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Across 6 Development the Lifespan Key: Answer, Page, Type, Learning Objective, Level Type A=Applied C=Conceptual F=Factual Level (1)=Easy; (2)=Moderate; (3)=Difficult LO=Learning Objective SG=Used in Study Guide p=page MULTIPLE CHOICE Issues in Studying Human Development Learning Objectives- 7.1 What are some of the special research methods used to study development? 1. The scientific study of the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called_________. a) abnormal psychology b) gerontology Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only older adulthood. c) human development Correct. Human development is the term used to refer to the changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death. d) maturational studies Register to View Answerp. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1) 2. A psychologist spends her entire career studying how and why changes occur in people throughout their lives. This psychologist is most likely working in the field of___________. a) abnormal psychology b) gerontology Incorrect. Gerontology emphasizes only the changes that occur in older adulthood. c) human development Correct. Human development studies focus on the changes that occur throughout peoples lives, from conception to death. d) maturational studies Register to View Answerp. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2) 224 3. In a __________design, one group of participants is followed and assessed as the group ages. a) cohort b) longitudinal Correct. In a longitudinal design one group of participants is followed and assessed as the participants age. c) behavior genetics d) cross-sectional Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. Register to View Answerp. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1) 4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the longitudinal design? a) Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. Incorrect. The individuals studied in a longitudinal design are all the same age. b) It is relatively inexpensive. c) It takes a shorter amount of time than a cross-sectional design. d) Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Correct. In this design there is a risk of losing participants due to many factors. Register to View Answerp. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2) 5. Professor Sanchez is interested in studying development of motor skills. She collects data from 200 one-year-olds and follows and assesses them for a period of five years. What type of research design is Professor Sanchez using? a) cohort design b) longitudinal design Correct. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or a group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. c) behavior genetics design d) cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. Register to View Answerp. 250, A, LO=7.1, (3) 6. A researcher who selects a sample of people of varying ages and studies them at one point in time is, by definition, using the ______ method. a) cohort design b) longitudinal design Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. c) behavior genetics design d) cross-sectional design Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. Register to View Answerp. 250, F, LO=7.1, (1) SG 7. Which of the following is a main disadvantage of the cross-sectional design? a) Individuals of different ages are being compared to one another. Correct. In a cross-sectional design, individuals of different ages are being compared. b) It is relatively expensive. c) It takes a longer amount of time than a longitudinal study. d) Participants may drop out due to moving, loss of interest, or death. Incorrect. The loss of participants over time is a disadvantage of longitudinal design. Register to View Answerp. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2) 225 8. Professor Grant is interested in studying the development of a sense of humor. She collects data from groups of 6year-olds, 16-year-olds, 26-year-olds, and 46-year-olds. What type of research design is Professor Grant using? a) cohort design b) longitudinal design Incorrect. A longitudinal design is one in which one participant or group of participants is followed and assessed as the person or group ages. c) behavior genetics design d) cross-sectional design Correct. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups at the same time. Register to View Answerp. 250, A, LO=7.1, (2) 9. Unlike other types of research, a cross-sequential design allows researchers to_________. a) combine longitudinal and cross-sectional research strategies. Correct. A cross-sequential design combines the ease of a cross-sectional design with a shorter longitudinal design. b) look for gender differences. c) reduce experimenter bias. d) only includes cross-sectional strategies within the design. Incorrect. A cross-sequential design also includes longitudinal strategies. Register to View Answerp. 250, C, LO=7.1, (2) 10. Professor Rashad is interested in studying cognitive development. He collects and compares data from a group of 6-year-olds and a group of 10-year-olds. Five years later, he compares these two groups to each other again as well as to their own performance in the study five years ago. What type of research design is Professor Grant using? a) cross-sequential design Correct. A cross-sequential design studies participants by means of a cross-sectional design, using subjects of different ages, but also follows and assesses them over time. b) longitudinal design c) behavior genetics design d) cross-sectional design Incorrect. A cross-sectional design studies several different age groups but only during one period of time. Register to View Answerp. 250, A, LO=7.1, (2) Learning Objective 7.2- What is the relationship between heredity and environmental factors in determining development? 11. ________refers to heredity and __________ refers to environmental influences. a) Nature; nurture Correct. Nature refers to heredity, or genetic factors, whereas nurture refers to environmental influences. b) Cognition; emotion c) Nurture; behavioral genetics Incorrect. Nurture refers to environmental influences and behavioral genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes and environmental influences on behavior. d) Cross-sectional; longitudinal Register to View Answerp. 251, C, LO=7.2, (2) 226 12. Dr. Smith believes people who are very aggressive have become so because of their life experiences. Dr. Goldberg believes people are more or less aggressive from birth because of genetic factors. Which of the following terms best describes an issue in human development that is highlighted by their disagreement? a) nature versus nurture Correct. Nature refers to genetic factors and nurture refers to environmental influences. b) cognition versus emotion Incorrect. The issue highlighted emphasizes the effects of nature (genes) and nurture (environmental factors). c) classical versus operant conditioning d) cross-sectional studies versus longitudinal studies Register to View Answerp. 251, A, LO=7.2, (3) 13. What relatively new field investigates the influence of genes and heredity on a persons actions? a) psychobiology Incorrect. Psychobiology is the study of the biological bases of behavior. b) neuropsychology c) behavioral genetics Correct. Behavioral genetics is a field that investigates the effects of genes and environmental influences on behavior. d) psychoanalysis Register to View Answerp. 251, F, LO=7.2, (1) SG Prenatal Development Learning Objective 7.3- How do chromosomes, genes, and DNA determine a persons characteristics or disorders? 14. The study of heredity is called_________. a) human development b) genetics Correct. Genetics is the study of heredity. c) physiology Incorrect. Physiology is a branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction. d) gerontology Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1) 15. Genetics is defined as ___________. a) the branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction, rather than with structures b) the study of heredity Correct. Genetics is defined as the study of heredity. c) the study of behavior and mental processes d) the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death Incorrect. The study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death is the definition of human development. Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2) 227 16. Which of the following is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism? a) DNA Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism. b) gene c) chromosome Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus. d) amine Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1) SG 17. A special molecule, __________, contains the genetic material of the organism. a) DNA Correct. DNA is a special molecule that contains the genetic material of the organism. b) a gene c) a chromosome Incorrect. A chromosome is a rod-shaped structure containing genes that is found in the cell nucleus. d) an amine Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2) 18. A(n) ______________________ is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. a) compound b) gene Correct. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines. c) chromosome Incorrect. A gene is a section of DNA containing a sequence of amines and is located on chromosomes. d) amine Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1) 19. Rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes are referred to as____________. a) DNA Incorrect. DNA is a molecule that consists of two strands that wind around each other in a spiral that contains the genetic material of the organism. b) sex-linked traits c) chromosomes Correct. Chromosomes are rod-shaped structures in the cell nucleus that contain genes. d) amines Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (1) 20. Humans have a total of _______chromosomes. a) 46 Correct. Humans have 46 chromosomes. b) 23 Incorrect. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, but a total of 46 chromosomes. c) 21 d) 22 Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2) 21. How many pairs of chromosomes are in each cell of the human body? a) 46 Incorrect. Humans have 46 total chromosomes in each cell, but 23 pairs of chromosomes. b) 23 Correct. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. c) 21 d) 22 Register to View Answerp. 252, F, LO=7.3, (2) 228 22. A gene that actively controls the expression of a trait is called a ______ gene. a) recessive Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene whereas a dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait. b) mutated c) recombinant d) dominant Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait. Register to View Answerp. 253, F, LO=7.3, (1) 23. Which of the following is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait? a) recessive Incorrect. A recessive gene influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical or less active gene whereas a dominant gene actively controls the appearance of a certain trait. b) mutated c) recombinant d) dominant Correct. A dominant gene is defined as a gene that controls the appearance of a certain trait. Register to View Answerp. 253, C, LO=7.3, (1) 24. A trait controlled by a dominant gene ________. a) will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different Correct. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even if the other half of the pair is different. b) will be expressed only if it is paired with two recessive genes c) will not be expressed if it is paired with another dominant gene d) will not be expressed when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different Incorrect. Traits controlled by dominant genes will be expressed even when the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair is different. Register to View Answerp. 253, C, LO=7.3, (2) 25. A gene that only influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical gene is called___________. a) recessive Correct. A recessive gene only influences the expression of a trait when paired with an identical gene. b) mutated c) recombinant d) dominant Incorrect. A dominant gene actively controls the expression of a trait even when not paired with another identical gene. Register to View Answerp. 253, F, LO=7.3, (2) 26. Silvia has blond hair, even though her mother and father each have brown hair. What do we know about Sylvias parents? a) At least one of her parents has a recessive gene for blond hair. b) Each of her parents must have one recessive gene for blond hair color. Correct. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to have blond hair. c) Each of her parents must have one dominant gene for blond hair. Incorrect. The gene for blond hair is recessive; therefore, both parents must have that gene in order for Silvia to have blond hair. d) Neither of her parents has a gene for blond hair. Register to View Answerp. 253, A, LO=7.3, (3) 229 27. In ________ syndrome, the 21st pair of chromosomes contains an extra chromosome resulting in symptoms such as wide-set almond-shaped eyes and mental retardation. a) PKU b) Downs Correct. Downs syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. c) Klinefelters Incorrect. Klinefelters syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. d) Turners Register to View Answerp. 254, F, LO=7.3, (1) 28. What is the cause of Downs syndrome? a) an extra chromosome on the 21st pair Correct. Downs syndrome occurs as a result of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. b) an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair Incorrect. Klinefelters syndrome occurs as a result of an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. c) neurotransmitter excesses d) neurotransmitter deficiencies Register to View Answerp. 254, F, LO=7.3, (2) 29. Steve was born a male with an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As result he has reduced masculine characteristics, enlarged breasts, and is obese and excessively tall. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed? a) PKU b) Down c) Klinefelters Correct. Klinefelters syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome on the 23rd pair and occurs in males. d) Turners Incorrect. Turners syndrome occurs only in females. Register to View Answerp. 254, C, LO=7.3, (3) 30. In _________ syndrome the 23rd pair of chromosomes is missing an X, resulting in short, infertile females. a) PKU b) Down c) Klinefelters Incorrect. Klinefelters syndrome occurs only in males. d) Turners Correct. Turners syndrome produces short, infertile females. Register to View Answerp. 254, F, LO=7.3, (1) 31. Sheila was born a female with only one X chromosome on the 23rd pair. As a result she is infertile, has difficulty learning, and did not develop breast tissue and rounded hips as her female peers. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed? a) PKU b) Down c) Klinefelters Incorrect. Klinefelters syndrome occurs only in males. d) Turners Correct. Turners syndrome produces the characteristics described and occurs in females. Register to View Answerp. 254, C, LO=7.3, (3) 230 32. Ryan has cystic fibrosis. This means that his mother is a carrier for the cystic fibrosis gene, while his father ____________. a) is also a carrier Correct. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she receives the gene from both parents. b) is not a carrier Incorrect. Because cystic fibrosis is a disease carried by recessive genes, a person can get it only if he or she receives the gene from both parents. c) does not have a cystic fibrosis gene d) has two cystic fibrosis genes Register to View Answerp. 254, A, LO=7.3, (3) 33. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited when ____________. a) a child inherits two recessive genes, one from each parent Correct. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes. b) a child inherits two dominant genes, one from each parent c) a child inherits a dominant gene from one parent and a recessive gene from the other parent Incorrect. Diseases carried by recessive genes are inherited from two recessive genes. d) when the child doesnt inherit any genes from one parent Register to View Answerp. 254, F, LO=7.3, (2) Learning Objective 7.4- How do twins develop during pregnancy? 34. At fertilization, the chromosomes from the fathers sperm unite with the chromosomes from the mothers egg, creating a new cell called ______. a) an embryo Incorrect. An embryo is the name for the developing organism from 2 weeks to 8 weeks after fertilization. b) a zygote Correct. A fertilized egg is called a zygote. c) a genome d) blastocyst Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (2) 35. Ovum is a term used to describe__________. a) the female sex cell or egg Correct. Ovum is another term for the female sex cell or egg. b) male sex cell Incorrect. Sperm are male sex cells; ovum is the female sex cell. c) the developing organism from conception to the end of the second week after fertilization d) the developing organism from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1) 36. The union of the ovum and sperm is called________ a) fertilization Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite. b) the fetal period c) a zygote Incorrect. The zygote is the result of the union of the ovum and sperm. d) an embryo Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1) 231 37. In the process of fertilization the ________ and _________ unite, resulting in a single cell. a) sperm; ovum Correct. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite. b) zygote; sperm Incorrect. Fertilization occurs when the sperm and ovum unite; the zygote is the result of this union. c) embryo; zygote d) ovum; fetus Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1) 38. Monozygotic twins ______________. a) are genetically identical Correct. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical. b) are genetically different Incorrect. Monozygotic twins are genetically identical; dizygotic twins are genetically different. c) will be of different sexes d) are more likely to occur when a woman is taking fertility drugs Register to View Answerp. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2) SG 39. Ashley and Mary-Kate are twins who are genetically identical. What type of twins are they? a) monozygotic twins Correct. Monozygotic twins are identical. b) fraternal twins c) dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs, which means they are genetically different. d) wombmates Register to View Answerp. 255, A, LO=7.4, (3) 40. Which of the following describes the way in which monozygotic twins occur? a) The mothers body releases multiple eggs, two or more of which are fertilized. Incorrect. Multiple fertilized eggs result in dizygotic twins. b) The mothers body releases one egg, conceives, and then releases another egg in a later ovulation cycle. c) The egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes. Correct. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes, the result is monozygotic twins. d) The mother uses fertility drugs. Register to View Answerp. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2) 41. develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time. a) Monozygotic twins Incorrect. Monozygotic twins develop when an egg is fertilized by a sperm and then splits completely into two separate zygotes. b) Fraternal twins c) Dizygotic twins Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs by two different sperm. d) Wombmates Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1) 232 42. Fraternal twins are ______ similar genetically than are other brothers and sisters. a) much more Incorrect. Fraternal twins are genetically no more similar than are any other two siblings, since they develop from different eggs and different sperm. b) no more Correct. Fraternal twins develop from different eggs and different spers, just like any other set of siblings. c) slightly more d) much less Register to View Answerp. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2) 43. Mary and Juan are twins who developed from two separate fertilized ova that were fertilized by two different sperm. What type of twins are they? a) monozygotic twins Incorrect. Monozygotic twins result from one ovum fertilized by one sperm that splits in two. b) maternal twins c) dizygotic twins Correct. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs. d) wombmates Register to View Answerp. 255, C, LO=7.4, (2) 44. Conjoined twins are _________. a) monozygotic twins Correct. Conjoined twins are monozygotic and are the result of one fertilized egg that did not completely separate before developing into two embryos. b) fraternal twins c) dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs and cannot become conjoined. d) nonidentical twins Register to View Answerp. 255, F, LO=7.4, (1) Learning Objective 7.5- How do conjoined twins adjust to being connected to each other? 45. Abby and Britty Hensel ________. a) share one body from the waist down Correct. Abby and Britty Hensel share one body from the waist down. b) share one upper body Incorrect. Abby and Britty Hensel share one body from the waist down. c) share a heart d) share a stomach Register to View Answerp. 256, F, LO=7.5, (1) 46. Britty and Abby Hensel are ___________. a) nonidentical twins b) dizygotic twins Incorrect. Dizygotic twins are the result of two fertilized eggs; Britty and Abby Hensel are the result of one fertilized egg. c) fraternal twins d) conjoined twins Correct. They have two separate heads but share one body. Register to View Answerp. 1820, C, LO=7.5, (2) SG 233 Learning Objective 7.6- What happens during the germinal, embryonic, and fetal periods of pregnancy and what are some hazards in prenatal development? 47. The germinal period ________. a) occurs during the first two weeks after fertilization Correct. The first two weeks of pregnancy are called the germinal period. b) occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization Incorrect. The embryonic period occurs from 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization. c) occurs from approximately 8 weeks after fertilization to birth d) occurs from 7 to 10 weeks after fertilization Register to View Answerp. 256, F, LO=7.6, (1) 48. Marisa is at a point in her pregnancy when the zygote is moving down her uterus, and the placenta and umbilical cord are beginning to form. Which period of prenatal development is Marisa currently experiencing? a) fetal b) embryonic Incorrect. During the embryonic period, the organism is called an embryo, not a zygote. c) placental d) germinal Correct. During the germinal period, the organism is called a zygote, and the placenta and umbilical cord begin to form. Register to View Answerp. 256, C, LO=7.6, (2) 49. The placenta is ______. a) the tube through which a developing baby receives nourishment Incorrect. The placenta is not a tube; the umbilical cord, which connects the developing baby to the placenta, is a tube. b) the technical name for the belly button c) a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby. d) the name for the developing organism until it is 8 weeks old ANS c, p. 256, F, LO=7.6, (2) 50. The specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby is called the _________. a) placenta Correct. The placenta is a specialized organ that provides nourishment and filters away waste products from the developing baby. b) uterus c) umbilical cord Incorrect. The umbilical cord is a tube that connects the developing baby to the placenta. d) embryo Register to View Answerp. 256, F, LO=7.6, (1) 51. Which of the following describes the embryonic period? a) the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining Incorrect. The zygote begins to implant in the uterine lining during the germinal period. b) the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures develop. c) the period during which the umbilical cord develops d) the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Register to View Answerp. 257, C, LO=7.6, (2) 234 52. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which the major organs and structures of her baby are first developing. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? a) fetal Incorrect. The fetal period occurs after the organs have first developed and is the time during which they continue to develop and become functional. b) embryonic Correct. During the embryonic period major organs and structures first develop. c) placental d) germinal Register to View Answerp. 257, C, LO=7.6, (2) 53. Emily and her husband are thrilled as they peer into Emilys uterus by means of an ultrasound. The physician reports that the pregnancy appears normal, and that their babys fingers, toes, heart, and circulatory system are developing as expected. The couple learns that the baby is only of an inch long. Given this information, the current stage of prenatal development is the_________. a) embryonic period Correct. It is during the embryonic period that major organs and structures first develop. b) germinal period c) zygotic period d) fetal stage Incorrect. In the fetal stage, fingers, toes, and other major systems and organs would have already developed, and the baby would be more than an inch long. Register to View Answerp. 257, A, LO=7.6, (3) 54. Times when certain internal and external influences have a major impact on development are called ______. a) fetal periods Incorrect. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development; the most critical time is during the embryonic period. b) critical periods Correct. Critical periods are times when internal and external influences have a major impact on development. c) germinal periods d) latency periods Register to View Answerp. 257258, F, LO=7.6, (1) 55. Which of the following terms is used to describe any substance, such as a drug, chemical, or virus, that can bring about a birth defect? a) teratogen Correct. Teratogens are substances that can bring about a birth defect. b) critical period c) carcinogen Incorrect. A carcinogen may cause birth defects, but the term does not encompass viruses and all of the other things that can also cause birth defects. d) biohazard Register to View Answerp. 258, F, LO=7.6, (1) 56. Greta's child has facial deformities, a smaller than normal head, heart defects, mental retardation, learning difficulties, and delayed growth. If these defects can be traced to a teratogen used by Greta when she was pregnant, which was she most likely abusing? a) nicotine Incorrect. The effects of nicotine do not include smaller than normal heads, facial deformities, and heart defects. b) cocaine c) marijuana d) alcohol Correct. Gretas child is exhibiting symptoms of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. Register to View Answerp. 258, A, LO=7.6, (3) 235 57. What are some of the common consequences to a child whose mother smoked while pregnant? a) increased birth weight and lethargy b) lower birth weight and short stature Correct. Lower birth weight and short stature are common consequences of smoking during pregnancy. c) severe hearing loss and heart defects Incorrect. Hearing loss and heart defects are consequences of rubella. d) severely deformed limbs and muscle spasms Register to View Answerp. 258, C, LO=7.6, (2) SG 58. Isabelles baby was born blind, deaf, and with heart defects. Most likely Isabelle was exposed to _________ during her pregnancy. a) rubella Correct. Blindness, deafness, and heart defects are potential consequences of prenatal exposure to rubella. b) mercury c) syphilis Incorrect. Exposure to syphilis does not cause blindness or heart defects. d) radiation Register to View Answerp. 258, C, LO=7.6, (3) 59. The prenatal period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional is called the _______________ period. a) germinal b) embryonic Incorrect. The embryonic period is the stage when various organs and structures first begin to form. c) fetal Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional. d) gestational Register to View Answerp. 259, F, LO=7.6, (2) SG 60. Which of the following describes the fetal period? a) the period during which the zygote moves down to the uterus and begins to implant in the lining b) the period during which the major organs and structures of the organism first develop Incorrect. The major organs and structures first develop during the embryonic period. c) the period during which the umbilical cord develops d) the period during which tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional Correct. The fetal period is the stage when tremendous growth occurs and the organs continue to develop and become functional. Register to View Answerp. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2) 61. Tameeka is at a point in her pregnancy during which she is experiencing muscle contractions and movement and kicks. Which period of prenatal development is Tameeka currently experiencing? a) fetal Correct. During the fetal period, the developing baby first begins to move its muscles. b) embryonic Incorrect. The embryonic period ends at 8 weeks, and muscle contraction does not occur until about the third month. c) placental d) germinal Register to View Answerp. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2) 236 62. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the ________months. a) first three Correct. The most likely time for a miscarriage is during the first three months. b) last three Incorrect. The most likely time for miscarriage is during the first three months. c) middle three d) last six Register to View Answerp. 259, C, LO=7.6, (2) 63. The most likely cause for miscarriage during the first three months of pregnancy is_______. a) a genetic defect Correct. A genetic defect is the most likely cause of miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy. b) alcohol use Incorrect. A miscarriage in the first three months of pregnancy is most likely caused by a genetic defect that will not allow the embryo or fetus to survive. c) not taking prenatal vitamins d) lack of exercise Register to View Answerp. 259, C, LO=7.6, (3) Infancy and Childhood Development Learning Objective 7.7- What kind of physical changes take place in infancy and childhood? 64. Infant reflexes are______. a) innate involuntary behavior patterns Correct. Reflexes help infants survive outside of the womb. b) voluntary behavior patterns Incorrect. Reflexes are involuntary c) learned d) not used as a means for survival Register to View Answerp. 260, F, LO=7.7, (1) 65. Which sense is the most functional at birth? a) touch Correct. Touch is the most functional sense at birth. b) taste c) smell d) vision Incorrect. Cones, which assist us in seeing color and provide sharpness of vision, take about 6 months to fully develop. Register to View Answerp. 261, F, LO=7.7, (3) 66. At what point during infancy can babies tell the difference between their own mothers milk scent and another womans milk scent? a) within a few days after birth Correct. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own mothers milk scent and another womans milk scent. b) within a few weeks after birth Incorrect. The sense of smell is highly developed at birth enabling babies to tell the difference between their own mothers milk scent and another womans milk scent. c) within a few months after birth d) within a year after birth Register to View Answerp. 261, F, LO=7.7, (2) 237 67. By what age do infants develop a preference for salty tastes? a) within a few days after birth b) by four months Correct. A preference for salty tastes occurs by four months and may come from exposure to the salty taste of their mothers skin. c) at birth Incorrect. At birth infants show a preference for sweets; preference for salty tastes develops at about four months. d) within a year after birth Register to View Answerp. 261, F, LO=7.7, (2) 68. At birth, newborns seem most responsive to________. a) high pitches and low pitches Correct. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices. b) hip hop music c) moderate voice pitches Incorrect. Newborns seem most responsive to high-pitched (female) voices and low-pitched (male) voices. d) rock and roll music Register to View Answerp. 261, C, LO=7.7, (2) 69. Which sense is the LEAST functional at birth? a) touch Incorrect. Touch is the most functional at birth. b) taste c) smell d) vision Correct. Vision takes about 6 months to fully develop, whereas touch, taste, and smell are all present at birth. Register to View Answerp. 261, C, LO=7.7, (2) 70. Christa and Sal are anticipating the birth of their first baby. Before the baby arrives, they want to fix up the nursery with new wallpaper. They seek the advice of a developmental psychologist. What is she likely to tell them? a) Newborns prefer to look at complex three-dimensional patterns rather than simple one-dimensional ones. Correct. Newborns prefer to look at complex patterns. b) Newborns prefer to look at animals rather than people. c) Newborns do not see well enough to make any difference. d) Newborns prefer to look at simple one-dimensional patterns rather than complex ones. Incorrect. Newborns prefer complex patterns, particularly those that are three dimensional. Register to View Answerp. 261, A, LO=7.7, (3) 71. Which of these physical skills typically develops LAST? a) rolling over b) standing alone Incorrect. Standing alone develops before walking. c) walking Correct. Walking develops after sucking, rolling over, and standing alone. d) sucking Register to View Answerp. 262, F, LO=7.7, (3) 238 Learning Objective 7.8- What are the facts and the myths concerning infant immunizations? 72. Which of the following statements concerning vaccinations is TRUE? a) Children who are given an immunization can get the disease from it. b) There is no reason to immunize ones own child if all of the other children in school are immunized. Incorrect. This statement is false because if one parent is thinking this way so are others, and this type of thinking can lead to an epidemic. c) The side effects of vaccines are more harmful than the effects of the diseases they prevent. d) Vaccines are one of the most effective ways to prevent the transmission of the diseases they treat. Correct. This statement is true because vaccines are one of the most effective ways to prevent the transmission of diseases. Register to View Answerp. 263, F, LO=7.8, (3) Learning Objective 7.9- What are three ways of looking at cognitive development? 73. Jean Piaget is noted for his theory of ______. a) cognitive development Correct. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development. b) perceptual development c) language development Incorrect. Piaget is known for his theory of cognitive development. d) motor development Register to View Answerp. 264, F, LO=7.9, (1) 74. Which of the following is the correct order of Piagets stages of cognitive development? a) preoperational; concrete operations; sensorimotor; formal operations b) concrete operations; sensorimotor; preoperational; formal operations c) sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations Correct. The order in which Piagets stages occur is sensorimotor; preoperational; concrete operations; formal operations. d) preoperational; sensorimotor; concrete operations; formal operations Incorrect. Sensorimotor is the stage prior to the preoperational stage. Register to View Answerp. 264, C, LO=7.9, (2) 75. In Piaget's theory, the stage of development between birth and 2 years of age, in which the individual uses senses and motor abilities to interact with objects in the environment, is called the ______ stage. a) concrete operations b) sensorimotor Correct. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2. c) preoperational Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7. d) formal operations Register to View Answerp. 264, F, LO=7.9, (2) 76. Piagets term for the knowledge that an object exists even when it is out of sight is ______. a) conservation Incorrect. Conservation is the ability to understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change its nature or quantity. b) object permanence Correct. Understanding object permanence means understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight. c) centration d) egocentrism Register to View Answerp. 265 F, LO=7.9, (1) 239 77. Young infants cannot appreciate the carnival game in which a pea seems to disappear from under a walnut because they have not yet developed a sense of ______. a) conservation Incorrect. Conservation is a term used to describe understanding that changing the appearance of an object does not change its nature or quantity. b) object permanence Correct. Object permanence is a term used to describe understanding that an object exists even when it is out of sight. c) centration d) egocentrism Register to View Answerp. 265, A, LO=7.9, (3) 78. Your little sister picks up objects, feels every part of them, and then puts them in her mouth. What stage of Jean Piagets model of cognitive development does this behavior suggest she is in? a) concrete operations b) sensorimotor Correct. During this stage infants interact deliberately with objects by chewing, grasping, and tasting them. c) preoperational Incorrect. During the preoperational stage children no longer have to rely only on senses and motor skills. It is during the sensorimotor stage when they chew, grasp, and taste objects. d) formal operations Register to View Answerp. 264, A, LO=7.9, (3) SG 79. According to Piaget, _________________________ represents the beginning of the childs language development and symbolic thought. a) egocentric thinking Incorrect. Egocentrism is the inability to see the world through anyone elses eyes; it is not related to language. b) accommodation c) object permanence Correct. To understand object permanence a child has knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight and that one object can stand in for another. Words are symbols that stand in for things that may not be present. d) assimilation Register to View Answerp. 265, F, LO=7.9, (3) 80. According to Piaget, the stage of cognitive development between 2 and 7 years of age, in which the child learns to use language as a means of exploring the world, is the ______ stage. a) concrete operations b) sensorimotor Incorrect. The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and age 2. c) preoperational Correct. Preoperational is the name Piaget gave to the stage children are in from 2 to 7 years of age. d) formal operations Register to View Answerp. 265, F, LO=7.9, (1) 81. Which of the following is a limitation on the cognitive life of children in Piagets preoperational stage? a) abstract concepts b) object permanence c) hypothetical thinking Incorrect. Hypothetical thinking is a capability of people in the formal operations stage. d) centration Correct. Centration, or focusing on only one feature of something rather than taking all of its features into consideration, is a limitation of the preoperational child. 240 Register to View Answerp. 265, F, LO=7.9, (2) 82. Your little brother has a big ball of clay. While he watches, you roll the ball of clay into a long snake-like shape. He begins to cry because he thinks he has less clay now. Which of Piagets stages is your brother likely to be in? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational Correct. Your little brother shows lack of conservation, or the ability to understand that altering the appearance of something does not change its quantity; this lack of understanding is characteristic of preoperational children. c) formal operational d) concrete operational Incorrect. By the time children are in the concrete operational stage, they have developed conservation. Register to View Answerp. 266, A, LO=7.9, (3) 83. What term is used to describe a childs inability to see the world through anyone elses eyes except his or her own? a) disparity b) narcissism Incorrect. Narcissism is a term used to describe a type of adult personality characterized by excessive selfadmiration and centeredness. c) egocentrism Correct. Egocentrism is the term used to describe a childs inability to see the world through anyone elses eyes except his or her own. d) autonomy Register to View Answerp. 265, F, LO=7.9, (1) 84. In Piagets theory, the stage of cognitive development between 7 and 11 years of age, in which an individual becomes capable of logical thought processes but is not yet capable of abstract thinking, is the ______ stage. a) concrete operations Correct. The concrete operational stage occurs between ages 7 and 11. b) sensorimotor c) preoperational Incorrect. The preoperational stage occurs between ages 2 and 7. d) formal operations Register to View Answerp. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1) 85. In which of Piagets stages does the child develop conservation? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational Incorrect. During the preoperational stage, children lack conservation. c) formal operational d) concrete operational Correct. The child develops conservation during the concrete operational stage. Register to View Answerp. 266, F, LO=7.9, (2) 86. According to Piaget, the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the objects nature is known as ___________. a) object permanence b) conservation Correct. Conservation is the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the objects nature. c) centration Incorrect. Centration is the tendency to focus on one feature while ignoring others. d) reversibility 241 Register to View Answerp. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1) 87. Which of Jean Piagets stages of cognitive development is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of theories? a) sensorimotor b) preoperational c) formal operational Correct. The stage of formal operations is characterized by abstract thinking and the creation of theories. d) concrete operational Incorrect. Children at the concrete operational stage are unable to deal effectively with abstract concepts. Register to View Answerp. 266, F, LO=7.9, (1) 88. A characteristic that first shows up in the formal operational stage is ______. a) irreversibility b) egocentrism c) abstract thinking Correct. Abstract thinking develops during the formal operational stage. d) logical thinking Incorrect. Logical thinking first reveals itself in the concrete operational stage. Register to View Answerp. 266, C, LO=7.9, (2) 89. Which type of thought does not begin until the stage of formal operational thought? a) thinking about what is possible Correct. Thinking about what is possible is an aspect of hypothetical thinking, which occurs in the formal operational stage. b) thinking about what is logical Incorrect. Logical thought occurs in the concrete operational stage.. c) thinking about whether an object exists when it is out of sight d) thinking about only one feature of an object rather than taking all features into consideration Register to View Answerp. 266267, C, LO=7.9, (3) 90. Whereas Piaget saw cognitive development as a result of individual discovery and a childs interaction with objects, attributed Vygotsky cognitive development to________. a) biological changes in the brain b) unconscious factors c) completing activities in isolation Incorrect. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions between a child and skilled people. d) interaction between a child and skilled people Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interaction between a child and skilled people. Register to View Answerp. 267, C, LO=7.9, (3) 91. According to Vygotsky, which of these is a key factor in a childs cognitive development? a) balanced diet b) social interactions Correct. Vygotsky believed that cognitive development occurred as a result of social interactions. c) genetic endowment d) successful resolution of psychosocial crises Incorrect. Psychosocial crises refer to the theories of psychosocial development, not to Vygotskys theories. Register to View Answerp. 267, C, LO=7.9, (3) 242 92. Which of the following illustrates Vygotskys concept of scaffolding? a) Several children work together to overcome an obstacle they could not conquer individually. Incorrect. Scaffolding emphasizes one-on-one learning. b) A teacher works one-on-one with a student and then begins to withdraw help as the student becomes more skilled. Correct. Vygotsky attributed cognitive development to interactions between a child and skilled people. c) Learning in one area, such as language, tends to reinforce learning that occurs in other areas, such as mathematics. d) Physical interaction with the environment is a key to learning, so teachers require students to run and play a great deal. Register to View Answerp. 267, A, LO=7.9, (3) 93. Which of the following is the term that refers to the difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do with the help of a teacher? a) scaffolding Incorrect. Scaffolding occurs when a more skilled person helps a less skilled learner. b) conservation c) hypothetical thinking. d) zone of proximal development Correct. The zone of proximal development is a term used to refer to the difference between what a child can do alone and what that child can do with the help of a teacher. Register to View Answerp. 267, F, LO=7.9, (2) 94. A theory that looks at the way people deal with the information that comes in through the senses is called__________. a) information-processing theory Correct. Information-processing theory looks at the way in which people deal with information that comes in through the senses. b) sensorimotor intelligence c) habituation d) metamemory Incorrect. Metamemory is ones knowledge about the workings of memory; information-processing theory looks at the way in which people deal with information. Register to View Answerp. 268, F, LO=7.9, (1) SG 95. When one stops responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging this is referred to as___________. a) habituation Correct. Habituation occurs when one stops responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging. b) control strategies c) metamemory Incorrect. Metamemory is ones knowledge about the workings of memory. Habituation is when one stops responding to a stimulus that is repeated and unchanging. d) metacognition Register to View Answerp. 268, F, LO=7.9, (1) 243 96. An infant is exposed to a light reflecting on the wall near his crib repeatedly. Although at first he is attentive, over time he stops attending to the light and ignores it. This is an example of ___________. a) habituation Correct. Since the child is no longer attentive to the light, habituation is occurring. b) control strategies c) metamemory Incorrect. Metamemory is ones knowledge about the workings of memory and memory strategies. In this example the child is exhibiting habituation. d) metacognition Register to View Answerp. 268, A, LO=7.9, (3) Learning Objective 7.10- How does language develop? 97. Psychologists studying language development have found that_________. a) at 12 months of age, babies begin to recognize their own names b) the process begins when babies recognize the sound structure of their native language Incorrect. Babies first respond to pitch rather than language structure. c) the process begins in the first months, with crying and cooing Correct. Language development begins during the first months of life. d) at 6 months of age, babies begin to respond to the pitch and sound of language Register to View Answerp. 269, C, LO=7.10, (2) 98. Infants typically begin to make vowel-like sounds at around the age of ________. a) 6 weeks b) 2 months Correct. At 2 months infants typically make vowel-like sounds, called cooing. c) 6 months Incorrect. At 6 months of age, infants have already been cooing for several months and begin adding consonant sounds to their vowels. d) 7 months Register to View Answerp. 269, F, LO=7.10, (2) 99. A babys language that consists of repetition of consonant-vowel combinations is called ______. a) cooing Incorrect. Cooing involves vowel sounds only. b) holophrasing c) telegraphic speech d) babbling Correct. Babbling consists of repetition of consonantvowel combinations. Register to View Answerp. 269, F, LO=7.10, (1) 100. By about 12 months, most infants ______. a) begin to use intonation in their language b) build a vocabulary of one-word phrases Correct. By about 12 months most infants build a vocabulary of one-word phrases. c) begin to distinguish, in their language, between themselves and others d) begin to form two- and three-word sentences Incorrect. Two- and three-word sentences do not typically occur until approximately age 18 months to 2 years. Register to View Answerp. 269, C, LO=7.10, (2) SG 244 Learning Objective 7.11- How do infants and children develop personalities and form relationships with others? 101. Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of temperament described by Thomas and Chess? a) active Correct. Thomas and Chess used the terms easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up. b) slow-to-warm-up c) difficult d) easy Incorrect. Easy is a temperament type described by Thomas and Chess. Register to View Answerp. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1) 102. Shelby is very adaptable to change. She is on a regular sleeping, eating, and waking schedule. Thomas and Chess would describe Shelby as being a(n) _________child. a) easy Correct. Easy children are described as being adaptable to change and on regular schedules. b) difficult c) slow-to-warm-up d) undemanding Incorrect. Thomas and Chess use the term easy to describe children on regular schedules. Register to View Answerp. 270, A, LO=7.11, (2) 103. According to Thomas and Chess, a child that is very irregular in sleeping and eating, resists change, and tends to be loud is labeled a(n)_____________ child. a) easy b) difficult Correct. Difficult children tend to resist change. c) slow-to-warm-up d) negative Incorrect. Thomas and Chess used the term difficult for children who tend to resist change. Register to View Answerp. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1) 104. Chester is irritable, loud, and negative most of the time. He doesnt like it when new people pick him up, and he has irregular sleeping, eating, and waking schedules. What temperament does he exhibit? a) active Incorrect. Babies who are irritable and irregular are considered difficult. b) slow-to-warm-up c) difficult Correct. Difficult babies tend to be irritable, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules. d) easy Register to View Answerp. 270, A, LO=7.11, (3) SG 105. Egbert is a quiet child who is very slow to adapt to change. However, if he is introduced gradually to new people or situations, then eventually he will accept them without too much distress. Thomas and Chess would say his temperament is ______. a) active b) slow-to-warm-up Correct. Slow-to-warm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change. c) difficult Incorrect. Difficult babies tend to be loud, are not comfortable with change, and have irregular schedules. Slow-towarm-up babies tend be quieter and slow to adapt to change. d) easy Register to View Answerp. 270, A, LO=7.11, (3) 245 106. Research on the stability of temperament indicates that it is ______. a) unstable and subject to wide variations over the course of a lifetime b) unstable during childhood but stabilizes during adolescence and remains stable throughout a persons adult life c) relatively stable through the first three to four years of life but begins to vary dramatically once a child reaches school age Incorrect. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood. d) relatively stable well into adulthood Correct. Temperament is considered stable well into adulthood. Register to View Answerp. 270, F, LO=7.11, (3) 107. The emotional bond that forms between an infant and a primary caregiver is called_________. a) temperament b) attachment Correct. Attachment is an emotional bond that forms between an infant and primary caregiver. c) trust Incorrect. Trust is an element of attachment, but the term used for the bond itself is attachment. d) habituation Register to View Answerp. 270, F, LO=7.11, (1) 108. Attachment usually takes place within the __________of life. a) first year b) first month Incorrect. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life. c) first six months Correct. Attachment takes place within the first six months of life. d) first four months. Register to View Answerp. 270, F, LO=7.11, (2) 109. What was Mary Ainsworth trying to determine when she devised an experimental method called the Strange Situation? a) the nature of gestural communication between mothers and babies b) aspects of purposeful exploration as the baby investigates a strange environment c) parental discipline styles in the first year of life Incorrect. She sought to study the nature of attachment. d) the nature of attachment between caretakers and babies Correct. She sought to understand the nature of attachment between caregivers and babies. Register to View Answerp. 270, C, LO=7.11, (3) 110. Mary Ainsworth observed that securely attached infants__________. a) do not seem to care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out on her return Incorrect. Ainsworths term for infants who do not care when the mother leaves the room and do not seek her out when she returns is avoidant. b) protest loudly when the mother leaves but resist contact with her when she returns c) cry if the mother leaves the room, are easily soothed, and welcome her back when she returns Correct. Securely attached infants are easily soothed when they cry and welcome their mother back upon return. d) are not concerned upon separation but cry to be picked up and held on her return Register to View Answerp. 271, F, LO=7.11, (2) 246 111. Mothers who were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting were associated with ___________attached infants. a) securely b) avoidant Correct. Mothers of avoidant attached infants were unresponsive, insensitive, and coldly rejecting. c) ambivalent d) disorganized/disoriented Incorrect. Mothers of disorganized/disoriented infants were worse than cold; they were abusive or neglectful in interactions with the infant. Register to View Answerp. 271, C, LO=7.11, (2) 112. ____________babies in Ainsworths study were clinging and unwilling to explore, very upset by the stranger regardless of the mothers presence, protested mightily when the mother left, were hard to soothe, and had mixed reactions upon mothers return. a) Secure b) Avoidant Incorrect. Avoidant infants main reaction was anger; they did not respond upon the mothers return; and they failed to make eye contact with her. c) Ambivalent Correct. Ambivalent attached infants were clinging, unwilling to explore, and protested when the mother left. d) Disorganized/disoriented Register to View Answerp. 271, F, LO=7.11, (2) Learning Objective 7.12- What happens in Eriksons first four stages of psychosocial development? 113. Like any 4-month-old, Amy depends on her parents to feed her and to change her diapers. When Amy cries, her devoted parents quickly respond to her needs. According to Erikson, Amy is developing a sense of ___________. a) trust Correct. Infants whose needs are consistently met come to trust their caregivers, and this trust helps promote attachment. b) mistrust c) autonomy Incorrect. Autonomy does not develop until around 18 months of age. d) initiative Register to View Answerp. 273, A, LO=7.12, (2) 114. Which of Erik Eriksons psychosocial crises revolves around the childs learning to direct his or her own behavior? a) trust versus mistrust b) initiative versus guilt Incorrect. Initiative versus guilt revolves around the challenge to control ones own behavior. c) industry versus inferiority d) autonomy versus shame and doubt Correct. Autonomy versus shame and doubt revolves around the childs learning to direct his or her own behavior. Register to View Answerp. 273, C, LO=7.12, (2) 247 115. Eriksons theory of social development viewed the period from ages 3 to 6, his third stage, as characterized by the major challenge of ______. a) identity versus role diffusion b) industry versus inferiority Incorrect. Industry versus inferiority takes place between ages 6 and 12. c) initiative versus guilt Correct. Initiative versus guilt takes place between ages 3 and 6. d) autonomy versus shame and doubt Register to View Answerp. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2) SG 116. In Eriksons __________stage of psychosocial development, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior. a) trust versus mistrust b) autonomy versus shame and doubt Incorrect. Autonomy versus shame and doubt takes place during the toddler years and focuses on directing rather than controlling ones own behavior. c) initiative versus guilt Correct. During the stage of initiative versus guilt, preschoolers are challenged to control their own behavior. d) industry versus inferiority Register to View Answerp. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2) 117. Between the ages of 5 and 12 children strive to develop a sense of competence arising from their work and effort. Erikson refers to this stage of life as ___________. a) trust versus mistrust b) autonomy versus shame and doubt Incorrect. A toddler in the stage called autonomy versus shame and doubt strives for independence. c) initiative versus guilt Correct. A child in the stage of initiative versus guilt strives to develop a sense of competence as a result of his or her work and effort. d) industry versus inferiority Register to View Answerp. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2) 118. According to Erikson, if an elementary school child fails to succeed in learning new skills and knowledge, the result may be the development of a sense of _________. a) stagnation b) inferiority Correct. Failure to learn new skills and knowledge may result in a sense of inferiority. c) shame and doubt Incorrect. Shame and doubt are associated with an earlier stage of development that emphasizes independence. d) role confusion Register to View Answerp. 273, F, LO=7.12, (2) Adolescence Learning Objective 7.13- What are the changes that occur in puberty? 119. The period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties, during which a young person is no longer physically a child but is not yet an independent, self-supporting adult, is called ________. a) adolescence Correct. Adolescence is the period of life from about age 13 to the early twenties. b) tweens 248 c) young adulthood d) puberty Incorrect. Puberty is the word for the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak. Register to View Answerp. 274, F, LO=7.13, (1) 120. Puberty is defined as _________. a) the production of hormones in the reproductive glands stimulated by the pituitary gland Incorrect. The production of hormones in the reproductive glands is only one of the physical changes that occur in the body during puberty. b) the stage of identity versus role confusion c) the physical changes that occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak Correct. Puberty is defined as the period during which physical changes occur in the body as sexual development reaches its peak. d) the time when a child becomes a teenager Register to View Answerp. 274, F, LO=7.13, (1) 121. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age______. a) 9 b) 12 Correct. The growth spurt for boys typically begins at age 12. c) 10 Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, around age 10. d) 15 Register to View Answerp. 275, F, LO=7.13, (1) SG 122. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at what age? a) 9 b) 12 Incorrect. Girls typically experience a growth spurt earlier, at age 10. c) 10 Correct. The growth spurt for girls typically begins at age 10. d) 15 Register to View Answerp. 275, F, LO=7.13, (1) 123. Which of the following is NOT evidence of puberty in boys? a) the growth of the testes and penis b) the appearance of pubic hair c) higher pitch of the voice Correct. Boys voices do not get higher; they get deeper. d) the appearance of a beard Incorrect. The appearance of a beard is a sign of puberty in males. Register to View Answerp. 275, F, LO=7.13, (2) Learning Objective 7.14- How do adolescents develop formal operations and moral thinking? 124. Most young adolescents, especially those who receive a formal high school education, are at the level of thinking that Piaget described as ______. a) formal operational Correct. Most adolescents who receive a formal high school education are at the formal operations level of thinking. b) preoperational c) preconventional d) identity versus role confusion Incorrect. Identity versus role confusion is the stage of adolescence in Eriksons theory. Register to View Answerp. 275, F, LO=7.14, (2) 249 125. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to ______. a) extroverted behavior Incorrect. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism. b) a lessening of self-analysis compared to preoperational thought c) introspection and egocentrism Correct. The development of formal operations in adolescence leads to introspection and egocentrism. d) thinking in terms of concrete things Register to View Answerp. 276, C, LO=7.14, (3) 126. The tendency of teenagers to feel that they are always on stage and that they are the center of everyone elses world, just as they are the center of their own, is a phenomenon known as ___________. a) formal operations b) the imaginary audience Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it causes teenagers to feel extremely self-conscious. c) the personal fable Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. d) puberty Register to View Answerp. 276, F, LO=7.14, (1) 127. Mary is an adolescent who currently has a small pimple on her cheek that is causing her to be overly selfconscious. She is convinced that everyone she meets stares at and talks about at her pimple. Marys behavior exhibits____________. a) a sense of idealism b) imaginary audience Correct. Imaginary audience refers to the feeling that everyone is watching you closely; it makes teenagers feel extremely self-conscious. c) personal fable Incorrect. The term personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. d) puberty Register to View Answerp. 276, A, LO=7.14, (2) 128. Fifteen-year-old Todd is writing an impassioned novel about growing up in America. In his novel he describes his experiences in a way that portrays them as unique, such that no one has ever thought such deep thoughts or experienced such ecstasy before. Todds writings most clearly reflect ______. a) his sense of autonomy Incorrect. Todds portrayal of being unique is indicative of the personal fable. b) the personal fable Correct. The personal fable refers to the feeling of being unique and protected. c) the period of rebellion common to all adolescents d) his developing sense of conscience Register to View Answerp. 276, A, LO=7.14, (2) SG 129. The reckless risk taking found among many adolescents is most likely due to the effects of ____________. a) their sense of autonomy b) the personal fable Correct. The personal fable convinces adolescents that they are special and protected and, thus, nothing bad can happen to them. c) the period of rebellion common to all adolescents Incorrect. Recklessness is due to the personal fable, which somehow makes adolescents feel they are protected from the dangers of the world, and, as a result, they do not take precautions. 250 d) their developing sense of conscience Register to View Answerp. 276, C, LO=7.14, (2) 130. Obedience to rules because of the fear of punishment is a characteristic of__________. a) conventional morality Incorrect. In conventional morality behavior is governed by the norms of society. b) preconventional morality Correct. In preconventional morality, behavior is governed by the consequences of an action. c) principled morality d) postconventional morality Register to View Answerp. 277, C, LO=7.14, (2) 131. Brad is in an electronics store with his parents. He looks at the CDs and thinks for a moment that he could grab one and put it beneath his coat. As he considers this possibility, he decides not to do it because he might get caught and his parents would punish him. What stage of moral development does Brads decision represent? a) preoperational Incorrect. Preoperational is a term used in Piagets theory of human development; it is not a term related to moral choices. b) preconventional Correct. At the preconventional level one determines right and wrong based on what consequences would likely result from an action. c) autonomous moral principles d) conventional role conformity Register to View Answerp. 277, A, LO=7.14, (3) 132. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the _________ level of morality. a) preconventional Incorrect. Most adolescents are beyond the preconventional level, which is for young children and juvenile delinquents. b) conventional Correct. According to Kohlberg, most adolescents are at the conventional level. c) postconventional d) preliminary Register to View Answerp. 277, C, LO=7.14, (2) 133. At what stage of moral development is moral thought guided by principles that have been decided upon by the individual and may be in disagreement with accepted social norms? a) preoperational b) preconventional Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong based on the expected consequences of an action. c) postconventional Correct. At the postconventional level morality is driven by an individuals self-determined moral principles. d) conventional role conformity Register to View Answerp. 277, F, LO=7.14, (2) 134. When faced with a conflict between law and conscience, Liz follows her conscience despite the personal risk. This would be characteristic of__________. a) conventional morality b) preconventional morality Incorrect. At the preconventional level a person determines right and wrong based on the expected consequences of an action. 251 c) postconventional morality Correct. At the postconventional level right and wrongare determined by the individual, which may be in disagreement with accepted social norms. d) unconventional morality Register to View Answerp. 277, A, LO=7.14, (2) 135. What is the sequence of stages of moral development as identified by Lawrence Kohlberg? a) preconventional, conventional, postconventional Correct. The sequence of the stages of moral development is preconventional, conventional, postconventional. b) preoperational, postoperational, world view c) preconventional, postconventional, conventional Incorrect. Postconventional follows conventional. d) concrete operational, formal operational, autonomous Register to View Answerp. 277, C, LO=7.14, (1) Learning Objective 7.15- What happens during the adolescents search for identity? 136. Jeremy is 17 years old. According to Erikson, his chief task will be acquiring a sense of ______. a) identity Correct. According to Erikson, adolescents must begin to develop a sense of self. b) intimacy Incorrect. According to Erikson, developing intimacy begins in early adulthood. c) generativity d) autonomy Register to View Answerp. 278, F, LO=7.15, (1) SG 137. Brad is 18 and is looking into career options. He is currently deciding whether he wants to become a gourmet chef or a race car driver. Brad is at what stage of Erik Eriksons psychosocial development? a) integrity versus despair b) intimacy versus isolation c) generativity versus stagnation Incorrect. Brad is too young to enter the generativity versus stagnation stage. d) identity versus role confusion Correct. In the identity versus role confusion stage the individual is searching for a consistent sense of self, and one part of this process is choosing a career. Register to View Answerp. 278, A, LO=7.15, (2) 138. Conflicts between adolescents and their parents tend to be over ______. a) trivial things Correct. Most arguments are about trivial things. b) moral issues c) political issues d) major things Incorrect. Most arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music. Register to View Answerp. 278, C, LO=7.15, (3) 139. On big moral issues, parents and teens tend to __________. a) completely disagree b) be in agreement Correct. On big moral issues parents and teens tend to be in agreement. c) are not familiar with each others position d) have intense arguments Incorrect. Most intense arguments are over trivial things such as hair, clothing, and taste in music. 252 Register to View Answerp. 278, C, LO=7.15, (3) Adulthood Learning Objective 7.16- What are the physical and cognitive changes that occur during adulthood and aging? 140. The twenties is a time of___________. a) peak physical health Correct. This is a time when health is at its peak. b) decline in senses c) immature cognitive abilities Incorrect. The twenties is a time when health is at its peak. d) illness Register to View Answerp. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2) 141. Megan just turned 32. She is keenly aware of biological changes that occur as she gets older. Whats more, she measures the sensitivity of her senses and other physical characteristics by using sophisticated testing equipment. In which of the following areas is she likely to find some decline? a) vision and hearing Correct. Although these changes may not be noticeable, they are beginning in many adults in their thirties. b) sensitivity to odors and temperatures c) sensitivity to taste, muscular strength, and hearing d) sensitivity to taste, vision, and muscular strength Incorrect. Taste sensitivity occurs later in adulthood; vision and hearing begin to decline in the thirties. Register to View Answerp. 279, A, LO=7.16, (3) 142. Around age 40, adults ___________. a) see a decline in sexual functioning Incorrect. Any decline in sexual functioning is more typically due to a decrease in opportunity rather than ability. b) may need to wear bifocal lenses Correct. The lens of the eye begins to harden and has difficulty changing shape to focus. c) experience a sharpening of the senses d) do not experience any physical changes Register to View Answerp. 279, C, LO=7.16, (2) 143. The period of five to ten years during which a womans reproductive system begins to decline is called_______. a) climacteric b) perimenopause Correct. Perimenopause is the term for the decline in the female reproductive system. c) menopause Incorrect. Menopause is the term used to describe the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. d) postmenopause Register to View Answerp. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2) 144. Sarah is in her forties. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she is experiencing hot flashes that are keeping her awake at night. The changes Sarah is experiencing are called _____________. a) the climacteric Correct. The climacteric is the term for the physical changes, such as those that Sarah is experiencing, that occur during perimenopause. b) perimenopause 253 Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of time during which the climacteric, or decline in the female reproductive system, occurs; it is not the term for the changes themselves. c) menopause d) andropause Register to View Answerp. 279, A, LO=7.16, (3) 145. The cessation of menstruation and ovulation is called ______. a) the climacteric b) perimenopause Incorrect. Perimenopause is the term for the period of five to ten years during which a womans reproductive system begins to decline. c) menopause Correct. Menopause is the term for the cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. d) andropause Register to View Answerp. 279, F, LO=7.16, (1) SG 146. The average age of menopause is__________. a) 43 Incorrect. At 43 the average woman may be experiencing the physical changes of the climacteric but is still about eight years away from menopause. b) 34 c) 51 Correct. Fifty-one is the average age for women to cease ovulation. d) 55 Register to View Answerp. 279, F, LO=7.16, (2) 147. The gradual decline in the sexual reproductive system of males is called____________. a) menopause b) andropause Correct. Andropause is the term for the gradual decline in the reproductive system of males. c) male menopause Incorrect. The appropriate term for the gradual decline of the male reproductive system is andropause. d) change of life Register to View Answerp. 280, F, LO=7.16, (2) 148. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in middle adulthood? a) suicide b) homicide c) heart disease Correct. Heart disease is the most common cause of death in middle adulthood. d) stroke Incorrect. Stroke is the third most common cause of death in middle adulthood, whereas heart disease is the most common. Register to View Answerp. 280, F, LO=7.16, (1) 149. Which of the following abilities decline during adulthood? a) intellectual abilities b) speed of processing Correct. Speed of processing declines during adulthood. c) wisdom d) verbal ability Incorrect. Verbal ability tends to increase during adulthood. Register to View Answerp. 280, C, LO=7.16, (2) 254 150. All of the following are reasons that middle-aged adults experience changes in memory EXCEPT _______. a) stress Incorrect. Stress can trigger memory challenges. b) having more information to remember c) having more information stored in memory d) hardening of the arteries Correct. Hardening of the arteries is an example of physical decline, which is unrelated to memory changes during middle age. Register to View Answerp. 280, C, LO=7.16, (2) Learning Objective 7.17- How do adults deal with the issues of work, relationships, parenting, and death? 151. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as that of ______. a) intimacy versus isolation Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of young adulthood as intimacy versus isolation. b) generativity versus stagnation c) identity versus role confusion Incorrect. Erikson identified identity versus role confusion as the major task in adolescence. d) integrity versus despair Register to View Answerp. 281, F, LO=7.17, (1) 152. According to Erikson, an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining ones sense of self, is called________ a) bonding b) intimacy Correct. Erikson defined intimacy as an emotional and psychological closeness that is based on the ability to trust, share, and care, while still maintaining ones sense of self. c) attachment Incorrect. Attachment refers to the bond that is formed between an infant and primary caregiver. d) attraction Register to View Answerp. 281, F, LO=7.17, (2) 153. Erik Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as that of ______. intimacy versus isolation b) identity versus role diffusion c) integrity versus despair Incorrect. Erikson saw integrity versus despair as a stage beginning in older adulthood. d) generativity versus stagnation Correct. Erikson saw the major challenge of middle adulthood as generativity versus stagnation. Register to View Answerp. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2) 154. Aaron is a middle-aged physician. He gives back to the community by acting as a mentor to teenagers interested in entering the medical profession. Erikson would say that Aaron is experiencing _________. a) intimacy b) identity c) generativity Correct. According to Erikson, mentoring is a kind of generativity. d) integrity Incorrect. According to Erikson, sense of integrity is usually established in older adulthood. Register to View Answerp. 282, A, LO=7.17, (3) a) 255 155. According to Erikson, if a middle-aged person is unable to focus outward and is still dealing with issues of intimacy or even identity, that person is experiencing __________. a) generativity b) stagnation Correct. Erikson used the term stagnation to refer to a situation in which someone in middle adulthood is still dealing with issues of intimacy and identity. c) ego integrity d) despair Incorrect. Erikson used the term despair to refer to a sense of deep regret over things that will never be accomplished because time has run out. Register to View Answerp. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2) 156. Psychologists say that an elderly person who is looking back over his or her life and coming to terms with the actions of that life is engaging in ___________. a) despair b) a sense of identity c) ego integrity Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself. d) a life review Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back and evaluates the life he or she has lived. Register to View Answerp. 282, F, LO=7.17, (1) 157. Hector is 70 years old and has just retired from a career as a lawyer. He is now spending time looking back on his life and is recognizing, as well as coming to terms with, mistakes, regrets, and unfinished business. Hector is engaging in a process called___________. a) despair b) sense of identity c) ego integrity Incorrect. Ego integrity is the best possible outcome of a life review, but it is not the term used for the process itself. d) life review Correct. A life review occurs when an older adult looks back on and evaluates the life he or she has lived. Register to View Answerp. 282, A, LO=7.17, (2) 158. Older adults who look back on their lives with regrets, wishing they could relive their lives, have not successfully resolved Eriksons psychosocial crisis of______________. a) integrity versus despair Correct. Integrity versus despair occurs during late adulthood. b) intimacy versus isolation c) generativity versus stagnation Incorrect. Generativity versus stagnation occurs during middle adulthood. d) identity versus identity confusion Register to View Answerp. 282, F, LO=7.17, (2) Learning Objective 7.18- What are the theories of why aging occurs? 159. The theory in which aging is attributed to our bodies organs and cell tissues simply wearing out with repeated use and abuse is called_________. a) activity theory b) wear-and-tear theory Correct. Wear and tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use. 256 c) disengagement theory d) cellular clock theory Incorrect. Cellular clock theory attributes aging to the limited amount of times a cell can reproduce to repair damage. Register to View Answerp. 283, F, LO=7.18, (1) 160. Which of the following theories sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the number of times they can reproduce to repair damage? a) wear-and-tear theory b) cellular clock theory Correct. Cellular clock theory assumes that there is a limitation on the number of times a cell can reproduce to repair damage. c) activity theory d) free radical theory Incorrect. The free radical theory explains damage to the body as arising from free radicals, or oxygen molecules that damage structures inside the cell. Register to View Answerp. 282, F, LO=7.18, (2) 161. The _______theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells, increasing with age. a) wear-and-tear theory b) cellular clock theory Incorrect. Cellular clock theory sees aging as a process whereby cells are assumed to have a limitation on the number of times they can reproduce to repair damage. c) disengagement theory d) free radical theory Correct. Free radical theory suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells. Register to View Answerp. 283, F, LO=7.18, (2) SG 162. The theory of adjustment to aging that assumes older people are happier if they remain active in some way, such as volunteering or developing a hobby, is called_________. a) activity theory Correct. Activity theory assumes older people are happier if they remain active. b) wear-and-tear theory Incorrect. Wear-and-tear theory attributes aging to the body wearing out with repeated use. c) disengagement theory d) cellular clock theory Register to View Answerp. 283, F, LO=7.18, (2) Learning Objective 7.19- What are the stages of death and dying? 163. The correct sequence of the five stages of death and dying postulated by Kbler-Ross is ______. a) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance Correct. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance are the correct sequences of the five stages of death and dying. b) denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, and depression c) anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, and depression Incorrect. In the five stages of death and dying, denial occurs before anger. d) anger, denial, bargaining, depression, and acceptance Register to View Answerp. 283284, C, LO=7.19, (1) 257 164. Mr. Beluga has just been told that he has a rare form of cancer. He insists that there has been a mistake and asks his physician to retake his medical tests. According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, Mr. Beluga is most likely in the _________stage of dying. a) anger Incorrect. Mr. Beluga is not showing any signs of anger, probably because he is refusing to believe that the diagnosis is real. b) bargaining c) denial Correct. By refusing to believe that the diagnosis is correct, Mr. Beluga is denying the reality of his situation. d) reactive Register to View Answerp. 283, A, LO=7.19, (2) 165. Leticia has just learned that she is terminally ill. She is now always irritable, often throws things on the floor, and yells at members of her family and the nurses who care for her. According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, Leticia is most likely in the _________stage of dying. a) anger Correct. By lashing out, Leticia is showing signs of anger, the first stage of dying, according to Kbler-Ross. b) bargaining c) denial Incorrect. Leticias actions are more indicative of anger than of denial, which is the second stage of dying, according to Kulber-Ross. d) reactive Register to View Answerp. 284, A, LO=7.19, (2) 166. Several weeks of diagnostic tests have revealed that cancer has spread throughout Barrys body. His physician suggested that he take care of important matters. Barry realizes his familys home needs repairs, so he arranges to have that done right away. To relieve his family of the agony of planning his funeral, he has made all the arrangements. Barry tells his minister he has had a good life and just wants to make sure he provides for his family after his death. This description fits the stage Kbler-Ross called_________. a) denial b) acceptance Correct. Barry exhibits acceptance of his impending death by making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to provide for his family. c) bargaining d) depression Incorrect. By making his own funeral arrangements and wanting to provide for his family, Barry has begun to break ties with the living with preparation for his death and entered the acceptance stage. Register to View Answerp. 284, A, LO=7.19, (3) SG Applying Psychology to Everyday Life: ADHDNot Just for Children Learning Objective 7.20- How does attention deficit hyperactivity disorder affect adults? 167. Which of the following are symptoms of adult ADHD? a) obsessiveness, delusions, hallucinations b) hopelessness, losing things, fatigue c) impatience, obsessiveness, fatigue Incorrect. Obsessiveness and fatigue are not symptoms of ADHD. d) restlessness, impulsiveness, losing things Correct. Restlessness, impulsiveness, and losing things are symptoms of adult ADHD. 258 Register to View Answerp. 285, F, LO=7.20, (2) TRUE OR FALSE 168. The scientific study of changes that occur in people as they age from conception to death is called gerontology. Register to View Answerp. 250, LO=7.1 169. A researcher who studies different age groups, or cohorts, at one time is using the cross-sectional design. Register to View Answerp. 250, LO=7.1 170. Klinefelters syndrome is a chromosome disorder resulting from an XXY pattern of the 23rd chromosomes, causing reduced male characteristics and obesity. Register to View Answerp. 254, LO=7.3 171. Dizygotic twins develop when a fertilized egg divides into two parts that develop into separate embryos. Register to View Answerp. 255, LO=7.4 172. The germinal period begins at conception and ends when the organism firmly attaches to the wall of the uterus. Register to View Answerp. 256, LO=7.6 173. Reflexes help infants to survive until they are capable of learning more complex means of interaction. Register to View Answerp. 260, LO=7.7 174. By the time a child enters the concrete operational stage of cognitive development he or she is capable of grasping the concept of conservation. Register to View Answerp. 266, LO=7.9 175. Gender is the physical characteristic of being male or female. Register to View Answerp. 274, LO=7.12 176. Menopause is cessation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation. Register to View Answerp. 279, LO=7.16 177. Most peoples vision and hearing remain at peak functioning until around age 50. Register to View Answerp. 279, LO=7.16 178. According to Erikson, developing a consistent sense of identity is key to forming intimate relationships. Register to View Answerp. 281, LO=7.17 179. According to Erikson, middle adulthood is the time when individuals sturggle with generativity versus stagnation. Register to View Answerp. 281, LO=7.17 180. Cellular clock theory of aging suggests that cells have an unlimited number of times they can reproduce and repair damage. Register to View Answerp. 282283, LO=7.18 181. The wear-and-tear theory of aging suggests that unstable oxygen molecules cause damage to the structure of cells, increasing with age. Register to View Answerp. 283, LO=7.18 182. Elisabeth Kbler-Ross identified exactly three stages of dying: anger, depression, and acceptance. Register to View Answerp. 283284, LO=7.19 259 SHORT ANSWER 183. Discuss the terms nature and nurture as they pertain to human development. p. 251, LO=7.2 184. What causes Downs syndrome and what are its effects? p. 254, LO=7.3 185. List and define the three stages of prenatal development. p. 255259, LO=7.4 186. Describe two reflexes that are present at birth. p. 260, LO=7.7 187. Define and explain Piagets sensorimotor stage and the milestones of this stage. p. 264265, LO=7.9 188. List and explain the three types of temperament described by Chess and Thomas. p. 270, LO=7.11 189. Explain the terms gender and gender identity. p. 274, LO=7.12 190. Explain the adolescent concepts of the personal fable and imaginary audience. p. 276, LO=7.14 191. Explain the terms climacteric, perimenopause, and menopause. p. 279, LO=7.16 192. Explain the wear-and-tear theory of aging. p. 283, LO=7.18 260 ESSAY 193. Distinguish the major research methods used in the field of human development and provide examples of each. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? p. 250251, LO=7.1 194. What is the critical period? What are teratogens? List four common teratogens and discuss their effects on development. p. 257258, LO=7.11 195. Summarize Jean Piagets stages of cognitive development and the major milestones accomplished and limitations at each stage. p. 264267, LO=7.14 196. Summarize Erksons eight stages of psychosocial development. Provide an example for each stage that describes successful resolution of each stage. p. 273, LO=7.12 197. Summarize Kbler-Rosss five stages of death and dying. How are they experienced? p. 283284, LO=7.19 261 ... View Full Document

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