Prof. MANAGEMENT
Instructor: Fuad Veliyev
1.Which of the following is a top manager?
2. The ability to work with and through other people and to work effectively as a group member is____________
skill.
3. Sarina is first-line supervisor at Checkers Corporation. She is most concerned with which level of goals
4. Business-level strategy asks the question
5. The step in the decision-making process in which managers analyze underlying causal factors associated with the decision situation
is called
6.. The _________________ is often the style adopted by managers having a deep concern for others as individuals.
e. personal style
7. Most entrepreneurs have a(n) ________ locus of control.
8. The most profitable business units or products will be classified as _______ in the BCG matrix
9. Conceptual skills are needed by_________ managers, especially, by
_________managers.
10. In telling an employee how to correctly do a task which he formerly did incorrectly, you are engaged in the ________function of
management.
11. Forces that affect the availability , production, and distribution of a societys resources among competing users are
12. Administrative decision-making procedures are most appropriate for _______ situations and problems.
13. The _____________ environment refers to the external environment that affects the organization indirectly
14. A Greenfield venture is
15. The sociocultural dimension includes
16. An example of a visible organizational activity that illustrates corporate culture is
17. The _________ level of management is responsible for strategic goals.
18. At the ___________ level of moral development one follows the rules to avoid physical punishment
19. An ethical ombudsman is responsible for
20. The process of globalization typically passes through all of the following stages except
21. The allocation of resources is done as part of the management function of
22. The process of starting a business venture, organizing the resources, and taking the risks is known as
23. The international strategy in which the product design and advertising may be modified to meet the needs of individual countries
is called a_________ strategy.
24. Due process, free consent, privacy, freedom of conscience and free speech are consistent with which approach to ethical decision
making?
25. Which of the following is / are (an) example(s) of political instability?
26. An arrangement in which one company provides a foreign company with a complete package of materials and services including
advice and standardized operating procedures is called
27. In the domain of ethical behavior is
28. Most people have learned to conform to expectations of good behavior expected by colleagues, family, friends, and society. They
are in what stage of moral development?
29._______ is a universal property of systems and refers to their tendency to run down and die.
30. _____________means that managers know which goals they wish to achieve , but information about alternatives and future events
is incomplete.
31. Human beings have fundamental rights and liberties that cannot be taken away by another individuals decision. This ethical
decision making approach is known as the
32. A franchisee typically pays_________ for a franchise.
33. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of diversity awareness?
34. Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?
35. In which stage of diversity awareness is an individual able to shift from one cultural perspective to another?
36. The champion
a. develops technical aspects of idea b. visualizes benefits c. protects idea within organization d. provides reality tests e. removes
organizational barriers
37. The ____________________ develops a new idea and understands its technical value.
38. Which stage of team development is characterized by cooperation and problem solving?
39. Disadvantages of the network approach include
40._________________ refers to the belief that ones own group and subculture are inherently superior
41. __________________is the belief that groups and subcultures are inherently equal
42. A glass ceiling refers to
43. _________________is the highest level of Diversity Awareness
44. The job of the boss is to be tough, is a belief of someone subscribing to a. authoritarianism
b. cognitive dissonance c. egalitarianism d. achievement-orientation e. participative management
45._________________is the degree to which a person is sociable , talkative, assertive , and comfortable with interpersonal
relationships.
46. When a person pays relatively greater attention to stimuli near the beginning of an event he is exhibiting the characteristic of:
47. The ________________is good at generating ideas, seeing a situation from multiple perspectives, and being aware of meaning
and value.
48. _________________ power comes from a formal management position in an organization and the authority granted to it.
49. A leader who has the ability to motivate subordinates to transcend their expected performance is called a(n) _______________
leader.
50. ____________________power most often generates resistance.
51. Which of the following is NOT one of the general types of motivating needs
according to Hierarchy of Needs Theory:
52. According to the Two-Factor Theory,______________ is a hygiene factor, not a motivator.
53. __________________ is an example of an extrinsic reward.
54. As a manager, you decide that every afternoon, you are going to spend time with your employees to find out whats happening.
This is called:
55. About ______________minutes of every working hour is spent communicating by managers.
56. Tom is a top executive at a cigarette manufacturing company who believes that cigarettes are dangerous products and they kill
people. This condition can be described as
57. Which of the following is NOT a contingency factor that influences an organizations structure?
58. When a manager chooses the first alternative to meet the minimal decision criteria, he is said to be
59. _______________________ approach to change implementation should be used when a crisis exists.
60. Reengineering
a. is inexpensive to implement b. is implemented in a relatively short time
c. is often painful d. does not involve management e. does not involve rank and file workers
61. The___________________ believes in the idea, confronts the organizational realities of costs and benefits.
62. A monoculture is one in which
63. Which of the following is NOT one of the conflict handling styles discussed in your text?
64. Parochial view of the world, No awareness of cultural differences are more characteristic for _________ stage of Diversity
Awareness
33. Parochial view of the world, No awareness of cultural differences are more characteristic for __________________ stage of
Diversity Awareness
a. Adaptation
b. Acceptance
c. Defense
d. Denial
e. Integration
65. _____________________ are stressors associated with the setting in which an individual works.
66. The behavior pattern characterized by extreme competitiveness , impatience, aggressiveness, and devotion to work is known as
67. A transactional leader
68. A leader who works to fulfill subordinates needs and goals as well as to achieve the organizations larger mission is called a(n)
______________ leader.
69. Aubreys department is made up of people with similar skills and work activities. Her organization uses
the____________________ approach to departmentalization.
70. The richest communication channel is
6. The richest communication channel is a:
a. telephone b. memo c. letter
d. electronic mail e. face-to-face talk
71. The________________ is an informal, person-to-person communication network of employees that is not officially sanctioned by
the organization
5. The____________ is an informal, person-to-person communication network of employees that is not officially sanctioned by the
organization.
a. Horizontal
b. Grapevine
c. Upward
d. Verbal
e. Nonverbal
72. Major parts of the shared understanding from communication come from the nonverbal messages of
9. Major parts of the shared understanding from communication come from the nonverbal messages of
a. facial expression
b. voice
c. mannerism
d. posture
e. all of the above
73. The belief that power and status differences should exist within the organization is referred to as
3. The belief that power and status differences should exist within the organization is referred to as
a. extroversion
b. Machiavellianism
c. authoritarianism
d. perceptual distortion
e. locus of control
74. Steven is a trusting and forgiving individual who gets along with others because of being good-natured and cooperative. This
describes which of the Big Five personality factors?
37. Steven is a trusting and forgiving individual who gets along with others because of being good-natured and cooperative. This
describes which of the Big Five personality factors?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Emotional stability
d. Openness to experience
e. Extroversion
75. Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment?
29. Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment?
a. a tight structure
b. a rigid structure
c. a functional structure
d. a horizontal structure
e. a vertical structure
76. Frank's work team is beginning to resolve its conflicts and consensus is developing on such things as members' roles. Frank's
team is in which stage of team development?
77. A farm worker who is paid $2.00 for picking 20 pounds of peppers is being reinforced according to a _________________
schedule.
4. A farm worker who is paid $2.00 for picking 20 pounds of peppers is being reinforced according to a ____________schedule.
a. fixed-interval
b. fixed-ratio
c. variable-interval
d. variable-ratio
e. continuous
a. fixed-interval b. fixed-ratio
c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio
e. continuous
78. Which of the five stages of team development is marked by conflict and disagreement?
79. During which of the following stages of team development does team unity emerge?
80. Without feedback communication is a. two-way b. one-way c. informal d. bottom up e. most effective
8. Without feedback communication is
a. two-way
b. one-way
c. informal
d. bottom up
e. most effective
81. Barney works at the A Corporation. He has two bosses. One a functional manager and the other a divisional manager. A
Corporation has a ______________structure.
30. Barney works at the Slippers-for-All Corporation. He has two bosses, one a functional manager and the other a divisional
manager. This company has a
a. functional structure
b. divisional structure
c. geographic structure
d. product structure
e.none of them
82. Casandra has just been appointed leader of a new work team in her organization. She is wondering what to do at her first meeting
with the group. Which of the following would you suggest?
a. She should waste little time; get the team focused on the task.
b. She should help the team clarify roles and responsibilities.
c. She should allow time for team members to become acquainted with one another; allow for informal social interaction.
d. She should let someone else worry about this since she is the leader.
e. She should propose to disband the team.
83. Which of the following conflict resolution styles is best when maintaining harmony is important?
84. The collaborating style of conflict resolution is based on a _________ degree of assertiveness and a _________ degree of
cooperativeness.
85. The ideal size of work teams is _________.
86. Which of these is the first stage of team development?
87. The forming stage is characterized by
88. Which of these refers to a formal team composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from different areas of
expertise?
89. Phillip does not have much of a relationship with his subordinates. They feel obligated to do as he says because hes the boss.
This is an example of
90. During the _________ stage (of team development), the major emphasis is on task accomplishment.
91. The collaborating style of conflict resolution is based on a ___________degree of assertiveness and
a __________ degree of cooperativeness
92. A manager who is not a good communicator is failing to perform the _____________________ role well
93. The best organizational structure to use is
94. Which of these refers to a unit of two or more people who interact and coordinate their work to accomplish a specific objective?
95. A formal team composed of a manager and his or her subordinates is called a
96. An idea champion is playing the role of ________________________when he is a high-level manager who approves of an idea
97. When your boss asks you to work on the weekend and you have a family camping trip planned and you cancel the trip to work,
you will probably experience
98. At top management, it may be that leaders lack _________________________ power because subordinates know more about
technical details than they do.
99. Content theories emphasize the ______________________ that motivate people.
100. In a _________(chain), a few individuals each convey information to several others.
101. ________ is the use of influence to motivate employees to achieve organizational goals.
102. Riya Robertson, President of Zig-Zag Puzzles, recognizes the factory employees for their outstanding performance at the
monthly awards banquet on the shop floor by presenting a plaque and a check for $100. She is engaging in the management function
of
103. Garden Tools uses phone surveys of customers to gather information about service and quality. This is an example of the
management function of
104. ________ is the management function concerned with monitoring employees' activities, keeping the organization on track
toward its goals, and making corrections as needed.
82. _________ is the management function concerned with monitoring employees activities, keeping the organization on track
toward its goals, and making corrections as needed.
a. planning
b. resource allocation
c. controlling
d. organizing
e. efficiency
105. When George measures his employees' performance and compares their performance against the goals he set for them, he is
performing which of these functions?
106. The learning organizations emphasize which of these?
107. Raj Rogers is the president of RR Rent-A-Car. His organization faces issues related to the environment, government regulation,
and competition. He will need to rely primarily on his _________________ (skills).
108. Which of the following skills are most important at the top management level?
109. Good listeners exhibit all of the following characteristics except
a. asking questions.
b. having preconceptions.
c. tolerates bad habits.
d. judges content, not delivery errors.
e. All of the above.
110. Mardell is the executive director of the Habitat for Humanity. Her level in the management hierarchy is that of a(n)
111. Which of the following sets of skills are most important at lower organizational levels?
112. Which of these is the understanding of and proficiency in the performance of specific tasks?
113. Nick Smith is the head of the finance department at Tell-All Communication, Inc. His level in the management hierarchy is that
of a(n)
114. Becky Barnes is the director of human resources at Blinds Manufacturing, Inc. She can be best described as a
115. Sylvia Summersville is the office manager of the local employment agency. Her level in the management hierarchy is that of a(n)
116. Conchita Batapazlia is a general manager. Which of the following best describes her position?
a. She is responsible for several departments that perform different functions.
b. She organizes people across departments to perform a specific task.
c. She is responsible for one specific department (e.g., marketing).
d. She supervises employees with similar training and skills.
e. none of the above.
117. The president of Florida State University is the keynote speaker at a retirement dinner for a long time faculty member. This is an
example of which of the following roles?
118. Which of the following is not a decisional role?
119. Which of these is an interpersonal role?
120. Which of these is an informational role.
121. Gail Griffith, manager of the finance division, everyday distributes relevant information to all her employees enabling them to
make quality decisions. Gail is performing which of the following roles?
122. Maintaining information links are the activities consistent with the ______ role.
123. When a manager attends a subordinate's wedding, she is performing which of these roles?
124. ________ forces pertain to the availability, production, and distribution of resources in a society.
125. Interest rates, inflation, and trade barriers are all examples of _______ forces.
126. The stimulus for technological innovation is often found in which of these?
a. Social forces b. Political forces c. Economic forces d. Competitive forces
e. All of the above.
127. Developing a learning organization involves making specific changes in all of the following areas, except
a. leadership, b. empowerment, c. participative strategy, d. adaptive cultures,
e. government controls.
128. In learning organizations, managers learn to think in terms of _______ rather than ________ others.
129. In learning organizations, ______ is(are) a manager's primary source of strength, not a cost to be minimized.
130. Strategy traditionally has been the responsibility of
131. ______ is the set of key values, beliefs, and understandings shared by members of the organization.
132. Which of the following, according to the systems theory, is transformation process for a University?
a. Incoming students b. Graduating students c. Professors d. Teaching e. Recruiters
133. The teamwork philosophy is based in part on the assumption that five people working together can produce more than five
people working individually. This philosophy is consistent with the concept of
134. The _________ environment represents the outer layer of the environment and affects organizations _________.
135. Which of these is NOT a part of an organization's general environment?
136. An organization's task environment includes all of the following EXCEPT
137. The dimension of the general environment representing the demographic characteristics, norms, customs, and values of the
population within which the organization operates is referred to as a(n)
138. Which of the following consists of demographic factors, such as population density?
139. Which of these are included in an organization's task environment?
140. Which statement below is correct?
a. When environment is dynamic, uncertainty is low.
b. When the environment is unstable, uncertainty is low.
c. A dynamic environment has more uncertainty than a stable environment.
d. The stability of the environment does not determine the structure of the firm.
e. None of the above.
141. Culture can be defined as
142. Heroes are important to an organization due to the fact that they:
143. Which of these is a narrative based on true events that is repeated frequently and shared by organizational employees?
144. A figure who exemplifies the deeds, character, and attributes of a corporate culture is referred to as a
145. Which of these represent a phrase or sentence that succinctly express a key corporate value?
146. In the _________ stage, market potential is limited to home country, with all production and marketing facilities located at home.
147. Which of the following aspects of management does not change when doing business internationally?
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Controlling d. Leading
e. All of the above.
148. Which of the following sectors present the greatest potential for international mistakes?
a. Economic b. Sociocultural c. Legal-political d. All of the above. e. b and c only
149. The economic environment, in international operations, represents all of the following factors EXCEPT
150. In international operations, the economic environment includes which of the following?
151. Which of the following in NOT a legal-political factor in the international environment?
152. Which of these is a sociocultural factor in the international environment?
153. If you built a bottling plant in a foreign country and then found that your product was having difficulty being distributed to
customers because of the road system, your problem would be related to
a. an inadequate infrastructure. b. an economy incapable of supporting growth. c. a poor resource market.
d. a poor product market. e. none of the above.
154. Exchange rates are included in which of the following international environments?
a. The legal-political sector b. The economic environment c. The sociocultural environment
d. The barter system environment e. The government sector
155. Assume that until yesterday, one U.S. dollar could be exchanged for 97 Japanese yens. Today, a dollar gets you 108 yens. Which
of the following statements is true?
a. U.S. goods will be more expensive in Japan. b. Japanese goods will be more expensive in the U.S.
c. U.S. goods will be the same price in Japan. d. Japanese goods will be the same price in the U.S. e. None of the above.
156. A foreign terrorist kidnaps your firm's CEO while the CEO is in the host country. This is a harsh example of
157. In international operations, the legal-political environment includes which of the following?
158. Your company is interested in producing and marketing a line of clothing that will penetrate the Russian market. Your firm is
willing to supply the equipment, products, product ingredients, trademark, and standardized operating system. What type of strategy
are you going to use?
159. Which of the following pairs of alternatives closely resemble each other in the amount of ownership, control and risk obtained in
operating international businesses?
160. A foreign subsidiary over which an organization has complete control is
161. Hair Care International, a U.S. company, built a subsidiary from scratch in India. This is an example of
162. Which of these refers to the code of moral principles and values that govern behaviors with respect to what is right and wrong?
163. The decision to produce a new product by Maxwell Markets is in the (domain of)
164. The decision by AT&T to downsize and reduce its labor force is in the (domain of)
165. A situation that arises when all alternative choices or behaviors have been deemed undesirable because of the potentially
negative ethical consequences, making it difficult to distinguish right from wrong, is considered
166. Better Boats, Inc. decided to continue operations at one plant while shutting down another. The decision was justified on the
basis of what was best for the total corporation. This is an example of the____________(ethical approach)
167. Lawrence is a manager at We-Care, Inc. He is expected to consider the effort of each decision alternative on all parties and select
the one that optimizes the satisfaction the for greatest number of people. This is an example of the__________(ethical approach)
168. Which ethical approach are companies citing to justify their policing of employee's personal habits on and off the job, such as
alcohol and tobacco consumption?
169. The _________ ethic was the basis for the state of Oregon's decision to extend Medicaid to 400,000 previously ineligible
recipients by refusing to pay for high-cost, high-risk procedures.
170. Which of the following is NOT one of the moral rights that could be considered during decision making?
171. Under the justice approach, all of these are of concern to managers EXCEPT
172. The concept that different treatment of people should not be based on arbitrary characteristics is referred to as
173. Individualism is most closely related to
174. Human beings have fundamental rights and liberties that cannot be taken away by another individual's decision. This ethical
decision making approach is known as the
175. The ethical decision approach that requires persons to be guided by standards of equity, fairness and impartiality is the
176. Which of these refers to procedural justice?
177. The concept that the party responsible should compensate individuals for the cost of their injuries is referred to as
178. The preconventional stage of moral development is best illustrated by which of these?
179. Which of the following statements best illustrates the conventional stage of moral development?
180. Which of these refers to the belief by individuals that their future is within their control and that external forces will have little
influence?
181. The belief by individuals that their future is not within their control but rather is influenced by external forces is referred to as
a(n)
182. All of these are entrepreneurial characteristics EXCEPT
183. Kelly Alexander strongly believes in her abilities and feels that she controls her own destiny. She can be described as having a(n)
184. Which of these characteristics is associated with entrepreneurship?
185. The psychological characteristics that allows a person to be untroubled by disorder and uncertainty is called
186. Josh believes that such things as luck or chance will determine his future success. Josh has
187. Tammy likes to set her own goals, which have an intermediate level of difficulty. Which of the entrepreneurial characteristics
does she probably possess?
188. In order to be a successful entrepreneur,
189. Before opening his own business, Toby was writing a report that details the specifics of his ideas and future business operations.
This document is known as
190. An unincorporated business owned by an individual for profit is known as a(n)
191. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate legal structure for an entrepreneurial company?
192. Neil Alexander started his one-man consulting business under the name Alexander Associates. The legal structure for the
company can best be described as a
193. Julia, Lauren, and Gabbie started selling computer software on college campuses under the name Student Software Company.
Each person contributed $2000 toward start-up costs and agreed on dividing costs and profits equally. The legal structure for the
company can best be described as a
194. A(n) _________ is an unincorporated business owned by two or more.
195. An artificial entity created by the state and existing apart from its owners is known as
196. An arrangement by which the owner of a product or service allows others to purchase the right to distribute the product or
service with help from the owner is known as
197. The business incubator
198. _________ are primarily concerned with tactical goals/plans.
a. Middle management b. Board of directors c. Consultants d. Senior management e. Lower management
199. Which of these are primarily responsible for strategic goals/plans?
200. A statement that identifies distinguishing characteristics of an organization is known as
201. Mission statements describe
202. The organization's reason for existence is known as
203. "We respect our employees and value their diversity" is an example of a statement you are most likely to find in the
organization's
204. "We seek to become the premier business school in the west" is an example of a statement you are most likely to find in the
organization's
a. tactical goals. b. operational goals. c. mission. d. tactical plans. e. operational plans.
205. A broadly stated definition of the organization's basic business scope and operations that distinguishes it from similar types of
organizations is called a(n)
206. At the top of the goal hierarchy is the
207. Which of these represent the broad statements of where the organization wants to be in the future.
208. The official goals of the organization are best represented by the _________(goals)
209. A long-term time frame is most closely associated with _____________(plans)
210. The action steps by which an organization intends to attain its strategic goals are referred to as
211. Goals that define the outcomes that major divisions and departments must achieve in order for the organization to reach its
overall goals is called
212. The final step in the MBO (management by objectives) process is to
213. Single-use plans are
214. Contingency plans are
215. A strategy that combines global coordination to attain efficiency with flexibility to meet specific needs in various countries is
referred to as a
216. The condition that exists when the organization's parts interact to produce a joint effect that is greater than the sum of the parts
acting alone is known as
217. When AT&T decided to buy Media One, a cable company, it was pursuing a__________________(strategy)
218. When Philip-Morris, the tobacco giant, bought Kraft, Inc., it was pursuing a ___________________(strategy)
219. Which of these (strategies) pertains to the organization as a whole?
220. Sears' decision to sell off much of its financial services division is an example of a__________(strategy)
221. When Coca-Cola introduced Surge, a new citrus soft-drink, it was pursuing a ____________(strategy)
222. Ford's decision to completely redesign its Ford Taurus can be classified as a ___________(strategy)
223. The cash cow
224. Which of the following portfolio categories is made up of poor performers who command only a small share of a slow growth
market?
225. Computers-are-US has a number of strategic business units. Their hand-held computer unit has a large market share in this
rapidly growing industry. Their hand-held computer business would be classified as
226. The star has a
227. The question mark has a
228 The dog has a
229. Gillette operates numerous strategic business units. Most of its _________ are in the personal care division.
230. Barriers to entry are related to which competitive force?
231. Which of the following is not one of Porter's competitive forces?
232. The _________ strategy involves an attempt to distinguish the firm's products or services from others in the industry.
233. When DuPont and Xerox cooperated to create a separate entity called DX Imaging, Inc., it implemented which of these
cooperative strategies?
a. acquisitions. b. joint ventures. c. strategic business partnering. d. mergers. e. preferred supplier arrangements.
234. Strategic decisions are often good examples of _________ decisions.
235. When a small community hospital decides to add a radiation therapy unit, it is considered as a
236. Two area hospitals, Hospital A and Hospital B, decided to merge their operations. This is an example of a
237. The lowest possibility of failure is associated with the condition of
238. Which of these has the highest possibility of failure?
239. Statistical analyses are useful under conditions of
240. _________ means that a decision has clear-cut goals and that good information is available, but the future outcomes associated
with each alternative are subject to chance.
241. _________ means that all the information the decision-maker needs is fully available.
242. _________ means that managers know which goals they wish to achieve, but information about alternatives and future events is
incomplete.
243. Vincent, a product manager, wants to increase the market share of his product. He is unsure about how to go about it, not
knowing for sure how costs, price, the competition, and the quality of his product will interact to influence market share. Vincent is
operating under a condition of
244. Which of the following is by far the most difficult situation for a decision-maker?
245. _________ means that the goals to be achieved or the problem to be solved is unclear, alternatives are difficult to define, and
information about outcomes is unavailable.
246. The condition under which ambiguity occurs include
247. Classical model of decision making include which of these assumptions?
a. Problems are unstructured and ill defined. b. The decision-maker strives for conditions of certainty.
c. Criteria for evaluating alternatives are unknown. d. The decision-maker selects the alternatives that will minimize the economic
return to the organization. e. The situation is always uncertain.
248. The _________ model of decision making is most valuable when applied to _________.
a. administrative, programmed decisions b. classical, nonprogrammed decisions c. classical, programmed decisions
d. classical, ambiguous decisions e. administrative, structured decisions
249. Satisfying, bounded rationality, and uncertainty are all associated with
250. The _________ model of decision making describes how managers actually makes decisions in situations characterized by
nonprogrammed decisions, uncertainty, and ambiguity.
251. The concept that people have the time and cognitive ability to process only a limited amount of information on which to base
decisions is known as
252. Symantha is a manager at Systems Corporation. Her job is very complex and she feels that she does not have enough time to
identify and/or process all the information she needs to make decisions. Symantha's situation is most consistent with which of the
following concepts?
253. Which of these is the first step in the managerial decision making process?
255. All of the following are characteristics of classical decision making model EXCEPT
256. All of the following are characteristics of administrative decision making model EXCEPT
257. Which of these is the last step in the decision making process?
258. Once the problem has been recognized and analyzed, the decision-maker must
259. Raina is collecting data on how well the organization has done since their new strategy was implemented. She is in what stage of
the managerial decision making process?
260. The _________ style is used by people who prefer simple, clear-cut solutions to problems.
261. When managers like to consider complex solutions based on as much data as they can gather, they are considered as having
_________ style.
262. An advantage of functional structures is the
263. Goldstar has wide spans of management, centralized decision making, and poor coordination across departments. It is likely
structured
264. Hearty Herbals Corporation has been having numerous problems. Communication across departments is poor and decisions are
backing up at the top of the organization. Hearty Herbal uses a _________ structure.
265. When departments are grouped together on the basis of organizational outputs, the organization is using a
266. Sokia works in one of seven research and development departments at General Automobile Corporation. This would suggest that
General Automobile has a
267. All of the following are advantages of a functional structure EXCEPT
268. All of the following are advantages of a divisional structure EXCEPT
269. The _________ approach to structure provides a formal chain of command for both functional and divisional relationships.
270. The major disadvantages of the matrix structure include all of these EXCEPT
271. Advantages of the matrix structure include
272. An advantage of team structure is
273. Which of these is an organization structure that divides the major functions of the organization into separate companies?
274. Blain works for a large company. Recently, his organization began to contract out such functions as training, engineering, and
computer service. This approach is consistent with a
275. Which of these can be defined as one in which everyone is engaged in identifying and solving problems, enabling the
organization to continually experiment, change, and improve?
276. The learning organization is characterized by all of these except
277. Over-the-Hill, Inc. is a company that believes in empowering its employees, sharing information openly, using horizontal teams
and pushing decision-making as far down as possible. This company can be described as a(n)
278. In which of the following structures, the organization emphasizes vertical control, decision making is centralized and
communication is vertical?
279. All of these are characteristics of vertical organizations except
280. Which of these is a characteristic of a contemporary learning organization?
281. In a learning organization, _________ are given the authority and responsibility for decision making.
282. Which of these means giving employees the power, freedom, knowledge, and skills to make decisions and perform effectively?
283. Which of the following is NOT a contingency factor that influences an organization's structure?
284. Which of the following contingency factor(s) influences organization structure?
285. The functional structure does not enable the organization to be
286. The learning organization structure is appropriate when the primary goal of an organization is
287. Premier Technology Corporation's primary goal is to be as innovative as possible. As such, the best structure for Premier would
be a
288. Which of the following structures is most consistent with a strategy of stability?
289. Which of the following structures works best in an uncertain organizational environment?
290. Which of the following structures works best in a stable organizational environment?
291. Which of the following structures is an incorrect fit in an unstable organizational environment?
292. Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment?
293. A type of technology that involves the production of a few goods designed to customer specifications is
294. A type of technology characterized by the production of a large volume of products with the same specification is called
295. Allflex Corporation produces a standard product for a mass market. Its manufacturing department is very dependent on machines
and prides itself on the large number of products it can produce. What type of workflow technology does Allflex have?
296. The most sophisticated and complex form of production technology, according to Woodward, is
297. Mac World Corporation is made up of many departments. These departments are relatively independent because work does not
flow between them. What type of departmental interdependence characterizes Mac World?
298. _________ means that the outputs of one department become the inputs to another department in serial fashion.
299. The current trend is toward development of the _________, which engages everyone in problem solving and continuous
improvement based on the lessons of experience.
300. Which of these indicate a disparity between existing and desired performance levels?
301. Rosalie is seeing, on a regular basis, a difference between current and expected performance levels. She should begin
a. to gather more data. b. to implement change. c. to perceive a need for change. d. to change the reward system.
e. All of the above.
302. Recently, a high level manager at Titan Trophies noted a rise in customer satisfaction complaints. This rise is inconsistent with
Titan's goals in this area. This manager has identified
303. After the need for change has been recognized, the next step is to
304. Rosemarie, a new employee of yours, strikes you as curious, open-minded, and receptive to new ideas. Keep your eye on
Rosemarie, for she may very well be
a. an outstanding performer. b. an individual with a high need for achievement. c. a satisfied employee.
d. a creative individual. e. None of the above.
305. Rahim has tremendous technical skills and frequently comes up with valuable ideas. However, he has little idea how to promote
it within the organization. Rahim is a good example of
a. an inventor. b. an idea champion. c. a sponsor. d. a critic. e. an in-transition employee.
306. Marion has average technical skills but her real strengths lay in visualizing the benefits of other's ideas and in finding financial
and political support for these ideas. Marion is an excellent example of
307. Power that stems from a leader's special knowledge is known as
308. Preventing people in other roles from adopting a bad idea is the role of the
309. _________ is(are) important role(s) to be played during the process of organizational change.
310. The biggest barrier to organizational change is usually
311. Yourtown Bank has proposed some major structural changes within their organization. Some of the employees fear that they will
lose power with the changes. They begin voicing resistance to the changes. What barrier to change are they exhibiting?
312. Rolling Riggle, Inc. has decided to restructure the entire organization. You hold a meeting with your employees to notify them of
the change. You do not give them any detailed information. Which of the barriers to change would you expect your employees to
exhibit?
313. You are the production manager for Able Body, Inc. You decide to change the production procedure to increase efficiency. One
of your long-time foremen is resisting the change, insisting that the idea won't work. He is exhibiting what obstacle to change?
314. Which approach to change implementation should be used when users have power to resist?
315. Jungle Gim, Inc. is making some changes to the work schedules of its employees. Some of the employees are not happy with the
changes. As their manager, George tells them that they can accept it or leave. What approach to change implementation is George
using?
a. Negotiation b. Top management support c. Participation d. Coercion e. Education
316. Angela was denied a promotion to partner in her accounting firm because of her gender. Angela is a victim of
a. discrimination. b. affirmative action. c. equal employment opportunity. d. employment-at-will. e. termination-at-will.
317. Which of these is the first step in attracting an effective work force?
318. The process of determining the skills, abilities, and other attributes a person needs to perform a particular job is referred to as
319. Flores-are-Us has a very strong set of corporate values. In fact, Flores has been known to discourage the emergence of alternative
values. Flores is most likely
a. a diverse organization. b. an organization that encourages pluralism. c. a monoculture. d. geocentric.
e. minority-owned organization.
320. A culture that accepts only one way of doing things and one set of values and beliefs is referred to as a(n)
321. A basic aim of diversity awareness training is to
322. According to stages of diversity awareness, which of the following represents the highest level of awareness?
323. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of diversity awareness?
324. In which stage of diversity awareness is an individual able to shift from one cultural perspective to another?
325. Research has shown that
a. homogeneous groups are more creative than diverse groups. b. homogenous groups are less satisfied than diverse groups.
c. diverse groups are more creative than homogeneous groups. d. creativity has nothing to do with group composition.
e. None of the above.
326. A positive attitude towards one's job refers to
327. All of these characteristics relate to the stimuli except
328. Which of these characteristics support the old truism that first impressions are important?
329. Justin wants to look his best when he goes for interviewing. He is focusing on which of these perceiver's characteristics?
a. Contrast b. Personality c. Needs and motivation d. Primacy e. Recency
330. When people working on the same floor of a large office building are perceived as a unit even though they represent portions of
several departments of the company, which of these mechanisms for perceptual grouping is at work?
331. Samantha has the ability to convince others to work toward organizational objectives. This ability is known as
a. motivation. b. leadership. c. commitment. d. a conceptual skill. e. personal agenda.
332. Rahim is a manager at RTC Corporation. Rahim uses threats and punishment to influence the behavior of his subordinates.
Which of the following responses is Rahim likely to encounter?
a. Compliance b. Resistance c. Commitment d. Satisfaction e. Citizenship
333. Power that stems from a leader's special knowledge is known as
334. Referent power depends on the leader's
335. Which of the following types of leaders tends to centralize authority?
336. Which of these leaders clarify the role and task requirements of subordinates?
337. Charismatic leaders are often _________ than transactional leaders.
a. less emotional b. more predictable c. less predictable d. more directive e. None of the above.
338. The _________ leader is distinguished by their ability to bring about organizational change.
339. Which of the following is NOT a need proposed by Maslow in his hierarchy of needs theory?
340. According to Maslow, the highest order needs are
341. Alderfer referred to the needs for physical well being as _________ needs.
342. According to Herzberg, which of these has the greatest impact on job satisfaction?
a. Hygiene factors b. Reinforcers c. Motivators d. Dissatisfiers e. All of the above.
343. Which of these refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode?
344. Which of these is the richest medium for communication?
345. A communication transmitted through actions and behaviors rather than through words is known as
346. Jessica is a talkative, assertive, and sociable individual who is very comfortable with interpersonal relationships. This describes
which quality of Jessica?
347. Which of these refers to the degree to which a person is focused on a few goals, thus behaving in ways that are responsible,
dependable, persistent, and achievement oriented?
348. If Allen is tense, nervous, depressed and insecure, he would tend to be rated as low on which of these factors?
349. The tendency to direct much of one's behavior toward the acquisition of power and the manipulation of others for personal gain
is called
a. authoritarianism. b. external locus of control. c. introversion characteristic. d. machiavellianism. e. organizational citizenship.
350. Non-verbal communication has the biggest impact when using which of the following communications channels?