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Practice Nutrition Final Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Intracellular water volume depends primarily on the concentration of A. sodium and chloride. B. phosphate and potassium. C. potassium and sodium. D. chloride and potassium. 2. Water regulates body temperature through heat loss via A. conduction. B. radiation. C. respiration. D. evaporation. 3. A liter of perspiration lost by the body represents ____ kcalories. A. 200 B. 400 C. 600 D. 800 4. Adult women need how much total water intake per day? A. 1.5 liters B. 2 liters C. 2.7 liters D. 3 liters 5. Joe is a wrestler and during his workouts he loses 2 pounds. How much water would he have to drink to replenish this water weight loss? A. 2 cups B. 3 cups C. 4 cups D. 5 cups 6. Minerals are classified in which way? A. Major minerals are needed in amounts of 500 mg per day or greater. B. Trace minerals are needed in amounts of 100 mg per day or less. C. Trace minerals are needed in amounts of 10 mg per day or less. D. Major minerals are needed in amounts of 200 mg per day or greater. 7. All foods in their unprocessed form tend to be low in sodium except A. milk and dairy products. B. whole grains. C. legumes. D. fruits. 8. Consumption of a diet high in salt by a healthy individual will A. cause damage to the kidneys. B. result in edema. C. increase fecal excretion of sodium. D. increase urinary excretion of sodium. 9. Of the following, the best source of potassium is A. fresh spinach. B. milk. C. white bread. D. canned tuna. 10. Which would you expect to furnish the largest amount of calcium? A. 1 medium egg B. 1 slice of bread C. 1 ounce of cheese D. 1 medium apple 11. Magnesium is provided in the diet primarily by A. whole grains. B. meat. C. legumes. D. milk. 12. We get most of the sulfur in our diet from A. carbohydrates. B. water. C. fats and oils. D. proteins. 13. The best food source of iron is A. whole wheat bread. B. egg yolk. C. raisins. D. liver. 14. A reduced sense of taste is associated with a deficiency of A. iron. B. zinc. C. chromium. D. selenium. 15. Which of the following foods is highest in selenium? A. Raisins B. Special K C. Salmon D. Tuna 16. A goiter may form as a consequence of an inadequate intake of A. copper. B. magnesium. C. sodium. D. iodide. 17. The mineral that gives hardness to teeth and bones is A. selenium. B. zinc. C. copper. D. fluoride. 18. This mineral can be protective for the teeth when introduced into the water supply; however it can cause tooth mottling when consumed in high quantities. A. Fluoride B. Copper C. Iron D. Selenium 19. Manganese functions as A. a cofactor for many different enzymes. B. a component of thyroid hormone. C. a cofactor for the absorption of vitamin A. D. an essential mineral for amino acid metabolism. 20. Hypertension is defined as a systolic/diastolic blood pressure at or above ____ mm Hg. A. 100/50 B. 120/80 C. 140/90 D. 180/100 21. Which of the following is not a benefit of physical fitness? A. Better sleep habits B. Less body fat C. Less muscle mass D. Lower blood pressure 22. The conversion of glucose to lactic acid is called A. aerobic glucose breakdown. B. anaerobic glucose breakdown. C. aerobic glycogen breakdown. D. anaerobic glycogen breakdown. 23. For aerobic glucose breakdown to take place, two- and three-carbon fragments must enter which cell organelle to be metabolized into carbon dioxide and water? A. Nucleus B. Mitochondrion C. Golgi body D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 24. Zelda is a marathon runner. She completes the marathon in 2 hours and 30 minutes. Which of the following is true regarding her fuel use during the marathon? A. If she runs out of muscle glycogen at the 2-hour mark, she will not feel fatigue. B. Anaerobic glucose breakdown, using muscle glycogen, will provide most of the ATP for the marathon. C. Liver glycogen is the preferred fuel during intense muscular activity lasting less than 2 hours. D. As exercise duration increases beyond 20 to 30 minutes, blood glucose will become increasingly important to spare muscle glycogen, so Zelda will have the ability to sprint across the finish line. 25. To help maintain adequate glycogen stores, an endurance athlete should eat A. broccoli and cheese soup. B. bagels and oranges. C. peanut butter and apples. D. tuna sandwich and milk. 26. For which of the following activities would carbohydrate loading be warranted? A. Marathon B. Weight lifting C. Football D. 10 kilometer race 27. A pre-event meal should A. be eaten 1 hour before the event. B. contain at least 600 kcalories. C. be low in fat and fiber, high in carbohydrate and moderate in protein. D. be high in fat to prevent hunger. 28. All of the following are good practices to keep well hydrated except A. taking salt tablets and drinking plenty of fluid before the workout. B. drinking freely up to 2 hours before an event. C. consuming 1.5 to 2.5 cups of fluid 2-3 hours prior to the event start. D. consuming 0.5 to 1.5 cups of fluid every 15 minutes during the workout. 29. Which of the following supposedly speeds the removal of lactic acid from contracting muscles? A. Caffeine B. Growth hormone C. Phosphate loading D. Bicarbonate loading 30. A physically active lifestyle may delay the onset and treat all the following except A. osteoporosis. B. cancer. C. heart disease. D. obesity. 31. Criteria for diagnosing anorexia nervosa include all the following except A. body weight 15 percent below expected. B. intense fear of becoming too thin. C. feels fat even when emaciated. D. amenorrhea. 32. Criteria for diagnosing bulimia nervosa includes all the following except A. overconcern with body shape and weight. B. purposely eats large quantities of food and feels tremendous control in doing it. C. uses purging techniques like self-induced vomiting. D. two binge eating episodes per week for at least 3 months. 33. Prevention of eating disorders might include any of the following except A. discourage dieting. B. teach normal, healthy approach to eating and nutrition. C. encourage eating in relation to hunger and satiety cues. D. weighing often. 34. Which characteristic is more indicative of bulimia than anorexia nervosa? A. Rigid, disciplined dieting B. Feeling a sense of power because of strict discipline and self-denial C. Fluctuating weight D. Lack of menstruation 35. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of night eating syndrome? A. Not feeling hungry in the morning and delaying the first meal until several hours after waking B. Overeating in the evening with more than one-third of daily food intake after dinner C. Difficulty staying awake and not feeling hungry before falling asleep at night D. Feeling depressed, especially at night 36. Night eating syndrome is characterized by evening hyperphagia which is defined as A. eating all of total daily calories after the evening meal. B. eating one-half of total daily calories after the evening meal. C. eating one-half of total daily calories at the evening meal. D. eating more than one-third of total daily calories after the evening meal. 37. All of the following are true of an anorexic person who falls below 75 percent of normal body weight except A. hospitalization is almost always necessary. B. cure becomes very difficult. C. premature death is likely. D. loss of menstrual period becomes irreversible. 38. A person with anorexia nervosa is likely to A. come from a low socioeconomic class. B. come from a loose, flexible home. C. grow up in a perfectionistic home with very high expectations. D. have a mother with a healthy view of the body and food habits. 39. A condition of self-induced severe weight loss, particularly common in adolescent girls, is called A. malnutrition. B. anorexia nervosa. C. bulimia nervosa. D. binge-eating disorder. 40. The incidence of anorexia nervosa is highest in A. adolescent males from middle and high socioeconomic classes. B. adolescent females from middle and upper socioeconomic classes. C. adolescent males from low-income classes. D. preteen females from low-income classes. 41. Which of the following is not characteristic of individuals who develop eating disorders? A. From middle- and upper-class families B. Highly competitive C. From families with unrealistic expectations D. Have high self-esteem 42. Which of the following is not an early warning sign of anorexia nervosa? A. Withdrawing from family and friends B. Cooking a large meal and watching others eat, but not eating themselves C. Sleeping often and having no interest in exercise D. Becoming irritable and hostile 43. The slower basal metabolism that accompanies anorexia nervosa is caused by A. decreased synthesis of growth hormone. B. decreased synthesis of thyroid hormone. C. low intake of iron. D. hypoglycemia. 44. In anorexia nervosa, low blood potassium levels are associated with all of the following except A. poor nutrient intake. B. diuretic use. C. heart rhythm disturbances. D. low protein intake. 45. A major characteristic of an anorexic person that significantly inhibits successful treatment is A. suppression of feelings. B. denial of the problem. C. rationalization of the problem. D. high self-esteem. 46. One of the best ways to get anorexics into treatment is to A. threaten them. B. deny the disorder. C. keep offering them food. D. have group intervention of friends and family to confront them with the problem. 47. The first goal in nutrition therapy for anorexia nervosa is A. to increase weight to return the basal metabolic rate to normal. B. to stop further weight loss. C. hospitalization and forced feeding. D. rapid weight gain to reverse physical symptoms. 48. A common characteristic of both bulimics and anorexics is that they are A. male. B. born underweight for height. C. perfectionists. D. able to recognize their behavior as abnormal. 49. All of the following are associated with bulimia except A. less sexual activity than the general population. B. compulsive lying. C. drug abuse. D. shoplifting. 50. Jane is a binge eater. Which of the following is probably not true about her? A. There is a high probability that she comes from an alcoholic family and may have been sexually abused. B. She uses food to numb herself in response to disruptive emotions such as anger and hurt. C. She binges on large quantities of food and purges. D. She most likely does not have the persistent preoccupation with body shape, weight, and thinness that anorexics and bulimics have. 51. Failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that does not meet nutritional needs is termed A. starvation. B. undernutrition. C. emaciation. D. chronic hunger. 52. The majority of hungry people live in A. Africa. B. Asia. C. Latin America. D. Europe. 53. The largest increases in numbers of chronically hungry people currently occur in A. Africa. B. Asia. C. Latin America. D. Europe. 54. Impaired development or function that results from an inadequate intake, absorption, or utilization of the nutrients needed for optimal growth, development, and body function is best termed A. malnutrition. B. undernutrition. C. malabsorption. D. hunger. 55. All of the following are effects of semistarvation except A. decreased energy level and strength. B. poor concentration. C. lack of hunger and appetite. D. reduced immunity. 56. Elements influencing food/population ratio include all of the following except A. high socioeconomic status. B. war and political/civil unrest. C. rapid depletion of natural resources. D. AIDS. 57. The manipulation of nature (plants, animals, and bacteria) to increase production and food yield and the use of living things to manufacture products is called A. biofeedback. B. gene splicing. C. biotechnology. D. agribusiness. 58. According to the conceptual framework of malnutrition developed by the United Nations Children's Fund in 1990, the immediate causes of malnutrition are A. insufficient health services. B. human and economic resources. C. inadequate dietary intake and unsatisfactory health. D. inadequate access to food and childcare. 59. Which of the following is not true about AIDS? A. It is transmitted in body fluids. B. After infection with the HIV virus, AIDS symptoms generally begin showing within a year. C. Eating a balanced diet cannot prevent or stave off HIV infection. D. Eating a good diet cannot cure the disease. 60. Which of the following is not true about the social and economic impact of AIDS? A. AIDS tends to have the greatest social and economic impact on developing countries. B. AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States. C. Most governments have responded slowly to the AIDS epidemic. D. A significant portion of the male population of many developing countries will be lost to AIDS and will decrease the workforce that can make a country more productive. 61. Increasing the acid content of a food is especially effective in preventing the growth of A. yeast. B. molds. C. Clostridium botulinum. D. Staphylococcus aureus. 62. Food commonly associated with Staphylococcus aureus include(s) A. undercooked pork products. B. meat, poultry, eggs. C. undercooked poultry. D. cooked beef. 63. Food commonly associated with Salmonella intoxication are A. gravies and sauces. B. chicken and eggs. C. seafood and raw fish. D. custards and cream-filled pastries. 64. Which of the following is not characteristic of Salmonella foodborne illness? A. It is seldom fatal. B. Symptoms may develop in 5 to 72 hours. C. It can be avoided by not allowing susceptible foods to stand at room temperature more for than 2 hours. D. It can cause acute respiratory failure. 65. Foodborne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens A. is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers. B. appears within 12 to 36 hours of ingesting contaminated food. C. usually is caused by consuming improperly home-canned food. D. can cause human illness in about 4 hours. 66. All of the following are reasons why the risk of having foodborne illness is increasing except A. the food industry's attempt to increase shelf-life of foods. B. the increasing use of food irradiation. C. increased preparation of foods in centralized kitchens. D. increased preparation of foods in processing plants. 67. Aseptic processing involves A. quick freezing food after it is prepared. B. drying foods to decrease water content. C. sterilizing the package and food separately and then packaging the food. D. the addition of chemical preservatives. 68. James operates a food service establishment. He should make sure his employees practice all of the following rules to prevent foodborne illness except A. serving meals made with raw fish. B. cooking chicken to 165F. C. cooling leftovers rapidly in shallow pans. D. avoiding coughing and sneezing over foods. 69. The greatest health risk from food today is contamination via A. fungi. B. viruses and bacteria. C. parasites. D. prions. 70. The most common parasites in the North American food supply are A. anisakis and scromboid. B. scromboid and dinoflagellates. C. Trichella spiralis and anisakis. D. dinoflagellates and anisakis. 71. Covering cuts or sores on hands and avoiding sneezing when handling food are important to prevent foodborne illness from A. Salmonella. B. Staphylococcus. C. Clostridium perfringens. D. Clostridium botulinum. 72. O157:H7 produces _____________ that can cause severe illness, including severe bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome. A. an infection B. urea C. spores D. a toxin 73. Which of the following statements is not true about the "Danger Zone"? A. It is the temperature range at which bacteria grow quickly. B. Do not store food within this temperature range for more than 1 to 2 hours. C. It includes the temperature range 65oF to 165oF. D. Keep foods out of the danger zone by keeping hot foods hot and cold foods cold. 74. Experts speculate that about 70% of foodborne illness cases go undiagnosed because they result from ________ causes. A. viral B. bacterial C. fungal D. microbial 75. Most strains of E. coli are A. infectious. B. harmful. C. toxic. D. harmless. 76. The first trimester of pregnancy A. involves a rapid increase in cell size rather than cell number. B. is the least critical time during fetal development. C. is a time of particular importance to avoid nutritional deficiencies and insults to prevent harm to the fetus. D. is a time when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus. 77. Which trimester is an especially critical period when poor nutrition or drug use can result in birth defects? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Final 78. All of the following are poor pregnancy practices except A. restricting weight gain to 15 to 18 pounds. B. smoking. C. gaining 25 to 35 pounds. D. completely avoiding exercise. 79. Extra kcalories for pregnancy are needed mostly during which trimester(s)? A. First B. Second and third C. Second D. First and third 80. Which of the following is true about protein intake during pregnancy? A. The RDA for protein increases by about 25 grams per day over that for the nonpregnant state. B. Women probably do not get enough protein in typical diets to meet their total needs for pregnancy. C. The RDA for protein increases by about 10 to 15 grams per day. D. The RDA for protein increases by about 5 to 10 grams per day. 81. Mineral needs generally are increased during pregnancy. All of the following are needed in higher quantities except A. iron. B. iodine. C. sodium. D. zinc. 82. All of the following are true about prenatal supplements for pregnancy except A. there is significant evidence that they are harmful. B. supplements of vitamin A can be dangerous. C. supplements commonly contain iron and folate. D. physicians routinely prescribe them. 83. Consumption of non-food items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as A. hyperemesis. B. pica. C. pregnancy-induced hypertension. D. eclampsia. 84. Which of the following is true about lifestyle habits and pregnancy? A. Repeated intake of four or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting harm(s) the fetus. B. It is vital that mothers abstain from NutraSweet because the phenylalanine present can cause mental retardation in most babies. C. Cigarette smoking should be limited to one pack per day. D. The only risk to the baby when a mother uses cocaine is cocaine addiction. 85. The hormone that triggers "let down" or milk release is A. oxytocin. B. prolactin. C. estrogen. D. progesterone. 86. Which of the following is true about lactation? A. Only about 50 percent of all women can breastfeed. B. The most significant reason why women do not breastfeed is that they cannot produce enough milk. C. Some women cannot breastfeed because they do not have big enough breasts. D. The major reason why women do not breastfeed is lack of information. 87. Which of the following is not true about the let-down reflex? A. It is needed to make milk available to the infant. B. It can be inhibited by anxiety or nervous tension. C. It is triggered by the release of the hormone estrogen. D. After a few weeks of lactation, it becomes automatic. 88. During each feeding, human milk changes composition in which of the following ways? A. carbohydrate increases B. fat increases C. minerals decrease D. protein decreases 89. Advantages of breastfeeding include all of the following except A. improves infant's vision. B. reduces the risk of food allergies. C. provides antibodies while infant's immune system is still immature. D. decreases ear infections. 90. Women suffering from chronic alcoholism produce children with a recognizable pattern of malformations called A. chronic cirrhosis. B. muscular dystrophy. C. cystic fibrosis. D. fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). 91. According to present day growth charts, an infant will double his or her birth weight at about ______ months of age. A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 9 92. For a girl, undernutrition could be expected to have its greatest effect on height if it occurs A. before the onset of menses. B. 2 years after the onset of menses. C. 1 year after the onset of menses. D. 3 years after the onset of menses. 93. Approximately one third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is A. weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein diets. B. diets low in essential fatty acids. C. weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein diets. D. diets high in protein. 94. For children 3 years of age and older, the most useful growth charts are A. BMI for age. B. head circumference and height for age. C. weight for height and head circumference. D. weight for age and height for age. 95. Brain growth is most rapid in infancy but stops by about what age? A. 9 months B. 18 months C. 24 months D. 3 years 96. The new WHO growth standards stress that _______________ is the biological norm for infant nutrition. A. feeding infant formula B. breastfeeding C. feeding cows' milk D. feeding infant formula and cereal 97. The fluid requirements of the infant are approximately __________ cups per day. A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3 98. Iron stores present at birth generally are depleted by ______ to ______ months. A. 1; 2 B. 4; 6 C. 6; 8 D. 8; 10 99. Many formula products for infants contain A. lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils. B. soy protein, glucose, and vegetable oils. C. fructose and heat-treated cow's milk protein. D. galactose and vegetable oils. 100. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's diet is A. less than 1 month. B. 1 to 4 months. C. 4 to 6 months. D. over 8 months. 101. It is impractical to introduce solid foods into an infant's diet before 4 to 6 months of age, because until that time A. kidney function is limited. B. starch-digesting enzymes are not very active. C. food allergies are less likely. D. head and neck control are not established. 102. Iron-deficiency anemia in the latter part of infancy is associated with A. a diet containing few solid foods. B. a diet dominated by commercial infant cereals. C. medicinal iron supplements. D. a diet dominated by carbohydrates. 103. Infants need fat because it aids in absorption of several vitamins and also helps the ______________ to develop. A. kidneys B. nervous system C. reproductive system D. skin 104. Which of the following is not true about snacks for preschool children? A. They are inappropriate and should be avoided. B. They are appropriate if timed so that appetite is not impaired at meals. C. They can assist in introducing children to new foods. D. They are appropriate if the snack contributes to the total day's nutrient intake. 105. All of the following are recommended to help preschoolers eat vegetables except A. show the child you like vegetables. B. promise dessert when vegetables are eaten. C. offer new vegetables with familiar foods. D. serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy. 106. Children will more effectively develop the breakfast eating habit if A. they are driven to school so that they have time to eat. B. parents eat breakfast with them. C. breakfast is prepared for them to eat while their parents are dressing for work. D. they are given money to buy breakfast on the way to school. 107. Which of the following is an appropriate feeding philosophy for children? A. Parents should be responsible for choosing how much and when the child should eat. B. Children should be responsible for deciding how much and when they should eat. C. Children should be forced to eat what is good for them. D. Parents should present nutritious food choices and not worry about their own eating habits. 108. Nutrition experts have created a version of MyPyramid for children aged A. 1-3. B. 2-5. C. 4-6. D. 6-11. 109. Approximately what percentage of obese adolescents become obese adults? A. 30% B. 50% C. 80% D. 90% 110. In the United States, more than _____ percent of school-age children are overweight or obese. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 25 111. Which of the following is the best definition of life span? A. The time an average person can expect to live B. The potential oldest age a person can reach C. The rate of death from a variety of diseases D. The rate of disability from a variety of diseases 112. Currently, life expectancy in North America is about ______ years for men and ______ for women. A. 78; 71 B. 75; 75 C. 78; 80 D. 75; 80 113. What is the major reason that life expectancy has increased during the last 80 years? A. Better diet B. Control of infectious disease C. Increase in exercise D. Improved medical technology 114. Aging most likely is the result of A. slow cell death. B. acute death of an organ. C. complete death of the immune system. D. slow cell multiplication. 115. The physiological changes of aging that will decrease food utilization in the body include all of the following except A. decreased kidney function. B. decreased liver function. C. decreased insulin function. D. constipation. 116. All of the following tend to happen as one ages except A. the liver's detoxifying capacity deteriorates. B. the tendency to develop gallstones increases. C. high chromium intake impairs glucose tolerance. D. the digestive functions of the pancreas may decline. 117. Consuming adequate ______ and ______ helps maximize the health of the immune system in elderly individuals. A. protein; selenium B. iron; copper C. calcium; protein D. protein; zinc 118. The best way to help elderly people who have impaired vision or hearing to eat a nutritional diet is to A. prepare food for them. B. have TV dinners available. C. do food shopping for them. D. sit with them when they eat. 119. The decrease in lean tissue that occurs with aging can best be prevented by A. eating a lot of protein. B. exercise and a weight training program. C. eating a lot of kcalories. D. taking vitamin and mineral supplements. 120. ______ percent of the elderly population regularly take multiple prescription drugs. A. Twenty-five B. Thirty-five C. Fifty D. Sixty 121. Use of certain diuretics can increase the need for what nutrient? A. Calcium B. Sulfur C. Potassium D. Magnesium 122. Use of which of the following medications could cause appetite loss in an elderly person? A. Diuretics B. Antidepressants C. Antipsychotics D. Aspirin 123. Because elderly individuals need similar amounts of nutrients as their younger counterparts but less kcalories, they should focus on diet plans that emphasize A. nutrient density. B. vitamin E. C. protein. D. whole grains. 124. Which of the following is true about alcohol consumption by the elderly? A. It is absorbed only in the small intestine. B. Alcohol absorption is independent of the amount of stomach contents. C. Most of the alcohol is metabolized by the kidney. D. Alcohol can interfere with the effect of medication in the body. 125. The 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that those who choose to drink alcoholic beverages should do so in moderation, defined as the consumption of up to __ drink per day for women and older adults and up to __ drinks per day for men. A. 0; 1 B. 1; 2 C. 2; 3 D. 3; 4 ... View Full Document

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