daughter chromatids C. sister chromosomes D. daughter chromosomes E. genes
5. The first stage of mitosis, when the chromosomes become visibly shorter and thicker is A. anaphase B. interphase C. metaphase D. prophase E. telophase 5. Cytokinesis occurs right after A. prophase B. G1 C. G2 D. Anaphase E. telophase
6.
A cell biologist is conducting a karyotype procedure on alligator red blood cells. Exactly what does this mean? A. B. Red blood cells from the alligator will be examined with a microscope and the nuclei will be counted. Red blood cells from the alligator will be examined using restriction enzymes to count the number of centromeres that are present on the chromosomes. Chromosomes from the red blood cells of the alligator will be examined with a microscope, photographed, counted, lined up with their respective homologous partner, and displayed. Chromosomes from the red blood cells of the alligator will be examined with a microscope to determine the amount of hemoglobin present.
C.
D.
6. If a somatic cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes? A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 D. 8 E. 128
HERE IS QUESTION 7. IDENTIFY THE STAGES OF MITOSIS
Quiz 16 Meiosis If you knew the Chancellor s name (#16) (Dan or Daniel, Dr. Little or combinations of these) you do Bold. If you said anything else, you do non-bold. 1. Diploid organisms use meiosis for the development of gametes. Meiosis consist of how many rounds of nuclear (not DNA) division? A. one B. two B. three C. four D. answer not given
1. The pairing of chromosomes along their lengths which is essential for crossing-over is referred to as A. syngamy B. synapsis C. a tetrad D. recombination E. centromere
2. A common form of reproduction in arthropods involves the development of an adult from an unfertilized egg. This is called A. syngamy B. binary fission C. mitosis D. meiosis E. parthenogenesis
2.
The cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the A. gamete B. haploid C. zygote D. germ line cell E. somatic cell
3. In animals such as Hydra and corals, new individuals arise as buds on the body of an existing animal. This is called budding, which is a form of A. gamete formation B. syngamy C. meiosis D. asexual reproduction E. fertilization 3. The point of connection between the two sister chromatids before anaphase of mitosis separates them is called the A. homologue B. kinetochore C. centromere D. microtubule complex E. synapsis
4.
In animals, the cells that will eventually undergo meiosis to produce gametes are set-aside early in the development. These are haploid cells germline cells sex cells zygotes sperm and egg cells Chromosomes exchange genetic information by A. fertilization B. mitosis C. syngamy D. DNA replication E. crossing over
A. B. C. D. E. 4.
5. A. B. C. D. E.
Crossing over of chromosomes takes place in prophase II prophase I interphase II interphase I metaphase II
5. A. B. C. D. E.
The synaptonemal complex develops early in meiosis. It is a cluster of chromatids at the end of the cell a framework of microtubules that organize chromatids a lattice of proteins that holds homologues together a set of two homologues lined side by side the wound up regions of DNA molecules
6. At the end of telophase II of meiosis, each of the four resulting cells contains A. one full set of chromosomes, each with two chromatids B. two full sets of chromosomes, each with two chromatids C. one full set of chromosomes, each a single chromatid D. two full sets of chromosomes, each a single chromatid a different number of chromosomes
6. Livestock owners and breeders have most likely maximized their abilities to greatly improve size and speed of the animals that they raise. This is a consequence of A. too many crossing over events in previous livestock generations B. not enough crossing over events in previous livestock generations C. existing genetic combinations have been nearly exhausted as well as the limited amount of genetic variability that existed to begin with D. using artificial insemination instead of allowing animals to breed on their own
7. After fertilization, the resulting zygote develops by which of the following processes? A. mitosis B. meiosis C. syngamy D. synapsis E. reduction division
7.
One of the most likely explanations for the evolutionary origin of sexual reproduction is that A. B. A. C. D. organisms could then move onto land DNA replication errors could be corrected by recombination more and larger offspring could be produced haploid cells require less energy and raw materials gamete production is more successful than asexual reproduction
Quiz 17 and #17 SHOE SIZE Bold wear a size 7 1/2 shoe or smaller, non-bold are Larger than a 7 1/2. 1. A diploid organism that has two identical alleles for the same trait is called _______ for that particular trait. A. homozygous B. heterozygous C. dominant D. recessive E. codominant 1. An allele for a particular trait that is only seen in the presence of another allele of the same kind is called a(n) A. dominant allele B. codominant allele C. incompletely dominant allele D. recessive allele E. multiple allele
2. A set of red blood cell surface antigens that are responsible for serious interactions between a mother and her developing fetus are called the A. ABO antibody factors B. Barr body factors C. sex-linked antigens D. Rh factors E. X-factors 2. Mendel chose the garden pea for his work on inheritance for all of the following reasons except A. The monastery of which he was a monk ordered him to use it. B. Earlier investigators had shown segregation among the offspring. C. A large number of true breeding varieties were already available. D. The generation time was short; many offspring can be grown easily. E. He could choose to self- or cross-pollinate.
3. An allele that is present but unexpressed is A. redundant B. dominant C. functional D. epistatic E. recessive 3. Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the hybrid, F1 or first filial generation as A. recessive B. dominant C. codominant D. independent E. epistatic
4. The allelic make up of an individual is referred to as its A. blueprint B. genotype C. phenotype D. genetic pattern E. allelotype 4. What is the name of the cross that involves the mating of a hybrid F1 plant with a homozygous recessive plant for the same trait? A. monohybrid cross B. dihybrid cross C. reciprocal cross D. test cross E. back cross
5. Yellow-seeded plants might be homozygous or heterozygous. We could find out which by crossing these plants with A. true breeding yellow-seeded plants B. true breeding green-seeded plants C. heterozygous yellow-seeded plants D. true breeding white-flowered plants E. true breeding purple-flowered plants 5. Sometimes one gene pair will interact so as to control the expression of a second gene pair in an interaction called A. dominance B. gene regulation C. recessiveness D. pleiotropy E. epistasis
6. If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype it is said to be A. pleiotropic B. epistatic C. recessive D. dominant E. homozygotic 6. Select the genotype that a person whose phenotype was A positive would not have. A. A+A+ B. A+OC. A-AD. A+AE. A+O+
Quiz 18 Last part of Genetics #23 Country you were born BOLD = NOT USA OR ? and non bold in USA 1. The most common fatal genetic disorder of Caucasians is A. cholera B. cystic fibrosis C. hemophilia D. sickle cellanemia E. muscular dystrophy 1. In sickle cell anemia, the defective hemoglobin differs from the normal hemoglobin by A. the color of the pigment B. the size of the molecule C. a single amino acid substitution D. the total number of amino acids E. the type of blood cell it is found in
2. Hemophilia is a A. recessive condition B. dominant condition C. epistatic condition D. codominant condition E. condition that occurs with equal frequency in both sexes 2. A human hereditary disease that is caused by a dominant allele but does not show up in affected individuals until they are in their thirties is A. cystic fibrosis B. sickle cellanemia C. Tay-Sachs disease D. Huntington s disease E. hemophilia
3. Amniocentesis is a procedure that is normally used A. to reduce the risk of genetic disease B. for gene therapy C. to change the sex of the fetus D. for diagnosis of genetic disorders E. for nourishing the fetus 3. Children born in areas where proper nutrition is not available to them do not always realize their full growth potential. These children have the genes for normal growth of bones. Which of the following statements can best explain this situation? A. There is a lack of dominance in the alleles for normal bone growth; as a result, the genotype is directly affected. B. Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the phenotype. C. Since nutrition is necessary for proper development and is a part of the environment, it is a clear case of environmental effect on the genotype. D. There will always be examples that reflect this condition in human populations because of the continuous variation that exists for this characteristic. E. The children s parents did not obtain the proper nutrients when they were young and thus were not able to pass on the alleles for normal growth and development.
4.
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a defect in the A. oxygen carrying pigment hemoglobin B. protein makeup in the liver C. sticky sides of the red blood cells D. allele for the production of mucus in the lungs E. vector for the transfer of the correct amino acid for the hemoglobin molecule
4. In humans, the male has an X and Y sex chromosome. The human female has two X-chromosomes. In birds, the female has a Z and a W sex chromosome while the male has two Z chromosomes. Which of the following statements is accurate about which parent controls the gender of the offspring? A. In humans and birds the male controls the gender of all the offspring. B. In humans and birds the female controls the gender of all the offspring. C. In humans the male controls the gender of the offspring, and in birds the female controls the gender. D. In humans the female controls the gender of the offspring, and in birds the male controls the gender. E. Control of the gender of any human or bird offspring is related to the environmental conditions at the time of conception.
5.
When the adenovirus was used as a vector, it A. inserted its DNA directly into the cell membrane B. inserted its DNA directly into the human chromosome at the exact same place every time C. inserted its DNA directly into the human chromosome at random locations D. inserted its DNA directly into the ribosomes and caused an allergic reaction E. inserted its DNA directly into the jumping genes which had an effect on that gene s expression A new promising vector that seems to work better than the adenovirus for gene therapy is called the adeno-associated virus (AAV). In order for the AAV to work property, it must A. have the adenovuirus to replicate B. activate its two genes before entering the cell C. insert itself into the human DNA to prevent cancer causing mutations D. be used only for anemia patients E. be eliminated by the human immune system, however its metabolites will remain and transfer the necessary gene to their targeted area
5.
6. If a human female has two Barr bodies, it is almost certain that A. her father had at least one Barr body B. her mother also had two Barr bodies C. she developed from a fertilized egg with 3 X chromosomes D. she is actually a male with female characteristics E. she is genetically a normal fertile female 6. A human female with only one X chromosome is said to have a condition called A. Alzheimer s disease B. hemophilia C. Turner syndrome D. Kleinfelter syndrome E. Down syndrome
Quiz 19 # 19, if you choose diet pop you do Bold, if pop or water you do non-bold. 1. Both DNA and RNA are made up of building blocks known as A. nucleotides B. complementary base pairs C. amino acids D. genes 1. DNA consists of two antiparallel strands of nucleotide chains held together by A. peptide bonds B. polar covalent bonds C. ionic bonds D. hydrogen bonds E. complementary base pairing bonds
2. A direct test of the hypothesis that the nucleus is the repository of genetic information was carried out by Briggs and King. When they removed the nucleus from a frog s egg and replaced it later with the nucleus from a more advanced frog embryo cell, A. it was digested away before developing into an adult frog B. the egg never developed into a frog C. the egg developed into a frog D. the nucleus became independent of cytoplasm E. it survived only if the replacing nucleus was bigger 2. The method of DNA replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand, is called the A. conservative method B. semiconservative method C. disruptive method D. continuous method E. replication and amplification method
3. When nonvirulent bacteria were mixed with dead virulent bacteria, Griffith unexpectedly found that the injected mice died. He explained this behavior by suggesting the nonvirulent strain of bacteria as being A. activated B. transformed C. translated D. transcribed E. expressed 3. Avery and his coworkers showed the transforming principle as A. protein B. polysaccharide C. DNA D. RNA E. lipid
4. Which of the following statements are true in the HersheyChase experiment? A. DNA was labelled with radioactive phosphorus. B. Protein was labelled with radioactive sulfur. C. The virus-infected bacteria showed radioactive phosphorus. D. The virus-infected bacteria contained radioactive sulfur. E. only a, b, and c F. only a, b and d 4. Hershey-Chase concluded from their experiment with T2 bacteriophage that A. proteins are the genetic material B. polysaccharide coat contains the genetic material C. DNA is the genetic material D. viruses are needed for DNA to function E. DNA contains sulfur
5. Chargaff s rules for the pairing of nitrogen bases is A. A = C and G = T B. A pairs with T and G pairs with C C. A pairs with G and C pairs with T D. A pairs with C and G pairs with T E. T = C and G = A 5. Totipotency in plants was demonstrated with carrot tissue. An experiment conducted by Steward clearly showed this phenomenon. A nucleus of a cell is referred to as totipotent if A. it contains a full set of hereditary instructions and can generate an entire adult individual B. it contains one-half of a set of hereditary instructions and can generate an entire adult individual by parthenogenesis C. it contains a full set of hereditary instructions and can generate gametes without going through any additional mitotic divisions D. it contains a full set of hereditary instructions but can never grow into an entirely new organism because of problems that seem to exist with the synapsis between the homologues
6. Hershey and Chase in 1952 confirmed Avery s (1944) results that A. proteins were the repositories for hereditary information B. DNA was the repository for hereditary information C. RNA was the repository for hereditary information D. proteins and DNA were the repositories for hereditary information E. transformation in bacterial cells induced changes in the host s somatic cells 6. Fourteen percent of the DNA nucleotides from a certain organism contain T. What amounts of the other bases would you expect to be present in this particular DNA? A. 14 % A, 0% C, 36 % G B. 14 % A, 36 % C, 14 % G C. 14 % A, 36 % C, 36 % G D. 14 % T, 38 % C, 36 % G E. 14 % T, 36 % C, 36 % U
Quiz 20 #6 Eye Color. If you have Blue or Hazel eyes you do bold, if you have brown or any other color do non bold. 1. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of new DNA molecules is called A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. RNA ligase E. tRNA primase 1. DNA primase A. creates a short RNA primer complementary to the RNA template B. creates a short DNA primer complementary to the RNA template C. creates a short DNA primer complementary to the DNA template D. creates a short template an of RNA primer that is complementary to the DNA primer E. creates a short RNA primer complementary to the DNA template
2. As the two strands of DNA are unraveled, an enzyme relieves the strain on the two strands. The enzyme is A. DNA polymerase B. DNA ligase C. DNA gyrase D. RNA polymerase E. RNA ligase
2. The lagging strand is replicated with stretches of Okazaki fragments and that is why its synthesis is considered to be A. discontinuous B. continuous C. primed D. never stopping E. semiconservative
3. A. B. C. D. E.
DNA polymerase requires a(n) amino acid primer lipid primer hydrophilic primer DNA primer RNA primer
3. DNA pol III synthesizes the leading strand as a continuous strand. The lagging strands are synthesized in segments, called A. parental DNA B. Chargaffs fragments C. repeating primers D. replisomes E. Okazaki fragments
4. A. B. C. D. E. 4. A. B. C. D. E.
Replication always proceeds by adding new bases to the 1 end 2 end 3 end 4 end 5 end Which of the following are true about replication of DNA? The two strands are separated. Each strand is used as a template for making a new duplex. The synthesis on each strand is in the opposite direction. The newly synthesized DNA is packaged into one nucleus, and the old DNA is packaged into another nucleus. choices a, b, and c
5. A. B. C. D. E.
Which of the following is not true about eukaryotic DNA? It is an exceedingly long and fragile molecule. It is packaged into successively compact formations. The entire molecule has encoded information for protein synthesis. In the condensed form, it is transcriptionally inactive. It must be unpackaged before it can be transcribed into RNA. The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by Watson and Crick Griffith Avery Franklin Beadle and Tatum
5. A. B. C. D. E.
6. The site of the opening of the DNA strands where active replication occurs is referred to as the A. B. C. D. E. replication fork replisome primosome DNA pol III complex of two enzymes sliding clamp subunit
6. Which of the following DNA replicating enzymes is responsible for unwiding the double helix of DNA? A. DNA primase B. DNA polymerase I C. DNA helicase D. DNA gyrase E. DNA ligase
7.
The replisome has two main subcomponents. They are A. the replication folk and the sliding clamp subunit B. the primosome and the sliding clamp subunit C. the replication folk and the DNA pol III enzymes D. the DNA pol III enzymes and the sliding clamp subunits E. the primosome and a complex of two DNA pol III enzymes Which of the following choices is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E. coli? A. initiation, termination, elongation B. initiation, elongation, termination C. elongation, termination, initiation D. elongation, initiation, termination
7.
8. Eukaryotic organisms solve the problem of time constraints on replication of DNA by A. elimination of the initiation phase, thus shorten the length of the replication process B. producing several sliding clamp complexes that allow DNA pol III enzymes more binding sites C. allowing DNA gyrase to unravel the double helix faster than the DNA helicase, which then speeds up the formation of the replication folk D. using multiple origins of the replication from each chromosome, which results in multiple replicons 8. Endonucleases and exonucleases are enzymes that can remove nucleotides. An endonuclease _______ while an exonuclease _______ A. chew away at the 5 end of DNA/ cuts DNA internally B. chews away at a 3 end of DNA / cuts the 5 end of DNA C. cuts DNA internally / chews away at the end of DNA D. adds nucleotides internally to DNA / adds nucleotides on the 3 and 5 ends of DNA
Quiz 22 Chapter 15. Question #7 Burger is BOLD and Salad = nonbold 1. Amino acids are transported to the ribosome for use in building the polypeptide by A. mRNA molecules B. tRNA molecules C. DNA polymerase molecules D. rRNA molecules E. DNA ligase molecules 1. The process in which an RNA polymerase molecule assembles an mRNA molecule whose nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA sequence is called A. gene amplification B. translation C. transcription D. polypeptide sequencing E. complementary base pairing
2. Protein synthesis takes place on A. the plasma membrane B. the nucleus C. ribosomes D. lysosomes E. microbodies 2. The sites A, P, and E are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a chain in protein synthesis. These sites are part of A. small ribosomal subunit B. large ribosomal subunit C. mRNA D. tRNA E. DNA (the gene itself)
3. Gene expression includes which two of the following processes? A. transcription and replication B. replication and repression C. protein synthesis and replication D. mutation and cell division E. transcription and translation 3. The enzyme that initiates transcription is A. RNA polymerase B. DNA polymerase C. carbonic anhydrase D. ATP synthetase E. transformation principle
4. The tRNA nucleotide sequence that lines up on the mRNA is A. an intron B. an exon C. a release factor D. an initiation factor E. an anticodon 4. Protein synthesis proceeds by the ribosome A. alternating between many chains B. moving three nucleotides at a time on the mRNA C. attaching amino acids in a random fashion D. selecting the tRNA molecule that fits E. attaching amino acids to the growing chain without charged tRNAs
5. Eukaryotic mRNA molecules are occasionally interspersed with non-coding sequences that must be removed before protein synthesis. These are called A. anticodons B. introns C. exons D. nucleosomes E. chromomeres 5. The Central Dogma of biology is stated as A. proteins RNA DNA B. RNA DNA proteins C. DNA proteins RNA D. DNA RNA proteins
6. The process of transfer of information that codes a protein from DNA to mRNA is referred to as A. transcription B. translation C. transformation D. transference E. translocation 6. Why are there only 45 different tRNA anticodons rather than 64 to match each of the mRNA codons? A. The first nucleotide of a tRNA anticodon allows some flexibility or wobble. B. The second nucleotide of a tRNA anticodon allows some flexibility or wobble. C. The third nucleotide of a tRNA anticodon allows some flexibility or wobble. D. The remaining 19 tRNA anticodons are used for initiation and termination of protein synthesis.
7. Noncoding DNA that interrupts the nucleotide sequence of a gene are called A. exons B. introns C. axons D. anRNPs (snurps) E. spliceosome 7. Ribosomes are complex arrangements of A. RNA and DNA B. RNA and large proteins C. RNA and sugars D. DNA and proteins E. nucleosomes and RNA
Quiz 22 (sorry last one was 21). Chapter 15. Bold = # 5 AND 12 Female + Right handed OR Male + left handed. Non bold if female lefty or male righty.
1. DNA can be cleaved at a specific site, generating in most cases two fragments with short single-stranded ends. The chemical tool used to cleave the DNA is called A. a hybridization enzyme B. a complementary enzyme C. a restriction enzyme D. a methylating enzyme E. an endonuclease 1. Two strands of DNA that have been cut by an endonuclease can be sealed together by A. a polymerase enzyme B. a ligase enzyme C. an exonuclease enzyme D. a protease enzyme E. a methylase enzyme
2. An enzyme that has been isolated from retroviruses is A. transverse ligase B. reverse transcriptase C. reverse endonuclease D. recombinant RNAase E. RNA polymerase 2. The ends of DNA fragments produced by the same restriction enzyme can be joined together by another enzyme, A. DNA polymerase B. DNA methylase C. DNA synthetase D. DNA ligase E. DNA primase
3. The most common way to follow bacterial transformation with a plasmid is by A. manufacturing the bacterial protein B. conferring antibiotic resistance C. separating the altered cell surface D. making the cells immortal E. altering the physical appearance of the cells 3. The polymerase chain reaction, more popularly known as PCR, includes which of the following steps? A. denaturation of primers and the DNA fragment to be amplified B. anealing of primers to the complementary sequences on the DNA C. primer extension with DNA polymerase D. repeating steps 1-3 in many cycles E. all of the above
4. Crop plants have been protected from certain insects by the addition of a gene for a specific insect toxin from the bacterium A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens B. Bacillus thuringiensis C. Herpes simplex D. Pseudomonas E. tobacco mosaic 4. A vector carries ______ into a host cell. A. a recombinant RNA fragment B. a recombinant DNA molecule C. an endonuclease D. glyphosate chains E. sticky ended metabolites of X-gal degradation
5. Mutations and recombinations are two ways in which DNA can be altered. They are different in that A. mutations are an actual change in the base sequence of a gene, whereas a recombination is a change in the position of a portion of the genetic message B. mutations are an actual change in the position of a portion of the genetic message, whereas a recombination is a change in the base sequence of a gene C. mutations occur because of radiation exposure, while recombination occurs as a result of genes being rearranged because of the radiation D. mutations result from recombinations within the nucleotides 5. A plasmid must have an origin of replication to allow it to replicate in E. coli independently of the chromosome and A. a phage capable of infecting the E. coli bacterium B. a tissue plasminogen activaton C. multiple cloning sites D. a selectable marker, usually antibiotic resistance
6. Some of the useful applications of genetic engineering include all of the following except A. bacteria that can digest oil in an oil spill B. growing synthetic cotton C. manufacturing biopolymers D. using PCR to study ancient fossils E. to clone the perfect human being 6. The DNA of somatic cells is constantly bombarded with agents from the environment that could cause mutations. Select the correct statement about mutations and somatic cells. A. Somatic cells can withstand the mutations that might be induced since there are so many cell cycles in a somatic cells life; thus, the mutation effects will be diluted. B. Somatic cells are much tougher than gametes and can certainly reduce their exposure to environmental agents that might cause mutations to occur. C. Somatic cells are in the various organs of organisms and are shielded from the harmful agents that might cause mutations. D. Somatic cells are not passed on to the next generation; thus, the mutations that occur are kept within the organism.
Quiz 23 Question 13. If the number of languages you speak is an even number you do BOLD. If the number of languages you speak is an odd number non-bold.
1. Transcriptional control-proteins increase the rate of transcription by binding to A. mRNA sequences within the DNA B. tRNA sequences within the DNA C. operator sequences within the DNA D. promotor sequences within the DNA E. enhancer sequences within the DNA 1. All regulatory proteins have common DNA binding motifs, which are particular bends in their protein chains that permit them to interlock with the A. minor groove of the DNA helix B. major groove of the DNA helix C. outside groove of the DNA helix D. inside groove of the DNA helix E. hydrogen bonding groove of the DNA helix
2. Regulatory proteins shut off transcription by binding to a site immediately in front of the promoter and often even overlapping the promotor. This site is referred to as A. the suppressor site B. the operator site C. the termination site D. the regulatory site E. the transcriptional control site 2. The most common form of control of gene expression in both the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms is A. RNA processing control B. translational control C. protein phosphorylation control D. transcriptional control E. mRNA degradation control
3. For controlling the transcription, A. RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA helix B. RNA polymerase must be capable of binding to the genes promoter C. proteins binding at other regions on DNA affects the binding of RNA polymerase to promoter to be better or inferior D. only choices b and c are correct E. choices a, b, and c are correct 3. RNA polymerase binds to a site on DNA called the A. operator B. repressor C. footprint D. promoter E. operon
4. All of the following are examples of shapes in regulatory proteins which are used to bind to DNA, except the A. zinc finger B. TATA box C. helix-turn-helix D. homeodomain E. leucine finger 4. In gene regulation, negative control is exerted by A. an activator B. an operon C. a promoter D. a regulator E. a repressor
5. The lac regulatory system is important to bacteria because the sugar lactose A. cannot be made by bacteria unless the genes are turned on B. is the most common source of food; enzymes are needed all the time C. is only rarely available; producing enzymes all the time is costly D. is incorporated into the nucleic acid of the bacteria E. switches the system off and on whether lactose is present or not 5. A well-understood transcriptional activator of E. coli, which initiates the transcription of genes in non-glucose environments, is called A. cAMP B. tryptophan C. lactose D. catabolite activator protein (CAP) F. enhancer
6. The CAP molecule can attach to the CAP binding site only when A. the CAP molecule is bound to lactose B. the CAP molecule is bound to tryptophan C. the CAP molecule is bound to ATP D. the CAP molecule is bound to camp E. the CAP molecule is activated by homeodomain DNA binding motif 6. When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the A. trp transcriptional operator B. trp regulator C. trp suppressor D. trp operon E. trp promoter
Quiz 24 Second part of Ch 18. # 29 Gold MALES and SILVER FEMALES Bold, Silver males and Gold females are nonbold.
1. Vertebrate cells have a protein that binds to clusters of 5methylcytosines to ensure that the bound gene will stay off. This control of gene regulation is a result of A. translation B. enhancer expression C. methylation D. promotor expression E. operator suppression 1. Enhancers are the binding sites A. for the promotors of DNA synthesis B. for the suppressor factors C. for the co-activation factors D. for the mediator factors E. for the specific transcription factors
2. Small RNA molecules, once thought to be of no importance in gene expression contain A. between 19 to 28 nucleotides B. exactly 64 nucleotides C. between 15 and 20 codons D. between 15 and 20 deoxynucleotides E. between 21 and 64 codons
2. DNA methylation ensures that A. the gene functions without interruption B. the protein coded for by that particular gene is immediately available for export, thus speeding up protein synthesis C. the nucleosome will quickly form, which assists in mRNA formation D. once that gene is transcribed, the mRNA is saved and used over and over again E. once a gene is turned off, it will remain off
3. The entire process of RNA interference, which induces gene silencing in Drosophila, is caused by A. double stranded DNA interference with mRNA B. double stranded RNA interference with DNA C. double stranded DNA interference with tRNA D. double stranded RNA interference with DNA E. double stranded RNA interference with RNA 3. Small RNAs can regulate gene expression. One type called microRNA (miRNA) acts by binding A. directly to the tRNAs, thus preventing their transport of amino acids to the ribosomes B. directly to the ribosome, thus preventing transcription C. directly to the mRNAs, thus preventing their translation into proteins D. directly to the template DNA strand, thus preventing mRNA production
4. Recent work on eukaryotic gene transcription describes distinct region(s) on the regulatory proteins. These are A. regulatory domain B. DNA-binding domain C. RNA-binding domain D. choices a and b E. choices b and c 4. Eukaryotic transcription requires a variety of factors (proteins). These factors have been placed into two categories. Those categories are A. basal and specific transcription factors B. specific and operon transcription factors C. operon and basal transcription factors D. promiscuous and basal transcription factors E. specific and promiscuous transcription factors
5. Eukaryotic organisms A. have their transcription occurring in the cytoplasm and translation in the nucleus B. have their transcription occurring in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm C. have only operons to assist in gene expression D. carry out protein synthesis only in the presence of the camp molecule E. use the leucine zipper primarily for the production of the amino acid tryptohan 5. Most eukaryotic genes are composed of exons (short coding sequences) and introns (non-coding sequences). Which of the following statements is correct regarding primary transcript? 1The primary transcript is composed of RNA polymerase and associated histones. 2 The primary transcript has the exons removed and the introns retained for translation. 3The primary transcript is a faithful copy of the entire gene including exons and introns. 4The primary transcript is a faithful copy of the gene, but the introns have been removed. 5The primary transcript is a faithful copy, but the exons have been removed.
6. Small RNAs play an important role in regulating RNA levels in the cell. Which of the following is true? A. Dicer makes a single stranded RNA that binds and cuts a specific mRNA. B. Dicer and RISC collaborate to make a doubled stranded RNA that binds and cuts a specific mRNA. C. Dicer and RISC collaborate to make a single stranded RNA that binds and cuts a specific mRNA. D. siRNA is usually copied into a small DNA sequence. E. siRNA forms hairpin loops that bind a small DNA sequence.
6. Which of the following is NOT a way to regulate mRNA availability? a. b. c. d. e. Post-translational modification Transcription Differential splicing RNA editing Histone acetylation