STUDY_GUIDE_3112
21 Pages

STUDY_GUIDE_3112

Course Number: ITCS 3112, Spring 2011

College/University: UNC Wilmington

Word Count: 6019

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STUDY GUIDE Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The process of understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should accomplish is called systems ____. a. design c. analysis b. specification d. administration 2. Systems ____ means specifying in detail how the many components of the information system should be physically...

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GUIDE Multiple STUDY Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The process of understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should accomplish is called systems ____. a. design c. analysis b. specification d. administration 2. Systems ____ means specifying in detail how the many components of the information system should be physically implemented. a. design c. analysis b. specification d. administration 3. The term ____ refers to a business professional who uses analysis and design techniques to solve business problems using information technology. a. database manager c. systems analyst b. computer programmer d. market analyst 4. The most important role of a systems analyst in business is ____. a. technical understanding of information systems b. problem solving c. knowing what data needs to be stored and used d. special programming skills 5. After investing resources in thoroughly understanding the business problem, the analyst decides that the costs of solving the problem will likely outweigh the benefits. The analyst should ____. a. move to the design phase b. invest more in the project to increase the benefits c. have the accounting department resolve feasibility issues d. suggest that the project be discontinued 6. A(n) ____ is a collection of interrelated components that collect, process, store, and provide as output the information needed to complete business tasks. a. system c. subsystem b. information system d. functional decomposition 7. A system that is part of a larger system is called a(n) ____. a. supersystem c. subsystem b. information system d. functional decomposition 8. A(n) ____ includes hardware, software, inputs, outputs, data, people, and procedures. a. system c. subsystem b. information system d. functional decomposition ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 9. ____ refers to the division of a system into processes or subsystems. a. System design c. Programming b. Data management d. Functional decomposition ____ 10. The term ____ boundary refers to the separation between a system and its environment. a. system c. information b. automation d. production ____ 11. An automation boundary is best described as the separation between the ____. a. system and its environment b. automated part of a system and the manual part of a system c. manual part of a system and its environment d. automated part of a system and its environment ____ 12. Support systems that enable geographically distributed personnel to collaborate on projects and tasks are called ____. a. transaction processing systems (TPS) b. decision support/knowledge based systems (DSS/KBS) c. office support systems d. collaboration support systems (CSS) ____ 13. Changes in software development, technology, and business practices have created many new career opportunities for analysts, including ____. a. Sales and support of ERP software c. Web development b. Auditing, compliance, and security d. All of the above ____ 14. A technique that seeks to alter the nature of the work done in a business function, with the objective of radically improving performance, is called ____. a. business process reengineering c. information systems strategic planning b. strategic planning d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ____ 15. A process in which executives try to answer key questions about the company is called ____. a. business process reengineering c. information systems strategic planning b. strategic planning d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ____ 16. A description of the integrated information systems needed by the organization to carry out its business functions is called ____. a. business process re-engineering c. technology architecture plan b. application architecture plan d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ____ 17. A description of the hardware, software, and communications networks required to implement planned information systems is called ____. a. information systems strategic planning c. technology architecture plan b. applications architecture planning d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ____ 18. A process in which an organization commits to using an integrated set of software packages for key information systems is called ____. a. business process re-engineering c. strategic planning b. applications architecture planning d. enterprise resource planning (ERP) ____ 19. Rocky Mountain Outfitters would like to further distribute business applications across multiple locations and computer systems, reserving the data center for Web server, database, and telecommunications functions. This is an example of ____. a. applications architecture planning c. technology architecture planning b. enterprise resource planning (ERP) d. strategic planning ____ 20. Which of the following is an example of a technique used to complete specific system development activities? a. project planning b. integrated development environment (IDE) c. application service provider (ASP) d. supply chain management (SCM) ____ 21. The term ____ means the process of understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should accomplish. a. supersystem c. subsystem b. systems analysis d. system boundary ____ 22. Which of the following is the analysts approach to problem solving? a. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs, then research and understand the problem. b. Develop a set of possible solutions, then verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs. c. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs, then define the requirements for solving the problem. d. Implement the solution, then define the details of the chosen solution. ____ 23. The last step of the analyst's approach to problem solving is ____. a. Decide which solution is best, and make a recommendation b. Monitor to make sure that you obtain the desired results c. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs d. Implement the solution ____ 24. A knowledge managament system ____. a. indexes all the knowledge contained within an organization b. supports the storage of and access to documents within an organization c. is another term for a libraray system d. requires a very large amount of online storage space ____ 25. A system that is subject to many external laws and regulations is a(n) ____. a. collaboration support system c. human resource management sytem b. manufacturing management system d. business knowledge system ____ 26. The two systems that are externally oriented, i.e. they focus on entities outside of the organization are ____. a. collaboration support and knowledge management systems b. manufacturing and supply chain management systems c. accounting/financial and human resource management systems d. customer relationship and supply chain management systems ____ 27. A business intelligence system supports ____. a. strategic planning and executive decision making b. just in time inventory decisions c. customer service requirements d. business process activities ____ 28. Skills in a nontechnical area such as interviewing and team management are called ____. a. inherent skills c. hard skills b. technical skills d. soft skills ____ 29. Skills in technical areas such as programming and network design are called ____. a. business skills c. hard skills b. soft skills d. people skills ____ 30. An example of a project phase in a predictive project is ____. a. gathering information about the user's needs b. performing a project cost/benefit analysis c. planning the project d. drawing the system interface ____ 31. The primary objective of the analysis phase is to ____. a. analyze the capabilities and structure of the previous system b. prioritize the alternatives for a new system c. determine the basic structure and approach for the new system d. understand and document the users' needs and requirements ____ 32. The problem domain is the part of systems development that refers to the ____. a. problems associated with the computing environment b. area of the user's business for which a system is being developed c. problems of the organization of the company d. area of the industry that results in more intense competition ____ 33. The objective of the design phase is to ____. a. design the solution system b. implement the system c. develop prototypes for the new system d. develop the program logic ____ 34. That portion of the new information system that satisfies the user's business needs in the problem domain is referred to as the ____. a. system procedure c. network b. application d. user interface ____ 35. The ____ phase begins only after the new system has been installed and put into production, and it lasts throughout the productive life of the system. a. analysis c. implementation b. design d. support ____ 36. The help desk idea is primarily associated with which project activity? a. Verification and testing c. End-user support b. Prototyping d. Analysis of work patterns ____ 37. Users are typically more involved in the project during which two phases? a. Analysis and design c. Design and implementation b. Planning and analysis d. Analysis and implementation ____ 38. The first official activity of the project team as it initiates the project planning phase is to ____. a. define the business problem c. develop a cost/benefit analysis b. staff the project team d. write a project proposal ____ 39. The term ____ describes a planned undertaking that produces a new information system. a. systems development project c. systems development life cycle (SDLC) b. phase d. design phase ____ 40. Most new information systems must communicate with other, existing systems, so the design of the method and details of these communication links must be precisely defined. These are called ____. a. models c. help desks b. system interfaces d. design interfaces ____ 41. The term ____ means that work activities are done once, then again, and yet again. a. eXtreme programming (XP) c. agile modeling b. iteration d. Unified Process (UP) ____ 42. A(n) ____ is a representation of an important aspect of the real world. a. methodology c. technique b. tool d. model ____ 43. The term ____ refers to an approach that completes parts of a system in one or more iterations and puts them into operation for users. a. incremental development c. Unified Process (UP) b. information engineering (IE) d. structured design ____ 44. A(n) ____ in system development is a collection of guidelines that help an analyst complete a system development activity or task. a. iteration c. technique b. model d. tool ____ 45. A(n) ____ program is one that has one beginning and one ending. a. iterative b. structured c. incremental d. object-oriented ____ 46. ____ programming divides more complex programs into a hierarchy of program modules. a. Incremental c. Object-oriented b. Iterative d. Top-down ____ 47. One main principle of structured design is that program modules should be designed so that they are ____. a. highly cohesive c. highly engineered b. tightly coupled d. rapidly prototyped ____ 48. The key graphical model of the systems requirements used with structured analysis is the ____. a. flowchart b. data flow diagram (DFD) c. class diagram d. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart ____ 49. A(n) ____ is a thing in the computer system that is capable of responding to messages. a. entity-relationship diagram (ERD) c. tool b. model d. object ____ 50. The ____ is a critical component of any new system. a. project management application c. reverse engineering tool b. user interface d. code generator tool ____ 51. The objective of the ____ phase is to keep the system running productively during the years following its initial installation. a. support c. planning b. design d. analysis ____ 52. A key concept in the ____ model approach is the focus on risk. a. spiral c. risk b. Extreme programming (XP) d. agile ____ 53. The term _____ describes a planned undertaking that produces a new information system. a. unified process c. prototype b. system development project d. repository ____ 54. A(n) _____ approach to the SDLC is used when the exact requirements of a system or needs of users are not well understood. a. predictive c. incremental b. persistent d. adaptive ____ 55. _____ consists of writing statements in a programming language to define what each type of object does. a. OOP c. OOD b. OOA d. OOS ____ 56. The _____ of the object-oriented approach refers to the fact that people usually think about their world in terms of tangible objects. a. discipline c. naturalness b. multiplicity d. reuse ____ 57. The _____ approach is an SDLC approach that assumes the various phases of a project can be completed entirely sequentially. a. waterfall c. prototype b. artifact d. spiral model ____ 58. Visual modeling tools usually contain a database of information about the models and the project, which is called a(n) ____. a. knowledge base c. library b. information base d. repository ____ 59. One popular visual modeling tool is ____. a. Firefox b. Powerpoint c. Visio d. Photoshop ____ 60. Which of the following best describes a common reason why projects fail? a. Technology problems b. Changing system requirements c. User involvement d. Wrong type of development methodology ____ 61. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the functions that are to be included in the system? a. Project quality management c. Project cost management b. Project time management d. Project scope management ____ 62. The first step of a(n) ____ is to estimate the anticipated development and operational costs. a. return on investment (ROI) c. weighted scoring b. net present value (NPV) d. cost/benefit analysis ____ 63. A(n) ____ is one that can be measured or estimated in terms of dollars and that accrue to the organization. a. net present value (NPV) c. breakeven point b. tangible benefit d. intangible benefit ____ 64. A determination of economic feasibility of the project always requires a thorough ____. a. cost/benefit analysis c. system scope document b. proof of concept prototype d. work breakdown structure (WBS) ____ 65. A(n) ____ is a good tool for monitoring the progress of a project as it moves along. a. entity-relationship diagram (ERD) b. Gantt chart c. work breakdown structure d. context diagram ____ 66. A(n) ____ is a bar chart that represents the tasks and activities of the project schedule. a. critical path method (CPM) chart b. entity-relationship diagram (ERD) c. Gantt chart d. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart ____ 67. The ____ is a sequence of tasks that cannot be delayed without causing the project to be completed late. a. float c. payback period b. critical path d. milestone ____ 68. An example of an intangible benefit is ____. a. increased levels of service b. reduced employee morale c. lost productivity d. lost customers ____ 69. Which of the following principles of project management identifies all stakeholders? a. Project Risk Management c. Project Human Resource Management b. Project Communication Management d. Project Time Management ____ 70. Projects initiated through strategic planning are sometimes described as ____ projects a. critical c. prototype b. top-down d. weighted ____ 71. A ____ combines three components: the problem description, the business benefits, and the system capabilities. a. proof-of-concept prototype c. system scope document b. context diagram d. data flow diagram (DFD) ____ 72. Which of the following indicates the current date and percentage of work completed for each task? a. Cost/benefit analysis c. Work breakdown structure b. Critical path d. Tracking Gantt chart ____ 73. Which of the following is also referred to as the breakeven point? a. Net present value (NPV) c. Critical path b. Payback period d. Return on investment (ROI) ____ 74. ____ feasibility asks the question: Is the anticipated value of the benefits greater than projected costs of development? a. Technological c. Cultural b. Economic d. Organizational ____ 75. Which of the following would you consider to be the primary resource required for a successful project? a. Project management team c. Support staff b. Physical facilities d. Computer resources ____ 76. Which of the following is also called a steering committee? a. Executive committee c. IT strategic planning committee b. Project management committee d. Oversight committee ____ 77. A ____ describes the purpose of the new system, the potential start and completion dates, and the key stakeholders and sponsors of the new system. a. cost/benefit analysis c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. project schedule d. project charter ____ 78. ____ are normally described in terms of the influences that can change the financial statements, either by decreasing costs or increasing revenues. a. Work breakdown structures c. Scope documents b. Intangible benefits d. Business benefits ____ 79. During the planning phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), the ____ helps to define the scope of the problem. a. critical path method (CPM) chart b. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart c. proof of concept prototype d. context diagram ____ 80. There are two general approaches for building a ____: (1) by deliverable and (2) by a sequential timeline. a. system scope document c. proof of concept prototype b. work breakdown structure (WBS) d. context diagram ____ 81. The objective of ____ is to calculate a percentage return so that the costs and benefits are exactly equal over the specified time period. a. return on investment (ROI) b. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) c. cost/benefit analysis d. net present value (NPV) ____ 82. A(n) ____ is made up of a group of related tasks. a. tool c. technique b. activity d. phase ____ 83. The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate. a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) b. return on investment (ROI) c. cost/benefit analysis d. net present value (NPV) ____ 84. Which of the following is true of a team leader? a. has high to almost total authority b. primarily leads big IT projects c. may have both project management duties and some technical duties d. works primarily on projects in which the all business functions are interdependent ____ 85. The ____ is a widely accepted foundation of information that every project manager should know. a. PMBOK c. PMI b. PMBOOK d. UPBK ____ 86. A(n) ____ is a method to estimate and schedule the tasks of a project. a. work breakdown structure c. essential use case model b. adaptive systems diagram d. project charter ____ 87. The ____ technique for identifying the tasks of the WBS consists of finding a similar project that is finished and copying its tasks. a. analogy-based c. bottom-up b. template d. top-down ____ 88. The _____ is the point at which the increased cash flow exactly pays off the costs of development and operation. a. milestone c. breakeven point b. float d. critical path ____ 89. The present value of $200,000 development costs in year 0 assuming a 10% discount rate is: ____. a. $180,000 c. $200,000 b. $190,000 d. $210,000 ____ 90. When someone has a phobia of computers which may cause problems in the deployment of a new information system, this should be determined during ____. a. Risk analysis c. Economic feasibility analysis b. Technological feasibility analysis d. Cultural feasibility analysis ____ 91. A ____ is a precise point on the project schedule that indicates a specific completion point.. a. milestone c. beta system b. user acceptance point d. deliverable ____ 92. The objective in assessing ____ is to determine whether a development project has a reasonable chance of success. a. risk c. feasibility b. resource requirements d. slack time ____ 93. ____ is an effective technique for identifying the tasks of the work breakdown structure (WBS). a. Top-down c. Analogy b. Bottom-up d. All of the above ____ 94. In MS Project what is the relationship between duration and effort? a. effort * persons = duration b. duration persons * = effort c. duration * effort = persons d. cannot be determined ____ 95. ____ is the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the project schedule. a. A milestone c. Breakeven point b. Slack time d. Payback period ____ 96. A project manager has purchased some training classes for JAVA programming for new members of his team. This would be considered to be part of which PM management area? a. Time Management c. Human Resource Management b. Communication Management d. Procurement Management ____ 97. Which of the following describes the activities that the system must performthat is, the business uses to which the system will be applied? a. Functional requirements c. User requirements b. General requirements d. Technical requirements ____ 98. Clients play what role in the development of a new system? a. Develop the project plan c. Define the business processes b. Fund the project d. Lead the project team ____ 99. Questionnaires can be useful in information gathering when users ____. a. are widely distributed geographically b. need prompting to respond to questions c. are not well-informed d. do not have time for interviews ____ 100. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called ____ questions. a. opinion c. open-ended b. closed-ended d. multiple choice ____ 101. Which of the following is normally the most time-consuming and resource-expensive operation? a. Building prototypes c. Reviewing existing reports b. Observing business processes d. Interviewing stakeholders ____ 102. Questionnaires can be used to ask questions that ____. a. determine user opinions c. define the system functions b. determine the stakeholders d. detail user procedures ____ 103. The length of an interview session generally should be ____. a. until all of the outstanding questions are answered b. limited to about an hour and a half c. no longer than half a day d. no longer than one day ____ 104. During a fact-finding interview, an important guideline is ____. a. to minimize importance of the user participants b. to include as many users as possible c. not to waste project time by including too many analysts d. to probe to get sufficient details ____ 105. A prototype has which of the following characteristics? a. Includes work procedures, both extensive and throwaway b. Is operative and executable, is focused on a specific objective, is quickly built c. Has good look and feel, is executable, and is complete d. Is quickly built, has mock-up, and is complete ____ 106. The type of prototype used during the analysis phase is the ____ prototype. a. discovery c. interface b. evolving d. functioning ____ 107. The purpose of joint application design (JAD) is to ____. a. establish a design environment b. design a prototype c. expedite the design of the system d. expedite the investigation of system requirements ____ 108. A group support system (GSS) is a computer system that ____. a. facilitates group discussion sessions b. supports all employees in the same group c. provides secure access to a group of users d. permits users to form personal groups ____ 109. The objective of a structured walkthrough is to ____. a. fix problems in the system c. find errors and problems b. inform the project leader of progress d. walkthrough a piece of work ____ 110. The strength of closed-ended questions is that they ____. a. invite discussion and elaboration c. invite opinions b. limit answers to a set of choices d. invite comments ____ 111. A ____ model shows what the system is supposed to do in great detail, without committing to any one technology. a. logical c. vertical b. physical d. horizontal ____ 112. ____ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its business. a. Physical c. Logical b. Functional d. System ____ 113. A ____ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction or customer request. a. model c. mock-up b. prototype d. workflow ____ 114. A(n) ____ describes the various user (or system) activities, the person who does each activity, and the sequential flow of these activities. a. activity diagram c. mock-up b. synchronization bar d. swim lane ____ 115. A(n) ____ is an initial working model of a larger, more complex entity. a. activity diagram c. activity diagram b. prototype d. workflow ____ 116. ____ sessions have been largely successful in reducing project development efforts and shortening the schedule. a. Business process reengineering (BPR) c. Swimlane b. Group support system (GSS) d. Joint application design (JAD) ____ 117. The first item to be reviewed during a structured walkthrough is the documentation that was developed as part of the ____ phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC). a. design c. analysis b. planning d. implementation ____ 118. ____ requirements are sometimes considered a subset of performance requirements. a. Technical c. Usability b. Reliability d. Security ____ 119. The term ____ refers to all the people who have an interest in the successful implementation of the system. a. users c. middle managers b. clients d. stakeholders ____ 120. ____ is an important part of each interview. a. Follow-up b. Structured walkthrough ____ 121. Every successful interview requires ____. a. open-ended questions b. preparation c. Workflow d. Performance requirement c. an activity diagram d. a structured walkthrough ____ 122. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Questionnaires are well suited to help you learn about processes, workflows, or techniques. b. Stakeholders always return questionnaires that contain many open-ended questions. c. Questionnaires have a limited and specific use in information gathering. d. CASE tools cannot be used to develop prototypes. ____ 123. ____ requirements describe operational characteristics related to the environment. a. Performance c. Reliability b. Technical d. Usability ____ 124. ____ requirements describe operational characteristics related to users. a. Usability c. Reliability b. Technical d. Performance ____ 125. ____ requirements are most often documented in graphical and textual models. a. Security c. Technical b. Nonfunctional d. Functional ____ 126. Diagrams and schematic representations of some aspect of a system are examples of a ____ model. a. logical c. mathematical b. graphical d. descriptive ____ 127. Structured English or pseudocode is an example of a ____ model. a. concrete c. mathematical b. descriptive d. graphical ____ 128. A representation of some aspect of the system being built is a ____. a. tool c. model b. technique d. GUI ____ 129. A series of formulas that describe technical aspects of a system is a(n) ____ model. a. concrete c. graphical b. descriptive d. mathematical ____ 130. Narrative memos, reports, or lists that describe some aspect of a system represent a(n) ____ model. a. descriptive c. mathematical b. concrete d. graphical ____ 131. An occurrence at a specific time and place, which can be described and is worth remembering, is called a(n) ____. a. external agent c. temporary effect b. event d. state of requirement ____ 132. An event that occurs outside the system, usually initiated by an external agent or actor, is called a(n) ____ event. a. logical c. temporal b. external d. state ____ 133. An event that occurs as a result of reaching a point in time is called a(n) ____ event. a. temporal c. external b. logical d. state ____ 134. A(n) ____ event occurs when something happens inside the system that triggers the need for processing. a. logical c. external b. state d. temporal ____ 135. Which of the following is an example of a state event? a. A customer places an order c. Management checks order status b. A shirt is worm out d. Inventory reorder point is reached ____ 136. Checks or safety procedures are put in place to protect the integrity of the system. This is referred to as ____. a. perfect technology assumption c. system controls b. risk control assumption d. technology protection ____ 137. The ____ states that events should be included during analysis only if the system would be required to respond under perfect conditions. a. perfect technology assumption c. system control b. risk control assumption d. technology control ____ 138. ____ refers to a signal that tells the system that an event has occurred, either the arrival of data needing processing or a point in time. a. Source c. Response b. Activity d. Trigger ____ 139. An external agent or actor that supplies data to the system is called a(n) ____. a. trigger c. destination b. activity d. source ____ 140. An output, produced by the system, that goes to a destination is called a(n) ____. a. source c. activity b. response d. trigger ____ 141. A(n) ____ is a naturally occurring association among specific things. a. relationship c. attribute b. cardinality d. entity ____ 142. The number of associations that occur among specific things in an entity relationship diagram is called ____. a. a relationship c. a binary relationship b. an attribution d. cardinality ____ 143. A synonym for cardinality (used with UML class diagrams) is ____. a. relationship c. unary relationship b. multiplicity d. inheritance ____ 144. ____ is used to describe the relationship between two things of the same type, such as one person being married to another person. a. Binary relationship c. Cardinality b. Unary relationship d. N-ary relationship ____ 145. The term ____ is used to describe the relationship among three different types of things. a. unary relationship c. multiplicity b. binary relationship d. ternary relationship ____ 146. An attribute that uniquely identifies a thing is called a(n) ____. a. class c. compound attribute b. key d. attribute ____ 147. An attribute that contains a collection of related attributes is called a(n) ____. a. class c. compound attribute b. key d. attribute ____ 148. In the traditional approach to system development, the system stores information about ____. a. objects c. methods b. data stores d. data entities ____ 149. Each class of thing in the hierarchy might have a more general class above it, called a(n) ____. a. superclass c. subclass b. attribute d. aggregation ____ 150. A data entity that represents a many-to-many relationship between two other data entities is called a(n) ____ entity. a. encapsulated c. aggregated b. associative d. inherited ____ 151. ____ is based on the idea that people classify things in terms of similarities and differences. a. Aggregation c. Multiplicity b. Encapsulation d. Generalization/specialization hierarchy ____ 152. A concept that allows subclasses to share the characteristics of their superclasses is called ____. a. aggregation c. multiplicity b. encapsulation d. inheritance ____ 153. ____ describes a whole-part relationship between an object and its parts. a. Aggregation c. Associative entity b. Encapsulation d. Inheritance ____ 154. ____ define data storage requirements that are included in data flow diagrams (DFDs). a. Entity-relationship diagrams (ERD) c. Domains b. Use cases d. Context diagrams ____ 155. A class that represents a many-to-many association between two other classes is called a(n) ____ class. a. encapsulated c. association b. associative entity d. inherited ____ 156. ____ is an analysis technique that focuses on identifying the events to which a system must respond and then determining how the system must respond. a. User goals technique c. Event decomposition b. List nouns technique d. CRUD ____ 157. The domain model class diagram is used to ____. a. show the software classes in the problem domain layer of the system b. show the things involved in the users work that are important to the system c. show the data entities in the traditional approach d. show the use cases in the OO approach ____ 158. The level of analysis to use when identifying use cases is the ____. a. elementary business process level c. temporal event level b. external event level d. state event level ____ 159. The procedure for identifying domain classes or data entities is to list all of the ____ found when discussing system requirements with users. a. events c. actors b. verbs d. nouns ____ 160. A sequence of activities within a use case that represents a unique path is called a ____. a. use case description c. scenario b. critical path d. task list ____ 161. A synonym for a scenario is called a(n) ____. a. destination c. elementary business process b. use case instance d. association ____ 162. A precondition is a set of statements that must be true ____. a. before the system executes c. before an event table can be built b. before a business event starts d. before a use case begins ____ 163. The most important difference between an intermediate use case description and a fully developed use case description would be the addition of what information? a. pre- and post-conditions c. exception conditions. b. main flow of logic. d. list of related use cases. ____ 164. Which of the following is NOT a step in identifying the things in a system? a. Identify all the nouns. b. Do a CRUD analysis. c. From the list, identify things that need further research. d. Refine the list and record assumptions or issues to explore. ____ 165. Which of the following is a synonym for the concept of cardinality among things? a. binary relationship c. number b. relationship d. multiplicity ____ 166. Which of the following models is NOT considered an object-oriented model? a. Use case diagram c. State machine diagram b. Activity diagram d. Context diagram ____ 167. A relationship between a sports team and the players, coaches, and sponsor would be described as what kind of relationship? a. Aggregation c. Generalization/Specialization b. Composition d. Binary ____ 168. Which of the following relationships would NOT be an appropriate way to describe a relationship between an employee and his/her manager? a. Unary (recursive) relationship b. Binary relationship c. Generalization/Specialization relationship. d. Composition relationship ____ 169. The basic objective of requirements definition is ____. a. messaging c. analysis b. interaction d. understanding ____ 170. ____ diagrams are used in conjunction with detailed descriptions or with activity diagrams. a. Context c. Class b. System sequence d. Entity-relationship ____ 171. The objective of ____ analysis is to identify and define all of the business processes that the system must support. a. statechart c. context b. use case d. class ____ 172. The term ____ is used to describe the communication between objects within a use case. a. object line c. message b. lifeline d. parameter ____ 173. The purpose of the use case diagram is to identify the ____. a. users of the system c. messages in the system b. system boundary d. uses of the system ____ 174. A use case diagram can be derived from a(n) ____. a. class diagram c. event table b. sequence diagram d. context diagram ____ 175. A class diagram represents the classifications of ____. a. users of the system c. events of the system b. messages in the system d. objects in the system ____ 176. One way to begin the development of a use case diagram is to identify the ____. a. system boundary c. classes b. flows of information d. actors ____ 177. The dashed lines in a system sequence diagram represent ____. a. object lifelines c. transition activities b. object transitions d. messages ____ 178. Which of the following has as its mission promotion of the theory and practice of object technology in the development of distributed computing systems? a. Unified Modeling Language (UML) b. Object-oriented (OO) c. Object-Oriented Programming, Systems, Languages, and Applications (OOPSLA) d. Object Management Group (OMG) ____ 179. Which of the following refers to the business processes that a new system must respond to? a. Things c. States b. Objects d. Events ____ 180. Which of the following refers to the problem domain objects that are involved in the business process? a. Events c. Things b. Processes d. Classes ____ 181. Which of the following represents a requirements model for the traditional approach to systems development? a. Use case diagrams c. Class diagrams b. Process descriptions d. Activity diagrams ____ 182. Which of the following represents a requirements diagram for the object-oriented approach to systems development? a. State machine diagram c. Context diagram b. Entity-relationship diagram (ERD) d. DFD fragments ____ 183. Which of the following models are normally completed concurrently by the analyst in the object-oriented approach? a. Context and data flow diagrams c. Process description and class diagram b. Entity-relationship and class diagrams d. Use case diagram and event table ____ 184. It is common to define a single use case to support multiple business events if ____. a. the processing occurring inside the automated system is different b. an event table has not been created c. essentially the same information is being updated d. different information is input and output from the events ____ 185. Which of the following describes the inputs and outputs that occur within a use case? a. System sequence diagrams (SSDs) c. Context diagrams b. Data flow definitions d. DFD fragments ____ 186. Which of the following can be used to describe processes that include manual and automated system activities? a. DFD fragments c. Entity-relationship diagrams (ERDs) b. Context diagrams d. Activity diagrams ____ 187. ____ on a systems sequence diagram means repeat or multiple messages. a. { } c. ( ) b. * d. [ ] ____ 188. A(n) ____ diagram is a diagram showing the sequence of messages between an external actor and the system during a use case or scenario. a. system sequence c. class b. statechart d. activity ____ 189. A(n) ____ diagram identifies status conditions and specifies the processes allowed. a. system sequence c. class b. state machine d. activity ____ 190. In a use case diagram, the use case is symbolized by a(n) ____. a. rectangle c. rounded rectangle b. stick figure d. oval ____ 191. Use cases can be organized by ____. a. subsystem b. grouping all cases that involve a specific actor c. the needs of the project team d. All of the above ____ 192. In an SSD, ____ between the lifelines represent the messages that are sent or received by the actor or the system. a. dashed lines c. lines with arrows b. rectangular labels d. underlined objects ____ 193. In a state machine diagram, a state is represented by a(n) ____. a. oval c. square b. black dot d. dashed arrow ____ 194. To document ____, draw a composite state with the lower portion divided into multiple compartments for each concurrent path of behavior. a. simple nested states b. concurrent behavior of a single object c. concurrent behavior of different objects d. simple paths ____ 195. The ____ are the primary models from which other models draw information. a. statechart diagram and problem domain class diagram b. system sequence diagram and activity diagram c. use case diagram and problem domain class diagram d. use case description and use case diagram ____ 196. Which of the following is NOT an element in a transition label? a. origin state c. guard condition b. transition name d. action expression ____ 197. A message event causes what to happen? a. An activity to finish b. A message to fire c. A guard condition to be evaluated d. A transition to fire ____ 198. Which of the following is NOT a step in the development of a state machine diagram? a. List all the status conditions for an object b. Identify state exiting transitions c. Expand the name of each state to identify concurrent activities d. Sequence the state-transition combinations in the correct order ____ 199. Which is NOT considered a valid object-oriented model? a. Class diagram c. State machine diagram b. Context diagram d. System sequence diagram ____ 200. A state machine diagram is used to document the states and transitions of a(n) ____. a. Business process c. Event message b. Use case d. Object ____ 201. An actor is a valid part of which model? a. State machine diagram b. System sequence diagram c. Activity diagram d. Fully developed use case description

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University of Texas - BIOLOGY - 311D
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University of Texas - BIOLOGY - 311D
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University of Texas - BIOLOGY - 311D
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University of Texas - BIOLOGY - 311D
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