2008
BIO Fall 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
MIDTERM EXAM 4 covers Questions #1 through #42. Each correct answer is worth 1 point. FINAL EXAM (cumulative) consists of Questions #43 through #84. Each correct answer counts 1 point. Do not leave ANY blank spaces on the scantron between Midterms 4 and the Final Exam. MIDTERM EXAM 4: Questions #1 through #42
1) Defective, mutant Trp- bacteria cant ever make Trp. You mix live Trp- bacteria with heat-killed wild-type bacteria and plate them on media that doesnt contain Trp. A few bacteria grow, and can now grow permanently without Trp. This happened because the Trp- bacteria a) Made proteins that do not contain Trp. b) Received a gene needed to make Trp from the dead wild-type bacteria c) Lost the Trp repressor d) Received Trp from the wild-type bacteria e) Upregulated the genes for Trp synthesis 2) How is a bacteriophage that will carry out transduction abnormal? a) Cant bind to bacteria b) Has no DNA in its head c) Has the wrong DNA in its head d) Cant inject DNA into bacteria e) Has abnormal sex pili 3) What is an F factor? a) A protein that is part of sex pili b) An antibiotic resistance plasmid c) A defective phage d) A piece of DNA that is important in bacterial conjugation e) A phage genome that exists in a bacterial cell 4) A DNA sequence called an operator a) Binds RNA polymerase b) Binds small molecules like Trp c) Contains several genes d) Binds a repressor protein e) Codes for a repressor protein 5) Genes in an operon a) Each have their own, separate promoter b) Are each transcribed into their own, separate mRNA c) Each code for one protein d) B and C are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 6) What is present in the basal transcription complex in eukaryotes? a) Transcription factors ONLY b) RNA polymerase ONLY c) Transcription factors AND RNA polymerase d) Control elements ONLY e) RNA polymerase AND control elements 7) What is true of enhancers? a) They consist of DNA b) Binding of activators to enhancers can stimulate transcription c) They always contain a TATA box d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct
Page 1
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
8) Cells in your kidney and your liver make different proteins because they contain different a) Genes b) Transcription factors c) Enhancers d) Basal transcription complexes e) Operons 9) Coordinately-controlled genes in eukaryotes are always a) In the same operon b) Part of the same multi-gene family c) Transcribed into a polycistronic mRNA d) Each regulated by a different copy of the same control element e) On the same chromosome 10) Which are increasing levels of chromatin packing? a) DNA, nucleosome, looped domains, 30 nm fiber b) nucleosome, DNA, 30 nm fiber, looped domains c) DNA, looped domains, nucleosome, 30 nm fiber d) nucleosome, DNA, looped domains, 30 nm fiber e) DNA, nucleosome, 30 nm fiber, looped domains 11) About how many genes are in the human genome? a) 3,000 b) 10,000 c) 30,000 12) About how much of the human genome codes for protein? a) 1% b) 10% c) 20% d) 70,000 d) 50% e) 100,000 e) >90%
13) What is true of retrotransposons? a) They can move through the genome by a copy-paste mechanism b) They code for an enzyme that synthesizes DNA using an RNA template c) They always insert into the genome at a position adjacent to an existing retrotransposon d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 14) How can gene duplication (resulting in two copies of a gene on a single chromosome) occur? a) Error of DNA polymerase during DNA replication b) Error during crossing-over in meiosis c) Non-disjunction in Meiosis I or Meiosis II d) Error during cell division in a zygote or early embryo e) Reciprocal translocation 15) What is true of the ribosomal RNA gene family? a) Genes for the 3 largest rRNAs are present in one transcription unit b) 100s or 1000s of copies of the transcription unit are present, one after another, on one chromosome c) Each transcription unit is identical d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 16) Two proteins both have a particular domain. The amino acids that form this domain in both proteins a) Have the same sequence b) Are encoded by the same gene c) Are encoded by different members of a multi-gene family d) Fold into the same characteristic 3-D shape e) Result from alternative splicing
Page 2
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
17) SH2 domains a) Are often present in proteins that bind receptor tyrosine kinases. b) Can be present in proteins that also contain other domains. c) All bind phospho-tyrosine (P-Tyr). d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct. 18) PDGF a) Sends a signal by entering cells b) Sends a signal by entering the nucleus c) Is a transcription factor d) Sends a signal by binding a receptor protein on the cell surface e) Sends a signal by binding a receptor protein in the cytoplasm 19) Ras is mutated in 30% of human tumors. How does mutant Ras contribute to cancer? a) Sends a signal even without receiving one b) Does not send a signal, even after receiving one c) Binds PDGF even without receiving a signal d) Enters the nucleus and binds an enhancer, even without a signal e) Phosphorylates another protein, even without a signal 20) The p53 protein ITSELF a) Replicates DNA b) Repairs DNA c) Slows the cell cycle d) Both B and C e) Is a transcription factor 21) Why do plasmids used for cloning contain antibiotic resistance genes? a) So that the plasmids can replicate in bacteria b) So that foreign DNA can be cloned into the plasmids c) So that the correct restriction enzyme recognition site is present d) To allow selection, so that only bacteria containing plasmids will grow e) To prevent the bacteria from being infected by phage 22) What is used to JOIN TOGETHER two pieces of DNA that have the same sticky ends? a) Base pairing and DNA ligase only b) Base pairing and DNA polymerase only c) Base pairing, DNA ligase, and DNA polymerase d) Base pairing and restriction enzymes only e) Base pairing, DNA ligase, and restriction enzymes 23) The Ti plasmid a) Contains DNA that integrates into a plant chromosome b) Contains DNA that integrates into a bacterial chromosome. c) Contains DNA that integrates into an animal chromosome. d) Enhances the rate of gene transfer between bacteria. e) Is injected into animal cell nuclei to make transgenic animals. 24) Which sequence is likely to be a Restriction Enzyme recognition site? a) TCCTCC b) CAGCTG c) TTTTTT d) AGAGAG 25) What is a nucleic acid probe used for? a) To identify a specific DNA sequence b) To identify any foreign DNA in a plasmid c) To cleave a specific gene d) To introduce a specific gene into a plasmid e) To identify 2 pieces of DNA that have the same restriction enzyme recognition site
Page 3
e) AGTTGA
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
26) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on differences in a) Charge (positive vs. negative) b) Size (longer vs. shorter) c) Sequence d) Hydrogen bonding e) Restriction enzyme recognition sites 27) What is true of the two primers used in a PCR reaction? a) They are complementary to each other b) They base-pair to the same strand of template DNA c) They bind sequences that are palindromes d) They bind to sequences at each end of the region targeted for amplification e) They are used to make Okazaki fragments 28) What is NOT required for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? a) DNA template b) DNA polymerase c) deoxy ribonucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs) d) Plasmid e) Heating to denature the DNA 29) Dideoxyribonucleotides (ddNTPs) are useful in DNA sequencing because a) They can be radioactively labeled more easily than dNTPs b) They can be incorporated into a growing chain and terminate the strand c) They make DNA heavier than normal d) They are always incorporated at the very beginning of a strand e) They have less negative charge than dNTPs 30) A primary oocyte a) Is haploid b) Continually reproduces by mitosis through life. c) Is in Meiosis I d) Is in Meiosis II e) Is released once a month at ovulation 31) What is true about the cortical reaction? a) It results in formation of the fertilization envelope b) It helps block polyspermy c) It is required for fusion of sperm and egg d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 32) Which is a hollow ball of cells? a) Blastomere b) Blastula c) Gastrula d) Morula e) Archenteron
33) Gastrulation a) Only occurs in mammals b) Involves cell death by apoptosis c) Results in formation of 3 primary germ layers d) Destroys the archenteron e) Requires morphogens 34) The blastocoel is off-center in early frog embryos because a) Yolk prevents uniform cleavage b) The embryo is a blastocyst instead of a blastula c) The gray crescent prevents uniform cleavage d) Gastrulation occurs unusually late in frogs e) Frog embryos lack mesoderm
Page 4
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
35) The first division of a salamander zygote produces two blastomeres. When scientists allowed cell division and blastomere formation occur normally, and then separated the two blastomeres from each other a) One developed into a normal embryo, and the other into a belly piece b) Both died c) Each developed into a normal embryo d) One developed into head structures, and the other into tail structures e) Both developed into belly pieces 36) Cells in Spemanns organizer a) Are present in the grey crescent b) Normally develop into an entire embryo c) Induce development of other cells d) Affect segment formation in Drosophila e) Induce gastrulation 37) What is true of the anchor cell in C. elegans vulva development? a) It becomes part of the outer vulva b) It becomes part of the inner vulva c) It secretes a morphogen that induces development of other cells d) It induces development of other cells by direct cell-cell contact e) It is shed from the worm after vulva formation 38) What is true about cytoplasmic determinants? a) They can be either RNA or protein b) They are present in the egg before fertilization c) They may be present at a higher concentration on one side of the cell than the other d) B and C are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 39) Segments in Drosophila a) Are present at the blastopore b) Are genes coding for transcription factors c) Are parts of homeotic genes d) Give rise to adult structures during development e) Arise first during metamorphosis to the adult 40) A cell is said to be differentiated when it a) Gives rise to different kinds of daughter cells b) Contains only a subset of the genes in the entire genome c) Contains cytoplasmic determinants d) Is a stem cell e) Expresses only a subset of its genes 41) What is the function of the normal Bicoid protein? a) Govern expression of muscle-specific proteins b) Transport mRNA from nurse cells to the developing egg c) Keep mRNA at one end of the egg d) Determine which end of the embryo will become the head e) Make defective embryos commit suicide 42) What is true of pluripotent cells? a) Embryonic stem cells are examples of pluripotent cells b) They can give rise to several different cell types c) They always express myoD d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct
Page 5
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
FINAL EXAM: Questions #43 through #84
43) What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15 electrons? a) 15 daltons b) 16 daltons c) 30 daltons d) 31 daltons e) 46 daltons 44) Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond? a) H2 b) O2 c) CO2 d) H2O e) CH4
45) How many molecules of glucose C6H12O16 (molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present in one mole of glucose? a) 24 b) 342 c) 23 x 1014 d) 180 x 1014 e) 6.022 x 1023 46) The molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O16) is 180 g. To make a 1 M solution of glucose, you should do which of the following? a) 1 Dissolve g of glucose in 1 L of water. b) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water. c) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 100 g of water. d) Dissolve 180 mg (milligrams) of glucose in 1 L of water. e) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. 47) What type(s) of bond(s) does carbon have a tendency to form? a) ionic b) hydrogen c) covalent d) A and B only e) A, B, and C 48) A carbon skeleton is covalently bonded to both an amino group and a carboxyl group. When placed in water it a) would function only as an acid because of the carboxyl group. b) would function only as a base because of the amino group. c) would function as neither an acid nor a base. d) would function as both an acid and a base. e) is impossible to determine how it would function. 49) A molecule with the chemical formula C16H32O16 is most likely a a) carbohydrate. b) lipid. c) protein. d) nucleic acid. e) hydrocarbon. 50) The alpha helix and the beta sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure? a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) quaternary e) all of the above
Page 6
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
51) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from a) a bacterium. b) an animal, but not a plant. c) a plant, but not an animal. d) a plant or an animal. e) any kind of organism. 52) Microfilaments are well known for their role in which of the following? a) ameboid movement b) formation of cleavage furrows c) contracting of muscle cells d) A and B only e) A, B, and C 53) Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane? a) phospholipids and cellulose b) nucleic acids and proteins c) phospholipids and proteins d) proteins and cellulose e) glycoproteins and cholesterol 54) Which of the following is the most reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep biological membrane more fluid at lower temperatures? a) The double bonds form a kink in the fatty acid tail, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart. b) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content. c) Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane. d) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids. e) The double bonds result in a shorter fatty acid tail. 55) Which of the following reactions is most likely to be coupled to the reaction ATP + H2O => ADP + Pi (delta G = -7.3 kcal/mol)? a) A + Pi => AP (delta G = +10 kcal/mol) b) B + Pi => BP (delta G = +8 kcal/mol) c) CP => C + Pi (delta G = -4 kcal/mol) d) DP => D + Pi (delta G = -10 kcal/mol) e) E + Pi => EP (delta G = +5 kcal/mol) 56) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a a) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. b) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. c) allosteric activator of the enzyme. d) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity. e) coenzyme derived from a vitamin. 57) Where does glycolysis take place? a) mitochondrial matrix b) mitochondrial outer membrane c) mitochondrial inner membrane d) mitochondrial intermembrane space e) cytosol
Page 7
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
58) The molecular oxygen (O2) consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? a) glycolysis b) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain c) the citric acid cycle d) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA e) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP 59) In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules? a) split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll b) harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll c) synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi d) transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH e) concentrate photons within the stroma 60) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle? a) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions. b) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions. c) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP. d) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split. e) There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. 61) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthases located? a) thylakoid membrane b) plasma membrane c) inner mitochondrial membrane d) A and C e) A, B, and C 62) Which of the following is true of synaptic signaling and hormonal signaling? a) Hormonal signaling occurs in animals only. b) Hormonal signaling is important between cells that are at greater distances apart than in synaptic signaling. c) Both act on target cells by a G-protein-signaling pathway. d) Only A and B are true. e) A, B, and C are true. 63) Which of the following would be directly inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins? a) G-protein-linked receptor signaling b) ligand-gated ion channel signaling c) adenylyl cyclase activity d) phosphatase activity e) receptor tyrosine kinase activity 64) What happens during anaphase of mitosis? a) Centromeres of sister chromatids come apart from each other. b) Kinetochore microtubules get shorter. c) Non-kinetochore fibers slide past each other and lengthen the spindle. d) A and B are correct. e) A, B, and C are correct.
Page 8
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
65) What is true of a cell that does not pass the Restriction Point? a) It will die by apoptosis b) It will go through S phase, but will not enter M phase c) It will not divide d) It has high levels of active MPF e) It has high levels of the M phase cyclin 66) When do homologous chromosomes that are attached to each other become separated from each other? a) Anaphase I of meiosis only. b) Anaphase II of meiosis only c) Anaphase I of meiosis and anaphase of mitosis d) Anaphase II of meiosis and anaphase of mitosis e) Anaphase I and II of meiosis 67) In a certain species of shark, viciousness (V) is dominant to friendliness (v), and sharp teeth (S) are dominant to dull teeth (s). The genes are not linked. What proportion of the progeny of a cross of VvSS x Vvss will be vicious and have sharp teeth? a) 3/16 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 9/16 e) 3/4 68) What was true of the plants in Mendels F1 generation? a) They were all true-breeding b) They all had two different alleles for flower color c) They were all homozygotes d) They had a 3:1 ratio of purple:white flowers e) They included a 3:1 ratio of homozygotes to heterozygotes 69) Assume that in pine trees, large cones (s+) are dominant over small cones (s), and pointed needles (b+) are dominant over blunt needles (b). A tree farmer crosses large-coned, pointed needle trees with smallconed, blunt-needled trees and gets the following offspring: 118 large cones, blunt needles 132 small cones, pointed needles 386 large cones, pointed needles 364 small cones, blunt needles What is the recombination frequency between the two genes? a) 12% b) 12.5% c) 13% d) 25% e) 75% 70) The XXY genotype, called Kleinfelter's syndrome, results from a) Translocation b) Genetic linkage c) Non-disjunction d) Reciprocal translocation e) Inversion 71) Why did a mixture of heat-killed S Streptococcus pneumoniae cells and live R cells kill mice? a) The capsule from the dead S cells protected R cells from the immune system of the mouse b) Proteins from the dead S cells protected R cells from the immune system of the mouse c) Molecules in the capsule became pathogenic when heated d) Genes needed for capsule formation were transferred to the R cells e) Proteins needed for capsule formation were transferred to the R cells 72) What is TRUE about DNA replication? a) Both new strands are made by adding nucleotides to the 3 end of a growing strand b) Both new strands are made with Okazaki fragments c) Both new strands are made using RNA primers d) Both A and C are correct e) A, B, and C are correct
Page 9
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
73) During transcription, a) An RNA strand is made, using one DNA strand as a template b) Two RNA strands are made, as each DNA strand is used as a template c) RNA polymerase reads codons in DNA d) Transcription bubbles form in the DNA and get larger as transcription progresses e) Protein is made using RNA as a template 74) What happens in the translocation step of translation elongation? a) Ribosome moves along the mRNA by a distance of 1 codon b) A tRNA moves along the mRNA by a distance of 1 codon c) The growing peptide chain moves to a tRNA in the E site d) A and B are correct e) A, B, and C are correct 75) Influenza virus brings the following enzyme with it when it infects a cell: a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase c) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase d) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase e) RNA polymerase that can use either DNA or RNA as template 76) What happens when the Trp repressor binds Trp? a) RNA polymerase cannot bind the Trp operon promoter b) Transcription of the Trp operon is stimulated c) The conformation of RNA polymerase changes d) The Trp repressor binds a specific DNA sequence e) Trp synthesis is enhanced 77) What helps histones bind DNA? a) Their helix-turn-helix domains b) Their acetyl groups c) DNA looping d) Mediator proteins e) Their positive charge 78) What is a function of simple sequence repetitive DNA? a) To make up euchromatin b) To make up introns c) To provide a source of restriction enzyme recognition sites d) To play a structural role in telomeres and centromeres e) To make up multi-gene families 79) How does the Trp repressor bind DNA? a) Helix-turn-helix domains b) Trp binds both to the repressor and to DNA, linking the two c) Mediator proteins d) Complementary base pairing e) Through an enhancer 80) Genetically modified (transgenic) organisms always contain a) Foreign genes b) Plasmids c) Extra chromosomes d) Mutant genes e) Antibiotic resistance genes
Page 10
Fall 2008
BIO 202 Practice Midterm Exam 4 & Final Exam
81) Why are restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) so useful? a) Foreign DNA can be cut into convenient lengths for inserting into plasmids b) They can tell how much of the genome codes for protein c) They can provide a "DNA fingerprint" to identify an individual d) They can provide the starting material for PCR e) They can provide target sites for movement of transposons in the genome 82) How does a human male keep making sperm throughout life? a) Mature sperm can reproduce by mitosis b) Cells in the epididymis can become sperm if needed c) Spermatogonia can reproduce by mitosis d) Billions of primary spermatocytes are produced early in life and stored e) Secondary spermatocytes can reproduce by mitosis 83) What is always true of induction in development? a) Some cells cause other cells to develop in a certain way b) When induction is altered, a second embryo develops, attached to the first one c) It always involves morphogens d) It always involves cytoplasmic determinants e) It always involves cell-cell contact 84) What happens if a homeotic gene is mutated? a) Flies have no front end b) Muscle fails to develop c) One body part is substituted for another d) Segmentation does not occur e) Egg polarity is set up improperly
Page 11