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Module Code: MANAGEMENT 10211, Spring 2011

University or Institution: Oxford Brookes

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ADL-07-Quantitative Techniques in Management-AM3 Assignment - A Question 1 How has quantitative analysis changed the current scenario in the management world today? Question 2 What are sampling techniques? Briefly explain the cluster sampling technique. Question 3 What is the significance of Regression Analysis? How does it help a manager in the decision making process? Question 4 Explain the following terms in...

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Techniques ADL-07-Quantitative in Management-AM3 Assignment - A Question 1 How has quantitative analysis changed the current scenario in the management world today? Question 2 What are sampling techniques? Briefly explain the cluster sampling technique. Question 3 What is the significance of Regression Analysis? How does it help a manager in the decision making process? Question 4 Explain the following terms in detail (give examples where necessary): a) Arithmetic mean b) Harmonic mean c) Geometric mean d) Median e) Mode Question 5 Explain the classical approach to the probability theory. Also explain the limitation of classical definition of probability. Assignment - B Question 1 Write a note on decision making in management. How one will take decision under risk and uncertainty. Question 2 The Mumbai Cricket Club, a professional club for the cricketers, has the player who led the league in batting average for many years. Over the past ten years, Amod Kambali has achieved a mean batting average of 54.50 runs with a standard deviation of 5.5 runs. This year Amod played 25 matches and achieved an average of 48.80 runs only. Amod is negotiating his contract with the club for the next year, and the salary he will be able to obtain is highly dependent upon his ability to convince the team's owner that his batting average this year was not significantly worse than in the previous years. The selection committee of the club is willing to use a 0.01 significance level. You are required to find out whether Amod's salary will be cut next year. Question 3 The salaries paid to the managers of a company had a mean of Rs. 20,000 with a standard deviation of Rs 3,000, What will be the mean and standard deviation if all the salaries are increased by 1) 10% 2) 10% of existing mean 3) Which policy would you recommend if the management does not want to have increased disparities of wages? Case Study Kushal Arora, a second year MBA student, is doing a study of companies going public for the first time. He is curious to see whether or not there is a significant relationship between the sizes of the offering (in crores of rupees) and the price per share after the issue. The data are given below: Size (in crore of rupees) 108 39 68.40 51 10.40 4.40 Price (in rupees) 12 13 19 12 6.50 4 Question You are required to calculate the coefficient of correlation for the above data set and comment what conclusion Kushal should draw from the sample. Assignment - C 1.Which of the following is not correct about construction of bar charts? (a). All bars should rise from the same base line (b). Width of the bar should be proportional to the data represented (c). The bars should be arranged from the left to right (d). Length of the bars should be proportional to the data represented 2.Which of the following is not true about mean absolute deviation :(a). Mean deviation is obtained by calculating the absolute deviations of each observation from mean (b). Mean deviation is a more comprehensive measure compared to range (c). It is conducive to further algebraic treatment (d). It cannot be computed for distributions with open end classes. 3.The value index number measures the-(a). Changes in prices of a basket of commodities from one period to another (b). Changes in quantities consumed of a basket of commodities over a period of time (c). Change in the total monetary value of a basket of commodities over a period of time (d). Change in the retail prices of various commodities 4.A market researcher wants to find out the buying behavior of the typical household during the weekends. He divides the city into various localities such that each locality represents the city population in terms of age group, gender and social status. Then he randomly selects five localities and surveys each household. Which of the following sampling techniques best describes the method used by the researcher :(a). Cluster sampling (b). Systematic sampling (c). Stratified sampling (d). Convenience sampling. 5. If every item in the data set is increased by the same quantity then the standard deviation of the data set-(a) Remains the same (b) Increases by the same quantity by which every data item is increased (c) Decreases by the same quantity by which every data item is increased (d) Increases by the square root of the same quantity by which every data item is increased 6. Which of the following is true with regard to a linear equation Y - a - bX = 0, where X is the independent variable and Y is the dependent variable :(a) The slope of the straight line is 'a' (b) The Y-intercept of the straight line is 0 (c) The Y-intercept of the straight line is 'b' (d) The slope and the Y-intercept remain constant for all combinations of X and Y values which satisfy the equation 7. Which of the following quantitative method is not used by managers to take decision :(a) Linear programming (b) Time series (c) Regression analysis (d) Hypothesis testing 8. In the graphical method of solving linear programming problems the feasible region is the set of all points-(a) Which does not satisfy any of the constraints? (b) Which satisfy exactly one of the constraints? (c) Which satisfy all the constraints? (d) At which the objective function has the same value? 9. Which of the following is false in regard to histogram :(a) The class intervals are represented by the base of the rectangles (b) The frequencies are represented by the heights of the rectangle (c) If the class intervals are of equal width then the bases of the rectangles will be equal in length (d) The tallest rectangle in a histogram represents the class interval with the lowest frequency 10. Which of the following measures in not affected by the presence of extreme values in a dataset :(a) Range (b) Arithmetic mean (c) Standard deviation (d) Median 11. 1\2x + 1/3y - 1/3z = -1 1/3x - 1/2y -1/6z = 4 1/6x - 5/6y + 1/2z = 3 The values of x in the above simultaneous equations would be-(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 12. The following details are available with regard to a data set: Sx = 33, Sx2 = 199, n = 6. If each observation in the data set is multiplied by 2 then the standard deviation of the resulting values will be equal to: (a) (35/3)1/2 (b) 35/3 (c) 3 (d) 25 13. The following data pertains to three commodities :Commodity Price in 2004 (Rs. /kg) Price in 1994 (Rs. /kg) Rice Wheat Pulses 11.50 13.50 26 9.50 8.50 20 The base year is 1994. The unweighted aggregates price index for the year 2004 is approximately-(a) 115.62 (b) 125.45 (c) 134.21 (d) 250.55 14. If the regression equation is the perfect estimator of the dependent variable then which of the following is false? (a) The standard error of estimate is zero (b) The coefficient of correlation is zero (c) The coefficient of determination is 1.00 (d) All the data points fall on the regression line 15. If the regression equation is a perfect estimator of the dependent variable then which of the following is false :(a) The standard error of estimate is zero (b) The coefficient of correlation is zero (c) The coefficient of determination is 1.00 (d) All the data points fall on the regression line 16. Which of the following represents the proportion of variation in the dependent variable that is explained by the regression line :(a) Coefficient of determination (b) Coefficient of correlation (c) Coefficient of variation (d) Standard error of estimate 17. If the coefficient of correlation between the two variables lies between -1 and 0, then the covariance between them is-(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Equal in magnitude to the variances of both the variables 18. If bYX is the slope of coefficient of regression line of Y on X, and bXY is the slope coefficient of regression line of X on Y then which of the following is true :(a) bYX is positive implies that bXY is positive (b) bYX is positive implies that bXY is negative (c) bYX and bXY are reciprocals (d) The product of bYX and bXY is zero 19. A graphical method of representing states of nature and courses of action involved in decision making is referred to as-(a) Decision tree (b) Histogram (c) Scatter diagram (d) Frequency distribution 20. If the probability of occurrence of one event is not affected by the occurrence of another event and vice versa then the two events are said to be-(a) Collectively exhaustive (b) Independent (c) Dependent (d) Mutually exclusive 21. Bayes' theorem helps the statistician to calculate--(a) Dispersion (b) Subjective probability (c) Posterior probability (d) Classical probability 22. In a binomial distribution the probability of getting zero or more numbers of successes is equal to-(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) The probability of getting zero success (d) The probability of getting successes in all trials 23. Which of the following measures represent the scatter of the values in a data set :(a) Arithmetic mean (b) Geometric mean (c) Standard deviation (d) Median 24. As the sample size increases-(a) The variation of the sample mean from the population mean becomes larger (b) The variation of the sample mean from the population mean becomes smaller (c) The variance of the sample becomes less than the variance of the population (d) The standard deviation of the sample becomes more than the standard deviation of the population. 25. In the graphical method of solving linear programming problems if there is a unique optimal solution, then the optimal solution-(a) Is always found at the center of the feasible region (b) Is always at the origin (c) Lies outside the feasible region (d) Is located at one of the corner points of the feasible region 26. A multiple regression equation has-(a) Multiple dependent variables (b) One independent variable (c) One dependent variable (d) A standard error of estimate equal to zero 27. Which of the following conditions indicate the existence of multiple optimal solutions when a linear programming problem is solved by the graphical method :(a) One of the constraints is parallel to the horizontal axis (b) The objective function is parallel to the vertical axis (c) The objective function is parallel to one of the edges of the feasible region which is in the direction of optimal movement of the objective function (d) If two or more constraints are parallel to each other 28 Three persons enter into a railway carriage and there are 8 seats available. In how many ways they can seat themselves? (a) 24 (b) 336 (c) 40 (d) 56 29. In which of the following the simple harmonics mean is appropriate :(a) A set of ratios using the numerators of the ratio data as weights (b) A set of ratios using the denominators of the ratio data as weights (c) A set of ratios which have been calculated with the same numerators (d) A set of ratios which have been calculated with the same denominators 30. Which of the following statements is not true about standard deviation? (a) Combined standard deviation of two or more groups can be calculated (b) The sum of the squares of the deviations of items of any series from a value other than the arithmetic mean would always be smaller (c) Standard deviation is independent of any change of origin (d) Standard deviation is dependent on the change of scale 31. Which of the following is/are true with respect to geometric mean :(a) Geometric mean cannot be calculated if any of the value in the set is zero. (b) Geometric mean is appropriate for averaging the ratios of change, for average of proportions, etc. (c) Geometric mean is considered most suitable average for index numbers. (i) Only (I) above (ii) Only (II) above (iii) All (I), (II) and (III) above (iv) Only (II) above 32. The probability of getting two heads from three tosses of a fair coin is-(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/2 33. If A and B are two mutually exclusive events and P(A) = 2/3, then the probability of events A and B happening together is-(a) 0 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/2 34. Which of the following can be directly used as the test statistic in hypothesis tests on the basis of non standardized scale :(a) The sample mean, when the test involves the population mean. (b) The difference between two sample means, when the tests involve the difference between two population means. (c) The sample proportion when the test is about the population proportion (i) Only (a) above (ii) Only (b) above (iii) Only (c) above (iv) All (a), (b), (c) above 35. A box contains 60 ball point pens out of which 10 pens are defective. 8 pens are randomly picked up from the box. The probability distribution of the number of pens which are randomly picked, will be-(a) A discrete uniform distribution (b) A binomial distribution (c) A hyper geometric distribution (d) A Chi- square distribution 36. If we consider the process of selecting a simple random sample as an experiment then which of the following can be treated as random variable(s)? (a) Sample mean (b) Sample standard deviation (c) Sample range (d) Sample median (i) Only (a) above (ii) Only (b) above (iii) All (a), (b), (c), (d) above (iv) Only (d) above 37. The covariance of random variable with itself is always-(a) A positive quantity (b) A negative quantity (c) 0 (d) Less than its expected value 38. A man has 6 friends. In how many ways he can invite one or more of them to a party? (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 119 (d) 120 39. Find x; if logx/log2 = log36/log4 (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 40. The empirical relationship between range (R) and mean deviation (M.D) is-(a) 2R=15M.D (b) 3R=17M.D (c) R=17M.D (d) 3R=M.D ADL-09-Human Resource ManagementAM2 Assignment - A Question 1. What do you mean by Human Resource Management? Also discuss in brief both the managerial and the operative function of Human Resource Management. Question 2. Define the term 'Human Resource Planning'. Also explain in brief, the process of Human Resource Planning. Question 3. Write short notes on any three of the following: Job Analysis Job Enlargement Job Enrichment Sources of Human Resource Supply Process of Selection Socialization Question 4. Discuss in brief, the methods of training. Question 5. What are the skills required by executives? Also explain the methods of developing such skills. Assignment - B Question 1. Distinguish between 'Performance Appraisal' and 'Potential Appraisal'. Also discuss in brief, the methods of performance appraisal. Question 2. Distinguish between 'Monetary Rewards' and 'Non Monetary Rewards'. Also enlist various types of monetary and non monetary rewards. Question 3. Write short notes on any three of the following: 1. Emerging HR issues in knowledge industry 2. Incentive plans for operative staff 3. Functions of Trade Union 4. The Expatriate Problems 5. Existing machinery for settlement of industrial dispute in our country Case Study "You call this Selection Interview"! Suresh Kumar was production manager for Singer Industries Limited, a Noida based electrical appliance company near Delhi. Suresh had to approve the hiring of new supervisors in the plant. The HR manager performed the initial screening. On Friday afternoon, Suresh got a call from Anil Dhavan, Singer's HR Director. 'Suresh' Anil said, "I have just talked to a young engineering graduate from a regional engineering college who may be just who you're looking for to fill that supervisor job you asked me about. He has some good work experience in a multinational firm located in Pune, but at a lower salary level. He wants to come over to Noida where his parents live". Suresh replied, well, Anilji, "I would take care of the boy". Anil continued, "He is here right now in my office, I am sending him to you, if you are free". Suresh hesitated a moment before replying, "Great Sir", I am certainly busy today but I can't afford to displease your either. Sir, send him immediately". A moment later, Ranga Rao, the new applicant arrived at Suresh's office and introduced himself. "Come on in Rao", said Suresh. "I'll be right with you after I make a few urgent phone calls". Fifteen minutes later, Suresh finished the calls and began interviewing Rao. Suresh was quite impressed. The merit certificates, the best suggestion award from previous multinational firm and Rao's quick responses revealed the candidate's potential. Meanwhile, Suresh's door opened and a supervisor yelled, "we have a small problem on line number 5 and need your help". "Sure", Suresh replied, "Excuse me a minute, Rao". Fifteen minutes later, Suresh returned and the dialogue continued for another few minutes before a series of phone calls again interrupted him. The same pattern of interruption continues for the next forty minutes. Rao looked at the watch embarrassingly and said, "I am sorry. Suresh, I have to go now. I have to catch the train to Pune at 9 P. M.". "Sure thing, Rao, "Suresh said as the phone rang again. "Call me after a week". Question 01. What specific policies might a company follow to avoid interviews like this one? Question 02. Explain why Suresh and not Anil should make the selection decision. Question 03. Is it a food policy to pick up candidates through 'employees referral method? Why and why not? Explain keeping the case in the background. Assignment - C 1. The secret of the success of Japanese companies lies in the fact that: (A). they use state of the art technology (B). they pay higher wages to their employ (C). they view employs as there most valuable asset (D). they are hard task masters 2. Human resource management does not look after: (A). procurement and development of human factor for the human organization (B). Compensation and integration of human factor for the organization (C). Maintenance of human factor in the organization (D). dehumanizing in the organization 3. Which of the following is not a true statement in respect of objectives of hrm? (A). HRM ensure respect for human factor in the organization (B). HRM motivates satisfies and maintain high moral of the employees (C). HRM helps in promoting well being of the society (D). HRM helps in enhancing the rate of labour turnover 4. New concepts like TQM, kaizen, QWL and Employment came into prominence during: (A). 1950s (B). 1970s (C). 1990s (D). 1930s 5. The concept of welfare stage in HRM started from: (A). 1920-1930 (B). 1980-1990 (C). 1905-1910 (D). 1915-1920 6. Which of the following in managerial function? (A). Staffing and directing (B). Procurement and development (C). Compensation and integration (D). Maintenance and integration 7. HRM is now being considered as: (A). Disciplinary department (B). Strategic management function (C). Inter disciplinary department (D). Auxiliary function 8. Which is not true? (A). HR planning is helpful in detailing the number of kinds of personal required (B). It spell out the qualification skill and expertise of personal required in all organization (C). It give lead times for recruitment Selection training and development of personal (D). HR planning integrates the employees into the organization 9. Which of the following is not a stage of the process of the HR planning? (A). Identifying objective (B). Developing manpower (C). Assessing Business plan (D). Manpower audit 10. Once job analysis is conducted, the data reviewed is: (A). Job description (B). Job enlargement (C). Job enrichment (D). Downsizing 11. Which is not true regarding job analysis? (A). It is a process of data collection (B). It is a procedure through which fact are gathered for rich job (C). Information about the job is systematically discovered & noted (D). It is a process of data dissemination 12. Job description does not consist of: (A). Job summary (B). Job evaluation (C). Hazards involved (D). Pay 13. Who of the following is not the source of job information in connections with job analysis? (A). Job holder (B). Independent observers (C). Interviews (D). Pay commission 14. Recruitment is not: (A). The process of searching for prospective candidates and simulating them to apply for job in the organization (B). Attracting lot of potential for the company (C). A positive concept (D). Selecting the best candidates 15. Which of the following is not a stage in the process of selection? (A). Advertisement (B). Initial contract (C). Screening (D). Physical examination 16. Which is not a Pseudo way of selecting applicant? (A). Astrology (B). Phrenology (C). Graphology (D). Ecology 17. Career planning is: (A). All the jobs that are held during ones working life (B). Future position ones trives to reach as a part of career (C). The stage through which a person's career evolves (D). The process by which one selects career goals and the path to these goals 18. Which of the following is not the step in the career planning and development process? (A). Analyzing the skill aptitudes & knowledge of the employ (B). Formulation policies (C). Identifying and analyzing career opportunities (D). Preparing action plans and periodic review 19. Which of the following is not on-the- job method of training? (A). Apprenticeship (B). Position rotation (C). Vestibule school (D). Role playing 20. Which of the following is not off-the- job method of training? (A). case studies (B). simulation (C). sensitivity training (D). special project 21. Which of the following is not the technique of developing executives? (A). Business games (B). Case studies (C). In basket exercises (D). Apprenticeship 22. Which of the following is not the principle of training? (A). Motivation (B). Active participation (C). Perception (D). Re-enforcement 23. in the paired comparison technique of performance appraisal, which of the following formulae is applied? (A). no. of comparison =N(N-1)/2 B. no. of comparison =N-(N-1)/1 (C). no. of comparison =N-(N-1)/2 (D). no. of comparison =N-(N-1)/131 24. Which of the following is not one of the modern methods of performance appraisal? (A). 360 Technique (B). Human resource accounting (C). Descriptive evaluation (D). Bars 25. Which of the following statements regarding MBO is not true? (A). MBO has emerged as reaction to the traditional management practices (B). MBO has a special provision for mutual goal setting (C). There is no special provision in MBO for appraising of progress by both the appraiser and the appraise (D). MBO is based on behavioral value of fundamental trust in the goodness of human beings 26. Which of the following incentives plans is not for blue collar employees? (A). straight piece rate plan (B). salary plan (C). differential piece rate plan (D). straight piece rate with guaranteed minimum wages 27. Which of the following incentive plans is not for while collar employees? (A). salary plan (B). salary & commission plan (C). commission plan (D). bedaux plan 28. Which of the following is not an incentive plan for individuals under blue collar employees? (A). Priest man plan (B). Rowan plan (C). Emerson plan (D). Bedaux plan 29. Performance based rewards do not include: (A). Social security benefits (B). Piece work (C). Commission (D). Merit pay plan 30. The objectives of compensation administration are not to: (A). Simplify collective bargaining (B). Boost the moral of employee (C). Plan for effective manpower training (D). Eliminate chances of favoritism 31. Which of the following is not a closely related aspect of wage administration? (A). Compensation survey (B). Job evaluation (C). Performances appraisal (D). Merit rating (E). Incentives 32. Which of the following is not one the principles of compensation administration? (A). Wages policies need not be clearly expressed in writing (B). Job description and rating should be periodically checked to keep them updated (C). Wage decision should be checked up against carefully formulated policies (D). It is a management's responsibility to make the wage policy known to every employee 33. Which of these is not an internal cause of indiscipline? (A). Divide and rule policy (B). Biesed attitude of management (C). Defective supervision (D). Violence and disturbance in the country 34. Which of the not the objectives of labour relations? (A). To promote general welfare of workers (B). To promote industrial democracy through workers participation in management (C). To enhanced labour turnover (D). To improve productivity of the organization 35. Which of the following is not a measure to prevent industrial disputes? (A). Works committees (B). voluntary arbitration (C). Collective bargaining (D). Labour co partnership 36. Which of the following is not a part of adjudication machinery? (A). Labour court (B). Board of conciliation (C). Industrial tribunals (D). National tribunals 37 Which of the following is not the feature of collective bargaining? (A). It is a group action (B). It is a static and rigid process (C). It is a continuous process (D). It is an advanced form of human relations 38. Which of the following is not a sub part of negotiating stage? (A). Identification of problems (B). Preparation of negotiation (C). Negotiation of agreement (D). Workers of participation in management 39. Which of the following is not a type of negotiating procedure? (A). Haggling bargaining (B). Price bargaining (C). Continuous bargaining (D). boulwarism bargaining 40. Which of the following is not the cause for limited success of collective bargaining in India? (A). Multiplicity of trade union (B). Weak trade union (C). Difficult accessibility of adjudication (D). Interference of political parties ADL-13-Financial Management-AM2 Assignment - A Question 1a: Should the titles of c ontroller and treasurer be adopted under Indian context? Would you like to modify their functions in v iew of the company practice in India? Justify your opinion? Question 1b: firm purchases a machinery for Rs. 8,00,000 by making a down payment of Rs.1,50,000 and remainder in equal installments of Rs. 1,50,000 for six years. What is the rate of interest to the firm? Question 2a: Explain the mechanism of calculating the present v alue of cash flows. What is annuity due? How can you calculate the present and future v alues of an annuity due? Illustrate Question 2b: "The increase in the risk-premium of all stocks, irrespective of their beta is the same when risk av ersion increases" Comment with practical examples Question 3a: How leverage is linked with capital structure? Take example of a MNC and analyse. Question 3b: The following figures relate to two companies (10) P LTD. Sales 500 Q LTD. (In Rs. Lakhs) 1,000 Variable costs Contribution Fixed costs Fixed Cost Interest Profit before tax You are required to: 200 ----300 150 ----150 50 100 300 ------700 400 ------400 100 200 (i) Calculate the operating, financial and combined leverages for the two companies; and Comment on the relative risk position of them Question 4a: Define various concepts of cost of capital. Explain the procedure of calculating weighted average cost of capital. Question 4b: The following items hav e been extracted from the liabilities side of the balance sheet of XYZ Company as on 31 December 2005. Paid up capital: 4, 00,000 equity shares of Rs each Loans: 16% non-convertible debentures 12% institutional loans Other information about the company as relevant is given below: 31st dec 2005 Dividend Per share 7.2 Earning per share 10.50 40,00,000 20,00,000 60,00,000 average market price per share 65 You are required to calculate the weighted average cost of capital, using book values as weights and earnings/price ratio as the basis of cost of equity. Assumel 9.2% tax rate Question 5a: A company has issued debentures of Rs. 50 Lakhs to be repaid after 7 years. How much should the company invest in a sinking fund earning 12% in order to be able to repay debentures? Show the procedure of loan amortization and capital recovery through an example. Question 5b: A bank has offered to you an annuity of Rs. 1,800 for 10 years if you invest Rs. 12,000 today. What is the rate of return you would earn? Assignment - B Question 1: The proforma of cost-sheet of HLL provides the f ollowing data: Cost (perunit): Raw materials Direct labour Overheads Total cost (per unit): Profit Selling price Rs. 52.0 19.5 39.0 110.5 19.5 130.0 The following is the additional information available: Average raw material in stock: one month; Average materials in process: half month; Credit allowed by suppliers: one month; Credit allowed to debtors: two months; Time lag in payment of wages: one and half weeks; Overheads: one month. One-fourth of sales are on cash basis. Cash balance expected to be Rs. 12,000. You are required to prepare a statement showing the working capital needed o finance a level of activity of 70,000 units of output. You may assume that production is carried on evenly throughout the year and wages and overheads accrue similarly. Question 2a: Through quantitative analysis prove that PI is a better technique than NPV in Capital Budgeting. Question 2b: A company is considering the following investment projects: Projects A B C D Cash Flows (Rs.) Co C1 10,000 &plus; 10,000 10,000 &plus; 7,500 10,000 &plus; 2,000 10,000 &plus; 10,000 C2 --&plus; 7,500 &plus; 4,000 &plus; 3,000 C3 ----&plus; 12,000 &plus; 3,000 I. according to each of the following methods: (1.) Payback, (2.) ARR, (3.) IRR, (4.) NPV assuming discount rates of 10 and 30 percent. II. Assuming the project is independent, which one should be accepted? If the projects are mutually exclusive, which project is the best? Question 3a: "Firm should follow a policy of very high dividend pay-out"Taking example of two organization comment on this statement" Question 3b: An investor gains nothing from bonus share "Critically analyse the statement through some real life situation of recent past. Case Study Brown Metals Ltd. Brown Metals Ltd. is considering the replacement of its existing machine which is obsolete and unable to meet the rapidly rising demand for its product. The company is faced with two alternatives: (a) to buy machine A which is similar to the existing machine or (b) To go in for machine B which is more expensiv e and has much greater capacity. The cash flows at the present level of operations under the two alternatives are as follows: Cash flow (Rs in lakhs) at the end of year Yrs. 0 1 2 3 4 5 Mac A -25 -5 20 14 14 hine Machine B -40 10 14 16 17 15 The Company's cost of capital is 10%. The Finance Manager tries to evaluate the machines by calculating the follow-ings for both the machines: 1. Net Present Value 2. Profitability Index 3. Pay Back Period 4. Discounted Payback Period. At the end of his calculations, howev er, the finance manager is unable to make up his mind as to which machine to recommend. Question: You are required to make these calculations and in the light thereof, advise the finance manager about the suitability, or otherwise, of machine A or machine B. Assignment - C 1. The main function of a finance manager is (a) capital budgeting (b) capital structuring (c) management of working c apital (d) (a),(b)and(c) 2. Earning per share (a) refers to earning of equity and preference shareholders. (b) refers to mark et v alue per share of the company. (c) reflects the value of the firm. (d) refers to earnings of equity shareholders after all other obligations of the company have been met. 3. If the cut off rate of a project is greater than IRR, we may (a) accept the proposal. (b) reject the proposal. (c) be neutral about it. (d) wait for the IRR to increase and match the cut off rate. 4. Cost of equity share capital is (a) equal to last dividend paid to equity shareholders. (b) equal to rate of discount at which expected div idends are discounted to determine their PV. (c) less than the cost of debt capital. (d) equal to dividend ex pectations of equity shareholders for coming year. 5. Degree of the total leverage (DTL) can be calculated by the following formula [Given degree of operating leverage (DOL) and degree of financial leverage (DFL)] (a) DOL + DFL (b) DOL /DFL (c) DFL-DOL (d) DOL x DFL 6. Risk- Return trade off implies (a) increasing the profits of the firm through increased production (b) not taking any loans which increase the risk of the firm (c) taking decisions in a way which optimizes the balance between risk and return (d) not granting credit to risky customers 7. The goal of a firm should be (a) maximization of profit (b) maximization of earning per share (c) maximization of value of the firm (d) maximization of return on equity 8. Current Assets minus current liabilities is equal to (a) Gross working capital (b) Capital employed (c) Net worth (d) Net working capital. 9. The indifference level of EBIT is one at which (a) EPS increases (b) EPS remains the same (c) EPS decreases (d) EBIT=EPS. 10. Money has time value since (a) The value of money gets compounded as time goes by (b) The value of money gets discounted as time goes by (c) Money in hand today is more certain than money in future (d) (b) and (c) 11. Net working capital is (a) excess of gross current assets over current liabilities (b) same as net worth (c) same as capital employed (d) same as total assets employed 12. The internal rate of return of a project is the discount rate at which NPV is (a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) negative minus positive 13. Compounding technique is (a) same as discounting technique (b) slightly different from discounting technique (c) ex actly opposite of discounting technique (d) one where interest is compounded more than once in a year. 14. For determining the value of a share on the basis of P/E ratio, information is required regarding: (a) earning per share (b) normal rate of return (c) capital employed in the business (d) contingent liabilities 15. Tandon committee suggested inventory and receivable norms for (a) 15 major industries (b) 20 minor industries (c) 25 major and minor industries (d) 30 major and minor industries 16. Capital structure of ABC Ltd. consists of equity share capital of Rs. 1,00,000 (10,000 share of Rs. 10 each) and 8% debentures of Rs. 50,000 & earning before interest and tax is Rs. 20,000. The degree of financial leverage is (a) 1.00 (b) 1.25 (c) 2.50 (d) 2.00 17. The following data is given for a company. Unit SP = Rs. 2, Variable cost/unit = Re. 0.70, Total fixed cost- Rs. 1,00,000 Interest Charges Rs. 3,668, Output-1,00,000 units. The degree of operating leverage is (a) 4.00 (b) 4.33 (c) 4.75 (d) 5.33 18. Market price of equity share of a company Rs. is 25 and the dividend expected a year hence is Rs. 10. The expected rate of dividend growth is 5%. The cost of equal capital to company will be (a) 40% (b) 45% (c) 35% (d) 50% 19. The dilemma of "liquidity Vs profitability" arise in case of (a) Potentially sick unit (b) Any business organization (c) Only public sector unites (d) Purely trading companies 20. The present value of Rs. 15000 receivable in 7 years at a discount rate of 15% is (a) 5640 (b) 5500 (c) 5900 (d) 5940 21. A bond of Rs. 1000 bearing coupon rate of 12% is redeemable at par in 10 yrs. If the required rate of return is 10% the value of bond is (a) 1000 (b) 1123 (c) 1140 (d) 1150 22. The EPS of ABC Ltd. is Rs. 10 & cost of capital is 10%.The market price of share at return rate of 15% and dividend pay out ratio of 40% is (a) 100 (b) 120 (c) 130 (d) 150 23. The credit term offered by a supplier is 3/10 net 60.The annualized interest cost of not availing the cash discount is (a) 22.58% (b) 27.45% (c) 37.75% (d) 38.50% 24. The costliest of long term sources of finance is (a) Preference share capital (b) Retained earnings (c) Equity share capital (d) Debentures 25. Which of the following approaches advocates that the cost of equity capital & debit capital remains the degree of leverages varies (a) Net income approach (b) Net operating income approach (c) Traditional approac h (d) Modigliani-Miller approach 26. Which of the following is not a feature of an optimal capital structure. (a) Profitability (b) Safety (c) Flexibility (d) Control 27. While calculating weighted average cost of capital (a) Retained earnings are excluded (b) Bank borrowings for working capital are included (c) Cost of issues are included (d) Weights are based on market value or on book value 28. Which of the following factors influence the capital structure of a business entity? (a) Bargaining power with suppliers (b) Demand for product of company (c) Expected income (d) Technology adopted 29. According to the Walters model, a firm should have 100% dividend pay-out ratio when. (a) r = ke (b) r < ke (c) r > ke (d) g > ke 30. Operating cycle can be delayed by (a) Increase in WIP period (b) Decrease in raw material storage period (c) Decrease in credit payment period (d) Both a & c above 31. If net working capital is negative, it signifies that (a) The liquidity position is not comfortable (b) The current ratio is less then 1 (c) Long term uses are met out of short- term sources (d) All of a, b and c above 32. Which of the following models on dividend policy stresses on investors preference for the current dividend (a) Traditional model (b) Walters model (c) Gordon model (d) MM model 33. Which of the following is a technique for monitoring the status of receivables (a) ageing schedule (b) outstanding creditors (c) selection matrix (d) credit ev aluation 34. Average collection period is equal to (a) 360/ Receiv ables Turnover Ratio (b) Average Creditors / Sales per day (c) Sales / Debtors (d) Purchases / Debtors 35. In IRR, the cash flows are assumed to be reinvested in the project at (a) Internal rate of return (b) cost of capital (c) Marginal cost of capital (d) risk free rate 36. In a capital budgeting decision, incremental cash flow mean (a) cash flows which are increasing. (b) cash flows occurring ov er a period of time (c) cash flows directly related to the project (d) difference between cash inflows and outflows for each and every expenditure. 37. The simple EOQ model will not hold good under which of the following conditions (a) Stochastic demand (b) constant unit price (c) Zero lead time (d) Fixed ordering costs 38. The opportunity cost of capital refers to the (a) net present v alue of the investment. (b) return that is foregone by inv esting in a project. (c) required investment in a project. (d) future value of the investments cash flows. 39. Which of the following factors does not influence the composition of Working Capital requirements (a) Nature of the business (b) seasonality of operations (c) availability of raw materials (d) amount of fixed assets 40. The capital structure ratio measure the (a) Financial Risk (b) Business Risk (c) Market Risk (d) operating risks ADL-10-Marketing Research-AM3 Assignment - A Question 1. "Food Mania" is a chain of fast food restaurants located in major metropolitan areas in the south. Sales have been growing very slowly for the last two years. Management has decided to add some new items to the menu, but first they want to know more about their customers and their preferences. (a) List two Hypothesis (b) What kind of research design is appropriate? Why? Question 2. Develop a plan for conducting a focus group to determine consumers' attitudes towards and preferences for imported automobiles. Specify the objectives of the focus group, write a screening questionnaire, and develop a moderato's outline. Question 3. You are in the marketing research department of a firm specializing in developing decision support system (DCS) for the health care Industry. Your firm would like to measure the attitudes of hospital administrators towards DSS. The interview would be conducted by telephone. You have been asked to develop an appropriate scale for this purpose. Management would like you to explain and justify your reasoning in constructing the scale. Question 4. After receiving some complaints from readers, your campus newspaper decides to redesign its front page. Two new formats B and C were developed and tested against the current format, A. A total of 75 students were randomly selected and 25 students were randomly assigned to each of three format conditions. The students were asked to evaluate the effectiveness of the format on an 11-point scale. ( 1 = Poor, 11 = excellent ) (a) State the null hypothesis (b) What statistical test should you use? (c) What are the degrees of freedom associated with the test statistic? Question 5. Describe the appropriate target population and the sampling frame in each of the following situations: (a) The manufacturer of a new cereal brands want to conduct in home product usage test in Chicago. (b) A national chain store wants to determine the shopping behavior of customers who have in store charge card. (c) A local TV station wants to determine households' viewing habits and programming preferences. (d) The local chapter of the American Marketing Association wants to test the effectiveness of its new member drive in Atlanta. Assignment - B Question 1. Develop a series of questions for determining the proportion of households with children under age 10 where child abuse takes place. Use the randomized response technique. Question 2. A manufacturer would like to survey users to determine the demand potential for a new power press. The new press has a capacity of 500 tons and cost $225,000.It is used for forming products from lightweight ad heavyweight steel can be used by automobile, construction equipment and major appliance manufacturers. a. Identify the population and sampling frame that could be used. b. Describe how a simple random sample can be drawn using the identified sampling frame. c. Could a stratified sample be used? If so , how? d. Could a cluster sample be used? If so, how? e. Which sampling technique would you recommend? Why? Question 3. A major department store chain is having an end -of -season sale on refrigerators. The number of refrigerators sold during this sale at a sample of 10 stores was: a. Is there evidence that an average of more than 50 refrigerators per store were sold during this sale? Use alpha = 0.05 b What assumption is necessary to perform this test? Case Study Nike Sprints Ahead of the Competition, Yet H as a Long Way to Run Nike Inc. locate d in Beaverton, Oregon is the number one U.S. athletic footwear company and one of the most recognized American brands among foreign consumers. The high degree of recognition is one of the main reasons Nike has been so successful. For the 2005 fiscal year ending May 31, 2005 the company continued to soar, with sales of over $13.7 billion. As of 2006 the company's trademarks included Nike and Swoosh design and were sold under the brand names Cole Hann, Bauer, and N ike. The company operated 23 distribution centers in Europe, Asia, Australia, Latin America, Africa and Canada. Perhaps such success could be attributed to its concept based advertising campaigns. The company uses a process that is often called "image transfer". Nike ads traditionally did not specifically place a product or mention the brand name. A mood or atmosphere is created and than brand is associated with that mood. "We don't set out to make ad the ultimate goal is to make connection." States Dan Wieden, executive at one of Nike's ad agency. One ad features the Beatles and clips of Nike athletes, Michael Jordan and John McEnroe, Juxtaposed with pictures of regular folk also engaged in sports. It was use to infer that real athletes preferred Nike and that perhaps if general audience buy the brand they will play better, too. Nike's unpredictable image -based ads have ranged from the shocking, such as its portrayal of real blood and guts in the" search and destroy" campaign used during the 1996 Olympics games, to humors, such as the first ad used to launch Michael Jordan's brand wear. The latter advertising made the tongue-in-check suggestion that Jordan himself had a hand in the production by sleeping away from a bull's game at half to run over to his company and than return in time for the games second half. In 1998 Nike shifted to a new phase in its marketing strategy. Nike emphasized more of its product innovation skills than the jokey, edgy attitude that it displayed in previous year." We recognize that our ads need to tell consumers that we are about product innovation and not just athletes and exposure. We need to prove to consumer that we are not just slapping a swoosh on stuff to make a buck," said Chris Zimmerman director of Nike's U.S. advertising. With the launch of the "I can" campaign, Nike showed fewer of the celebrity athletes who previously usage than in the previous "Just Do It" campaign. Competitors Reebok and Adidas recently featured more product focused ads and were met with a great deal of success. Despite this rearranged focus, Nike did not back away from innovative marketing. On September 4, 2003 Nike acquired converse Inc. And on august 11, 2004, the company acquired starter properties LLC and Official Starter LLC. On august 4, 2005, Adidas confirmed that it had agreed to acquire Reebok for $3.8 billion. Industry official saw more consolidated ahead. In 2005, Bill Perez, president and CEO of Nike, stated that developing markets - India, Thailand, Indonesia China, Russia- and the development of Converse , Starter and Nike's other subsidiary presented big growth opportunity. "We've just scratched the surface in the women's fitness. In soccer, we have become world's leading on-field performance brand. And we have been able to leverage that on-field success by creating entirely new category of soccer street foot ware. And we see opportunities like this throughout the portfolio." As the company looks ahead of 2010, at the heart of the Nike's future strategy is the international arena, which could prove to be the most difficult element for Nike to undertake. There seems to be a pretty strong recognition that by 2010, Nike would be largest outside the U S than inside. Most recently Nike bought out many of its worldwide distribution centers in order to have greater control of its operation. In the future Nike would like to build up its presence in the key market of India, Thailand, Indonesia, Brazil, China, and Russia. Nike will focus its advertising on sports and will feature sports that are of particular interest in specific region. Nike realizes that while it is ahead of its competition, it still has a long, long way to run. Questions: 1. Should N ike switch a focus on celebrity to a focus on its products in its advertising? Discuss the role of marketing research in helping N ike management take the decision. What kind of research should be undertaken? 2. How would you describe the buying behavior of consumers with respect to athlete footwear? 3. What is the management decision problem facing Nike as it attempt to retain its leadership position? 4. Define the marketing research problem facing N ike, given the management decision problem you have identified? 5. How can the internet be used to help Nike in conducting marketing research and in marketing its products? Assignment - C 1. The respondent's perceptions that their identities will not be discerned by the interviewer or the researcher (a) Social desirability (b) Critical request (c) Perceived anonymity (d) Non response bias 2. Observation bias for mechanical observation (a) Low (b) High (c) Medium (d) Extremely high 3. Pretest-Posttest Control Group is which type of Experimental design (a) Pre-experimental (b) Quasi experimental (c) True experimental (d) Statistical 4. The process of correcting data to reduce them to the sample scale by subtracting the sample mean and dividing by the standard deviation (a) Generalization (b) Scale transformation (c) Standardization (d) Variable re - specification 5. Scale intervals can be used for (a) Family lifestyle (b) Age (c) Occupation (d) Sampling 6. The process of recognizing and noting people (a) Direct observation method (b) Experimental method (c) Attitude research (d) Data gathering 7. Descriptive research is a type of (a) Exploratory Research (b) Attitude research (c) Conclusive research (d) Experimental research 8. What is meant by value of research information? (a) How valuable the data is for the client (b) cost benefit analysis of the data (c) Information collected from various sources (d) Total time collected in gathering information 9. The efficiency of OTC products is checked by (a) Retailers only (b) Consumers only (c) Manufacturers only (d) Distributors only 10. An extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or in the observers or scores themselves (a) Interactive testing effect (b) Instrumentation (c) Statistic (d) Sampling 11. _____may be broadly classified as exploratory or conclusive (a) Job design (b) Longitudinal design (c) Cross-sectional design (d) Research design 12. The time which a respondent takes before answering the question (a) Response error (b) Response Latency (c) Verbal models (d) Voice pitch analysis 13. An extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the experiment is in process (a) Interactive testing effect (b) Instrumentation (c) Statistic (d) Mortality 14. Which one of these is a Market Research Firm? (a) PWC (b) Ernst and Young (c) AC Nielsen (d) Voltas 15. A focus group technique using a telecommunication network (a) Telephonic group (b) Telephonic interview (c) Tele session group (d) Mortality 16. In Exploratory research design the methods are used (a) Expert surveys (b) pilot surveys (c) Qualitative research (d) all of them 17. The research methodology which provides insights and understanding to the problem is (a) Causal research (b) Descriptive research (c) Exploratory research (d) all of them 18. When is the transcribing process of data preparation irrelevant? (a) CAPI (b) Mall panel (c) In home interview (d) all of them 19. A scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (a) Semantic differential scale (b) likert scale (c) Continuous rating scale (d) Staple scale 20. Companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients (a) Customized services (b) Syndicated services (c) Field services (d) all of them 21. Which is a type of limited services? (a) Analytical services (b) Customized services (c) Standardized services (d) Internet services 22. Types of syndicated services (a) Purchase panel (b) Tracking data (c) Audit services (d) all of them 23. The research design which is used to obtain the evidence of cause and effect relationship (a) Exploratory research (b) Descriptive (c) Cause and effect (d) Cross-sectional 24. What is list of all units/observations is known as? (a) Sampling frame (b) Sampling size (c) Parameter (d) Statistics 25. Promotion of cable TV affects the health of a child 1) strongly agrees 2) agree 3) disagree 4) strongly disagree 5) undecided is an example of: (a) Ordinal scale (b) Summated scale (c) Nominal scale (d) Arbitrary scale 26. Multiple choice questions for which usually only two responses are given such as : yes -no , male-female. (a) Open-ended questions (b) Multiple choice questions (c) Dichotomous questions (d) Unstructured questions 27. The summary description of a fixed characteristic or measure of a target population is known as : (a) Parameter (b) Precision (c) Statistic (d) Quota 28. Which of the following is a technique of exploratory research design? (a) Focus group interviews (b) Simulation (c) Secondary data (d) Interrogation of respondents 29. Which of the following techniques is commonly used in social science research? (a) Deliberate sampling (b) Multistage sampling (c) Cluster sampling (d) Systematic sampling 30. Ranking of a team can de done with the help of : (a) Ratio scale (b) Interval scale (c) Ordinal scale (d) Nominal scale 31. What is the degree of freedom for F-test? (a) n-k-2 (b) n (c) n-k (d) n-k-1 32. Which of the following is the source of secondary data? (a) Mail interviews (b) Focus groups (c) Delphi technique (d) Sales records 33. What is the another name for single cross-sectional designs? (a) Longitudinal designs (b) Sample survey design techniques (c) Projective techniques (d) Causal design 34. Questions to which the respondents can answer in their own words (a) Dichotomous questions (b) Unstructured questions (c) Structured questions (d) None of the above 35. Number of units to be included in the study is called (a) Sampling frame (b) Sampling (c) Sample size (d) Sampling unit 36. Technique used to motivate respondents to enlarge on, clarify or explain their answers (a) Interviewing (b) Sampling (c) Probing (d) Questioning 37. Non-metric data can be measured on (a) Interval (b) Nominal or ordinal scale (c) Ratio scale (d) None of the above 38. Which of the following represents the middle value when the data is arranged in the ascending or descending order? (a) Mode (b) Median (c) Mean (d) Average 39. Story - telling is an example of (a) Delphi technique (b) Observational methods (c) Depth interviews (d) Projective technique 40. "A Local radio station asks people to call in and express their reactions to some controversial issues "is an example of: (a) Judgment sample (b) Convenience sample (c) Quota sample (d) Probabilistic sample ADL-12-Business Laws-AM4 Assignment - A Question 1. Discuss the essential elements of a valid contract. Question 2. What do you understand by the 'doctrine of caveat emptor'? Explain. Question 3. Explain in detail the "doctrines of Indoor Management" and "doctrine of constructive notice" Question 4. Describe the kinds of Resolutions passed by the Board Directors under the companies Act, 1956. Question 5. Define "goods". Explain the conditions and warranties implied by law in a contract for sale of goods. Assignment - B Question 1. Enumerate the duties of an Arbitrator; Differentiate domestic and foreign awards. Question 2. Nagendra issued a cheque in favour of Happy-home, a charitable institution, as his share of charitable subscription. The banker returned the cheque for the reason of insufficiency of funds in the drawer's account.. The banker returned the cheque for the reason of insufficiency of funds in the drawer's account. The demand for payment by way of written notice to Nagendra by Happy-home should be made within how many days from the date of receipt of information of the dishounour to initiate an action under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? Question 3. Baiju, a singer, enters into a contract with Alok, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre three nights in every week during the next three months, and Alok promises to pay him Rs.5,000 for each night's performance. On the during the next three months, and Alok promises to pay him Rs.5,000 for each night's performance. On the seventh night, Baiju wilfully absents himself from the theatre. Can Alok put an end to the contract? Assignment - C 1. Which of the following contracts, in order to be valid under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, must be in writing, stamped and registered? (a) Creation of a trust under the Indian Trust Act (b) A promise to pay a time barred debt (c) Cheque (d) Contracts for sale of immoveable property (e) Bill of exchange. 2. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, "every promise or set of promises forming the consideration for each other" is known as (a) Offer (b) Contract (c) Agreement (d) Consideration (e) Acceptance. 3. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, if all the parties to a contract substitute a new contract for an existing contract, it is known as (a) Rescission (b) Restitution (c) Novation (d) Remission (e) Waiver. 4. Which of the following agreements is voidable under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? (a) Agreements by incompetent parties (b) Agreements where consent is obtained by way of coercion (c) Agreements under mutual mistake of fact material to the agreement (d) Agreements in restraint of marriage (e) Agreements with unlawful consideration. 5. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following agreements is Not considered to be opposed to public policy? (a) Agreements restricting the enforcement of rights (b) Agreements curtailing the period of limitation (c) Agreement to refer to arbitration any disputes which have arisen or which may arise in future (d) Agreements in restraint of marriage (e) Agreements in restraint of trade. 6. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the damages which are usually assessed on the basis of the actual loss suffered by the plaintiff are known as (a) General damages (b) Special damages (c) Vindictive damages (d) Nominal damages (e) Exemplary damages. 7. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in which of the following circumstances a continuing guarantee May not be revoked? (a) By Novation (b) By death of surety in respect of transactions prior to the date of death (c) Release or discharge of principal debtor (d) Compounding by the creditor with the principal debtor (e) Loss of security by the creditor. 8. Abhimanyu purchased a Ford Ikon car and obtained a comprehensive insurance policy from Continental Insurance Company. This type of contract is known as (a) A wagering contract (b) A contract of guarantee (c) A voidable contract (d) A contract of indemnity (e) A contingent contract. 9. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 , the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt is known as (a) Lien (b) Mortgage (c) Charge (d) Pledge (e) Assignment. 10. Under normal circumstances which of the following statements is False regarding contract of agency? (a) An agent should not set up an adverse title to the goods which he receives from the principal as an agent (b) An agent is duty bound to pay sums received to the principal on his account (c) An agent is bound to render proper accounts to his principal on demand (d) An agent should protect and preserve there in the rests of the principal in case of his death or insolvency (e) An agent can delegate his authority to a sub-agent. 11. Which of the following agents is considered as a non-mercantile agent under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? (a) Auctioneer (b) Broker (c) Banker (d) Factor (e) Insurance agent. 12. Which of the following is considered as a payment in due course under the Negotiable Instruments? Not Act, 1881? (a) Payment made in accordance with the apparent tenor of the instrument (b) Payment made on an instrument before the date of maturity (c) Payment made to a person who is in possession of the instrument as a holder (d) Payment made in good faith and without negligence (e) Payment made to a person in possession of an instrument 'payable to bearer'. 13. Which of the following statements is false in respect of presumptions of a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? (a) Every negotiable instrument is drawn for consideration irrespective of the consideration mentioned in the document (b) Every bill is accepted within reasonable time before maturity (c) Every accepted bill is transferred before its maturity (d) The instruments were not endorsed in the order in which they appear on the instrument (e) The holder of the instrument is holder in due course. 14. The pecuniary jurisdiction of State forum and National forum are: (a) Rs 5 Lakh to10 lakh and 10-20 lakh (b) Rs 20Lakhs -1 crore and 1crore and above (c) Below Rs 20Lakhs and 20 lakh to 1 crore (d) Rs 20 Lakh -50 Lakh and 75 Lakh &above (e) None of these 15. Veedol Ltd. was incorporated on May 3, 2007. However, the company could obtain its certificate to commence business only on September 25, 2007. The company, in the meanwhile had entered into contracts with suppliers for import of machinery. Such contracts entered into after in corporation but before obtaining certificate of commencement of business are considered as (a) Voidable contracts (b) Provisional contracts (c) Pre-incorporation contracts (d) Illegal contracts (e) Void contracts. 16. Which of the following instances is not treated as 'crossing' under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? (a) A cheque bearing across its face the words 'account payee' without two transverse parallel lines (b) A cheque bearing across its face the words 'not negotiable' with two transverse parallel lines (c) A cheque bearing across its face the words 'not exceeding rupees two hundred within two transverse parallel lines (d) A cheque bearing across its face the words 'State Bank of India, Karol Bagh Branch, New Delhi' within two transverse parallel lines (e) A cheque bearing across its face the words 'Andhra Bank, Daryaganj Branch, New Delhi' Without two transverse parallel lines. 17. The term 'goods' under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, does not include (a) Stocks and shares (b) Actionable claims (c) Growing crops (d) Grass (e) Every kind of movable property. 18. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, in case of breach of a warranty in a contract of sale, the buyer can (a) Repudiate the contract (b) Claim damages only (c) Reject the goods (d) Refuse to pay the price (e) Not only reject the goods but also claim damages. 19. The right of lien available to an unpaid seller by implication of law under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is to (a) Retain the possession of goods for the price (b) Recover the possession of goods (c) Recover the price (d) Recover the damages (e) Make use of the goods. 20. With reference to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 which of the following statements is false? (a) A breach of warranty can give rise only to a claim for damages (b) Warranties are obligations which need to be performed (c) A breach of a condition can be treated as a breach of warranty (d) A breach of warranty can be treated as a breach of condition (e) A particular stipulation is a condition or a warranty will depend upon the facts and circumstances of each case. 21. In which of the following cases corporate veil need not be lifted by a Court of law under the Companies Act, 1956? (a) Where a company has been formed for defrauding the creditors (b) Where a company is used to evade taxes and other legal obligations (c) Where a company is used for the furtherance of welfare legislation (d) Where there is a complaint of oppression by the shareholders (e) Where there is a need to determine the enemy character of the company. 22. As per section 591 of the Companies Act, 1956, a foreign company means (a) A comp any incorporated outside India and having place of business in India (b) A comp any incorporated in India and having place of business outside India (c) A comp any incorporated outside India and having place of business outside India (d) A comp any incorporated in India and having place of business in India (e) A comp any incorporated in India but not commenced its business. 23. Under the Companies Act, 1956, a public company which never commenced business is known as a/an (a) Private company (b) Closely held public company (c) Unlimited company (d) Widely held company (e) Defunct company. 24. The Doctrine of Constructive Notice' is used to protect (a) Company against outsiders (b) Outsiders against company (c) Directors against outsiders (d) Directors against company (e) Outsiders against directors. 25. The directors of a newly floated company want to name it as Zeneca Finance Corporation. Under Companies Act, 1956, in order to use the keyword 'Corporation' in its name the company must have a minimum authorized capital of (a) Rs. 1 crore (b) Rs. 2 crore (c) Rs. 5 crore (d) Rs.10 crore (e) Rs.25 crore. 26. The lock in period of minimum promoter's contribution in case of a public issue is (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years (e) 5 years. 27. Under the Companies Act, 1956, if a public company does not register its own set of articles, then (a) The regulations contained in Table A of Schedule I to the Act automatically apply (b) The regulations contained in Table C of Schedule I to the Act automatically apply (c) The regulations contained in Table D of Schedule I to the Act automatically apply (d) The regulations contained in Table E of Schedule I to the Act automatically apply (e) The company cannot be incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956. 28. The maximum number of public companies to which an individual can be appointed as a director at a time under section 276 of the Companies Act, 1956, is (a) 10 companies (b) 15 companies (c) 20 companies (d) 25 companies (e) 50 companies. 29. Which of the following statements is false under the Companies Act, 1956? (a) A director must be a member of the company (b) Minimum seven persons are required for incorporation of a public company (c) Proxy has no right to speak in the general meeting (d) Company having profits need not declare dividends (e) A private company cannot issue prospectus. 30. Section 292A of Companies Act, 1956 lays down compulsory constitution of 'Audit Committee' by certain public companies. Which of the following companies are required to constitute such committees? (a) A public company having a paid-up capital of not less than Rs.1 crore (b) A public company having a authorized capital of not less than Rs.1 crore (c) A private company having a paid-up capital of not less than Rs.1 crore (d) A foreign company having a p aid-up capital of not less than Rs.3 crore (e) A public company having a paid-up capital of not less than Rs.5 crore. 31. Under the Companies Act, 1956, a public financial institution whose main object is financing shall file which of the following with the Registrar of Companies for issue of its securities? (a) Statement in lieu of prospectus (b) Information memorandum (c) Red-herring prospectus (d) Abridged prospectus (e) Shelf prospectus. 32 Which of the following statements is false in respect of a proxy under the Companies Act, 1956? (a) Proxy need not be a member of a company (b) A member of a private company cannot appoint more than one proxy to attend the same meeting (c) A proxy can vote only on poll (d) Where the NCLT directs under Section 167 or 186 of the Companies Act, 1956 one member present in person or by proxy can constitute a quorum in a meeting (e) he period fixed for depositing proxies cannot be extended beyond 72 hours before the meeting 33. The maximum maturity period for deposits accepted by a public company under the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 1975, cannot exceed (a) 12 months (b) 24 months (c) 36 months (d) 48 months (e) 60 months. 34. Where more than one companies are merged together, it is known as (a) Arrangement (b) Compromise (c) Reorganization (d) Reconstruction (e) Amalgamation. 35. The debentures, which are similar to share warrants are known as (a) Registered debentures (b) Secured debentures (c) Bearer debentures (d) Naked debentures (e) Irredeemable debentures. 36. Which of the following is not a ground for winding up of a company by National Company Law Tribunal under section 433 of the Companies Act, 1956? (a) Default in holding statutory meeting by a public company limited by shares (b) Default in holding annual general meeting (c) Failure to commence business within a year of its incorporation (d) Inability to pay its debts (e) Reduction of number of members below statutory minimum. 37. As per the provisions the Companies Act, 1956, an alternate director can be appointed, in place of the original director during his absence for a period not less than 3 months, by (a) Securities Exchange Board of India (b) Board of directors (c) Financial Institutions (d) The Central Government (e) Share holders of the company. 38. Under the Companies Act, 1956, the amount held under unpaid dividend account of a company which remains unpaid or unclaimed for a period of 7 years from the date of such transfer must be transferred by the company to (a) Securities premium account (b) General reserve (c) Revaluation reserve (d) Investor education and protection fund (e) Debenture redemption reserve. 39. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the requirement of quorum for a general meeting of a company under the Companies Act, 1956? (a) Quorum is required at the end of the meeting of the company (b) Quorum is required only at the beginning of the meeting of the company (c) Quorum is required throughout the meeting of the company (d) Quorum is not required for the meeting of the company (e) Quorum is required only for the listed companies. 40. Which of the following category of directors cannot be removed by the members of the company in general meeting under section 284 of the Companies Act, 195 6? (a) The director appointed in casual vacancy (b) The director appointed as additional director (c) The director appointed as alternate director (d) The director appointed by the Central Government (e) Director appointed as regular director in a general meeting.

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Chapman - ECON - 102
U ROLOGY DISCHARGE SUMMARYADM ISSION DIAGNOSIS: Adenocarcinoma of the prostate.DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES: 1. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate. 2. Blood loss anemia.PROCEDURE: Nerve- sparing radical retropubic prostatectomy, bilateral pelvic lymph node d issect
Albany State University - ECON - 10011
Practice Multiple-Choice Questions for Money and BankingWhy Study Money, Banking, and Financial Markets: Chapter 1 Money appears to have a major influence on a. inflation. b. the business cycle. c. interest rates. *d. each of the above. Budget deficits a
Highland IL - COP - 1000
&lt;Global.Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.DesignerGenerated()&gt; _ Partial Class AboutInformation Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form 'Form overrides dispose to clean up the component list. &lt;System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCode()&gt; _ Protected Override
Rutgers - BMIS - 501
Case Study Questions: 1) What types of information systems and business functions are described in this case? In this case study, limitations in JetBlues Transaction Processing Systems (TPS) were an integral factor in the events that transpired in Februar
UGA - RELI - 1001
111.03.10 Pre-Islamic Arabia Arabia between Byzantine &amp; the Persian Empire Jahiliyya = Age of Ignorance Rich oral tradition through poetry; surpasses your own needs for the need of your tribe Religion at the time animistic polytheism Religion didnt deter
LSU - ACCT - 2000
Chapter 9 -1Chapter9Accounting for ReceivablesChapter 9 -2Accounting Principles, Ninth EditionStudy Objectives1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. I de ntify thediffe nt type of re ivable re s ce s. Explain how com panie re s cognizeaccounts re ivable ce . D
LSU - ACCT - 2000
Chapter 10-1Chapter10Plant Assets, Natural Resources, and Intangible AssetsChapter 10-2Accounting Principles, Ninth EditionStudy Objectives1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. De scribehow thecost principleapplie to plant asse s ts. Explain theconce of de ci
LSU - ACCT - 2000
Chapter 5 -1CHAPTER 5 CHAPTERACCOUNTING FOR MERCHANDISING MERCHANDISING OPERATIONS OPERATIONSAccounting Principles, Eighth EditionChapter 5 -2Study Objectives1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. I de ntify thediffe nce be e se re s twe n rviceand m rchandising com
LSU - ACCT - 2000
Chapter 13-1CHAPTER 13 CHAPTER 13CORPORATIONS:ORGANIZATION AND CAPITAL STOCK TRANSACTIONSAccounting Principles, Eighth EditionChapter 13-2Study Objectives1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.I de ntify them characte ajor ristics of a corporation. Diffe ntiatebe e
LSU - ACCT - 2000
CHAPTER 6InventoriesFinancial Accounting, Sixth EditionChapter 6 -1Classifying InventoryMerchandising CompanyOne Classification: Merchandise InventoryManufacturing CompanyThree Classifications: Raw Materials Work in Process Finished GoodsRegardle
LSU - ACCT - 2000
Chapter 12CorporationsFinancial Accounting, Sixth EditionChapter 12-1The Corporate Form of OrganizationAn entity separate and distinct from its owners.Classified by Purpose Not-for-Profit For Profit Classified by Ownership Publicly he ld Private he
LSU - HUEC - 4016
DominicanClick to edit Master subtitle styleRepublic Alicia St.Romain5/7/11Ellen SmithCountry InformationClimate: TropicalCaribbean Islands Hispaniola Capitol: Santo Domingo 5/7/11Country InformationMajor ExportsSugar caneOfficial Language:S
LSU - HUEC - 4016
ClicktoeditMastersubtitlestyleOurBigFatGreekProjectGreece5/7/11icture ClickicontoaddpAKA:HellasTheHellenicRepublic5/7/11Clickpic toadd icontureClickicontoaddpictureClickicontoaddpictureGeography Locatedin ofGreece SoutheasternEurope 12t
LSU - HUEC - 4016
5/7/11JapanMeganSchoonoverand ClicktoeditMastersubtitle JackieLotshaw style5/7/115/7/11Language Japanese5/7/11ABriefHistory WavesofSettlement JomonhuntergatherersfromAsianmainland 400BCE:Yayoipeople 250538CE:Kofun 538710CE:AsukaPeriod 710794CE:
LSU - HUEC - 4016
LebanonClick to edit Master subtitle styleChristie Clark, Kristin Fiorello, Emily Nickens, &amp; Claire Toups5/7/11LebanonCapitalBeirutLargest cityPopulation~4.2 million(2009)Borders Syria Israel Mediterranean Sea5/7/11LebanonLanguageArabicThe
LSU - HUEC - 4016
NorwayClick to edit Master subtitle style5/7/11Taylor Rossi Traci Rebecca JenniferRELIGION Started as VikingsOlaf I converted to Christianity and Forced the newreligion on his peopleEvangelical Lutheran was named the majority religionin 1814Each
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Philippine sClick to edit Master subtitle styleEmma Granger Lesley Simon Kay Singleton5/7/11World Region5/7/11CulturePhilippine people are descendants of migrantsfrom Indonesia and Malaysia.The largest ethnic minority is Chinese butmany Filipino
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Turke y5/7/11LeslieAucoinandSarahLandryOnesho no pas o r the thing sim sayingthe are uld t s ve se s, ply y fo d. The arein re o y ality a c m tec o ple ivilizatio n. Ab dulhak Sinasi5/7/11Ge g o raphy5/7/11Ge g o raphyoCapital:Ankara Population:
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Click to edit Master subtitle styleVietnam5/7/11 GermaineGuy, LaJarde Johnson, Katherine Martinez,The Vietnam WarTheres no escaping the war in VietnamlThe old American embassy was demolished in the 1990sThe streets and shops still retain haunting
LSU - HUEC - 4016
The SeminoleIndiansVoiceoftheUnconqueredClick to edit Master subtitle stylehttp:/www.pbs.org/saf/1110/video/watchonline.htmDiabetesTodaylNative Americans (NA)are experiencing acculturation lThere are many theories related to their increased rates of
LSU - HUEC - 4016
HinduismTheoldestreligionandyetnotconsideredanorganized ClicktoeditMastersubtitlestyle religionOverviewofHinduismn Hinduismshouldntbethoughtofasanorganizedreligion.n Therewasntafounder,therearenoprofitsandtherearemanydifferentsects thatworshipindiss
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Islamic Food Lawshttp:/www.npr.org/templates/story/story.php?storyId=91692463 Click to edit Master subtitle styleIslamThe followers of Islam are Muslims Muslim means: Submission to the will of the Creator The will of the Creator is revealed in the Qura
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Jewish Food Laws and PracticesClick to edit Master subtitle styleJewish Food termsHekhnsher - a mark labeled onfood deeming the food kosherKashrut kash rootconveys what foodscan/cannot be eaten by Jewish Law and how food should be prepared.Why fol
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Lesson 3 LIBRARY RESOURCES Web of ScienceWeb of Science is one of the most powerful databases around. This database includes three different citation indexes, each with a different focus. A citation index will basically organize and describe articles fro
LSU - HUEC - 4016
ORIENTATION TO LIBRARY RESOURCESWeek 4: AGRICOLA Welcome to the fourth, and last, e-struction lesson. This lesson will discuss AGRICOLA, a database of citations for literature that deals with agriculture and agriculture related fields. Just like Web of S
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Lesson Two: ORIENTATION TO LIBRARY RESOURCES MEDLINE and the PubMed Interface This lesson revolves around using PubMed, the interface that allows you to search the National Library of Medicines bibliographic database, MEDLINE. You will use this resource t
LSU - HUEC - 4016
ORIENTATION TO L IBRARY, USING THE L IBRARY TO FIND EDUCATIONAL M ATERIALS and USING THE L IBRARY TO ACCESS SCIENTIFIC JOURNALS FOR WRITING RESEARCH PAPERS. TH IS WIL L I NCLUDE I NSTRUCTION ON CONSTRUCTING CORRECT CITATIONS. Over the course of the next t
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Intercultural CommunicationThe RulesClick to edit Master subtitle styleStudents will be able to list and describe communication differences for groups with growing presence in U.S.Click to edit Master subtitle styleWe need to improveClick to edit Ma
LSU - HUEC - 4016
Chapter 2Traditional Health Beliefs and Practices Click to edit Master subtitle styleObjectives that will be met by this chapterValue traditional beliefs and practicesWhat does the term majority culture refer to in the US?WASP: white anglo-saxon prot
LSU - FIN - 3715
Chapter 5Calculators CalculatorsI ntroduction to V aluation: The Time V alue of M oneyMcGraw-Hill/IrwinCopyright 2010 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.Key Concepts and Skills Be able to compute the future value of an investment
LSU - FIN - 3715
Chapter 5Formulas FormulasIntroduction to Valuation: The Time Value of MoneyMcGraw-Hill/IrwinCopyright 2010 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.Key Concepts and Skills Be able to compute the future value of an investment made toda
LSU - FIN - 3715
Chapter 5Calculators CalculatorsIntroduction to Valuation: The Time Value of MoneyMcGraw-Hill/IrwinCopyright 2010 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.Key Concepts and Skills Be able to compute the future value of an investment mad
LSU - FIN - 3715
CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO CORPORATE FINANCEAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions 1. Capital budgeting (deciding whether to expand a manufacturing plant), capital structure (deciding whether to issue new equity and use the proceeds to
LSU - FIN - 3715
Chapter 1 I ntroduction to Corporate FinanceMcGraw-Hill/IrwinCopyright 2010 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.Key Concepts and Skills Know the basic types of financial management decisions and the role of the financial manager Kno
LSU - FIN - 3715
CHAPTER 5 INTRODUCTION TO VALUATION: THE TIME VALUE OF MONEYAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions 1. 2. The four parts are the present value (PV), the future value (FV), the discount rate (r), and the life of the investment (t). Comp
LSU - FIN - 3715
Chapter 5Calculators CalculatorsIntroduction to Valuation: The Time Value of MoneyMcGraw-Hill/IrwinCopyright 2010 by The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. All rights reserved.Key Concepts and Skills Be able to compute the future value of an investment mad
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter2 Chapter2 AssessingCommunity ResourcesCommunityNeedsAssessment CommunityNeedsAssessment Itisaprocessthat: Evaluatesthehealthandnutritionalstatusofthe community Determinestheneedsofthecommunityand examineswhereneedsarenotbeingmet Determinesresou
LSU - HUEC - 3116
AssessingtheTarget PopulationsNutritionalStatusChapter3AssessingtheTargetPopulation Factorsthatinfluencedietaryhabits,values, attitudes,andbeliefs Planforcollectingdata Typesofdatathatmightbegathered Methodsusedtocollectdata&amp;issuesto consider Chapte
LSU - HUEC - 3116
CHAPTER5 PRINCIPLESOF EPIDEMIOLOGYEPIDEMIOLOGYFocuses on health problems of populations rather than of individuals Cornerstone methodology of public health research Highly regarded in evidence-based medicine for identifying risk factors for disease and
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter4 Chapter4 ProgramPlanningfor SuccessOverviewProgramPlanning OverviewProgramPlanningDesigninganintervention EvaluatingtheinterventionSteps StepsReviewtheresearchandother technicalmaterials 2. Determinewhowouldbenefitfrom theintervention 3. Asse
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 15: Designing Community Nutrition InterventionsGatherinformationaboutthe target population. Influencethetargetpopulations behavior.InterventionAninterventionisahealthpromotion activityarmedatchangingthebehavior ofatargetpopulation.Intervention
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 16 Gaining Cultural Competence in Community NutritionWhat is Cultural Competence?developing attitudes, skills, and levels of awareness that enable one to provide culturally appropriate, respectful, and relevant interventionsYour Family, Your Cu
LSU - HUEC - 3116
C hapte 17 r Principle of Nutrition s Principle Education EducationTheS ssful He Me ucce alth ssagepact on thetarge audie by t nce Has a favorableim ge tting the to mxam ir lie m e inethe be fs syste valuatetheconse nce of a ce que s rtain be havior e
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 18 Marketing Nutrition and Health PromotionIntroduction Marketingis the process by which individuals and groups get what they need and want by creating and exchanging products and values with others.What is Social Marketing?Kolter, 1975the d
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter19 Chapter19 ManagingCommunity NutritionProgramsIntroduction Introduction Thecommunitynutritionistmustbeagood manager Goodmanagementskillsallowyouto communicate persuade workwithvariousgroupswithinthemarketing environmentFunctionsofManagement
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 20 Chapter Building Grantsmanship Building Skills SkillsSeek External Funding Seek Programs Activities InterventionsGrantsmanship Grantsmanship CombinesgoodwritingskillswithperseveranceMain Steps Main1. Laythefoundation 2. Buildthegrantprop
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 6 The Art and Science of Policy MakingPolicyThe course of action chosen by public authorities to address a given problemPurposeTo fashion strategies for solving public problemsPolicy MakingProcess by which authorities decide which actions to
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 7 A National Agenda for the Nations HealthWhat are the National Nutrition Issues? Obesity Hunger Malnutrition Foodsafety Foodlabeling Foodfortification NutritionresearchNational Nutrition PolicyAsetofnationwideguidelinesthat specifyhowthen
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 9 Health Care Systems and PolicyHealthGovernments have a responsibility for the health of their peoples which can be fulfilled only by the provision of adequate health and social services.World Health OrganizationCost2006 Americans spent $2.1
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 10 Food Insecurity and Food Assistance ProgramsA Food Secure HouseholdAllmembersatalltimeshaveenough foodforanactive,healthylife. Nutritionallyadequateandsafefoodsare readilyavailable. Foodscanbeacquiredinasocially acceptableway.Food Insecure H
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter11 Chapter11 MothersandInfants: Assessment, Services,and ProgramsNationalGoalsforMaternaland NationalGoalsforMaternaland InfantHealth HealthyPeople2020 Goal:Improvethehealthandwellbeingofwomen, infants,children,andfamilies TopicAreas Morbiditya
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter12 ChildrenandAdolescents: NutritionIssues,Services,and ProgramsChildrenandHealthChildrenareonethirdofourpopulation andallofourfutureSelectPanelforthePromotionofChildHealth,1981DefinitionsChildrenareconsideredtobeyouth ages111years Adolescents
LSU - HUEC - 3116
LSU AgCenter LSU Nutrition ProgramsMartha S. Weston, FNP Program Manager Martha Nutrition &amp; Health Division Nutrition LSU AgCenter/ HUECLSU vs. LSU AgCenter LSU LSU LSU AgCenter Formal education Undergraduate &amp; Undergraduate graduate degrees gradu
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 13 Healthy Aging: Nutrition Assessment, Services, and ProgramsAgingInevitable, natural process programmed into our genes at conceptionDoes good nutrition prolong life?Yes and NoYes, as it helps to increase the life expectancy (average at deat
LSU - HUEC - 3116
Chapter 14 Chapter World Hunger and Food World Insecurity InsecurityHunger in the World HungerSoaringfoodpriceshave triggeredworldwideconcern aboutthreatstoglobalfood securityThe Numbers TheIn2007thenumberofchronicallyhungry peopleintheworldroseby75mi
Nova Southeastern University - TAX - 5769
Nova Southeastern University H. Wayne Huizenga School of Business &amp; EntrepreneurshipAssignment for Course: TXX 5769 Submitted to: Prof. Robert H. Allen Submitted by: Ericka L. Tapia N00655632 4006 Twin Spires Drive Knightdale, NC 27545 919-327-0795 919-2
Hanoi University of Technology - ECONOMY - 101
URBAN DESIGN: METHOD AND TECHNIQUESThis Page Intentionally Left BlankURBAN DESIGN: METHOD AND TECHNIQUESCliff Moughtin, Rafael Cuesta, Christine Sarris and Paola SignorettaOXFORDAUCKLANDBOSTONJOHANNESBURGMELBOURNENEW DELHIArchitectural Press An
Hanoi University of Technology - ECONOMY - 101
Structure and ArchitectureThis Page Intentionally Left BlankStructure and ArchitectureAngus J. MacdonaldDepartment of Architecture, University of EdinburghSecond editionArchitectural PressOXFORD AUCKLAND BOSTON JOHANNESBURG MELBOURNE NEW DELHIStru
Hanoi University of Technology - ECONOMY - 101
WORLD TRADE CENTERThe Giant that Defied the SkyBy Peter Skinner Preface by Mike WallaceEditorial Project Valeria Manferto de Fabianis Graphic Design Patrizia Balocco Lovisetti METRO BOOKS 2002Reprinted by the Gotham Center with permission. All rights
Hanoi University of Technology - ECONOMY - 101
Hanoi University of Technology - ECONOMY - 101
Ingredient BrandingPhilip Kotler Waldemar PfoertschIngredient BrandingMaking the Invisible VisibleProfessor Philip Kotler Kellogg Graduate School of Management Northwestern University Evanston, IL 60208, USA p-kotler@kellogg.northwestern.eduProfessor