Study%20Guide%20-%20Final%20Exam%20Fall%202010
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Study%20Guide%20-%20Final%20Exam%20Fall%202010

Course Number: POLS 1101, Fall 2010

College/University: Georgia State

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Study Guide - Final Exam Fall 2010 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ Fifty questions for the final exam will be selected from this list. 1. One fear about majority rule in a democracy is that it could lead to A. apathy on the part of elites. B. tyranny through suppression of the minority. C. public policies that benefit special-interest groups. D. control of...

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Guide Study - Final Exam Fall 2010 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ Fifty questions for the final exam will be selected from this list. 1. One fear about majority rule in a democracy is that it could lead to A. apathy on the part of elites. B. tyranny through suppression of the minority. C. public policies that benefit special-interest groups. D. control of government by career bureaucrats. E. All these answers are correct. 2. In Federalist No. 10, James Madison argued that A. government is most dangerous when a single group is powerful enough to gain full political control. B. monarchies are preferable to democracies. C. America was not diverse enough to prevent powerful interest groups from exercising too much political power. D. interest groups should be heavily regulated in America. E. interest groups are less troublesome than political parties are. 3. America's pluralism stems from A. its geographical diversity. B. its economic complexity. C. its religious diversity. D. its ethnic diversity. E. All these answers are correct. 4. A major criticism of the theory of pluralism is that A. there are no organized interest groups. B. majorities always win. C. only a small number of powerful groups are well-organized and influence policymakers. D. the needs of special interests are ignored. E. None of these answers is correct. 5. Which of the following is true about the United States? A. The candidate with the most popular votes always becomes president. B. There are forms of direct democracy at the national level. C. To protect against abuses of power, the Framers of the Constitution devised a system of checks and balances. D. Majority rule is more direct in the United States than in other European democracies. E. Senators, representatives, and presidents all have the same terms of office. 6. An idea central to the ideology of Classical Liberalism is: A. to each according to his ability, to each according to his needs. B. the role of government is to provide the greatest happiness to the largest number of people. C. society's rules should mimic the law of the jungle. D. the government that governs best governs least. E. there will be a natural progression in society towards the state ownership of the means of production. 7. The Framers of the Constitution preferred which of the following political arrangements? A. a republic as opposed to a pure democracy B. a monarchy as opposed to a constitutional system C. a pure democracy over a republic D. a pure democracy over a representative democracy E. socialism over capitalism 8. A contemporary legislator who voted for a bill even though his constituents back home overwhelmingly opposed the bill would be performing the role of A. trustee. B. delegate. C. statesperson. D. politician. E. oversight. 9. Presidential appointments and treaties must be approved by A. Congress. B. only the president. C. the Senate. D. the Supreme Court. E. the secretary of state. 10. According to the Constitution, A. the legislature enforces the law. B. the executive makes the law. C. the judiciary interprets the law. D. the bureaucrats make the law. E. interest groups directly determine public policy outcomes. 11. Judicial review is the power of the American courts to A. declare a law unconstitutional. B. suspend the writ of habeas corpus. C. impeach the president. D. give advisory opinions to Congress. E. give advice and counsel to the president. 12. Where is the Bill of Rights found in the Constitution? A. Article I, Section 8 B. Article II C. the first ten Amendments D. Amendments 17 through 26 E. Article III 13. The separation of powers and checks and balances are respectively: A. two ways of saying the same thing. B. the physical separation of the branches and the shared power of the branches. C. the shared power of the branches and the physical separation of the branches. D. the relationship between the federal government and the states and the relationship between the president, Congress and the courts E. the relationship between the president, Congress and the courts and the relationship between the federal government and the states. 14. Which choice below describes the American change in governmental structure as a result of adopting the Constitution? A. unitary to confederal B. confederal to unitary C. federal to unitary D. confederal to federal E. federal to confederal 15. Which region of the nation receives the highest percentage of its revenues from the federal government? A. west B. northeast C. midwest D. south E. non-contiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii 16. In America today, public education is primarily the responsibility of A. the national government. B. state and local governments. C. the National Education Association (NEA). D. the American Federation of Teachers (AFT). E. the U.S. Department of Education. 17. According to _____, a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction. A. Patrick Henry B. George Mason C. James Madison D. John C. Calhoun E. John Marshall Harlan 18. Roughly one in every _____ dollars spent by local and state governments in recent decades was raised not by them but by the government in Washington. A. two B. five C. ten D. fifty E. one hundred 19. All of the following countries have a unitary form of government except A. Canada. B. Sweden. C. France. D. Japan. E. Great Britain. 20. Devolution is A. the passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels. B. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s. C. the contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority. D. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s. E. None of these answers is correct. 21. All civil liberties are A. absolute. B. conditional. C. enumerated in the Constitution. D. contained in the First Amendment. E. clear in terms of judicial interpretation. 22. Which is true about the judiciary in America? A. The courts are for the most part isolated from public moods. B. The courts must balance society's need for safety against the rights of the individual. C. Judges have virtually unlimited power. D. All these answers are correct. E. The courts are not isolated from public moods, and must balance society's need for safety against the rights of the individual. 23. According to the Supreme Court, which is true regarding freedom of assembly? A. Individuals have the right to command immediate access to a public auditorium. B. Individuals have the right to hold a public rally in the middle of a busy intersection at a time of their choosing. C. Public officials can regulate the time, place, and conditions of public assembly, provided the regulations are reasonable. D. Public officials can prohibit assembly by unpopular groups. E. Freedom of assembly is an absolute right, because it is in the First Amendment. 24. "You have the right to remain silent....Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law...You have the right to an attorney." This is called A. the preferred position doctrine. B. the clear and present danger test. C. the Miranda warning. D. the fairness doctrine. E. None of these answers is correct. 25. In Texas v. Johnson, the Supreme Court ruled that A. flag burning is an imminent danger to public safety. B. flag burning is not symbolic speech. C. flag burning, although offensive, cannot be prohibited. D. flag burning can be prohibited by the national government but not by the states. E. flag burning could be banned by Congress. 26. The freedoms of speech, press, assembly, and petition are found in A. the First Amendment. B. the Fourth Amendment. C. the Sixth Amendment. D. the Tenth Amendment. E. the Fourteenth Amendment. 27. Obscene materials are A. protected under the Second Amendment principle that the public has the right to bare arms. B. protected under the Fifth Amendment principle that people can't be held responsible for their personal statements and actions. C. protected under the principle of due process as sex activities are a natural process. D. not protected under the First Amendment principle of Freedom of Speech. E. protected under the First Amendment principle of Freedom of Speech. 28. Native Americans were made "official" citizens of the United States in A. 1789. B. 1856. C. 1924. D. 1972. E. 1998. 29. Today, women currently hold about _____ percent of the seats in Congress. A. 5 B. 15 C. 25 D. 40 E. 50 30. The gender gap refers to the tendency of women to favor A. Green party candidates. B. Democrats. C. Independents. D. Republicans. E. libertarians. 31. Women in America obtained the right to vote in national elections in A. 1790. B. 1865. C. 1890. D. 1920. E. 1974. 32. Libertarians are opposed to governmental intervention A. in both the economic and social spheres. B. in the economic but not the social sphere. C. in the social sphere, but not the economic sphere. D. in neither the social nor the economic spheres. E. only with regard to affirmative action. 33. That Americans have a different view toward redistributing wealth to aid the poor from that held by Europeans is probably due to Americans' deep-rooted belief in A. individualism. B. democracy. C. self-government. D. liberalism. E. collectivism. 34. About _____ percent of Americans identify themselves as an Independent (i.e. identifying with neither major political party). A. 10 B. 25 C. 35 D. 50 E. 70 35. If the sampling error in a properly conducted poll is plus or minus 4 percent, and the poll predicts that candidate X will receive 60 percent of the vote, then the candidate will likely receive A. between 52 and 68 percent of the vote. B. between 56 and 64 percent of the vote. C. between 58 to 62 percent of the vote. D. between 50 to 70 percent of the vote. E. 60 percent of the vote. 36. Which of the following is true about public opinion polling? A. Polls are the most relied-upon method of measuring public opinion. B. Polls can be erroneous at times. C. Most large news organizations have their own in-house polls. D. The Gallup pollsters have correctly predicted the winner of presidential elections most of the time since 1936. E. All these answers are correct. 37. In general, public opinion A. determines government action. B. is unrelated to government action. C. sets broad limits on government action. D. affects government action only on election issues. E. is only important during a presidential election. 38. As politics in Washington has polarized: A. public opinion has remained relatively moderate. B. public opinion has polarized as well. C. public opinion has gotten more moderate. D. public opinion has gotten more conservative. E. public opinion has gotten more liberal. 39. _____ holds more elections than any other democracy and is the only one to rely extensively on primary elections. A. France B. The United States C. Germany D. Great Britain E. Belgium 40. An original purpose of a system of voter registration was to A. prevent fraudulent voting. B. certify party membership. C. educate people about the importance of voting. D. help candidates know the size of the electorate. E. help the political parties increase voter turnout. 41. When the nation was founded, who was eligible to vote? A. everyonethere was universal suffrage B. all males and females who were at least 21 years of age C. only white males who owned property D. only citizens who had lived in the nation for at least ten years E. All native-born citizens could vote. 42. The "Motor Voter" law A. was passed in 1993. B. made it easier for citizens to register to vote. C. linked voter registration to the vehicle registration process. D. was passed in 1993 and linked voter registration to the vehicle registration process. E. All these answers are correct. 43. Since the 1960s, the level of turnout in presidential elections has averaged _____ percent. A. 75 B. 65 C. 55 D. 45 E. 35 44. In the United States, the primary responsibility for registration of the individual voter rests with the A. state and local governments. B. local courts. C. employer. D. individual. E. federal government. 45. The most important voting cue in most elections in the United States is; A. ballot order. B. party id. C. candidate gender. D. candidate race. E. candidate profession. 46. Compared with U.S. citizens of higher income, those of lower income are A. much less likely to vote in elections. B. about equally likely to vote in elections. C. much more likely to vote in elections. D. much less likely to vote in elections, a pattern that is also true in European democracies. E. None of these answers is correct. 47. During the twenty-first century, voting rates in the United States A. have shown little difference from those of the late twentieth century. B. have increased in presidential elections while continuing to decline in local ones. C. have demonstrated that the apathy of young citizens has worsened considerably since the early 1990s. D. have increased in all elections. E. have declined in all elections. 48. Generally speaking, states with the most restrictive registration laws are concentrated in which region? A. South B. Midwest C. Northeast D. Pacific Coast E. Great Plains 49. The adoption of voter identification cards by several states A. will likely cause a decline in voter turnout in those states. B. is a policy intended to further gains the of the motor voter law. C. was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. D. will increase the voting power of poorer citizens. E. was a response to well-documented accounts of widespread electoral fraud. 50. The election of _____ was the only time in American history when the U.S. party structure essentially collapsed. A. 1800 B. 1836 C. 1860 D. 1896 E. 1912 51. _____ was a realigning election. A. 1840 B. 1872 C. 1932 D. 1960 E. 1976 52. Which of the following statements about the patronage system is true? A. It was a means of rewarding party workers for their loyalty. B. It was first established in the early twentieth century. C. It has fallen increasingly into the hands of party organizations. D. It weakens the bond that most federal staff members might otherwise feel for the congressperson under which they work. E. Today there are almost no patronage jobs left. 53. Candidate-centered politics encourages all of the following except A. greater responsiveness to local interests. B. flexibility in response to problems. C. long-term consistency in policymaking. D. introduction of new blood to politics. E. the use of television advertising in campaigns. 54. The greatest blow to the organizational strength of U.S. parties was A. the national convention. B. the direct primary. C. Jacksonian democracy. D. the emergence of PACs. E. voter registration. 55. During the twentieth century, American parties lost their complete control over A. nominations. B. financing. C. platforms. D. staffing government jobs. E. All these answers are correct. 56. Organizationally, the U.S. major parties are A. decentralized and weak. B. centralized and weak. C. decentralized and strong. D. centralized and strong. E. no longer in operation. 57. Which of the following are key players in the modern campaign? A. pollsters B. media producers C. fund raising specialists D. campaign consultants E. All these answers are correct. 58. The vast majority of voters who identify themselves as independents A. truly have to sympathy towards one political party or the other. B. are disenchanted former party activists. C. are senior citizens. D. are from the Northeast and the West Coast. E. lean towards one party or the other despite their self proclaimed independence. 59. Which of the following groups is most closely aligned with the Democratic Party, voting more than 85 percent Democratic in presidential elections? A. Latino Americans B. White Protestants C. Christian fundamentalists D. African Americans E. Roman Catholics 60. Advantages that Republicans and Democrats have over minor party candidates include A. voting loyalty of party identifiers. B. an automatic place on the ballot in every state. C. millions of dollars in campaign donations. D. both an automatic place on the ballot in every state, and millions of dollars in campaign donations. E. All these answers are correct. 61. According to most experts on American politics, the interest group system has A. a strong upper-class bias. B. a strong working-class bias. C. a strong bias in favor of liberal Democrats. D. a strong bias in favor of moderate Republicans. E. a strong bias in favor of racial minorities. 62. The air we breathe is an example of a A. collective good. B. public good. C. material good. D. mass-produced good. E. collective good and public good. 63. Which of the following is not a typical interest group function? A. supporting candidates for public office B. addressing a broad and diverse range of public issues C. working to influence policymakers D. promoting public policies E. working to influence legislators 64. The citizens of _____ are most actively involved in interest groups. A. the United States B. Germany C. Italy D. France E. Great Britain 65. Another name for an interest group is A. a faction. B. a cabal. C. a political party. D. a coalition. E. a constituency. 66. James Madison argued A. against all interest groups. B. for the advocacy of self-interest free from all systems of restraint. C. for control of interests through a governing system of checks and balances. D. for the replacement of interest groups by formal political parties. E. for a powerful judiciary. 67. The most well-financed interest groups are those that promote A. social services. B. political ideologies. C. corporate interests. D. public interests. E. children's interests. 68. James Madison's solution to the problem of factions (special interests) has, in the modern policy process, actually contributed to the problem by A. suppressing the claims of special interests, thereby making it more difficult for them to get their opinions heard by officials. B. resulting in a fragmentation of authority among policymakers, and thereby providing groups more opportunities to get their way. C. eroding the strength of political parties, and thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence. D. weakening the legislative branch, and thereby allowing groups to bully Congress into accepting their demands. E. eroding the power of the mass media, and thereby increasing the opportunity for group influence. 69. The most significant resource that most groups offer congressional candidates is A. a promise of members' votes. B. help with telephoning supporters. C. help with issue research. D. a promise of campaign volunteers. E. money. 70. Grass roots lobbying is based on the assumption that officials will respond to A. well-reasoned policy arguments. B. the opportunity for extensive media publicity. C. moral pleas. D. the efforts of party organizations. E. pressure from constituents. 71. To get the benefit of interest group activities but not to pay for them is known as: A. night riding. B. day riding. C. free riding. D. ex post riding. E. stunt riding. 72. Which journalists are most likely to agree that they should be as nonpartisan as possible in their reporting? A. German B. Swedish C. American D. British E. Italian 73. In the 1960s, presidential candidates A. received more negative coverage than they do today. B. were largely ignored by the media. C. were hounded by the media incessantly. D. received more favorable coverage than they do today. E. None of these answers is correct. 74. The Internet has A. strengthened the news-reading habits of Americans. B. strongly strengthened the news-reading habits of Americans that are regular internet users. C. failed to strengthen the news-reading habits of Americans. D. decreased the information gap between older and younger Americans. E. All these answers are correct. 75. The traditional media have "softened" their news by A. infusing it with more partisan talk shows. B. infusing it with more stories about celebrities, crime, and the like. C. infusing it with more coverage of international affairs. D. focusing on editorials instead of non-partisan facts. E. None of these answers is correct. 76. CNN and MSNBC have responded to Fox's ratings success by A. reducing the number of talk shows in their line-up. B. increasing the number of talk-shows hosted by liberals. C. attempting to lure audiences by focusing on their unbiased news reporting. D. installing talk-show hosts with non-partisan appeal. E. installing talk-show hosts with partisan or hard-edged appeals. 77. The reason the news product is designed to fascinate as well as to inform is because A. news organizations are fundamentally businesses and must obtain revenue to survive. B. of the high level of illiteracy. C. the print media wish to emulate the broadcast media. D. of the need to compete with Hollywood productions. E. All these answers are correct. 78. If the House Rules Committee applies the "closed rule" to a bill, A. no amendments will be permitted. B. the bill will not be allowed a vote. C. the bill will require a 2/3 majority for passage. D. no further floor debate is allowed. E. no filibusters will be allowed to prevent a vote. 79. More than _____ percent of all PAC contributions go to the incumbents. A. 10 B. 30 C. 50 D. 70 E. 85 80. Committees kill roughly _____ percent of the bills submitted in Congress. A. 10 B. 25 C. 40 D. 66 E. 90 81. The trading of votes between members of Congress so that each gets the legislation he or she wants is A. gerrymandering. B. pandering. C. logrolling. D. pork-barreling. E. cloturing. 82. Which of the following statements is true? A. Political parties are unimportant in the organization of the U.S. Congress. B. Party-line voting rarely occurs in Congress. C. Party-line voting has increased in recent years. D. Partisanship makes virtually no difference in the votes cast in Congress. E. None of these answers is correct. 83. News media coverage of Congress and the president is A. about equal in amount. B. heavily tilted to presidential coverage. C. largely focused on Congress and its members. D. typically focused on areas where there is consensus between the two institutions. E. typically focused on areas where the House as opposed to the Senate is the leading chamber. 84. Most of the work on legislation in Congress is done A. by committees and their respective subcommittees. B. on the floor of the House and Senate. C. by conference committees. D. by the president. E. by bureaucratic agencies. 85. Most members of Congress are A. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones. B. controlled by special interest groups. C. interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve. D. opposed to the seniority system. E. more interested in oversight than in making laws. 86. The highest point of public support for a president is likely to occur A. during the president's first year in office. B. after reelection to a second term. C. immediately after Congress enacts a major presidential initiative. D. when international conditions are stable. E. during the president's last year in office. 87. A parliamentary system of government currently exists in A. Australia. B. Great Britain. C. Japan. D. Israel. E. All these answers are correct. 88. The two presidencies thesis refers to A. Republican and Democratic presidents. B. foreign and domestic policies. C. the first and second terms. D. positive and negative presidents. E. diplomacy and national security issues. 89. The most important factor influencing the level of a president's support is typically A. world conditions. B. the condition of the nation's economy. C. the national crime rate. D. the president's skill in the use of television. E. the condition of the nation's public schools. 90. A president's policy initiatives are significantly more successful when the president A. has the strong support of the American people. B. is a former member of Congress. C. is on good terms with other world leaders. D. is in office when the economy goes bad, which creates a demand for stronger leadership. E. None of these answers is correct. 91. A president's accomplishments have largely depended on A. the margin of victory in the presidential campaign. B. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership. C. the president's ability to come up with good ideas. D. the president's skill at balancing the demands of competing groups. E. mid-term elections. 92. The presidency has been a consistently activist office since the administration of A. Andrew Jackson. B. Abraham Lincoln. C. U.S. Grant. D. Franklin Roosevelt. E. Richard Nixon. 93. At the start of the annual budget cycle, the OMB assigns each agency a budget limit based on A. the president's instructions. B. its own projections of what is affordable. C. the Justice Department's instructions. D. Congressional guidelines. E. the guidelines of the Commerce Department. 94. Bureaucracy is best characterized in terms of A. inefficiency, inflexibility, and red tape. B. hierarchy, specialization, and rules. C. honesty, efficiency, and patronage. D. corruption, incompetence, and spoils. E. waste, red tape, and lack of rules. 95. Street-level bureaucracy refers to the discretion used by lower level officials in the A. initiation of policy. B. development of policy. C. carrying out of programs. D. evaluation of programs. E. responding to whistleblowers. 96. The Postal Service and AMTRAK are examples of A. cabinet departments. B. government corporations. C. independent agencies. D. regulatory agencies. E. presidential commissions. 97. Federal judges are A. nominated by the president. B. confirmed by the U.S. Senate. C. appointed for an indefinite period, providing they maintain "good behavior." D. all of these: nominated by the president; confirmed by the U.S. Senate; and appointed for an indefinite period, providing they maintain "good behavior." E. None of these answers is correct. 98. Most cases heard by the Supreme Court reach it under A. its original jurisdiction. B. a writ of certiorari. C. a per curiam decision. D. a writ of error. E. a writ of mandamus. 99. About _____ percent of the nation's legal cases are decided in state court systems. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75 E. 95 100. The Supreme Court is most likely to grant a hearing when a case involves A. an issue of state law as opposed to an issue of federal law. B. an issue of private law as opposed to an issue of public law. C. an issue that is being decided inconsistently by the lower courts. D. the possibility that an innocent person has been wrongly convicted of a crime. E. an issue dealing with state constitutional law.

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Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232 WINTER 2008MID-TERM EXAM #2 March 10 2008 SUGGESTED SOLUTIONSNAME: I.D.: Aids: Time: Examiner: Calculator 50 minutes Johnny LiQuestion 1 2 3 4 TotalMaximum 5 9 18 8 40Mark11. You are given the following select-and-ultimate life table: [x]
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232 WINTER 2008MID-TERM EXAM #1 - FEBRUARY 4 2008NAME: I.D.: Aids: Time: Examiner: Calculator 50 minutes Johnny S.H. LiQuestion 1 2 3 TotalMaximum 12 17 21 50Mark11. Given 2 px = 0.98, px+2 = 0.985 and 5 qx = 0.0775, calculate: (a) 3 px .3 p
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232 WINTER 2008MID-TERM EXAM #2 March 10 2008 SUGGESTED SOLUTIONSNAME: I.D.: Aids: Time: Examiner: Calculator 50 minutes Johnny LiQuestion 1 2 3 4 TotalMaximum 5 9 18 8 40Mark11. You are given the following select-and-ultimate life table: [x]
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232 ReviewBasic Probability: Sx t : Sx 0 = 1; Sx Sx t = S0 x S0 x t ; Fx t = 1 Sx t ; fx t =x= t s ds= 0;tSx t0; Sx t diff; lim t Sx t = 0 and lim t Sx t = 0 t t d dt = Fx t d dx ln S0 x ;x t=2x t = x t : force of mortality : x x dsS0' x S
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Summary of Lecture Notes - ACTSC 232, Winter 2010Part 1 - Survival Distributions and Life Tables Lecture 2, January 71.2 The Force of Mortality Let Y > 0 be a positive and continuous r.v. with df F (x) = Prcfw_Y x, pdf f (x), and sf S (x) = Prcfw_Y > x.
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Lecture 3, January 121.3 Actuarial Notation (a) The d.f. of Tx is denoted by tqx = Prcfw_Tx t = Fx(t), t 0. (b) The s.f. of Tx is denoted by tpx = Prcfw_Tx > t = Sx(t) = 1 tq x, t 0. (c) By convention, we write 1 qx = qx and 1 px = px. Hence, qx is the p
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Lecture 4, January 141.6 Life Table Consider a group of l0 newborn lives and assume that their lives are independent with the same s.f. S0(x). (a) Denote the number of survivors at age x( 0) from the group by Lx and let lx denote the expected number of s
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232 Introduction to Actuarial Mathematics Winter 2010Instructor: Jun Cai, MC 6014, 519-888-4567 ext. 36990, jcai@uwaterloo.ca Instructors Oce Hours: 10:3012:00 and 1:303:00, Wednesday, MC 6014. Course Webpage: UW - ACE (https:/uwangel.uwaterloo.ca/
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO QUIZ 1 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) The probability is (b) x = (c)5|12 9 12q0 = 1 S0 ( 3 ) = 0.0133. 4 0 x < 110. S0 (112) S0 (95)S0 (x) S0 (x)=2252x , (110x)(115x) 17 p95q95 = 5 p95 =S0 (100) S0 (95)=1015 1520 0 = 0.5.2. (a) For
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO QUIZ 2 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) 2 p[83]+1 =l[83]+3 l[83]+1= 0.7243.l85 l[80]+3(b) The probability is 2 p[80]+3 = (c)3|2= 0.8333.q[81]+1 =l85 l[81]+1l87 l[81]+1= 0.119.2. (a) Z = 1000v T40 . (b) The single benet premium of the in
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO QUIZ 3 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) i. The present value is Z= 5000 v T90 , 0 < T90 3, 5000 v 3 , T90 > 3. i1 A90:3 + v 3 3 p90 = 4549.48, ii. The single benet premium is E (Z ) = 5000A90:3 = 5000 where A1 3 = 90: (b)2 k=0v k+1 k p90 q90+k
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 Tutorial 1 3:30-4:20, Monday, January 18, in HH 11011. Assume that x =2 100xfor 0 x < 100.(a) Calculate the survival function S0 (x), x 0 for a newborn life. (b) Calculate the probability that (30) will die between ages 40 and 6
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
SOLUTIONS TO TUTORIAL 1 - ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) S0 (x) = ex 0t dt= (1 x2 ) 100for 0 x < 100 and S0 (x) = 0 for x 100.S0 (40)S0 (60) S0 (30)(b) The probability is Prcfw_10 < T30 < 30 = S30 (10) S30 (30) = (c) We have t px = (e) E [T30 ] = 70
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 Tutorial 2 3:30-4:20, Monday, February 1, HH 11011. You are give a 5-year select and ultimate life table: x l[x] l[x]+1 95 220 204 96 200 118 97 100 46 l[x]+2 130 56 30 l[x]+3 60 34 6 l[x]+4 36 8 0 lx+5 10 3 0(a) Calculate a life
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 Tutorial 3 3:30-4:20, Monday, February 22, HH 11011. A 5-year term endowment insurance on (75) pays 2000 at the moment of death if (75) dies during the 5-year term and 1200 at the end of the 5-year term if (75) is still alive then.
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO TUTORIAL 3 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) The present value of the benets is Z= (b) The APV is52000v T75 , T75 5 1200v 5 , T75 > 5.E [Z ] = 20000e0.03t 1 20 dt + 1200e0.035 = 1197.73. 25 25(c) We have E [Z 2 ] = 200020 5e20.03t 20 1 dt
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 Tutorial 4 3:30-4:20, Monday, March 8, HH 11011. You are given that A1 10 = 0.15, 50: 2. You are given that 10| ax10 p50= 0.8, and i = 0.06. Calculate a50:10 . = 4, ax = 10, sx:10 = 15 and v = 0.94. Calculate A1 :10 . x3. Consi
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO TUTORIAL 4 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. It follows from a50:10 = 1A50:10dand A50:10 = A1 10 + v 10 10 p50 that a50:10 = 7.12468. 50:10 Ex ,2. It follows from A1 :10 = 1 d ax:10 x 1 that Ax:10 = 0.24.ax:10 = ax 10| ax ,and ax:10 = 10 Ex
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 Tutorial 5 3:30-4:20, Monday, March 22, HH 1101Note that in the following questions, all premiums are determined by the equivalence principle unless stated otherwise. 1. A fully continuous whole life insurance of 1000 is issued to
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
ANSWERS TO TUTORIAL 5 ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 1. (a) By the equivalence principle, P a60 = 1000 A60 . Thus, P = 41.83. (b) We have L = 1000v Tx P aTx = (1000 + P ) v Tx P . Thus, 0.3 = Prcfw_L > 0 = Pr Tx < Hence, 0.3 = and P = 69.23.1 2. By the equivalen
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Solutions to Midterm Test ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. (a) The present value of the benets is Z= (b) The APV is E [Z ] = 1000 1000v T60 , 0 < T60 8, 700v 8 , T60 > 8. 526.02.(c) We have E [Z 2 ] = = 295078.009. Thus, V ar[Z ] = 18380.97. (d) We know that Z
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
SOLUTIONS TO QUIZ 4 ACTSC 232, WINTER 20101. Question 1 has been removed from this quiz. 2. We have a(m) xi 1 i(m) Ax 1 A(m) x = = d(m) d(m) i 1 i(m) (1 d ax ) = = (m) ax (m) (m) d ii(m) . i(m) d(m)where (m) =id i(m) d(m)and (m) =3. (a) The APV of t
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
SOLUTIONS TO Quiz 5 ACTSC 232, WINTER 2010 1. (a) By the equivalence principle, P a80 = 5000 A80 . Thus, P = 5000 A80 /(1 A80 ), where A80 =35 0e0.01t1 dt = 0.843748. 35Hence, P = 270.00. (b) L = 5000v T80 P aT80 = (5000 + P ) v T80 P . Thus, 0.2 = Pr
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232
Waterloo - ACTSC - 232