Ch-18-Test-Questions
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Ch-18-Test-Questions

Course Number: BIO 1105, Spring 2010

College/University: McKendree

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Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 18 Regulation of Gene Expression Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What does the operon model attempt to explain? A) the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria B) bacterial resistance to antibiotics C) how genes move between homologous regions of DNA D) the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell E) horizontal transmission of plant viruses 2) The role of a metabolite that...

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8e Biology, (Campbell) Chapter 18 Regulation of Gene Expression Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What does the operon model attempt to explain? A) the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria B) bacterial resistance to antibiotics C) how genes move between homologous regions of DNA D) the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell E) horizontal transmission of plant viruses 2) The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it. E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it. 3) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium. D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. 4) This protein is produced by a regulatory gene: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor 5) A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor 6) A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to "turn off" genes: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor 7) When this is taken up by the cell, it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator: A) operon B) inducer 1 C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor 8) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure. 9) The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) the cyclic AMP levels are low. C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell. D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low. 10) Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon A) occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present. C) starts when the pathway's product is present. D) stops when the pathway's product is present. E) does not result in the production of enzymes. 11) How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon? A) It terminates production of repressor molecules. B) It degrades the substrate allolactose. C) It stimulates splicing of the encoded genes. D) It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. E) It binds steroid hormones and controls translation. 12) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present. C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive. E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. 13) Allolactose induces the synthesis of the enzyme lactase. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator. 14) Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways? A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order 2 B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome 15) In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following? A) turn off translation of their mRNA B) alter the level of production of various enzymes C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes D) inactivate their mRNA molecules E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins Use the following scenario to answer the following questions. Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. 16) If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? A) Three structural genes will no longer be expressed. B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. C) The operon will no longer be inducible. D) Beta galactosidase will be produced. E) The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly. 17) If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The operon will never be transcribed. D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced. 18) If she moves the repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which will you expect to occur? A) The repressor will no longer be made. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer. D) The lac operon will be expressed continuously. E) The lac operon will function normally. 19) If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect would then be a measurable effect? A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell 20) Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to 3 A) having different genes. B) having different chromosomes. C) using different genetic codes. D) having different genes expressed. E) having unique ribosomes. 21) Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinately control the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) organization of the genes into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once B) each of the genes sharing a common control element, allowing several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of their location in the genome C) organizing the genes into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit D) a single repressor able to turn off several related genes E) environmental signals that enter the cell and bind directly to their promoters 22) If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis. C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. D) be very actively transcribed and translated. E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it. 23) Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of A) genetic mutation. B) chromosomal rearrangements. C) karyotypes. D) epigenetic phenomena. E) translocation. 24) Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or functional RNA? A) 83% B) 46% C) 32% D) 13% E) 1.5% 25) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. B) DNA amplification and histone methylation. C) DNA acetylation and methylation. D) DNA methylation and histone acetylation. E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation. 26) In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of A) transcription. B) translation. C) mRNA stability. D) mRNA splicing. E) protein stability. 4 27) In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with A) euchromatin only. B) heterochromatin only. C) very tightly packed DNA only. D) highly methylated DNA only. E) both euchromatin and histone acetylation. 28) A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. Which is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line? A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome. B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome. C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell genome. D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene. E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation. 29) During DNA replication, A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied. C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication. D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template. E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA in the nucleus. 30) Eukaryotic cells can control gene expression by which of the following mechanisms? A) histone acetylation of nucleosomes B) DNA acetylation C) RNA induced modification of chromatin structure D) repression of operons E) induction of operators in the promoter 31) In eukaryotes, general transcription factors A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes. B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box. C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing. D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors. E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription. 32) This binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription: A) enhancer B) promoter C) activator D) repressor E) terminator 33) This can inhibit transcription by blocking the binding of positively acting transcription factors to the DNA: A) enhancer B) promoter 5 C) activator D) repressor E) terminator 34) This is the site in the DNA located near the end of the final exon, encoding an RNA sequence that determines the 3' end of the transcript: A) enhancer B) promoter C) activator D) repressor E) terminator 35) Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) activating translation of certain mRNAs. C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs. D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes. E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA. 36) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing phosphorylation of amino acids adjacent to methylated amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes 37) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes 38) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. One of her colleagues suggested she try increased methylation of C nucleotides in a mammalian system. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes 39) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. She tried decreasing the amount of methylation enzymes in the embryonic stem cells and then allowed the cells to further differentiate. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation 6 B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes 40) Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP C) protein-based hormones D) other transcription factors E) tRNA 41) Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which of the following? A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. E) Eukaryotic coded polypeptides often require cleaving of signal sequences before localization. 42) Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell? A) enzymatic shortening of the poly(A) tail B) removal of the 5' cap C) methylation of C nucleotides D) memethylation of histones E) removal of one or more exons 43) Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? A) a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2 B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization 44) The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called A) RNA interference. B) RNA obstruction. C) RNA blocking. D) RNA targeting. E) RNA disposal. 45) At the beginning of this century there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. There was surprise expressed by many that the number of protein-coding sequences is much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following accounts for most of the rest? A) "junk" DNA that serves no possible purpose B) rRNA and tRNA coding sequences C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed 7 D) non-protein coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function E) non-protein coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs without biological function 46) Which of the following best describes siRNA? A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences 47) One of the hopes for use of recent knowledge gained about non-coding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans 48) Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? A) It degrades single-stranded DNA. B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA. C) It degrades mRNA with no poly(A) tail. D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation. E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses. 49) In a series of experiments, the enzyme Dicer has been inactivated in cells from various vertebrates, and the centromere is abnormally formed from chromatin. Which of the following is most likely to occur? A) The usual mRNAs transcribed from centromeric DNA will be missing from the cells. B) Tetrads will no longer be able to form during meiosis I. C) Centromeres will be euchromatic rather than heterochromatic and the cells will soon die in culture. D) The cells will no longer be able to resist bacterial contamination. E) The of DNA the centromeres will no longer be able to replicate. 50) Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained? A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions. B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA. C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced. D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently. E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible. A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method. 51) The researcher in question measures the amount of new polypeptide production in embryos from 28 hours following fertilization and the results show a steady and significant rise in polypeptide concentration over that time. The researcher concludes that A) his measurement skills must be faulty. B) the results are due to building new cell membranes to compartmentalize dividing nuclei. 8 C) the resulting new polypeptides are due to translation of maternal mRNAs. D) the new polypeptides were inactive and not measurable until fertilization. E) polypeptides were attached to egg membranes until this time. 52) The researcher continues to study the reactions of the embryo to these new proteins and you hypothesize that he is most likely to see which of the following (while embryonic genes are still not being expressed)? A) The cells begin to differentiate. B) The proteins are evenly distributed throughout the embryo. C) Larval features begin to make their appearance. D) Spatial axes (anterior posterior, etc.) begin to be determined. E) The embryo begins to lose cells due to apoptosis from no further gene expression. 53) The researcher measures the concentration of the polypeptides from different regions in the early embryo and finds the following pattern (darker shading = greater concentration): Which of the following would be his most logical assumption? A) The substance has moved quickly from region 5 to region 1. B) Some other material in the embryo is causing accumulation in region 1 due to differential binding. C) The cytosol is in constant movement, dispersing the polypeptide. D) The substance is produced in region 1 and diffuses toward region 5. E) The substance must have entered the embryo from the environment near region 1. 54) You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an Register to View AnswerYou explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins. B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same. C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene. D) An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life. E) You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation. 55) In humans, the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of adults. This is due to A) nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development. B) identical genes that generate many copies of the ribosomes needed for fetal globin production. C) pseudogenes, which interfere with gene expression in adults. D) the attachment of methyl groups to cytosine following birth, which changes the type of hemoglobin produced. E) histone proteins changing shape during embryonic development. 56) The process of cellular differentiation is a direct result of A) differential gene expression. B) morphogenesis. 9 C) cell division. D) apoptosis. E) differences in cellular genomes. 57) The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote. B) genes are lost during differentiation. C) the differentiated state is normally very unstable. D) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA. E) differentiation does not occur in plants. 58) A cell that remains entirely flexible in its developmental possibilities is said to be A) differentiated. B) determined. C) totipotent. D) genomically equivalent. E) epigenetic. 59) Differentiation of cells is not easily reversible because it involves A) changes in the nucleotide sequence of genes within the genome. B) changes in chromatin structure that make certain regions of the genome more accessible. C) chemical modifications of histones and DNA methylation. D) frameshift mutations and inversions. E) excision of some coding sequences. 60) In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that A) embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent. B) embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent. C) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells. D) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells. E) embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body. 61) Which of the following statements is true about stem cells? A) Stem cells can continually reproduce and are not subject to mitotic control. B) Stem cells can differentiate into specialized cells. C) Stem cells are found only in bone marrow. D) Stem cells are found only in the adult human brain. E) Stem cell DNA lacks introns. 62) What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo? A) cell division B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins C) determination D) changes in the size and shape of the cell E) changes resulting from induction 63) In most cases, differentiation is controlled at which level? A) replication of the DNA B) nucleosome formation C) transcription 10 D) translation E) post-translational activation of the proteins 64) Which of the following serve as sources of developmental information? A) cytoplasmic determinants such as mRNAs and proteins produced before fertilization B) signal molecules produced by the maturing zygote C) ubiquitous enzymes such as DNA polymerase and DNA ligase D) paternally deposited proteins E) specific operons within the zygote genome 65) The MyoD protein A) can promote muscle development in all cell types. B) is a transcription factor that binds to and activates the transcription of muscle-related genes. C) was used by researchers to convert differentiated muscle cells into liver cells. D) magnifies the effects of other muscle proteins. E) is a target for other proteins that bind to it. 66) The gene for which protein would most likely be expressed as a result of MyoD activity? A) myosin B) crystallin C) albumin D) hemoglobin E) DNA polymerase 67) The general process that leads to the differentiation of cells is called A) determination. B) specialization. C) identification. D) differentialization. E) cellularization. 68) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development? A) morphogenesis B) determination C) induction D) differentiation E) pattern formation 69) Which of the following is established prior to fertilization in Drosophila eggs? A) the anterior-posterior and dorsal-ventral axes B) the position of the future segments C) the position of the future wings, legs, and antennae D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 70) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about A) the anterior-posterior axis. B) the dorsal-ventral axis. C) the left-right axis. 11 D) segmentation. E) lethal genes. 71) If a Drosophila female has a homozygous mutation for a maternal effect gene, A) she will not develop past the early embryonic stage. B) all of her offspring will show the mutant phenotype, regardless of their genotype. C) only her male offspring will show the mutant phenotype. D) her offspring will show the mutant phenotype only if they are also homozygous for the mutation. E) only her female offspring will show the mutant phenotype. 72) Mutations in these genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers 73) These genes are expressed by the mother, and their products are deposited into the developing egg: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers 74) These genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior axis of the Drosophila embryo: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers 75) These genes form gradients and help establish the axes and other features of an embryo: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers 76) Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into this category: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers 77) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila could be considered a(n) A) tissue-specific protein. B) cytoplasmic determinant. C) maternal effect. D) inductive signal. E) fertilization product. 12 78) The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur? A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size. B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs. C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die. D) Anterior structures would form in both sides of the embryo. E) The embryo would develop normally. 79) What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in common? A) Their products act as transcription factors. B) They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila. C) Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization. D) They act independently of other positional information. E) They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the fly's life. 80) Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? A) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth. B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses. C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances. D) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells 81) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It is an activator for other genes. B) It speeds up the cell cycle. C) It causes cell death via apoptosis. D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase. 82) Tumor suppressor genes A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. E) all of the above 83) The incidence of cancer increases dramatically in older humans because A) the Ras protein is more likely to be hyperactive after age sixty. B) proteasomes become more active with age. C) as we age, normal cell division inhibitors cease to function. D) the longer we live, the more mutations we accumulate. E) tumor-suppressor genes are no longer able to repair damaged DNA. 84) The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A) relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) cell-cell adhesion E) cell division 13 85) Forms of the ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) DNA replication to stop B) DNA replication to be hyperactive C) cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional D) cell division to cease E) growth factor signaling to be hyperactive 86) A genetic test to detect predisposition to cancer would likely examine the APC gene for involvement in which type(s) of cancer? A) colorectal only B) lung and breast C) small intestinal and esophageal D) lung only E) lung and prostate 87) Which of the following can contribute to the development of cancer? A) random spontaneous mutations B) mutations caused by X-rays C) transposition D) chromosome translocations E) all of the above 88) One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? A) inherited cancer taking a few years to be expressed B) embryonic or fetal cancer C) inherited predisposition to mutation D) inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation E) susceptibility to chemical carcinogens Use the following scenario for the following questions. A few decades ago, Knudsen and colleagues proposed a theory that, for a normal cell to become a cancer cell, a minimum of two genetic changes had to occur in that cell. Knudsen was studying retinoblastoma, a childhood cancer of the eye. 89) If there are two children born from the same parents, and child one inherits a predisposition to retinoblastoma (one of the mutations) and child two does not, but both children develop the retinoblastoma, which of the following would you expect? A) an earlier age of onset in child one B) a history of exposure to mutagens in child one but not in child two C) a more severe cancer in child one D) increased levels of apoptosis in both children E) decreased levels of DNA repair in child one 90) In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to make a cell a cancer cell, supporting Knudsen's hypothesis. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle 14 C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation D) the same genes that Knudsen identified as associated with retinoblastoma E) the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colon 91) One of the human leukemias, called CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) is associated with a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 in somatic cells of bone marrow. Which of the following allows CML to provide further evidence of this multi-step nature of cancer? A) CML usually occurs in more elderly persons (late age of onset). B) The resulting chromosome 22 is abnormally short; it is then known as the Philadelphia chromosome. C) The translocation requires breaks in both chromosomes 9 and 22, followed by fusion between the reciprocal pieces. D) CML involves a proto-oncogene known as abl. E) CML can usually be treated by chemotherapy. Self-Quiz Questions 1) If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then the A) amino acid inactivates the repressor. B) enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes. C) repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid. D) amino acid acts as a corepressor. E) amino acid turns on transcription of the operon. 2) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they A) express different genes. B) contain different genes. C) use different genetic codes. D) have unique ribosomes. E) have different chromosomes. 3) What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator? A) irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter B) reduced transcription of the operon's genes C) buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon D) continuous transcription of the operon's genes E) overproduction of catabolite activator protein (CAP) 4) The functioning of enhancers is an example of A) transcriptional control of gene expression. B) a post-transcriptional mechanism for editing mRNA. C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors. D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins. E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning. 5) Absence of bicoid mRNA from a Drosophila egg leads to the absence of anterior larval body parts and mirror-image duplication of posterior parts. This is evidence that the product of the bicoid gene A) is transcribed in the early embryo. B) normally leads to formation of tail structures. C) normally leads to formation of head structures. D) is a protein present in all head structures. 15 E) leads to programmed cell death. 6) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed. C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters. E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells. 7) Cell differentiation always involves the A) production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin. B) movement of cells. C) transcription of the myoD gene. D) selective loss of certain genes from the genome. E) cell's sensitivity to environmental cues such as light or heat. 8) Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression? A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter C) the removal of introns and splicing together of exons D) gene amplification during a stage in development E) the folding of DNA to form heterochromatin 9) Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on A) the degree of DNA methylation. B) the rate at which the mRNA is degraded. C) the presence of certain transcription factors. D) the number of introns present in the mRNA. E) the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm. 10) Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. B) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk." D) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. E) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age. 16

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McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 19 Viruses Multiple-Choice Questions 1) What characteristics of electron microscopes make them most useful for studying viruses? A) high energy electrons with high penetrance B) requirement that specimens be viewed in a vacu
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 20 Biotechnology Multiple-Choice QuestionsFigure 20.1 1) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1? A) ligase B) transcriptase C) a restriction enzyme D) RNA polymerase E) DNA polymerase 2) Assume that yo
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 21 Genomes and Their Evolution Multiple-Choice Questions 1) For mapping studies of genomes, most of which were far along before 2000, the 3-stage method was often used. Which is the usual order in which the stages were perfo
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 22 Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain t
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 23 The Evolution of Populations Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of these is a statement that Darwin would have rejected? A) Environmental change plays a role in evolution. B) The smallest entity that can evolve is an indi
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 24 The Origin of Species Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct? I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolati
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Biology, 8e (Campbell) Chapter 25 The History of Life on Earth Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which gas was least abundant in Earth's early atmosphere, prior to 2 billion years ago? A) O2 B) CO2 C) CH4 D) H2O E) NH3 2) In their laboratory simulations of the
McKendree - BIO - 1105
AP BIOLOGY Midterm Exam Review 2009-2010Name: _Section 1 BiochemistryMULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Half Hollow Hills High SchoolMs. FogliaAP BiologyLab 1: Diffusion & OsmosisAP BiologyLab ReviewAP Biology2004-2005AP Biology2004-2005Lab 1: Diffusion & OsmosisDescriptiondialysis tubing filled with starchglucose solution in beaker filled with
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Name: _ Period: _ Date: _ 1. Suppose that in studies of genes on the same chromosome you find the following recombination frequencies:AP Bio Molecular Genetics ReviewIn this case it would be proper to say that a, c, and b are a. linked genes. b. differe
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Name: _ Class: _ Date: _ID: AAP Chapter 6-8 TEST1. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use a. a light microscope. b. a scanning electron microscope. c. a transmission electronic microscope. d. A an
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life Practice Questions MultipleChoice Questions1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter? A) carbon, sodium, chl
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Chapter 3 Water and the Fitness of the Environment practice questions MultipleChoice Questions1) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by A) hydrogen bonds. B) nonpolar covalent bonds. C) polar covalent bond
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Name _ AP Biol ogyPeri od _ Date _AP: LAB-RELATED AP EXAM ESSAYS LAB 1. OSMOSIS AND DIFFUSIONESSAY 1992 A laboratory assistant prepared solutions of 0. 8 M, 0. 6 M, 0.4 M, and 0. 2 M sucrose, but forgot to label t hem. After realizing the error, the as
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Practice Exam 3Chapter 12 Section 2) What is a chromatid? A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle B) C) D) E) 4) A) B) C) D) E) a replicate chromosome a chromosome found outside the nucleus a special region that holds two centromeres together another nam
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Chapter 17 Study Questions MultipleChoice Questions1) Garrod hypothesized that "inborn errors of metabolism" such as alkaptonuria occur because A) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Exam Name_MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What does the operon model attempt to explain? A) horizontal transmission of plant viruses B) how genes move between homologous regions of
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Exam Name_MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What characteristics of electron microscopes make them most useful for studying viruses? A) high energy electrons with high penetrance B)
McKendree - BIO - 1105
Exam Name_MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) For mapping studies of genomes, most of which were far along before 2000, the 3- stage method was often used. Which is the usual order in
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GVPT170SecondExam19:12PoliticalCultureandPoliticalSocialization PoliticalCulture o Definition Abroadsetofnormsandvaluesaboutwhatisacceptable, appropriate,ordesirableinpoliticsandsociety Apatternedsetofwaysofthinkingabouthowpoliticsandgovernment shouldbe
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Muet210 Review for First ExamEthnomusicology: anthropology of music, analyzing musical styles and tends in culture Andean Music and People Indigenous People -Bolivian Peru border on Peru side -Indigenous identity: cultural category, not defined by ancest
IESE Business School - ECON - 100
Quiz 1 From 04 Jan (9AM) till 08 Jan (9AM)Sessions 1-4Quiz 2 From 14 Jan till 18 Jan Quiz 3 From 21 Jan till 25 Jan Quiz 4 From 01 Feb till 04 FebCost AccountingGlobal MBA
IESE Business School - ECON - 100
Xbox Case Background: The Xbox was launched in November 2001 and was considered the most technically advanced console system in the market Its' features included: DVD player, built in hard drive and modem and integrated internet access Competed with Sony'
Syracuse - CIS - 554
C+ Standard Libraryq qqqSet of standard C+ classes and functions which ANSI compliant compilers provide. ANSI - American National Standards Institute. An organization which develops standards for software languages. ANSI C Library Functions - the C+ s
Syracuse - CIS - 554
1Chapter 5 - Pointers and StringsOutline 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9 5.10 5.11 5.12 Introduction PointerVariableDeclarationsandInitialization PointerOperators CallingFunctionsbyReference UsingconstwithPointers BubbleSortUsingPassbyReference Poin
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Obje Orie d Analysis And De ct nte signOve w rvie1What is an Obje ct?lf-containe package with d , A se spe variable (attribute and cific s s) m thods (be e haviors). ct . An obje stands alone cts ple e An obje im m ntation is purpose hidde fromus. ly
Syracuse - CIS - 554
MidtermTopicsBook(5thEdition)Chapter 3Basic class syntax Basic C+ syntax and constructs. There will be questions like what does the following program do? This is a test of you basic C+ knowledge.Chapters 4-7Pointers, References, Functions & Parameter
Syracuse - CIS - 554
13Introduction to Classes and Objects 2006 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.3.4 Defining a Class With a Member Function Class definition Tells compiler what member functions and data members belong to the class Keyword c lass followed by
Syracuse - CIS - 554
Uses/Race.h #include"Racetrack.h" classRace cfw_ public: Race(Racetrack&); voidgo(); private: Racetrack&rt; /privatedatamembersandutilityfunctionsto /conducttheracesimulation ; /Race.cpp Race:Race(Racetrack&r) :rt(r) cfw_ voidRace:go() cfw_ /somecodethat
Syracuse - CIS - 554
1 0Classes: A Deeper Look, Part 21 2006 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.2OBJECTIVESIn this chapter you will learn: To specify const (constant) objects and const member functions. To create objects composed of other objects. To use friend
Syracuse - CIS - 554
19Classes: A Deeper Look, Part 1 2006 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.29.1 Introduction Integrated Time class case study Preprocessor wrapper Three types of handles on an object Name of an object Reference to an object Pointer to an obj
Syracuse - CIS - 554
MidtermTopicsBook(5thEdition)Chapter 3Basic class syntax Basic C+ syntax and constructs. There will be questions like what does the following program do? This is a test of you basic C+ knowledge. Mainly, the stuff we covered in the notes. See the notes
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 2: RF Basics and Signal Encoding September 28, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Today's LectureBasics of wireless communications Analog and digital signals Bandwidth and chan
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 4: Medium Access Control October 5, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Today's LectureMedium Access Control Schemes: FDMA TDMA CDMA Examples from cell phone technology: AMPS,
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 1: Course Introduction September 23, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Welcome to CS263!Wireless networks are everywhere . This course is all about wireless communications B
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 6: Bluetooth and 802.15.4 October 12, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Today's LectureBluetoothStandard for Personal Area Networks (PANs)IEEE 802.15.4New standard for Low
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 3: Antennas, Propagation, and Spread Spectrum September 30, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Today's LectureAntennas and gain Propagation, fading and loss models Spread Spect
Syracuse - CS - 263
CS263: Wireless Communications and Sensor NetworksMatt WelshLecture 5: The 802.11 Standard October 7, 2004 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard University1Today's LectureAll about 802.11 CSMA/CD MAC and DCF WEP and 802.1x Security 2004 Matt Welsh Harvard Univer
Syracuse - ELE - 723
Syracuse - ELE - 723
Syracuse - ELE - 723
SYRACUSEUNIVERSITY DepartmentofElectricalEngineeringandComputerScienceI.CourseInformation ELE723MICROWAVETRANSISTORAMPLIFIERS Spring08MeetingTimeandPlace:MW5:156:35,Classroom:125BH,Lab:335Link Instructor:ErcumentArvas,261Link,4434430,earvas@syr.edu TA:S
LSU - MKT - 3401
8/30/07 TestQuestion1:AccordingtoJohnCamp,whatisrequiredtobesuccessful? 1. Marketyourselfyouhavetobeabletoputyourselfinapositionwherepeoplecansee you,youhavetogetexposure(notasocialbutterfly,butsomeonewho'srecognized NotjustKelliEason,butKelliEasonofPatto
LSU - MKT - 3401
Study Guide, Test 2 Components of a Product: - Product itself - Packaging - Warranties - Service After Sale (SAS) - Branding/Company Niche 1. Branding/Company Niche (3 levels) - Master-branding- referring to an item by a brand name o EX: I want a Coke o C
LSU - MKT - 3401
Study Guide, Test 1 1. What is required to be successful? - Must know how to market yourself o Knowing who you appeal to o What you can offer - Must know how to sell yourself - Know people o The more people you know the farther important information will
LSU - FIN - 3826
Chapter 03 - Securities MarketsChapter 3 Securities Markets 1. a. In addition to the explicit fees of $70,000, FBN appears to have paid an implicit price in underpricing of the IPO. The underpricing is $3 per share, or a total of $300,000, implying total
LSU - FIN - 3826
Chapter 04 - Mutual Funds and Other Investment CompaniesChapter 4 Mutual Funds and Other Investment Companies1. The unit investment trust should have lower operating expenses. Because the investment trust portfolio is fixed once the trust is established
LSU - FIN - 3826
Chapter 06 - Efficient DiversificationChapter 6 Efficient Diversification 1. E(rP) = (0.5 x 15) + (0.4 x 10) + (0.10 x 6) = 12.1% 2. Fund D represents the single best addition to complement Stephenson's current portfolio, given his selection criteria. Fi
LSU - FIN - 3826
Chapter 07 - Capital Asset Pricing and Arbitrage Pricing TheoryChapter 7 Capital Asset Pricing and Arbitrage Pricing Theory1. a, c and d 2. a. E(rX) = 5% + 0.8(14% 5%) = 12.2% X = 14% 12.2% = 1.8% E(rY) = 5% + 1.5(14% 5%) = 18.5% Y = 17% 18.5% = 1.5% b.
LSU - FIN - 3826
Chapter 08 - The Efficient Market HypothesisChapter 8 The Efficient Market Hypothesis 1. The correlation coefficient should be zero. If it were not zero, then one could use returns from one period to predict returns in later periods and therefore earn ab
LSU - FIN - 3826
C HA P T E R 4Mutual Funds and Other Investment CompaniesMcGrawHill/Irwin2008TheMcGrawHillCompanies,Inc.,AllRightsReserved.4.1 INVESTMENT COMPANIES4-2Investment CompaniesAdministration & record keeping Diversification & divisibility Professional ma
LSU - FIN - 3826
C HA P T E R 5Risk and Return: Past and PrologueMcGrawHill/Irwin2008TheMcGrawHillCompanies,Inc.,AllRightsReserved.5.1 RATES OF RETURN5-2Holding Period ReturnP 0 = Beginning Price P1 = Ending Price D1 = Cash DividendP P +D HPR = P1 0 015-3Rates
LSU - FIN - 3826
C HA P T E R 6Efficient DiversificationMcGrawHill/Irwin2008TheMcGrawHillCompanies,Inc.,AllRightsReserved.6.1 DIVERSIFICATION AND PORTFOLIO RISK6 -2Diversification and Portfolio RiskMarket risk Systematic or Nondiversifiable SystematicFirm-specifi
LSU - FIN - 3826
C HA P T E R 7Capital Asset Pricing and Arbitrage Pricing TheoryMcGrawHill/Irwin2008TheMcGrawHillCompanies,Inc.,AllRightsReserved.7.1 THE CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL7-2Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)Equilibrium model that underlies all modern Eq
LSU - FIN - 3826
C HA P T E R 8The Efficient Market HypothesisMcGrawHill/Irwin2008TheMcGrawHillCompanies,Inc.,AllRightsReserved.8.1 RANDOM WALKS AND THE EFFICIENT MARKET HYPOTHESIS8-2Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH)Do security prices reflect information Why look a
LSU - ASTR - 1102
M E A S U R E E V E R Y T H IN G M U L T IP L E T IM E S ! A v e r a g e r e s u lts to g e th e r to g e t m u c h b e tte r v a lu e Random errors will occur in any measurement Average together N observations:Xaverage = (X1+X2+X3+XN)/N = Sum(Xi)/NS
LSU - ASTR - 1102
PAST THE MINIMUM SUNDIAL PROJECT Minimal project is worth a C or C- at best Make a reasonable sundial, measure ~20 times, simple analysis to get sundial accuracy with error bar M a k e n o m is ta k e s R e m e m b e r , th is is 2 0 % o f y o u r c o u
LSU - ASTR - 1102
STA R P A RTY S A TU RD A Y : O PEN H O U SE A T O BSERV A TO RYSATURDAY: 8:30-9:30 PM Roof of Nicholson Hall[Dont come if sky is mostly cloudy; Rain date on Sunday]S a tu r n w ith n e a r - e d g e - o n r in g s , S p a c e S ta tio n p a s s in g o
LSU - ASTR - 1102
SUNDIAL OBSERVING PROJECTwww.sundials.co.uk/projects.htm http:/www.wsanford.com/~wsanford/exo/sundials/shadows.htmlH o w to f in d n o r th ? U s e a c o m p a s s , P o la r is , a m a p , o r a ll th r e e .D e s c r ib e h o w y o u c o r r e c t f
LSU - ASTR - 1102
MILKY WAY GALAXYISLAND UNIVERSES? What is structure of the Milky Way? G a lile o : I t is m a d e o f m a n y s c a tte r e d s ta r s C o p e r n ic a n P r in c ip le : W e a r e n o t a t th e c e n te r o f a n y th in g 1 7 8 0 - to - 1 9 2 0 : M
LSU - ASTR - 1102
GALAXIES LIKE OUR MILKY WAYAndromeda Galaxy (M31): Spiral Two smaller galaxies orbiting Central region dominated by old red stars Outer spiral arms dominated by young blue starsSouthern Pinwheel (M83): Spiral, but note a bit of a bar in center Central r
LSU - ASTR - 1102
G A L A X Y F O R M A T IO NE llip tic a l g a la x ie s a ls o b u ilt u p b y m e r g in g s m a lle r g a la x ie sGALAXIES OFTEN COME IN CLUSTERSVirgo Cluster (60 million ly) Perseus Cluster (300 million ly)Coma Cluster (320 million ly)Galaxies a