Practice Exam II
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Practice Exam II

Course Number: ECON 252, Spring 2010

College/University: Purdue

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EXAM II Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. In which of the following instances is the present value of the future payment the largest? a. You will receive $1,000 in 5 years and the annual interest rate is 5 percent. b. You will receive $1,000 in 10 years and the annual interest rate is 3 percent. c. You will receive $2,000 in 10 years and the...

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II Multiple EXAM Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. In which of the following instances is the present value of the future payment the largest? a. You will receive $1,000 in 5 years and the annual interest rate is 5 percent. b. You will receive $1,000 in 10 years and the annual interest rate is 3 percent. c. You will receive $2,000 in 10 years and the annual interest rate is 10 percent. d. You will receive $2,400 in 15 years and the annual interest rate is 8 percent. ____ 2. Which of the following is the correct way to compute the future value of $X that earns r percent interest for N years? a. $X(1 + rN)N b. $X(1 + r)N c. $X(1 + rN) d. $X(1 + r/N)N ____ 3. At an annual interest rate of 10 percent, about how many years will it take $100 to double in value? a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 11 ____ 4. At an annual interest rate of 10 percent, about how many years will it take $100 to triple in value? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 ____ 5. If you put $300 into an account paying 2 percent interest, what will be the value of this account in 4 years? a. $320.69 b. $324.00 c. $324.73 d. $327.81 ____ 6. Lucretia puts $400 into an account when the interest rate is 10 percent. Later she checks her balance and finds it's worth about $708.62. How many years did she wait to check her balance? a. 5 years b. 6 years c. 7 years d. 8 years ____ 7. Alice says that the present value of $700 to be received one year from today if the interest rate is 6 percent is less than the present value of $700 to be received two years from today if the interest rate is 3 percent. Beth says that $700 saved for one year at 6 percent interest has a smaller future value than $700 saved for two years at 3 percent interest. a. Both Alice and Beth are correct. b. Both Alice and Beth are incorrect. c. Only Alice is correct. d. Only Beth is correct. ____ 8. Your financial advisor tells you that if you earn the historical rate of return on a certain mutual fund, then in three years your $20,000 will grow to $23,152.50. What rate of interest does your financial advisor expect you to earn? a. 5 percent b. 6 percent c. 7 percent d. 8 percent ____ 9. Robert put $15,000 into an account with a fixed interest rate two years ago and now the account balance is $16,695.38. What rate of interest did Robert earn? a. 4.5 percent b. 5.5 percent c. 6.5 percent d. 8.0 percent ____ 10. On May 25, 1978 three pals graduated from high school, pooled together $1,000 and put the money into an account promising to pay 8% for the next 30 years. On May 25, 2008 they withdrew all the money from the account. To the nearest dollar, how much did they withdraw? a. $2,400 b. $10,063 c. $32,400 d. None of the above are correct to the nearest dollar. ____ 11. You are expecting to receive $1,000 at some time in the future. Which of the following would unambiguously decrease the present value of this future payment? a. Interest rates rise and you get the payment sooner. b. Interest rates rise and you have to wait longer for the payment. c. Interest rates fall and you get the payment sooner. d. Interest rates fall and you have to wait longer to get the payment. ____ 12. Dobson Construction has an investment project that would cost $150,000 today and yield a one-time payoff of $167,000 in three years. What is the highest interest rate at which Dobson would find this project profitable? a. 7% b. 6% c. 5% d. It is not profitable at any of these interest rates. ____ 13. A firm has three different investment options. Option A will give the firm $10 million at the end of one year, $10 million at the end of two years, and $10 million at the end of three years. Option B will give the firm $15 million at the end of one year, $10 million at the end of two years, and $5 million at the end of three years. Option C will give the firm $30 million at the end of one year, and nothing thereafter. Which of these options has the highest present value? a. Option A b. Option B c. Option C d. The answer depends on the rate of interest, which is not specified here. ____ 14. A firm has four different investment options. Option A will give the firm $10 million at the end of one year, $10 million at the end of two years, and $10 million at the end of three years. Option B will give the firm $5 million at the end of one year, $10 million at the end of two years, and $15 million at the end of three years. Option C will give the firm $15 million at the end of one year, $10 million at the end of two years, and $5 million at the end of three years. Option D will give the firm $21 million at the end of one year, nothing at the end of two years, and $9 million at the end of three years. Which of these options has the highest present value if the rate of interest is 5 percent? a. Option A b. Option B c. Option C d. Option D ____ 15. U.S. Phones is considering buying new equipment to build a factory. If the interest rate rises, a. the present value of the returns from the factory will fall, so U.S. Phones will be less likely to build the factory. b. the present value of the returns from the factory will fall, so U.S. Phones will be more likely to build the factory. c. the present value of the returns from the factory will rise, so U.S. Phones will be less likely to build the factory. d. the present value of the returns from the factory will rise, so U.S. Phones will be more likely to build the factory. ____ 16. According to the rule of 70, if the interest rate is 10 percent, about how long will it take for the value of a savings account to double? a. about 6.3 years b. about 7 years c. about 7.7 years d. about 10 years ____ 17. According to the rule of 70, if the interest rate is 5 percent, how long will it take for the value of a savings account to double? a. about 3.5 years b. about 6.3 years c. about 12 years d. about 14 years ____ 18. Sari puts $100 into an account with an interest rate of 10 percent. According to the rule of 70, about how much does she have at the end of 21 years? a. $210 b. $300 c. $800 d. $1,010 ____ 19. You are tearing down a building and find $1 in change that someone lost when working on the building 140 years ago. If, instead of being careless with the $1 in change, this person had deposited it into a bank and earned 2 percent interest every year for 140 years, how much would be in the account today according to the rule of 70? a. $4 b. $8 c. $16 d. $32 ____ 20. Using the rule of 70, about how much would $100 be worth after 50 years if the interest rate were 7 percent? a. $400 b. $800 c. $1,600 d. $3,200 ____ 21. According to the rule of 70, if a person's saving doubles in 10 years, what interest rate were they earning? a. 3.5 b. 7 c. 14 d. None of the above is correct. ____ 22. Rosie is risk averse and has $1,000 with which to make a financial investment. She has three options. Option A is a risk-free government bond that pays 5 percent interest each year for two years. Option B is a low-risk stock that analysts expect to be worth about $1,102.50 in two years. Option C is a high-risk stock that is expected to be worth about $1,200 in four years. Rosie should choose a. option A. b. option B. c. option C. d. either option A or option B because Rosie is indifferent between those two options and they are superior to option C. ____ 23. The future value of $500 saved for two years at an interest rate of 5% is a. $550.25. b. $550.00. c. $551.25. d. None of the above are correct. ____ 24. What is the present value of a payment of $2,000 to be received two years from today if the interest rate is 5%? a. $2205 b. $2200 c. $1818.18 d. $1814.06 ____ 25. Albert Einstein once referred to compounding as a. "an obsession among economists that defies explanation." b. "the greatest mathematical discovery of all time." c. his own discovery. d. John Maynard Keynes's greatest contribution. ____ 26. From the standpoint of the economy as a whole, the role of insurance is a. to entice risk-loving people to become risk averse. b. to promote the phenomenon of adverse selection. c. not to eliminate the risks inherent in life, but to spread them around more efficiently. d. not to spread risks, but to eliminate them for individual policy holders. ____ 27. The largest reduction in a portfolio's risk is achieved when the number of stocks in the portfolio is increased from a. 80 to 100. b. 40 to 80. c. 10 to 20. d. 1 to 10. Figure 27-2. On the graph, x represents risk and y represents return. 10 y 9 8 7 6 5 4 A 3 2 1 D C B 5 10 15 20 x ____ 28. Refer to Figure 27-2. Point A represents a situation in which a. all of a person's savings are allocated to a class of safe assets. b. the person knows with certainty that his or her return will be 3 percent. c. the standard deviation of the person's portfolio is zero. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 29. If a person is risk averse, then she has a. diminishing marginal utility of wealth, implying that her utility function gets flatter as wealth increases. b. diminishing marginal utility of wealth, implying that her utility function gets steeper as wealth increases. c. increasing marginal utility of wealth, implying that her utility function gets flatter as wealth increases. d. increasing marginal utility of wealth, implying that her utility function gets steeper as wealth increases. ____ 30. Diminishing marginal utility of wealth implies that the utility function is a. upward-sloping and has decreasing slope. b. upward-sloping and has increasing slope. c. downward-sloping and has decreasing slope. d. downward-sloping and has increasing slope. ____ 31. The last $2,000 of Rolanda's wealth adds less to her utility than the previous $2,000. Based on this information, Rolanda has a. increasing marginal utility of wealth and is risk averse. b. increasing marginal utility of wealth and is not risk averse. c. decreasing marginal utility of wealth and is risk averse. d. decreasing marginal utility of wealth and is not risk averse. ____ 32. In effect, an annuity provides insurance a. against the risk of dying and leaving one's family without a regular income. b. against the risk of living too long. c. to people who are not risk-averse. d. to people whose utility functions do not display the usual properties. ____ 33. Over the past two centuries, the average annual rates of return were about a. 5 percent for stocks and about 1.5 percent for short-term government bonds. b. 6 percent for stocks and about 2.5 percent for short-term government bonds. c. 8 percent for stocks and about 3 percent for short-term government bonds. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 34. Other things the same, as the stocks of a greater number of corporations are held in a portfolio, a. risk increases at an increasing rate. b. risk increases at a decreasing rate. c. risk decreases at an increasing rate. d. risk decreases at a decreasing rate. ____ 35. Diversification reduces a. only market risk. b. only firm-specific risk. c. neither market or firm-specific risk. d. both market and firm-specific risk. ____ 36. Ben decided to increase the number of stocks in his portfolio. In doing so, Ben reduced a. both the firm-specific risk and the market risk of his portfolio. b. the firm-specific risk, but not the market risk of his portfolio. c. the market risk, but not the firm-specific risk of his portfolio. d. neither the market risk nor the firm-specific risk of his portfolio. ____ 37. Which of the following best illustrates diversification? a. A company that produces many different products decides to produce fewer. b. After selling stock, corporate management spends funds on projects with greater risks than shareholders had anticipated. c. Instead of holding only the stocks of companies engaged in the banking business, a person decides to hold stock in a number of different companies producing different goods and services. d. A person decides to purchase only stocks that have paid high dividends in the past. ____ 38. Dividends a. are the rates of return on mutual funds. b. are cash payments that companies make to shareholders. c. are the difference between the price and present value per share of a stock. d. are the rates of return on a company's capital stock. ____ 39. Some people claim that stocks follow a random walk. What does this mean? a. The price of stock one day is about what it was on the previous day. b. Changes in stock prices cannot be predicted from available information. c. Stock prices are not determined by market fundamentals such as supply and demand. d. Prices of stocks of different firms in the same industry show no or little tendency to move together. ____ 40. According to the efficient markets hypothesis, worse-than-expected news about a corporation will a. have no effect on its stock price. b. raise the price of the stock. c. lower the price of the stock. d. change the price of the stock in a random direction. ____ 41. Whenever the price of an asset rises above what appears to be its fundamental value, the market is said to be experiencing a. a conjectural mistake. b. a fundamental mishap. c. a speculative bubble. d. a neuroeconomic flaw. ____ 42. The value of a stock is based on the a. present values of the dividend stream and final price. So, the value of a stock rises when interest rates rise. b. present values of the dividend stream and final price. So, the value of a stock falls when interest rates rise. c. future values of the dividend stream and final price. So, the value of a stock rises when interest rates rises. d. future values of the dividend stream and final price. So, the value of a stock falls when interest rates rise. ____ 43. A soup manufacturer unexpectedly announces that it has hired a new manager. It is widely believed that this manager will raise the profitability of the corporation. At the same time interest rates unexpectedly rise. Which of the above would tend to make the price of the stock rise? a. the announcement and the rise in interest rates b. the announcement but not the rise in interest rates c. the rise in interest rates, but not the announcement d. neither the announcement nor the rise in interest rates ____ 44. The efficient markets hypothesis implies a. that all stocks are fairly valued all the time and that no stock is a better buy than any other. b. that all stocks are fairly valued all the time, but that some stocks may be better buys than other. c. that some stocks may be better buys than others and stock experts can determine which ones. d. that no stock is efficiently valued. ____ 45. Which of the following is correct? a. The amount of unemployment that a country typically experiences is a determinant of that country's standard of living, and some degree of unemployment is inevitable in a complex economy. b. The amount of unemployment that a country typically experiences is a determinant of that country's standard of living, and a complex economy can achieve zero unemployment. c. The amount of unemployment that a country typically experiences is not a determinant of that country's standard of living, and a complex economy can achieve zero unemployment. d. The amount of unemployment that a country typically experiences is not a determinant of that country's standard of living, and some degree of unemployment is inevitable in a complex economy. ____ 46. The natural rate of unemployment is the a. unemployment rate that would prevail with zero inflation. b. rate associated with the highest possible level of GDP. c. difference between the long-run and short-run unemployment rates. d. amount of unemployment that the economy normally experiences. ____ 47. The deviation of unemployment from its natural rate is called a. the unnatural rate of unemployment. b. structural unemployment. c. frictional unemployment. d. cyclical unemployment. ____ 48. The Bureau of Labor Statistics is part of the U.S. Department of a. the Treasury. b. Commerce. c. Labor. d. the Interior. ____ 49. The Bureau of Labor Statistics produces data on unemployment a. weekly. b. monthly. c. quarterly. d. yearly. ____ 50. Unemployment data are collected a. from unemployment insurance claims. b. through a regular survey of about 60,000 households. c. through a regular survey of about 200,000 firms. d. Unemployment data are collected using all of the above. ____ 51. Adelina owns her own business. Odilon is an unpaid worker in his family's business. Who is included in the Bureau of Labor Statistics' "employed" category? a. only Adelina b. only Odilon c. both Adelina and Odilon d. neither Adelina nor Odilon ____ 52. Who of the following would be included in the Bureau of Labor Statistics' "unemployed" category? a. Cemal, a full-time student who is not looking for work b. Halim, who is on temporary layoff c. Zeynep, who has retired and is not looking for work d. All of the above are correct. ____ 53. Who is included in the labor force by the Bureau of Labor Statistics? a. Aibne, who works most of the week in a steel factory b. Modlen, who is waiting for her new job at the bank to start c. Wyclef, who does not have a job, but is looking for work d. All of the above are included in the labor force. ____ 54. Pekelo owns his own business. The Bureau of Labor Statistics counts Pekelo as a. unemployed and in the labor force. b. unemployed and not in the labor force. c. employed and in the labor force. d. employed and not in the labor force. ____ 55. Sirius has just finished high school and started looking for his first job, but has not yet found one. Other things the same, the unemployment rate a. and the labor-force participation rate both increase. b. increases and the labor-force participation rate is unaffected. c. is unaffected and the labor-force participation rate increases. d. and the labor-force participation rate are both unaffected. Table 28-1 Labor Data for Wrexington Year Adult population Number of employed Number of unemployed 2004 2000 1400 200 2005 3000 1300 600 2006 3200 1600 200 ____ 56. Refer to Table 28-1. The labor force of Wrexington in 2004 was a. 1400. b. 1600. c. 1800. d. 2000. ____ 57. Refer to Table 28-1. The labor force of Wrexington in 2005 was a. 1300. b. 1900. c. 2400. d. 3000. ____ 58. Refer to Table 28-1. The number of adults not in the labor force of Wrexington in 2005 was a. 600. b. 1100. c. 1700. d. 2400. ____ 59. Refer to Table 28-1. The number of adults not in the labor force of Wrexington a. increased from 2004 to 2005 and increased from 2005 to 2006. b. increased from 2004 to 2005 and decreased from 2005 to 2006. c. decreased from 2004 to 2005 and increased from 2005 to 2006. d. decreased from 2004 to 2005 and decreased from 2005 to 2006. Table 28-2 2009 Labor Data for Wrexington Number of adults Number of adults who are paid employees Number of adults who work in their own businesses Number of adults who are unpaid workers in a family member's business Number of adults who were temporarily absent from their jobs because of an earthquake Number of adults who were waiting to be recalled to a job from which they had been laid off Number of adults who do not have a job, are available for work, and have tried to find a job within the past four weeks Number of adults who do not have a job, are available for work, but have not tried to find a job within the past four weeks Number of adults who are full-time students Number of adults who are homemakers or retirees ____ 60. Refer to Table 28-2. How many people were employed in Wrexington in 2009? a. 9,600 b. 10,600 c. 11,000 d. 11,200 20,000 8,000 1,600 1,000 400 200 1,400 780 3,000 3,620 ____ 61. Refer to Table 28-2. How many people were not in Wrexington's labor force in 2009? a. 4,400 b. 6,620 c. 7,400 d. 8,690 ____ 62. Suppose that the adult population is 6 million, the number of employed is 3.8 million, and the labor-force participation rate is 70%. What is the unemployment rate? a. 6.7% b. 9.5% c. 10.5% d. 28% ____ 63. Suppose some country had an adult population of about 25 million, a labor-force participation rate of 60 percent, and an unemployment rate of 6 percent. How many people were unemployed? a. 0.846 million b. 0.9 million c. 1.5 million d. 6 million ____ 64. According to 2007 data on the U.S. population, which of the following groups of adults (ages 20 and older) has the highest labor-force participation rate? a. white males b. white females c. black males d. black females ____ 65. According to 2007 data on the U.S. population, which of the following groups of adults (ages 20 and older) has the lowest unemployment rate? a. white males b. white females c. black males d. black females ____ 66. According to 2007 data on the U.S. population, which of the following groups of teenagers (ages 16-19) has the highest unemployment rate? a. white males b. white females c. black males d. black females ____ 67. According to 2007 data on the U.S. population, which of the following groups of teenagers (ages 16-19) has the lowest unemployment rate? a. white males b. white females c. black males d. black females Table 28-3 2003 Labor Data for Adults (age 16 and older) in Meditor Males not in labor force Females not in labor force Males unemployed Females unemployed Males employed Females employed 45 million 35 million 5 million 5 million 85 million 65 million ____ 68. Refer to Table 28-3. What is the adult male population in Meditor? a. 50 million b. 90 million c. 130 million d. 135 million ____ 69. Which of the following is not a cause of the changing role of women in American society over the past several decades? a. new technologies that have reduced the amount of time required to complete routine household tasks b. improved birth control c. changing political and social attitudes d. scientists have shown that women are better employees than men ____ 70. Which of the following is not an explanation for the existence of unemployment in the long run? a. it takes time for workers to search for the jobs that are best suited for them b. minimum-wage laws c. unions d. the business cycle ____ 71. Sectoral shifts in demand for output a. create structural unemployment. b. immediately reduce unemployment. c. increase unemployment due to job search. d. do not affect demand for labor. ____ 72. Which of the following is not correct? a. Frictional unemployment is inevitable in a dynamic economy. b. Although the unemployment created by sectoral shifts is unfortunate, in the long run such changes lead to higher productivity and higher living standards. c. At least 10 percent of U.S. manufacturing jobs are destroyed every year. d. More than 13 percent of U.S. workers leave their jobs in a typical month. ____ 73. When a minimum-wage law forces the wage to remain above the level that balances supply and demand, it a. raises the quantity of labor supplied and raises the quantity of labor demanded compared to the equilibrium level. b. raises the quantity of labor supplied and reduces the quantity of labor demanded compared to the equilibrium level. c. reduces the quantity of labor supplied and raises the quantity of labor demanded compared to the equilibrium level. d. reduces the quantity of labor supplied and reduces the quantity of labor demanded compared to the equilibrium level. ____ 74. An increase in the minimum wage would a. increase both the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied of labor. b. decrease both the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied of labor. c. increase the quantity of labor demanded but decrease the quantity of labor supplied. d. decrease the quantity of labor demanded but increase the quantity of labor supplied. ____ 75. If the minimum wage were currently above the equilibrium wage, than a decrease in the minimum wage would a. increase both the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied of labor. b. decrease both the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied of labor. c. increase the quantity of labor demanded but decrease the quantity of labor supplied. d. decrease the quantity of labor demanded but increase the quantity of labor supplied. Figure 28-1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 hundreds of workers D wage S ____ 76. Refer to Figure 28-1. If the government imposes a minimum wage of $8, then how many workers will be unemployed? a. 0 b. 3000 c. 4000 d. 7000 ____ 77. Between the 1940s and today, union membership in the U.S. a. rose from about one-eighth to one-third of the labor force. b. rose from about one-third to one-half of the labor force. c. fell from about one-half to one-third of the labor force. d. fell from about one-third to one-eighth of the labor force. ____ 78. Collective bargaining refers to a. the process by which the government sets exemptions from the minimum wage law. b. setting the same wage for all employees to prevent conflict among workers. c. firms colluding to set the wages of employees in order to keep them below equilibrium. d. the process by which unions and firms agree on the terms of employment. ____ 79. Which of the following is not correct? a. An organized withdrawal of labor from a firm by a union is called a strike. b. The power of a union comes from its ability to strike if the union and the firm do not agree on the terms of employment. c. Economists who study the effects of unions typically find that union workers earn about 25 to 35 percent more than similar workers who do not belong to unions. d. Workers in unions reap the benefit of collective bargaining, while workers not in unions bear some of the cost. ____ 80. Suppose that butchers and bakers have no unions. Now suppose the butchers form a union. What does this do the labor supply of and wages of bakers? a. It increases the labor supply and wages of bakers. b. It increases the labor supply and decreases the wages of bakers. c. It decreases the labor supply and increases the wages of bakers. d. It decreases the labor supply and wages of bakers. ____ 81. The Wagner Act of 1935 a. prevents unions from acting as cartels. b. allows workers joining a unionized firm to choose not to join the union. c. prevents employers from interfering when workers try to organize a union. d. prevents firms from hiring permanent replacements for workers who are on strike. ____ 82. Right-to-work laws a. guarantee workers the right to form unions. b. give workers in a unionized firm the right to choose whether to join the union. c. prevent employers from hiring permanent replacements for workers who are on strike. d. prevent workers from being fired because of increases in wages brought about by collective bargaining. ____ 83. Which of the following is correct? a. Nearly all economists believe that unions are bad for the economy as a whole. b. Unions raise wages above the competitive equilibrium level. c. Unions increase the level of employment in unionized firms. d. Unions decrease the level of employment in nonunionized firms. ____ 84. Sectoral changes a. create frictional unemployment, while firms paying wages above equilibrium to attract a better pool of candidates creates structural unemployment. b. create structural unemployment, while firms paying wages above equilibrium to attract a better pool of candidates creates frictional unemployment. c. and firms paying wages above equilibrium to attract a better pool of candidates both create structural unemployment. d. and firms paying wages above equilibrium to attract a better pool of candidates both create frictional unemployment. ____ 85. The efficiency-wage theory of worker turnover suggests that firms with a. higher turnover will have higher production costs and higher profits. b. higher turnover will have higher production costs and lower profits. c. higher turnover will have lower production costs and higher profits. d. higher turnover will have lower production costs and lower profits. ____ 86. Maxine, the owner of a furniture company, decides to raise the wages of her workers even though she faces an excess supply of labor. Her decision a. might increase profits if it attracts a better pool of workers to apply for her firm's jobs. b. will increase the excess supply of labor. c. may increase the quality of her work force. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 87. The double coincidence of wants a. is required when there is no item in an economy that is widely accepted in exchange for goods and services. b. is required in an economy that relies on barter. c. is a hindrance to the allocation of resources when it is required for trade. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 88. Money a. is a perfect store of value. b. is the most liquid asset. c. has intrinsic value, regardless of which form it takes. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 89. When we want to measure and record economic value, we use money as the a. liquid asset. b. medium of exchange. c. unit of account. d. store of value. ____ 90. Paper dollars a. are commodity money and gold coins are fiat money. b. are fiat money and gold coins are commodity money. c. and gold coins are both commodity monies. d. and gold coins are both fiat monies. ____ 91. The Soviet government in the 1980s never abandoned the ruble as the official currency. The people of Moscow preferred to accept other items such as a. cigarettes in exchange for goods and services, because they were convinced that cigarettes were going to soon become hard to come by. b. American dollars in exchange for goods and services, because rubles were extremely hard to come by. c. cigarettes or American dollars in exchange for goods and services, reminding us of the fact that government decree by itself is not sufficient for the success of a commodity money. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 92. Which of the following functions of money is also a common function of most other financial assets? a. a unit of account b. a store of value c. medium of exchange d. None of the above is correct. ____ 93. Economists use the word "money" to refer to a. income generated by the production of goods and services. b. those assets regularly used to buy goods and services. c. the value of a person's assets. d. the value of stocks and bonds. ____ 94. M1 includes a. currency. b. demand deposits. c. travelers' checks. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 95. Which of the following is not included in M1? a. currency b. demand deposits c. traveler's checks d. credit cards ____ 96. Which of the following defer payments? a. credit cards and debit cards b. neither credit cards nor debit cards c. credit cards but not debit cards d. debit cards but not credit cards ____ 97. Members of the Board of Governors a. are appointed by the U.S. president, while presidents of the regional Federal Reserve Banks are appointed by those banks' boards of directors. b. are appointed by the regional Federal Reserve Banks' boards of directors while the presidents of the regional Federal Reserve Banks are appointed by the U.S. president. c. and the presidents of the regional Federal Reserve Banks are appointed by the U.S. president. d. and the presidents of the regional Federal Reserve Banks are appointed by the regional Federal Reserve Banks' boards of directors. ____ 98. The New York Federal Reserve Bank a. president always gets to vote at the FOMC meetings. b. conducts open market transactions. c. is one of 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 99. The problem faced by the Fed stems from two of the Ten Principles of Economics. Those principles are as follows: a. (1) Governments can usually improve market outcomes, and (2) society faces a short-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment. b. (1) Governments can sometimes improve market outcomes, and (2) interest rates fall when the government prints too much money. c. (1) Society faces a short-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment, and (2) prices rise when the government prints too much money. d. (1) Society faces a long-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment, and (2) prices rise when the government prints too much money. ____ 100. In a system of 100-percent-reserve banking, the purpose of a bank is to a. make loans to households. b. influence the money supply. c. give depositors a safe place to keep their money. d. buy and sell gold. ____ 101. Suppose that banks desire to hold no excess reserves, the reserve requirement is 5 percent, and a bank receives a new deposit of $1,000. This bank a. will increase its required reserves by $50. b. will initially see its total reserves increase by $1,000. c. will be able to make a new loan of $950. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 102. Suppose banks desire to hold no excess reserves and that the Fed has set a reserve requirement of 10 percent. If you deposit $9,000 into First Jayhawk Bank, a. First Jayhawk's required reserves increase by $900. b. First Jayhawk will be able to lend out $8,100. c. First Jayhawk's assets and liabilities both will increase by $9,000. d. All of the above are correct. Table 29-2. An economy starts with $10,000 in currency. All of this currency is deposited into a single bank, and the bank then makes loans totaling $9,250. The T-account of the bank is shown below. Assets Reserves Loans $750 9,250 Liabilities Deposits $10,000 ____ 103. Refer to Table 29-2. If all banks in the economy have the same reserve ratio as this bank, then an increase in reserves of $150 for this bank has the potential to increase deposits for all banks by a. $866.67. b. $1,666.67. c. $2,000.00. d. an infinite amount. Table 29-6. Bank of Springfield Assets Reserves Loans $19,200 228,000 Deposits Liabilities $240,000 ____ 104. Refer to Table 29-6. If the Fed requires a reserve ratio of 6 percent, then what quantity of excess reserves does the Bank of Springfield now hold? a. $1,200 b. $2,400 c. $2,880 d. $4,800 ____ 105. Which of the following statements is correct? a. In the special case of 100-percent-reserve banking, the reserve ratio is 1, the money multiplier is 2, and banks create money. b. In the special case of 100-percent-reserve banking, the reserve ratio is 1, the money multiplier is 1, and banks do not create money. c. When the reserve ratio is 0.5, then the money multiplier is 1 and banks do not create money. d. When the reserve ratio is 0.125, then the money multiplier is 8, and each bank loans $8 for every $1 that it accept in deposits. ____ 106. Regulations on the a. maximum amount of reserves that banks can hold against deposits are called reserve re- b. minimum amount of reserves that banks must hold against deposits are called reserve requirements. c. extent to which banks can buy and sell bonds are called open-market requirements. d. extent to which banks can make new loans are called open-market requirements. ____ 107. If the reserve ratio for all banks is 20 percent, then $100 of new reserves can generate a. $60 of new money in the economy. b. $250 of new money in the economy. c. $500 of new money in the economy. d. $2,000 of new money in the economy. ____ 108. When the Fed purchases $200 worth of government bonds from the public, the U.S. money supply eventually increases by a. more than $200. b. exactly $200. c. less than $200. d. All of the above are possible. ____ 109. To decrease the money supply, the Fed can a. buy government bonds or increase the discount rate. b. buy government bonds or decrease the discount rate. c. sell government bonds or increase the discount rate. d. sell government bonds or decrease the discount rate. ____ 110. In a 100-percent-reserve banking system, if people decided to decrease the amount of currency they held by increasing the amount they held in checkable deposits, then a. M1 would increase. b. M1 would decrease. c. M1 would not change. d. M1 might rise or fall. ____ 111. As the reserve ratio increases, the money multiplier a. increases. b. does not change. c. decreases. d. could do any of the above. ____ 112. Suppose the Federal Reserve increases bank reserves and banks lend out some of these reserves, but at some point banks still have $5 million more they wish to lend out. If the reserve requirement is 10 percent, how much more money can banks create if they lend out the remaining amount? a. $55 million b. $50 million c. $45 million d. $40 million ____ 113. The reserve requirement ratio is 10 percent. Which of the following pairs of changes would both allow a bank to lend out an additional $10,000? a. the Fed buys a $10,000 bond from the bank or someone deposits $10,000 in the bank b. the Fed buys a $10,000 bond from the bank or the Fed lends the bank $10,000 c. the Fed sells a $10,000 bond to the bank or someone deposits $10,000 in the bank d. the Fed sells a $10,000 bond to the bank or the Fed lends the bank $10,000 ____ 114. The money supply increases when the Fed a. buys bonds. The increase will be larger, the smaller is the reserve ratio. b. buys bonds. The increase will be larger, the larger is the reserve ratio. c. sells bonds. The increase will be larger, the smaller is the reserve ratio. d. sells bonds. The increase will be larger, the larger is the reserve ratio. ____ 115. Which of the following lists two things that both decrease the money supply? a. lower the discount rate, raise the reserve requirement ratio b. lower the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement ratio c. raise the discount rate, raise the reserve requirement ratio d. raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement ratio ____ 116. Which of the following lists two things that both decrease the money supply? a. raise the discount rate, make open market purchases b. raise the discount rate, make open market sales c. lower the discount rate, make open market purchases d. lower the discount rate, make open market sales ____ 117. Which of the following lists two things that both decrease the money supply? a. make open market purchases, raise the reserve requirement b. make open market purchases, lower the reserve requirement c. make open market sales, raise the reserve requirement d. make open market sales, lower the reserve requirement ____ 118. In a fractional-reserve banking system, an increase in reserve requirements a. increases both the money multiplier and the money supply. b. decreases both the money multiplier and the money supply. c. increases the money multiplier, but decreases the money supply. d. decreases the money multiplier, but increases the money supply. ____ 119. In a fractional-reserve banking system, a decrease in reserve requirements a. increases both the money multiplier and the money supply. b. decreases both the money multiplier and the money supply. c. increases the money multiplier, but decreases the money supply. d. decreases the money multiplier, but increases the money supply. ____ 120. If the reserve ratio is 15 percent, and banks do not hold excess reserves, and people hold only deposits and no currency, then when the Fed sells $65 million of bonds to the public, bank reserves a. increase by $65 million and the money supply eventually increases by $266.67 million. b. increase by $65 million and the money supply eventually increases by $433.33 million. c. decrease by $65 million and the money supply eventually decreases by $266.67 million. d. decrease by $65 million and the money supply eventually decreases by $433.33 million. ____ 121. The discount rate is a. the interest rate the Fed charges banks. b. one divided by the difference between one and the reserve ratio. c. the interest rate banks receive on reserve deposits with the Fed. d. the interest rate that banks charge on overnight loans to other banks. ____ 122. The discount rate is a. the rate at which public banks lend to other public banks. b. the rate at which the Fed lends to banks. c. the percentage difference between the face value of a Treasury bond and what the Fed d. the percentage of deposits banks hold as excess reserves. ____ 123. The banking system currently has $200 billion of reserves, none of which are excess. People hold only deposits and no currency, and the reserve requirement is 4 percent. If the Fed raises the reserve requirement to 10 percent and at the same time buys $50 billion of bonds, then by how much does the money supply change? a. It rises by $600 billion. b. It rises by $125 billion. c. It falls by $2,500 billion. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 124. During recessions, banks typically choose to hold more excess reserves relative to their deposits. This action a. increases the money multiplier and increases the money supply. b. decreases the money multiplier and decreases the money supply. c. does not change the money multiplier, but increases the money supply. d. does not change the money multiplier, but decreases the money supply. ____ 125. During a bank run, depositors decide to hold more currency relative to deposits and banks decide to hold more excess reserves relative to deposits. a. Both the decision to hold relatively more currency and the decision to hold relatively more excess reserves would make the money supply increase. b. Both the decision to hold relatively more currency and the decision to hold relatively more excess reserves would make the money supply decrease. c. The decision to hold relatively more currency would make the money supply increase. The decision to hold relatively more excess reserves would make the money supply decrease. d. The decision to hold relatively more currency would make the money supply increase. The decision to hold relatively more excess reserves would make the money supply decrease. ____ 126. Today, bank runs are a. uncommon because of the high reserve requirement. b. uncommon because of FDIC deposit insurance. c. common because of the low reserve requirement. d. common because the FDIC is nearly bankrupt. ____ 127. The federal funds rate is the a. percentage of face value that the Federal Reserve is willing to pay for Treasury Securities. b. percentage of deposits that banks must hold as reserves. c. interest rate at which the Federal Reserve makes short-term loans to banks. d. interest rate at which banks lend reserves to each other overnight. ____ 128. Imagine that the federal funds rate was above the level the Federal Reserve had targeted. To move the rate back towards it's target the Federal Reserve could a. buy bonds. This buying would increase the money supply. b. buy bonds. This buying would reduce the money supply. c. sell bonds. This selling would increase the money supply. d. sell bonds. This selling would reduce the money supply. ____ 129. A decrease in the money supply might indicate that the Fed had a. purchased bonds in an attempt to increase the federal funds rate. b. purchased bonds in an attempt to reduce the federal funds rate. c. sold bonds in an attempt to increase the federal funds rate. d. sold bonds in an attempt to reduce the federal funds rate. ____ 130. The inflation tax refers to a. the revenue a government creates by printing money. b. higher inflation which requires more frequent price changes. c. the idea that, other things the same, an increase in the tax rate raises the inflation rate. d. taxes being indexed for inflation. ____ 131. To explain the long-run determinants of the price level and the inflation rate, most economists today rely on the a. quantity theory of money. b. price-index theory of money. c. theory of hyperinflation. d. disequilibrium theory of money and inflation. ____ 132. When the price level rises, the number of dollars needed to buy a representative basket of goods a. increases, and so the value of money rises. b. increases, and so the value of money falls. c. decreases, and so the value of money rises. d. decreases, and so the value of money falls ____ 133. When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, an increase in the money supply shifts the money supply curve to the a. right, lowering the price level. b. right, raising the price level. c. left, raising the price level. d. left, lowering the price level. ____ 134. When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, if the money supply rises a. the price level and the value of money rise. b. the price level rises and the value of money falls. c. the price level falls and the value of money rises. d. the price level and the value of money fall. ____ 135. Consider the money market drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis. If money demand is unchanged and the price level rises, then a. the money supply must have increased, perhaps because the Fed bought bonds. b. the money supply must have increased, perhaps because the Fed sold bonds. c. the money supply must have decreased, perhaps because the Fed bought bonds. d. the money supply must have decreased, perhaps because the Fed sold bonds. ____ 136. In the 1970s, in response to recessions caused by an increase in the price of oil, the central banks in many countries increased their money supplies. The central banks might have done this by a. selling bonds on the open market, which would have raised the value of money. b. purchasing bonds on the open market, which would have raised the value of money. c. selling bonds on the open market, which would have raised the value of money. d. purchasing bonds on the open market, which would have lowered the value of money. ____ 137. When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, an increase in the money supply creates an excess a. supply of money, causing people to spend more. b. supply of money, causing people to spend less. c. demand for money, causing people to spend more. d. demand for money, causing people to spend less. Figure 30-2. On the graph, MS represents the money supply and MD represents money demand. The usual quantities are measured along the axes. 1.125 1 0.875 0.75 0.625 0.5 0.375 0.25 0.125 MS MD2 MD1 5,000 ____ 138. Refer to Figure 30-2. If the relevant money-demand curve is the one labeled MD1, then the equilibrium value of money is a. 0.5 and the equilibrium price level is 2. b. 2 and the equilibrium price level is 0.5. c. 0.5 and the equilibrium price level cannot be determined from the graph. d. 2 and the equilibrium price level cannot be determined from the graph. ____ 139. According to the classical dichotomy, which of the following increases when the money supply increases? a. the real interest rate b. real GDP c. the real wage d. None of the above increases. ____ 140. The principle of monetary neutrality implies that an increase in the money supply will a. increase real GDP and the price level. b. increase real GDP, but not the price level. c. increase the price level, but not real GDP. d. increase neither the price level nor real GDP. ____ 141. According to the principle of monetary neutrality, a decrease in the money supply will not change a. nominal GDP. b. the price level. c. unemployment. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 142. According to the assumptions of the quantity theory of money, if the money supply increases by 5 percent, then a. nominal and real GDP would rise by 5 percent. b. nominal GDP would rise by 5 percent; real GDP would be unchanged. c. nominal GDP would be unchanged; real GDP would rise by 5 percent. d. neither nominal GDP nor real GDP would change. ____ 143. If and velocity output were nearly constant, then a. the inflation rate would be much higher than the money supply growth rate. b. the inflation rate would be about the same as the money supply growth rate. c. the inflation rate would be much lower than the money supply growth rate. d. any of the above would be possible. ____ 144. Which of the following is consistent with the idea that high money supply growth leads to high inflation? a. the quantity theory and evidence from four hyperinflations during the 1920's b. the quantity theory but not evidence from four hyperinflations during the 1920's c. evidence from four hyperinflations during the 1920's but not the quantity theory d. neither the quantity theory nor evidence from four hyperinflation during the 1920's ____ 145. Suppose the United States unexpectedly decided to pay off its debt by printing new money. Which of the following would happen? a. People who held money would feel poorer. b. Prices would rise. c. People who had lent money at a fixed interest rate would feel poorer. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 146. If the real interest rate is 6 percent and the price level is falling at a rate of 2 percent, what is the nominal interest rate? a. 4 percent b. 6 percent c. 8 percent d. 10 percent ____ 147. The Fisher effect says that a. the nominal interest rate adjusts one for one with the inflation rate. b. the growth rate of the money supply is negatively related to the velocity of money. c. real variables are heavily influenced by the monetary system. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 148. People can reduce the inflation tax by a. reducing savings. b. increasing deductions on their income tax. c. reducing cash holdings. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 149. The costs of changing price tags and price listings are known as a. inflation-induced tax distortions. b. relative-price variability costs. c. shoeleather costs. d. menu costs. ____ 150. If there is inflation, then a firm that has kept its price fixed for some time will have a a. high relative price. Relative-price variability rises as the inflation rate rises. b. high relative price. Relative-price variability falls as the inflation rate rises. c. low relative price. Relative-price variability rises as the inflation rate rises. d. low relative price. Relative-price variability falls as the inflation rate rises. ____ 151. You bought some shares of stock and, over the next year, the price per share increased by 5 percent, as did the price level. Before taxes, you experienced a. both a nominal gain and a real gain, and you paid taxes on the nominal gain. b. both a nominal gain and a real gain, and you paid taxes only on the real gain. c. a nominal gain, but no real gain, and you paid taxes on the nominal gain. d. a nominal gain, but no real gain, and you paid no taxes on the transaction. ____ 152. You put money into an account and earn an after-tax real interest rate of 2.5 percent. If the nominal interest rate on the account is 8 percent and the inflation rate is 2 percent, then what is the tax rate? a. 28.00 percent b. 36.25 percent c. 43.75 percent d. 67.50 percent ____ 153. Suppose that in some tax year you earned a nominal interest rate of 4 percent. During the time you held these funds inflation was 1 percent. You compute that you made a real after-tax interest rate of 2 percent. What was your tax rate? a. 50 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 25 percent d. None of the above are correct. ____ 154. Suppose one year ago the price index was 120 and Mark purchased $20,000 worth of bonds. One year later the price index is 126. Mark redeems his bonds for $22,250 and is in a 40 percent tax bracket. What is Mark's real after-tax rate of interest to the nearest tenth of a percent? a. 4.3 percent b. 3.1 percent c. 1.8 percent d. 1.2 percent ____ 155. Kristi purchased one share of Genuine Co. stock for $200; one year later she sold that share for $400. The inflation rate over the year was 50 percent. The tax rate on nominal capital gains is 50 percent. What was the tax on Kristi's capital gain? a. $50 b. $75 c. $100 d. $200 ____ 156. For a given real interest rate, a decrease in the inflation rate would a. decrease the after-tax real interest rate and so decrease saving. b. decrease the after-tax real interest rate and so increase saving. c. increase the after-tax real interest rate and so decrease saving. d. increase the after-tax real interest rate and so increase saving. ____ 157. Wealth is redistributed from creditors to debtors when inflation is a. high, whether it is expected or not. b. low, whether it is expected or not. c. unexpectedly high. d. unexpectedly low. ____ 158. Tara deposits money into an account with a nominal interest rate of 6 percent. She expects inflation to be 2 percent. Her tax rate is 20 percent. Tara's after-tax real rate of interest a. will be 2.8 percent if inflation turns out to be 2 percent; it will be higher if inflation turns out to be higher than 2 percent. b. will be 2.8 percent if inflation turns out to be 2 percent; it will be lower if inflation turns out to be higher than 2 percent. c. will be 3.2 percent if inflation turns out to be 2 percent; it will be higher if inflation turns out to be higher than 2 percent. d. will be 3.2 percent if inflation turns out to be 2 percent; it will be lower if inflation turns out to be higher than 2 percent. ____ 159. When Claudia, a U.S. citizen, purchases a handbag made in France, the purchase is a. both a U.S. and French import. b. a U.S. export and a French import. c. a U.S. import and a French export. d. neither an export nor an import for either country. ____ 160. Which of the following both raise net exports? a. exports rise, imports rise b. exports rise, imports fall c. imports rise, exports rise d. imports rise, exports fall ____ 161. One year a country has negative net exports. The next year it still has negative net exports and imports have risen more than exports. a. its trade surplus fell. b. its trade surplus rose. c. its trade deficit fell. ____ 162. One year a country has positive net exports. The next year it still has positive but larger net exports a. its trade surplus fell. b. its trade surplus rose. c. its trade deficit fell. d. its trade deficit rose ____ 163. Paine Pharmaceuticals produces medicines in the U.S. Its overseas sales a. are an export of the U.S. and increase U.S. net exports. b. are an export of the U.S. and decrease U.S. net exports. c. are an import of the U.S. and increase U.S. net exports. d. are an import of the U.S. and decrease U.S. net exports. ____ 164. Bob traps lobsters in Maine and sells them to a restaurant in Egypt. Other things the same, these sales a. increase U.S. net exports and has no effect on Egyptian net exports. b. increase U.S. net exports and decrease Egyptian net exports. c. decrease U.S. net exports and have no effect on Egyptian net exports. d. decrease U.S. net exports and increase Egyptian net exports. ____ 165. If a country had a trade surplus of $50 billion and then its exports rose by $30 billion and its imports rose by $20 billion, its net exports would now be a. $0 billion. b. $20 billion. c. $40 billion. d. $60 billion. ____ 166. Which of the following is an example of U.S. foreign direct investment? a. A U.S. based mutual fund buys stock in Eastern European companies. b. A U.S. citizen builds and operates a coffee shop in the Netherlands. c. A Swiss bank buys a U.S. government bond. d. A German tractor factory opens a plant in Waterloo, Iowa. ____ 167. Which of the following is an example of U.S. foreign portfolio investment? a. Albert, a German citizen, buys stock in a U.S. computer company. b. Larry, a citizen of Ireland, opens a fish and chips restaurant in the United States. c. Nancy, a U.S. citizen, buys bonds issued by a Japanese bank. d. Dustin, a U.S. citizen, opens a country-western tavern in New Zealand. ____ 168. A U.S. mutual fund buys stocks issued by a Columbian company. This purchase is an example of a. U.S. foreign direct investment. It increases Columbia's net capital outflow. b. U.S. foreign direct investment. It decreases Columbia's net capital outflow. c. U.S. foreign portfolio investment. It decreases Columbia's net capital outflow. d. U.S. foreign portfolio investment. It increases Columbia's net capital outflow. ____ 169. An Italian company builds and operates a pasta factory in the United States. This is an example of Italian a. foreign direct investment that increases Italian net capital outflow. b. foreign direct investment that decreases Italian net capital outflow. c. foreign portfolio investment that increases Italian net capital outflow. d. foreign portfolio investment that decreases Italian net capital outflow. ____ 170. A U.S. company uses U.K. pounds it already owned to purchase bonds issued by a company in the U.K. Which of these countries has an increase in net capital outflow? a. The U.S. and the U.K. b. The U.S. but not the U.K. c. The U.K. but not the U.S. d. Neither the U.S. nor the U.K. ____ 171. When the Sykes Corporation (an American company) buys shares of Audi stock (a German company) for its pension fund, U.S. net capital outflow a. increases because an American company makes a portfolio investment in Germany. b. declines because an American company makes a portfolio investment in Germany. c. increases because an American company makes a direct investment in Germany. d. declines because an American company makes a direct investment in Germany. ____ 172. When a French vineyard establishes a distribution center in the U.S., U.S. net capital outflow a. increases because the foreign company makes a portfolio investment in the U.S. b. declines because the foreign company makes a portfolio investment in the U.S. c. increases because the foreign company makes a direct investment in capital in the U.S. d. declines because the foreign company makes a direct investment in capital in the U.S. ____ 173. A Japanese firm buys lumber from the United States and pays for it with yen. Other things the same, Japanese a. net exports increase, and U.S. net capital outflow increases. b. net exports increase, and U.S. net capital outflow decreases. c. net exports decrease, and U.S. net capital outflow increases. d. net exports decrease, and U.S. net capital outflow decreases. ____ 174. A U.S. firm buys cement mixers from China and pays for them with U.S. dollars. a. The purchase of the cement mixers increases U.S. net exports and the payment with dollars increases U.S. net capital outflow. b. The purchase of cement mixers increases U.S. net exports and the payment with dollars decreases U.S. net capital outflow. c. The purchase of cement mixers decreases U.S. net exports and the payment with dollars increases U.S. net capital outflow. d. The purchase of cement mixers decreases U.S. net exports and the payment with dollars decreases U.S. net capital outflow. ____ 175. A U.S. based company sells semiconductors to an Italian firm. The U.S. company uses all of the revenues from this sale to purchase automobiles from Italian firms. These transactions a. increase both U.S. net exports and U.S. net capital outflow. b. decrease both U.S. net exports and U.S. net capital outflow. c. increase U.S. net exports and do not affect U.S. net capital outflow. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 176. A Venezuelan firm purchases earth-moving equipment from a U.S. company and pays for it with Venezuelan currency. This transaction a. increases U.S. net exports, and increases Venezuelan net capital outflow. b. increases U.S. net exports, and decreases Venezuelan net capital outflow. c. decreases U.S. net exports, and increases Venezuelan net capital outflow. d. decreases U.S. net exports, and decreases Venezuelan net capital outflow. ____ 177. Tony, a U.S. citizen, uses some previously obtained euros to purchase a bond issued by a Portuguese company. This transaction a. increases U.S. net capital outflow by more than the value of the bond. b. increases U.S. net capital outflow by the value of the bond. c. does not change U.S. net capital outflow. d. decreases U.S. net capital outflow. ____ 178. If a country has a trade surplus a. it has positive net exports and positive net capital outflow. b. it has positive net exports and negative net capital outflow. c. it has negative net exports and positive net capital outflow. d. it has negative net exports and negative net capital outflow. ____ 179. A country has a trade deficit. Its a. net capital outflow must be positive, and saving is larger than investment. b. net capital outflow must be positive and saving is smaller than investment. c. net capital outflow must be negative and saving is larger than investment. d. net capital outflow must be negative and saving is smaller than investment. ____ 180. A country has $45 million of domestic investment and net capital outflow of -$60 million. What is its saving? a. $15 million. b. -$15 million. c. $105 million. d. -$105 million. ____ 181. From 1960 to about 1975 in the United States, net capital outflow was a. small but always positive. b. small and sometimes negative and sometimes positive. c. large and positive. d. large but sometimes negative and sometimes positive. ____ 182. In which period was most of the change in U.S. net capital outflow due to an increase in investment in the U.S.? a. 1980-1987 b. 1991-2000 c. 2000-2006 d. None of the above are correct. ____ 183. If the exchange rate were .8 Canadian dollars per U.S. dollar, a watch that costs $8 US dollars would cost a. 6.4 Canadian dollars. b. 10 Canadian dollars. c. 12.50 Canadian dollars. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 184. You are planning a graduation trip to Nepal. Other things the same, if the dollar appreciates relative to the Nepalese rupee, then a. the dollar buys fewer rupees. Your purchases in Nepal will require fewer dollars. b. the dollar buys fewer rupees. Your purchases in Nepal will require more dollars. c. the dollar buys more rupees. Your purchases in Nepal will require fewer dollars. d. the dollar buys more rupees. Your purchases in Nepal will require more dollars. ____ 185. Other things the same, if the exchange rate changes from .30 Kuwaiti dinar per dollar to .35 Kuwaiti dinar per dollar, then the dollar has a. appreciated and so buys more Kuwaiti goods. b. appreciated and so buys fewer Kuwaiti goods. c. depreciated and so buys more Kuwaiti goods. d. depreciated and so buys fewer Kuwaiti goods. ____ 186. If the exchange rate changes from 135 Kazakhstan tenge per dollar to 150 Kazakhstan tenge per dollar, the dollar has a. appreciated. Other things the same, it now takes fewer dollars to buy Kazakhstani goods. b. appreciated. Other things the same, it now takes more dollars to buy Kazakhstani goods. c. depreciated. Other things the same, it now takes fewer dollars to buy Kazakhstani goods. d. depreciated. Other things the same, it now takes more dollars to buy Kazakhstani goods. ____ 187. The real exchange rate is the nominal exchange rate, defined as foreign currency per dollar, times a. U.S. prices minus foreign prices. b. prices in the United States divided by foreign prices. c. foreign prices divided by U.S. prices. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 188. Suppose that the real exchange rate between the United States and Kenya is defined in terms of baskets of goods. Other things the same, which of the following will increase the real exchange rate (that is increase the number of baskets of Kenyan goods a basket of U.S. goods buys)? a. an increase in the number of Kenyan shillings that can be purchased with a dollar b. an increase in the price of U.S. baskets of goods c. a decrease in the price in Kenyan shillings of Kenyan goods d. All of the above are correct. ____ 189. Suppose that the real exchange rate between the United States and Vietnam is defined in terms of baskets of goods. Other things the same, which of the following will increase the real exchange rate (that is increase the number of baskets of Vietnamese goods a basket of U.S. goods buys)? a. an increase in the quantity of Vietnamese currency that can be purchased with a dollar b. an increase in the price of U.S. baskets of goods c. a decrease in the price in Vietnamese currency of Vietnamese goods d. All of the above are correct. ____ 190. Suppose that the real exchange rate between the United States and Kenya is defined in terms of baskets of goods. Other things the same, which of the following will increase the real exchange rate? a. a decrease in the quantity of Kenyan currency that can be purchased with a dollar b. a decrease in the price of U.S. baskets of goods c. a decrease in the price in Kenyan currency of Kenyan goods. d. None of the above is correct. ____ 191. Which of the following could be a consequence of a depreciation of the U.S. real exchange rate? a. John, a French citizen, decides that Iowa pork has become too expensive and cancels his order. b. Nick, a U.S. citizen, decides that the trip to Nepal he's been thinking about is now made affordable by the depreciation. c. Roberta, a U.S. citizen, decides to import fewer windshield wipers for her auto parts company. d. All of the above are correct. ____ 192. The law of one price states that a. a good must sell at the price fixed by law. b. a good must sell at the same price at all locations. c. a good cannot sell for a price greater than the legal price ceiling. d. nominal exchange rates will not vary. ____ 193. If purchasing-power parity holds, then the value of the a. real exchange rate is equal to one. b. nominal exchange rate is equal to one. c. real exchange rate is equal to the nominal exchange rate. d. real exchange rate is equal to the difference in inflation rates between the two countries. ____ 194. If purchasing power parity holds, a bushel of rice costs $10 in the U.S., and the nominal exchange rate is 2 Thai bhat per dollar, what is the price of rice in Thailand? a. 20 bhat b. 10 bhat c. 5 bhat d. 2 bhat ____ 195. If a lobster in Maine costs $10 and that the same type of lobster in Massachusetts costs $30, then people could make a profit by a. buying lobsters in Maine and selling them in Massachusetts. This action would increase the price of lobster in Massachusetts. b. buying lobsters in Maine and selling them in Massachusetts. This action would decrease the price of lobster in Massachusetts. c. buying lobsters in Massachusetts and selling them in Maine. This action would increase the price of lobster in Massachusetts. d. buying lobsters in Massachusetts and selling them in Maine. This action would decrease the price of lobster in Massachusetts. ____ 196. Suppose a Starbucks tall-latte cost $4.00 in the United States and 5.00 euros in the euro area and $2.50 Australian dollars in Australia. Nominal exchange rates are .80 euros per dollar and 1.4 Australian dollars per U.S. dollar. Where does purchasing power parity hold? a. Both the euro area and Australia. b. Neither the euro area or Australia. c. The euro area but not Australia. d. Australia but not the euro area. ____ 197. Purchasing-power parity implies that the nominal exchange rate given as foreign currency per unit of U.S. currency must rise if the price levels in a. foreign countries rise. b. the United States rises. c. both countries rise. d. both countries fall. ____ 198. When a country's central bank decreases the money supply, its a. price level rises and its currency appreciates relative to other currencies in the world. b. price level falls and its currency appreciates relative to other currencies in the world. c. price level rises and its currency depreciates relative to other currencies in the world. d. price level falls and its currency depreciates relative to other currencies in the world. ____ 199. According to purchasing power parity, if it took 1,100 Korean Won to buy a dollar this year, but it took 1,000 to buy it last year, then the dollar has a. appreciated, indicating inflation was higher in the U.S. than in Korea. b. appreciated indicating inflation was lower in the U.S. than in Korea. c. depreciated indicating inflation was higher in the U.S. than in Korea. d. depreciated indicating inflation was lower in the U.S. than in Korea. ____ 200. According to the doctrine of purchasing-power parity, which of the following should depreciate if over the next year the inflation rate is higher in the U.S. than in the Euro area? a. both the U.S. real exchange rate and the U.S. nominal exchange rate b. the U.S. real exchange rate, but not the U.S. nominal exchange rate c. the U.S. nominal exchange rate, but not the U.S. real exchange rate d. neither the U.S. nominal exchange rate nor the U.S. real exchange rate EXAM II Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: NAT: TOP: 2. ANS: NAT: TOP: 3. ANS: NAT: TOP: 4. ANS: NAT: TOP: 5. ANS: NAT: TOP: 6. ANS: NAT: TOP: 7. ANS: NAT: TOP: 8. ANS: NAT: TOP: 9. ANS: NAT: TOP: 10. ANS: NAT: TOP: 11. ANS: NAT: TOP: 12. ANS: NAT: TOP: 13. ANS: NAT: TOP: 14. ANS: NAT: TOP: A PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Present value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value | Present value MSC: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Present value MSC: Analytical D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Present value | Investment MSC: Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Present value MSC: Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Present value MSC: Applicative 15. ANS: NAT: TOP: 16. ANS: NAT: TOP: 17. ANS: NAT: TOP: 18. ANS: NAT: TOP: 19. ANS: NAT: TOP: 20. ANS: NAT: TOP: 21. ANS: NAT: TOP: 22. ANS: NAT: TOP: 23. ANS: NAT: TOP: 24. ANS: NAT: TOP: 25. ANS: NAT: TOP: 26. ANS: NAT: TOP: 27. ANS: NAT: TOP: 28. ANS: NAT: TOP: 29. ANS: NAT: TOP: 30. ANS: NAT: TOP: 31. Register to View AnswerPTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Investment | Present value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Analytical D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Rule of 70 MSC: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-1 | 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk aversion MSC: Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Future value MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Compounding MSC: Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Insurance MSC: Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Diversification MSC: Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk | Returns MSC: Interpretive A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk | Utility MSC: Interpretive A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk | Utility MSC: Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk | Utility MSC: Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Annuities MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Returns MSC: Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Risk MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-2 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Diversification MSC: Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Dividends MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Random walk MSC: Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Efficient markets hypothesis MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Asset valuation MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Asset valuation | Stock MSC: Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Asset valuation | Stock MSC: Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 27-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Efficient markets hypothesis MSC: Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-0 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment | Standard of living Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-0 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Natural rate of unemployment Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-0 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Cyclical unemployment 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Bureau of Labor Statistics MSC: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Bureau of Labor Statistics Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Bureau of Labor Statistics | Employment MSC: Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Bureau of Labor Statistics | Unemployment MSC: Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Bureau of Labor Statistics | Labor force MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Bureau of Labor Statistics | Employment | Labor force MSC: Interpretive A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Unemployment rate | Labor-force participation rate MSC: Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor force MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor force MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor force MSC: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor force MSC: Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Employment MSC: Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor force MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment rate Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment Analytical 64. ANS: NAT: TOP: 65. ANS: NAT: MSC: 66. ANS: NAT: MSC: 67. ANS: NAT: MSC: 68. ANS: NAT: TOP: 69. ANS: NAT: TOP: 70. ANS: NAT: MSC: 71. ANS: NAT: TOP: 72. ANS: NAT: MSC: 73. ANS: NAT: MSC: 74. ANS: NAT: MSC: 75. ANS: NAT: MSC: 76. ANS: NAT: MSC: 77. ANS: NAT: MSC: 78. ANS: NAT: MSC: 79. ANS: NAT: MSC: 80. Register to View AnswerPTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Labor-force participation rate MSC: Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment rate Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment rate Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment rate Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Adult population MSC: Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Role of women MSC: Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-2 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Sectoral shifts | Frictional unemployment MSC: Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-2 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-3 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Minimum wage Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-3 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Minimum wage Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-3 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Minimum wage Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-3 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation TOP: Unemployment | Minimum wage Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Unions Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Unions | Collective bargaining Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Unions | Strikes | Economists Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-4 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Unions | Wages Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Wagner Act Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Right-to-work laws Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-4 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Unions Interpretive A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-5 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Efficiency wages | Sectoral shifts | Frictional unemployment | Structural unemployment Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-5 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Efficiency wages | Worker turnover Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 28-5 Analytic LOC: Labor markets TOP: Efficiency wages | Worker quality Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-0 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Barter Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money | Liquidity Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Currency | Commodity money MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Medium of exchange MSC: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Store of value Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money supply Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money supply Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-1 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Credit cards | Debit cards Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-2 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Federal Reserve System Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-2 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Federal Reserve System Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-2 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Monetary policy Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Reserves Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Reserves Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Reserves Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money multiplier Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Reserve ratio Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: The role of money TOP: Money multiplier Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Reserve requirements Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: The study of economics and definitions in economics Money multiplier MSC: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Open-market operations Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Open-market operations | Discount rate MSC: Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Reserves Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Money multiplier Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 29-3 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Money multiplier 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Money supply | Open-market operations MSC: C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Money supply | Discount rate | Reserve requirements MSC: B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Money supply | Discount rate | Open-market operations MSC: C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Money supply | Open-market operations | Reserve requirements Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Fractional-reserve banking | Reserve requirements MSC: A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Fractional-reserve banking | Reserve requirements MSC: D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Open-market operations | Money multiplier MSC: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Money multiplier | Open-market operations MSC: B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Banks | Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation MSC: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy TOP: Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 3 REF: Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy 29-3 Reserves 29-3 Applicative 29-3 Definitional 29-3 Definitional 29-3 29-3 Interpretive 29-3 Interpretive 29-3 Applicative 29-3 Discount rate 29-3 Discount rate 29-3 Analytical 29-3 Reserves | Money multiplier 29-3 Banks | Money supply 29-3 Definitional 29-3 Federal funds rate 29-3 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: Federal funds rate | Open-market operations C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: Monetary and fiscal policy Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Analytical D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Quantity theory of money | Hyperinflation MSC: Analytical REF: 29-3 TOP: Money supply | Federal funds rate REF: 30-1 TOP: Inflation tax REF: 30-1 TOP: Quantity theory of money REF: 30-1 TOP: Value of money REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market equilibrium REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market REF: 30-1 TOP: Money market | Price level REF: 30-1 TOP: Classical dichotomy REF: 30-1 TOP: Monetary neutrality REF: 30-1 TOP: Monetary neutrality REF: 30-1 TOP: Quantity theory of money REF: 30-1 TOP: Quantity equation | Inflation REF: 30-1 MSC: Interpretive 145. ANS: NAT: MSC: 146. ANS: NAT: TOP: 147. ANS: NAT: MSC: 148. ANS: NAT: MSC: 149. ANS: NAT: MSC: 150. ANS: NAT: MSC: 151. ANS: NAT: MSC: 152. ANS: NAT: MSC: 153. ANS: NAT: MSC: 154. ANS: NAT: MSC: 155. ANS: NAT: MSC: 156. ANS: NAT: MSC: 157. ANS: NAT: MSC: 158. ANS: NAT: MSC: 159. ANS: NAT: MSC: 160. ANS: NAT: MSC: 161. Register to View AnswerPTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Nominal interest rate | Real interest rate | Deflation A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Interpretive D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Definitional C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: The role of money Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: Unemployment and inflation Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 REF: 30-1 TOP: Inflation costs REF: 30-1 MSC: Applicative REF: 30-1 TOP: Fisher effect REF: 30-2 TOP: Inflation tax REF: 30-2 TOP: Menu costs of inflation REF: 30-2 TOP: Inflation | Relative prices REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Real interest rate REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Real interest rate REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Capital gains REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Capital gains REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Real interest rate REF: 30-2 TOP: Wealth redistribution | Inflation REF: 30-2 TOP: Taxes | Inflation | Real interest rate REF: 31-1 TOP: Imports | Exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Net exports REF: 31-1 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Interpretive C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Foreign direct investment | Net capital outflow A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Foreign direct investment | Net capital outflow D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Net capital outflow | Foreign investment D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Net capital outflow | Foreign investment C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance TOP: Trade balance REF: 31-1 TOP: Trade balance REF: 31-1 TOP: Exports | Imports | Net exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Net exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Net exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Foreign direct investment REF: 31-1 TOP: Foreign portfolio investment REF: 31-1 MSC: Interpretive REF: 31-1 MSC: Interpretive REF: 31-1 TOP: Net capital outflow REF: 31-1 MSC: Applicative REF: 31-1 MSC: Interpretive REF: 31-1 TOP: Net capital outflow | Net exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Net exports | Net capital outflow REF: 31-1 TOP: Net exports | Net capital outflow REF: 31-1 TOP: Net capital outflow | Net exports REF: 31-1 TOP: Net capital outflow 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: TOP: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: ANS: NAT: MSC: Applicative A PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Trade balance | Net capital outflow | Investment B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Interpretive A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Interpretive B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Definitional REF: 31-1 TOP: Trade balance REF: 31-1 MSC: Analytical REF: 31-1 TOP: National accounts REF: 31-1 TOP: U.S. trade REF: 31-1 TOP: U.S. trade facts REF: 31-2 TOP: Nominal exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Appreciation REF: 31-2 TOP: Nominal exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Nominal exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Real exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Real exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Real exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Real exchange rate REF: 31-2 TOP: Depreciation | Real exchange rate REF: 31-3 TOP: Law of one price REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity 194. ANS: NAT: MSC: 195. ANS: NAT: MSC: 196. ANS: NAT: TOP: 197. ANS: NAT: MSC: 198. ANS: NAT: MSC: 199. ANS: NAT: MSC: 200. ANS: NAT: MSC: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Purchasing-power parity | Starbucks index A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Analytical B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Applicative C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 Analytic LOC: International trade and finance Interpretive REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity REF: 31-3 TOP: Arbitrage | Real exchange rate REF: 31-3 MSC: Analytical REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity REF: 31-3 TOP: Purchasing-power parity

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LSU - FIN - 3826
CHAPTER 18Click to edit Master subtitle styleEquity Valuation Models 5/10/10Models of Equity ValuationBalance Sheet Models Book ValueDividend Discount Models Price/Earning Ratios 5/10/10Table 18.1 Financial Highlights for Microsoft Corporation, O
LSU - FIN - 3826
CHAPTER 20Click to edit Master subtitle styleOptions Markets: Introduction5/10/10Option TerminologyBuy - Long Sell - Short Call Put Key Elements Exercise or Strike Price Premium or Price Maturity or Expiration5/10/10Market and Exercise Price Relati
Post - CSS - 101
Running Head: ACADEMIC SUCCESS1Academic Success Michelle Budris CSS101.40 Post UniversityRunning Head: ACADEMIC SUCCESS Abstract2This paper explores three different academic journals and their relation to online learning and the importance of continu
Post - CSS - 101
Quiz Unit 7 America This piece is a standard sonnet using the traditional English rhyming scheme. A sonnet has 14 lines, ten syllables per line and set in a rhyme scheme (page 504). The message that Claude McKay is trying to portray in this piece is that
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
University of Toronto - ECO - eco105
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
1.1. The cell is the basic unit of life because_. . 1) it is midway between the biosphere and an organic molecule in size 2) it is the smallest unit capable of exhibiting the fundamental characteristics of life 3) it was discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
3.1 Carbon atoms found on earth were synthesized: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) by the breakdown of water in lakes during the first millisecond of the big bang by photosynthesis in the interior of stars and we are all formed from stardust by respiration3.2 Proteins are
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
4.1 In 1665, Robert Hooke, the discoverer of cells, called the individual units in a tissue of cork cells because: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) They were filled with protoplasm. They contained a nucleus. They were as empty as a monk's apartment. They were the basic uni
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
FOOD Reductionist view: Food is nothing but a delivery system for nutrients Holistic view: Food has emergent properties, food as nutrient delivery system depends on culture, lifestyle factors, how fast we eat the food, etc 4 types of scientific nutritiona
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
5.1 Place the following chemicals in their order of abundance in muscle from high to low. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Water, protein, lipid, carbohydrate, salt Salt, carbohydrate, protein, lipid, water Salt, water, protein, lipid, carbohydrate Carbohydrate, lipid, pro
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
You do not have to memorize any names and dates for this lecture. 6.1 The enzymes in laundry detergent 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) are digestive enzymes are produced by bacteria are modified by genetic engineering are proteins all of the above6.2 Which of the followi
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
7.1 Which of the following is digested by amylase in the saliva? 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Proteins Lipids Minerals Vitamins Starch7.2 Thankfully the epiglottis is typically in the up position so that: 1) Food travels from the stomach to the small intestine 2) Air
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
8.1 In temporal order, the four main processes of food processing are 1) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination 2) ingestion, absorption, digestion, elimination 3) absorption, digestion, ingestion, elimination 4) digestion, absorption, ingestion, e
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
9.1 Multicellular organisms need a circulatory system if 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) The cells are too far from a source of oxygen If the cells are too far from a source of food If the cells are too far from a place where waste can be excreted They have a fast rate of
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
10.1 Use the table below. Which of the following will just burn off the 1360 Calories you ingest by eating a Double Quarter Pounder w/Cheese Large Meal Deal? A) About 1.6 hours of running. B) About 6 hours of slow bicycling. C) About 4 hours of rapid walk
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
11.1 Urea is produced in the A) B) C) D) E) kidney lung liver gall bladder pancreas11.2 Ammonia is produced from the breakdown of A) B) C) D) E) sugars amino acids fatty acids thin acids glycerol11.3 Which organ is involved in removing urea from the blo
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
The only name you need to know is Walter Cannon. 12.1 Insulin is produced in the A) B) C) D) E) Stomach Small Intestine Liver Pancreas Testes12.2 Glycogen is produced in the A) B) C) D) E) Pancreas Gall bladder Heart Lung Liver12.3 The hormone that caus
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
13.1 The Maillard reaction is A) B) C) D) E) The non enzymatic addition of sugars to amine groups. The enzymatic addition of sugars to proteins Responsible for the color and aroma of sauted onions Responsible for the color of toast All but B.13.2 A free
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
Bio G 1110 Spring 2010 Potential essay questions for Prelim 1. 1. Describe a discovery where Louis Pasteur's dictum, "Luck favors a prepared mind" has resulted in a scientific discovery. Penicillin2. Name four potential ways to maintain an adequate food
Cornell - BIOG 1110 - BIOG 1110
7.20. Tagamet binds to the H2 histamine receptor to prevent the secretion of_. 1) gastric juice 2) blood plasma 3) tears 4) mucus 5) all of the above 7.18. Meat tenderizers are extracts from papaya or pineapple that contain 1) vitamin C 2) proteases 3) p-
Midland College - ENGL - engl2311
Commonly Misused Words If you can't decide whether it should be anyone or any one or when to use that, which or who, you may appreciate this list of words that often confuses even the most seasoned writers. Each entry includes a definitions and an example
Midland College - BIOL - BIOL2401
This is just an aid it is not comprehensive. Read through your unit worksheetsReview for Comprehensive Lab Final Unit #1 Describe a person in anatomical positionAnatomical position: standing erect, face forward, arms fully extended at the sides, palms f
Midland College - ENGL - engl2311
D. Allen English 2311Spec Sheet: The ProposalFormat: Report -title page (p. 605) -letter of transmittal (optional; p. 607) -about 1200 words -appropriate headings Structure (see Ch. 20) -Summary (also called an abstract; p. 607) While this comes first,
Midland College - ENGL - engl2311
Feasibility Study: Completion ReportFormat: Formal Report title page appropriate headings altogether approximately 6-8 pages direct style; confident tone Structure (in this order): Front Matter +letter of transmittal (use business letter format +title pa
Midland College - ENGL - engl2311
Feasibility ReportsA feasibility study is research conducted to help managers of an organization determine the chances for success of a project. It can determine the practicality of a proposed policy, product, service or other change within an organizati
Midland College - ENGL - engl2311
Front and Back Matte r:Docum nt S e upple e That Work m ntsWhat is thepurposeof supple e m nts?ade ast ation the ne d to y e Re rs can find thele inform com tethetask at hand. ple re ade e re Diffe nt re rs can usethedocum nt for diffe nt re asons. upp
UC Irvine - ENGR - 1
ENGR1 FRESHMAN SEMINAR IN ENGINEERING (Elective) Catalog Data: ENGR 1: Freshman Seminar in Engineering (Credit Units: 1). An introduction to the engineering profession. Weekly seminars by both faculty and representatives from industry present an overview
UC Irvine - ENGR - 2
ENGR2 ENERGY SOURCES, ENERGY USES (Elective) Catalog Data: ENGR 2: Energy Sources, Energy Uses (Credit Units: 4). Technical aspects of energy extraction, transport, use, and environmental effects. Devices for energy conversion. (Design units: 0) Not offer
UC Irvine - ENGR - 10
ENGR10 COMPUTATIONAL METHODS IN ENGINEERING Catalog Data: ENGR10: Computational Methods in Engineering (Credtit Units: 4). Procedures and procedure followers, algorithms and flow charts, computer languages, subprograms. Computer macro- and microelements,
UC Irvine - ENGR - 15
ENGR 15 PROBLEM SOLVING IN ENGINEERING (Required BME) Catalog Data: ENGR 15: PROBLEM SOLVING IN ENGINEERING (Credit Units: 4) Introduction to scientific computing to solve engineering problems. Problem identification, algorithmic design, and solution usin
UC Irvine - BME - 1
BME1 INTRODUCTION TO BIOMEDICAL ENGINEERING (Required for BME and BMEP)Catalog Data:BME1 Introduction to Biomedical Engineering (Credit Units: 3) Introduction to the central topics of biomedical engineering. Offers a perspective on bioengineering as a d
UC Irvine - BME - 50A
BME50A CELL AND MOLECULAR ENGINEERING (Required for BME and BMEP; Elective for MSE)Catalog Data:BME50A Cell and Molecular Engineering (Credit Units: 4) Physiological function from a cellular, molecular, and biophysical perspective. Applications to bioen
UC Irvine - BME - 50B
BME50B CELL AND MOLECULAR ENGINEERING (Required for BME and BMEP) Catalog Data: BME50B Cell and Molecular Engineering (Credit Units: 4) Physiological function from a cellular, molecular, and biophysical perspective. Applications to bioengineering design.
UC Irvine - BME - 110A
BME110A BIOMECHANICS I (Required for BME and BMEP; Elective for MSE)Catalog Data:BME110A BIOMECHANICS I (Credit Units: 4) Introduction to statics. Rigid bodies, analysis of structures, forces in beams, moments of inertia. Prerequisites: Physics 7D, 7LD,
UC Irvine - BME - 110b
BME110B BIOMECHANICS II (Required for BME and BMEP; Elective for MSE) Catalog Data: BME110B BIOMECHANICS II (Credit Units: 4) Introduction to dynamics, Kinematics of Particles, Newton's Second Law, Systems of Particles, Kinematics of Rigid Bodies, Motion
UC Irvine - BME - 110c
BME110C BIOMECHANICS III (Requied for BME) Catalog Data: BME110C Biomechanics III (Credit Units: 4) Applications of statics and dynamics to biomedical systems. Cellular biomechanics, hemodynamics, circulatory system, respiratory system, muscles and moveme
UC Irvine - BME - 111
BME111 DESIGN OF BIOMATERIALS (Required for BME and BMEP; Elective for MSE)Catalog Data:BME111 Design of Biomaterials (Credit Units: 4) Natural and synthetic polymeric materials. Metal and ceramics implant materials. Materials and surface characterizati
UC Irvine - BME - 120
BME 120 QUANTITATIVE PHYSIOLOGY: SENSORY MOTOR SYSTEMS (Required for BME and BMEP; Elective for MSE)Catalog Data:BME 120 Quantitative Physiology: Sensory Motor Systems (Credit Units: 4) A quantitative and systems approach to understanding physiological
UC Irvine - BME - 121
BME121 QUANTITATIVE PHYSIOLOGY: ORGAN TRANSPORT SYSTEMS (Required for BME and BMEP)Catalog Data:BME121 Quantitative Physiology: Organ Transport Systems (Credit Units: 4) A quantitative and systems approach to understanding physiological systems. Systems
UC Irvine - BME - 130
BME130 BIOMEDICAL SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Required for BME and BMEP) Catalog Data: BME130 Biomedical Signals and Systems (Credit Units: 4) Analysis of analog and digital biomedical signals; Fourier Series expansions; difference and differential equations; co
UC Irvine - BME - 135
BME135 PHOTOMEDICINE (Elective for BME) Catalog Data: BME135 Photomedicine (Credit Units: 4) Studies the use of optical and engineering-based systems (laser-based) for diagnosis, treating diseases, manipulation of cells and cell function. Physical, optica
UC Irvine - BME - 136
BME136 ENGINEERING OPTICS FOR MEDICAL APPLICATIONS (Elective foe BME) Catalog Data: BME136 Engineering Optics for Medical Applications (Credit Units: 4) Fundamentals of optical systems design, integration, and analysis used in biomedical optics. Design co
UC Irvine - BME - 137
BME137 INTRODUCTION TO BIOMEDICAL IMAGING (Elective for BME) Catalog Data: BME137 Introduction to Biomedical Imaging (Credit Units: 4)Introduction to imaging modalities widely used in medicine and biology, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), nucle
UC Irvine - BME - 140
BME140 DESIGN OF BIOMEDICAL ELECTRONICS (Required for BME)Catalog Data:BME140 Design of Biomedical Electronics (Credit Units: 4) Analog and digital circuits in bioinstrumentation. AC and DC circuit analysis, design and construction of filter and amplifi
UC Irvine - BME - 145
BME145 MEMS AND NANOTECHNOLOGY FOR BIOMEDICINE AND BIOTECHNOLOGY (Elective for BME)Catalog Data:BME145 MEMS and Nanotechnology for Biomedicine and Biotechnology (Credit Units: 4). Basic concepts of MEMS and nanotechnology, its application to biotechnolo
UC Irvine - BME - 146
BME146 MINIATURIZATION IN BIOTECHNOLOGY AND BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE (Elective for BME)Catalog Data:BME146 Miniaturization in Biotechnology and Biological Science (Credit Units: 4) Introduction of BIOMEMS to engineering and science students. Study of various
UC Irvine - BME - 147
BME147 Microfluidics and Lab-on-a-Chip (Elective For BME) Catalog Data: BME147 Microfluidics and Lab-on-a-Chip (LOC) (Credit Units: 4) Essential concepts of fluid transport at the micro and nano scales. Design, fabrication, and operation principles of mic
UC Irvine - BME - 148
BME148 MICROIMPLANTS (Elective for BME) Catalog Data: BME148 Microimplants (Credit Units: 4) Essential concepts of biomedical implants at the micro scale. Design, fabrication, and applications of several microimplantable devices including cochlear, retina
UC Irvine - BME - 150
BME150 BIOTRANSPORT PHENOMENA (Required for BME and BMEP)Catalog Data:BME150 Biotransport Phenomena (Credit Units: 4) Fundamentals of heat and mass transfer; similarities in rate equations. Applications to biological mass transport at cellular and syste
UC Irvine - BME - 160
BME 160 TISSUE ENGINEERING (Required for BME and BMEP)Catalog Data:BME 160 Tissue Engineering (Credit Units: 4) Quantitative analysis of cell and tissue functions. Emerging developments in stem cell technology, biodegradable scaffolds, growth factors, a
UC Irvine - BME - 170
BME170 BIOMEDICAL ENGINEERING LABORATORY (Required for BME)Catalog Data:BME170 Biomedical Engineering Laboratory (Credit Units: 4) Introduction to the measurement and analysis of biological systems using engineering tools and techniques. Laboratory expe
UC Irvine - BME - 180a
BME180A BIOMEDICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN (Required for BME)Catalog Data:BME180A Biomedical Engineering Design (Credit Units: 3) Design strategies, techniques, tools, and protocols commonly encountered in biomedical engineering; clinical experience at the U
UC Irvine - BME - 180b
BME180B BIOMEDICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN (Required for BME) Catalog Data: BME180B Biomedical Engineering Design (Credit Units: 3) Design strategies, techniques, tools, and protocols commonly encountered in biomedical engineering; clinical experience at the U
UC Irvine - ENGR - 20
ENGR20 ENERGY AND SOCIETY (Elective) Catalog Data: ENGR20 Energy and Society (Credit Units: 4). The social, economic, and political aspects of how we obtain energy, get it to where we need it, use it, dispose of the wastes, and pay for these activities. E