141-Spell Biology Old Exams Part 3 and 4
The order, format, and topics may be different in our exam from those in these
exams. These questions are provided to give you a way to test your knowledge. These
exam questions are taken from previous years exams and may not represent the exact
coverage or exam structure for this year. The topics included in this collection include biological
chemistry, and biomolecule structure and function (nucleic acids, proteins, carbohydrates, and
lipids). Many of the graphics are unfortunately lost in the transfer.
The best use of these questions is for you to learn what topics you need to study. Just
being able to answer these questions will not help you because you will not be asked THESE
questions. However, the understanding involved in answering these questions will be tested on
the real exam. Be sure that you can explain WHY an answer is correct.
ANSWERS WILL NOT BE PROVIDED BY THE PROFESSOR OR THE BIOMENTORS.
1. Under what circumstances does movement across a membrane always require
energy?
a. whenever moving molecules are too big to cross directly through the
phospholipid bilayer membrane
b. whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high
concentration
c. whenever a solute is charged, such as an ion
d. whenever a molecule is polar
2. Youve just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments.
Which of the following would you predict to be true about the phospholipids in its
membranes?
a. They will have extremely long hydrocarbon tails.
b. Their hydrocarbon tails will be short and saturated.
c. Their hydrocarbon tails will be short and highly unsaturated.
d. They contain no cholesterol.
3. A simple biological model for studying cell membranes involves forming red
blood cell ghosts. These are formed by placing red blood cells in a solution that
causes them to swell and burst open, releasing all of their cytoplasmic contents.
Which of the following could be used to form red blood cell ghosts?
a. a hypotonic solution
b. a hypertonic solution
c. an isotonic solution
d. either an isotonic or a hypotonic solution
4. Which of the following organelles is present in all cells?
a. mitochondria
b. ribosomes
c. nucleus
d. golgi
e. RER
5. The correct order for the secretion of a protein hormone is:
a. golgi => RER => ribosome => transport vesicle => plasma membrane
b. ribosome => transport vesicle => RER => golgi => plasma membrane
c. RER => golgi => ribosome => transport vesicle => plasma membrane
d. ribosome => golgi => transport vesicle => RER => plasma membrane
1 of 22
e. ribosome => RER => golgi => transport vesicle => plasma membrane
6. The movement of cilia and flagella is due to
a. actin and myosin sliding past one another
b. actin filaments walked by myosin
c. microtubules walked by actin
d. microtubules walked by dynein, powered by ATP
e. microfilaments walked by kinesin, powered by ATP
7. The theory of endosymbiosis to explain the origin of some eukaryotic organelles
suggests that
a. mammalian organelles came from plant ancestors
b. mitochondria arose by engulfment of heterotrophic prokaryotes
c. chloroplasts arose by engulfment of heterotrophic prokaryotes
d. photosynthetic prokaryotes engulfed single celled eukaryotes
e. none are correct
8. Membranous organelles that are part of the endomembrane system are
a. mitochondria, lysosomes, chloroplasts
b. ribosomes, tonoplasts, smooth ER
c. rough and smooth ER, lysosomes, Golgi
d. rough ER, peroxisomes, vacuoles, mitochondria
e. nuclear membrane, peroxisomes, transport vesicles
9. White blood cells engulf bacteria through the process of _____.
a. exocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. receptor-mediated exocytosis
e. osmosis
10. A defect in an enzyme that functions in the Golgi apparatus would most likely
cause developmental defects by reducing ______.
a. detoxification of alcohol
b. the activity of cell surface proteins
c. the production of steroid hormones
d. the synthesis of DNA
e. RNA processing
11. Dr. Doshi isolated several cellular fractions each containing different organelles
using differential centrifugation, but the labels smeared on some tubes containing
the fractions. Not wishing to repeat her work, she decided to perform enzyme
assays on the fractions to determine which organelles were present in each tube.
She found ATP synthase activity in one unknown tube. This fraction contains:
A. peroxisomes
B. Golgi
C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts
E. either mitochondria or chloroplaststs
12. In another tube, she found catalase activity. This fraction contains:
A. peroxisomes
B. Golgi
C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts
E. either mitochondria or chloroplasts
2 o f 22
Match the cells listed below (a. to e.) to the corresponding cellular organelles/structures.
a. pancreatic cell (manufacturing digestive enzymes)
b. white blood cell (macrophage)
c. liver cell (alcohol and drug abuser)
d. muscle cell (calf of a runner)
e. epithelial cell (lining digestive tract)
13. ______ has the most smooth ER, most lysosomes, most mitochondria, most tight
junctions, and most transport vesicles, respectively.
a. c, b, d, e, a
b. b, a, d, e, c
c. e, a, c, d, b
d. a, b, c, d, e
e. a, e, d, b, c
14. A person has suddenly lost the function of the smooth ER. You would expect
a. decreased or constant cell size to due to a block in phospholipids synthesis
b. increased sensitivity to alcohol and some drugs
c. lack of energy due to inability to release glucose from liver to bloodstream
d. lack of coordination due to inability to induce muscle contraction
e. all of the above
15. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the
following structures in animal cells
a. tight junctions
b. gap junctions
c. peroxisomes
d. desmosomes
e. flagella
16. Intercellular links between animal cells such as desmosomes
a. are characterized by intermediate filaments
b. provide a channel for passage of small molecules
c. fuse plasma membranes of adjacent cells
d. are also known as plasmodesmata
e. all are correct
17. Sodium azide is a compound that is used as a chemical preservative because it
can block the flow of electrons from Complex IV of the ETC to oxygen.
a. This compound would be expected to increase ATP production.
b. This compound would not be expected to kill facultative anaerobes.
c. This compound would increase the activity of the Krebs cycle.
d. This compound would increase the formation of Acetyl CoA.
e. This compound would increase the production of citrate.
18. During oxidative phosphorylation, water is formed. Where do the oxygen atoms
come from?
a. carbon dioxide
b. glucose
c. pyruvate
d. molecular oxygen
e. lactate
19. The protein thermogenin is present in the inner mitochondrial membranes of
some animal cells. The animals benefit from this protein because it leads to the
3 o f 22
generation of heat that helps to keep them warm during the winter. The protein
facilitates the diffusion of protons across the membrane (down their
concentration gradient). This protein would cause _____.
a. an increase in the efficiency of ATP production from glucose
b. a decrease in activity of the Krebs cycle
c. the cell to begin to ferment glucose by shutting down the ETC
d. an increase in water production by mitochondria
e. ATP synthase to begin pumping protons in the opposite direction
20. Why is the Krebs cycle called a cycle?
a. The pyruvate that enters the cycle is regenerated in the last step of the
pathway.
b. NAD+ and FAD+ are recycled.
c. The four-carbon acid that accepts two carbons from acetyl CoA is
regenerated.
d. All of the carbon from glucose is cycled back into the atmosphere as
carbon
dioxide.
e.
NADH is cycled down the electron transport chain.
21. Human tumors are often partially anaerobic due to the fact that the blood vessels
supplying them are not sufficient to provide adequate amounts of oxygen. Which
of the following would be true for tumor cells under these conditions?
a. They would rely more heavily on oxidative phosphorylation for ATP.
b. They would increase the rate of their Krebs cycle to compensate.
c. The production of pyruvate would increase in these cells.
d. Their mitochondrial ETC would accelerate to provide more ATP.
e. They would not be able to utilize glucose as an energy source.
22. The first fully oxidized carbon released from the breakdown of a glucose
molecule is produced during _____ and is formed in _____.
a. the Krebs cycle, mitochondria
b. the ETC, mitochondria
c. glycolysis, the cytosol
d. the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, the cytosol
e. the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, the mitochondria
23. What is the order of the following compounds as they occur in cellular respiration?
1. glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate
2. pyruvate
3. acetyl CoA
4. CO2
5. glucose
6. fructose bisphosphate
A. 3, 5, 1, 2, 6, 4.
b. 5, 6, 1, 4, 3, 2.
c. 6, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5.
d. 5, 6, 1, 2, 4, 3.
e. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2.
24. FADH2 compared to NADH: FADH2
a. carries more electrons than NADH
b. is found only in the cytosol
c. works later in the electron transport chain where the electrons have less energy
d. loses energy faster than does NADH
4 o f 22
e. is produced in greater amounts than NADH
25. The movement of protons into the matrix of a mitochondrion through the ATP
synthase is an example of _____.
a. Active transport
b. Passive transport
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. A and C
e. B and C
26. Which of the following is correct regarding substrate-level phosphorylation?
a. It occurs only in glycolysis.
b. It occurs only in the Krebs cycle.
c. It occurs only in the absence of oxygen.
d. It occurs only in the presence of oxygen.
e. None of the above is correct.
27. An increase in AMP levels in a cell would be expected to ___glycolysis and
___the ETC.
a. increasedecrease
b. increaseincrease
c. decreasedecrease
d. decreaseincrease
28. Chloroplasts
a. need food to make ATP
b. do not need food to make ATP
c. transfer energy from food to NADPH
d. make ATP in the absence of light
e. none are correct
29. The products of the light reactions used by the Calvin cycle are
a. ATP and NADP
b. NADPH and O2
c. NADPH and ATP
d. NADPH, ATP and O2
e. NADPH, ATP and CO2
30. Porphyrin rings are found in chlorophyll and cytochromes.
a. True
b. False
31. Carbon dioxide is used in photosynthesis in order to accept electrons from the ETC
during the light-dependent reactions.
a. True
b. False
32. At the completion of mitosis, a cell having 40 chromatids at metaphase would
produce 2 nuclei, each containing _______ chromosomes.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 48
e. 80
33. During metaphase, ______ bind at _______ in order to ensure segregation of
each ________ to the daughter cells.
5 o f 22
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
kinetochore proteins, the centrosomes, sister chromatid
myosin proteins, the centromeres, sister chromatid
microtubules, the kinetochore proteins, centrosome
kinetochore proteins, a DNA sequence, sister chromatid
kinesin proteins, the centrosomes, sister chromatid
34. The anti-cancer drug taxol prevents the depolymerization of microtubules. The
drug would have its greatest influence during _____ of the cell cycle.
a . G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
e . G0
35. Microfilaments are components of
a. centrioles
b. the spindle that separates chromosomes in mitosis
c. the mechanism that pinches apart of cytoplasm in animal mitosis
d. tracks used by organelles for movement
e. flagella and cilia
36. The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of replicated DNA
together is called _____.
a. chromatin
b. a centriole
c. a centromere
d. a chromatid
e.
a centrosome
37. A cell contains X amount of DNA during G1. That same cell would have ___
DNA during G2?
a. ! X
b. " X
c. 1 X
d. 2 X
e. 4 X
38. A cell contains 4 chromosomes during G1. That same cell would have ___
chromosomes during metaphase?
a. 2 chromosomes
b. 4 chromosomes
c. 8 chromosomes
d. 16 chromosomes
e. none of the above
39. You look through a microscope at a cell and observe 3 condensing
chromosomes. This indicates to you that
a. the chromosomes have undergone replication
b. the chromosomes are about to undergo replication
c. the cell is about to enter G2
d. the cell has just completed G0
e. none of the above
6 o f 22
40. If an organisms genome is described as 2n=12, a cell of that organism will have
___ copies of each kind of chromosome?
a. one
b. two
c. six
d. twelve
e. none of the above
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) The endomembrane system of eukaryotic cells
A) Is characterized by a single, continuous membrane system with direct membrane
continuity between different organelles.
B) Includes the smooth and rough ER, chloroplasts, and mitochondria.
C) Is the primary site of lipid and protein synthesis for the plasma membrane.
D) Includes lysosomes and peroxisomes.
E) Is most likely derived from similar membrane structures that are present in
prokaryotic cells.
2) If someone suddenly lost the function of the smooth ER, you would expect
A) The size of cells to stay constant or decrease a little due to block in phospholipid
synthesis.
B) An increase in the sensitivity to alcohol and some drugs.
C) The lack of energy due to the inability to release glucose from the liver cell into the
bloodstream.
D) Lack of coordination due to the inability to sequester calcium ions used to trigger
muscle cell contraction.
E) All of the above.
3) The correct sequence for the various steps in the production and manipulation of a
protein that is to be expressed (found sticking out) on the cell surface is (not all steps
are listed)
A) Nuclear gene transcribed, short signal sequence is translated, the protein is inserted
in membrane of a vesicle that travels to the cis face of the Golgi, more membrane
proteins are gathered in a transport vesicle that buds from the trans face and goes to
the plasma membrane.
B) Nuclear gene transcribed, RNA docks on small ribosomal subunit, RNA transcript
exits nuclear pore, protein enters the ER, signal sequence is cleaved (chopped off),
more membrane proteins are gathered in a transport vesicle that buds from its trans
face and goes to the plasma membrane.
C) Nuclear gene transcribed, large ribosomal subunit binds the small ribosome subunit
and RNA, the protein is inserted in the Golgi membrane and in a vesicle that travels to
the cis face of the Golgi, protein is glycosylated and folded in the ER, a transport vesicle
buds from the rough ER and goes to the plasma membrane.
D) Nuclear gene transcribed, protein enters the ER, signal sequence is cleaved
(chopped off), protein translation continues, protein is glycosylated and folded in the
rough ER, the protein's carbohydrates are further modified in the smooth ER, a
transport vesicle that buds from the smooth ER face and goes to the plasma
membrane.
7 o f 22
E) Nuclear gene transcribed, RNA transcript exits nuclear pore, RNA docks on small
ribosomal subunit, short signal sequence is translated, large subunit binds ribosome
and RNA, the protein's carbohydrates are modified in the Golgi, more membrane
proteins are gathered in a transport vesicle that goes to the plasma membrane.
4) Which of these does not belong in a description of a eukaryotic cilium?
A) microtubule doublets
B) dynein
C) plasma membrane covering
D) basal body
E) actin
5) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following
structures in animal cells?
A) tight junctions
B) glycocalyx
C) gap junctions
D) peroxisomes
E) desmosomes
6) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes,
plasma membrane, and lysosomes. It could be a cell from
A) a bacterium
B) an animal, but not a plant
C) a plant, but not an animal
D) a plant or an animal cell
E) a bacterium, an animal or a plant
7) All of the following statements about membrane structure and function are true
except:
A) Diffusion of gases is faster in air than across membranes.
B) Diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion do not require any energy input from the
cell.
C) Both sides of a membrane are identical in structure and function.
D) Voltage across the membrane depends on an unequal distribution of ions across the
plasma membrane.
E) Special membrane proteins can cotransport two solutes by coupling diffusion with
active transport.
8) The experiments using FRAP with cells expressing (i.e. making) GFP fusions of
transmembrane proteins showed that
A) while phospholipids are very mobile, transmembrane proteins are not.
B) some transmembrane proteins are able to move quickly in membranes, while others
are not.
C) proteins that are located in a membrane are inaccessible to laser light.
D) lasers blast holes in membranes allowing membrane proteins to become mobile.
E) GFP fusion proteins cannot be inserted into membranes
9) A cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane
8 o f 22
would likely be inefficient in
A) transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient.
B) cell-cell recognition.
C) maintaining fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer.
D) attaching to the cytoskeleton.
E) establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules.
10) Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the
small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich
food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transport
mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells?
A) simple diffusion
B) phagocytosis
C) active transport pumps
D) exocytosis
E) facilitated diffusion
11) All of the following situations are consistent with active transport except
A) the conversion of ATP to ADP accompanies the movement of molecules.
B) the rate of oxygen consumption by the cell increases when molecules move.
C) molecules move in or out of a cell against the osmotic gradient.
D) cells accumulate diffusible molecules in greater quantity than was found outside.
E) the rate of movement of molecules across the cell membrane increases in an
anaerobic environment.
12) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis?
A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell
B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it
C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized
D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD+
E) an agent that inhibits the formation of acetyl coenzyme A
13) All of the following are products or intermediaries in glycolysis except
A) ATP.
B) NADH.
C) FADH2.
D) pyruvate.
E) phosphoenolpyruvate.
14) During aerobic cellular respiration, a proton gradient in mitochondria will be
generated by
and used primarily for
.
A) the electron transport chain ... ATP synthesis
B) the electron transport chain ... substrate-level phosphorylation
C) glycolysis ... production of H2O
D) fermentation ... NAD reduction
E) diffusion of protons ... ATP synthesis
15) How many molecules of _elementsubscript_element would be released from the
complete aerobic respiration of a molecule of sucrose, a disaccharide?
9 o f 22
A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 20
16) Which of the following statements is true of fermentation?
A) It produces a net gain of ATP.
B) It produces a net gain of NADH.
C) Strict aerobes can't do it.
D) It can be performed only by bacteria.
E) It is possible only in strict anaerobes.
17) What must a muscle cell do to keep contracting?
A) regenerate ATP at a very fast rate
B) receive sufficient oxygen for store glycolysis
C) sufficient ATP as a raw material for oxidative phosphorylation
D) rapidly replace the enzymes of respiration
E) effectively transport NADH into the mitochondria
18) Glycolysis is believed to be one of the most ancient of metabolic processes. Which
statement below least supports this idea?
A) If run in reverse, glycolysis will build glucose molecules.
B) Glycolysis neither uses nor needs O2.
C) Glycolysis is found in all eukaryotic cells.
D) The enzymes of glycolysis are found in the cytosol rather than in a membraneenclosed organelle.
E) Bacteria, the most primitive of cells, make extensive use of glycolysis.
19) You have a friend who lost 15 pounds of fat on a diet. Where did the fat go (how
was it lost)?
A) It was released as CO2 and H2O.
B) Chemical energy was converted to heat and then released.
C) It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat.
D) It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body.
E) It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.
20) Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme. All of the following
statements concerning this enzyme are true except:
A) It is activated by citrate.
B) It is inhibited by ATP.
C) It is activated by AMP.
D) It is a coordinator of the processes of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
E) It is an allosteric enzyme.
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
CORRECTIBLE true/false questions. First mark (T)rue or (F)alse in the space
provided. Second, if false, correct the sentence in a non-trivial manner that does
not change the subject of the statement. Assume the statements in italics before
each question to be true. (2ptseach)
21) T / F A mutant yeast cell is has a defective isomerase and can't convert
dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) into glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate (G3P aka
PGAL). The buildup of DHAP does not affect the cell. This cell would be able to
1 0 of 22
survive under anaerobic conditions using glucose as its sole energy source.
22) T / F The mutant described above would survive under aerobic conditions using
glucose as its sole energy source.
23) T / F Measured per glucose, the Krebs cycle produce more net ATP via
substrate level phosphorylation than glycolysis.
24) T / F In the reaction, Succinate + FAD --> Fumarate and FADH2, Succinate is
reduced by FAD.
25) T / F Based on the reaction shown above, Fumarate has more potentially
usable energy in its bonds than Succinate.
26) T / F The purpose of the formation of lactic acid from pyruvate that occurs in
muscle cells during periods of intense exercise is the regeneration of NADH needed for
glycolysis.
27) T / F You are studying phosphofuctokinase (PFK) and discover a new allosteric
site on this most amazing enzyme. The site binds Acetyl CoA. The binding of Acetyl
CoA would be expected to increase the activity of PFK.
28)
T / F The plasma membrane of a sperm cell completely surrounds its flagellum.
29) T / F The ATP made during fermentation do not carry the same amount of
energy as the ATP made via the ETC.
30) T / F During aerobic respiration, energy is gently transferred from food
molecules to ATP molecules; during photosynthesis, light energy is used to generate
ATP molecules which are used to create food molecules.
11 of 22
31) T / F One of the ways plants like winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is
extremely cold is by increasing the percentage of saturated phospholipids in the
membrane.
32) T / F The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membrane of some animals
enables the membrane to stay fluid when cell temperature drops.
33) T / F A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt
to replenish body fluids, a large amount of distilled water was transferred directly into
one of his veins. The result of this transfusion would be that red blood cells will be
hypotonic relative to the body fluids and will burst.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement
or answers the question.
The maximum number of sentences allowed to answer the question is indicated,
e.g. (1s) = max. 1 sentence.
34) Name three pieces of evidence that eukaryotic mitochondria derived from bacteria
able to do aerobic respiration. (2 pts each)
1.______________________________________
2. ______________________________________
3.______________________________________
35) You are purifying a protein in a laboratory. The protein is suspended in one
milliliter of a 1M salt solution enclosed in a semi-permeable membrane (bag). Your goal
is to reduce the salt concentration as much as possible within the bag. The salts are
small enough to cross the membrane, but the protein cannot escape the bag. You
consider two options for this:
Option 1: Place the bag in a 1L container full of distilled water and allow for the solutions
to come to equilibrium. Remove the bag from the container and measure the salt
concentration within the bag.
1 2 of 22
Option 2: Place the bag in 500 milliliters of distilled water and allow the solutions to
come to equilibrium. Remove the bag from this solution and place it into another 500
milliliters of distilled water, again allowing the solutions to come to equilibrium. Remove
the bag from the second container and measure the salt concentration within the bag.
a.
Option 1 would yield (choose one) THE SAME, A LOWER, A HIGHER salt
concentration than Option 2. This is because _____ (2 pts)
b.
When placed in the distilled water, the bag would be expected to initially (choose
one) GAIN, LOSE, HAVE NO NET CHANGE IN water content due to osmosis. (2 pt)
c.
The movement of the salt across the bag 'membrane' is an example of (choose
one) ACTIVE TRANSPORT, PASSIVE TRANSPORT, FACILITATED DIFFUSION. (1
pt)
36) During exercise, our muscle cells may become anaerobic and resort to
fermentation of glucose into lactic acid. You expect the cells to consume (Choose one)
MORE LESS THE SAME number of glucose molecules per minute under anaerobic
conditions (1 pt). Support your answer with one sentence (2pts).
37) You are interested in losing weight and decide to try the Spell diet. This diet is rich
in fat but has very low amounts of carbohydrates. You find that you become extremely
sluggish and weak on this diet but that this is reversed when you resume your original
diet. In what metabolic pathway are you likely to have a defect in and how is your
problem 'masked' when you eat a balanced diet? (3 pts., 2s)
38) The largest bacteria ever found is named Thiomargarista namibiensis, which
means "Sulfur Pearl of Namibia." It can grow to 0.75 mm wide (a mm is the smallest
unit on a metric ruler).
a. The reason that the surface area to volume ratio is a limiting factor for cell size is (1
s, 2 pts)
b. Describe two different mechanisms/strategies that eukaryotes (like you and me) use
1 3 of 22
to overcome this limitation: (1s each, 2 pts each)
1.
2.
c. Thiomargarista actually contains a large "vacuole" that takes up 98% of the cell's
interior. Obviously, the "vacuole" is encased in a protein shell, not a lipid bilayer. Why
is that obvious? (1s, 1 pt)
d. The vacuole is a filled with nitrate, which these bacteria use in cellular respiration the
way we use oxygen. Explain how nitrate might be used by describing how oxygen is
used in aerobic respiration. (2s, 2pts)
39) You have a solution containing only one type of intact eukaryotic organelle. When
the sample is boiled, the pH drops to ~ 5.
a.
What is the organelle? (1pt)
_______________________________
b.
What are its functions? (1s, 1pt)
c.
Do you expect to find enzymatic activity in the boiled solution? Why /why not?
(1s, 2pts)
d. If the organelle were gently lysed (i.e. gently broken open, not boiled), in a solution at
pH 7.4, do you expect to find enzymatic activity associated with them? Why/Why not?
(1s, 2pts)
e. Why have some bacteria evolved proteins that affect the function of this organelle in
humans and give an example of what one of the bacterial proteins does? (1s, 2pts)
1 4 of 22
41. The anti-cancer drug taxol prevents the depolymerization of microtubules and
inhibits cell division. The drug would have its greatest influence during _____ of
the cell cycle.
a . G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
e. interphase
42. Which, if any, of the following statements is false?
a. Diploid cells can divide by mitosis.
b. Diploid cells can divide by meiosis.
c. Haploid cells can divide by mitosis.
d. Haploid cells can divide by meiosis.
e. All of the statements are true.
43. The protein thermogenin is present in the inner mitochondrial membranes of
some animal cells. The animals benefit from this protein because it leads to the
generation of heat that helps to keep them warm during the winter. The protein
facilitates the diffusion of protons across the membrane (down their
concentration gradient). This protein would cause _____.
a. an increase in the efficiency of ATP production from glucose
b. a decrease in activity of the Krebs cycle
c. the cell to begin to ferment glucose by shutting down the ETC
d. an increase in water production by mitochondria
e. ATP synthase to begin pumping protons in the opposite direction
44. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the fermentation of glucose to ethanol?
a. It produces a net gain of ATP.
b. It produces a net gain of NADH.
c. It occurs only in bacteria.
d. It produces more overall ATP than aerobic respiration.
e. It occurs only in the presence of oxygen.
45. In the telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin
uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in _____.
a. prophase
b. interphase
c. metaphase
d. S phase
e. anaphase
46. Why is the Krebs cycle called a cycle?
a. The pyruvate that enters the cycle is regenerated in the last step of the
pathway.
b. NAD+ and FAD+ are recycled.
c. The four-carbon acid that accepts the acetyl CoA is regenerated.
d. All of the carbon from glucose is cycled back into the atmosphere as
carbon
dioxide.
1 5 of 22
e. NADH is cycled down the electron transport chain.
47. Which one of the following represents a mismatch or incorrect description?
a. prophase: chromosomes become more tightly coiled
b. metaphase: chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane
c. metaphase: the nuclear envelope disappears
d. anaphase: there is movement of the chromosomes to the poles
e. prophase: nuclear envelope breaks down.
48. The reaction Pyruvate + NADH + H+
Lactate + NAD+ occurs during the
fermentation of glucose in human muscle cells. In this reaction ______.
a. pyruvate is reduced and NADH is oxidized
b. pyruvate is oxidized and NADH is reduced
c. both pyruvate and NADH are oxidized
d. both pyruvate and NADH are reduced
e. no compounds are reduced or oxidized
49. Rotenone is a rat poison. It works by accepting high energy electrons from
NADH, preventing their entry into the electron transport chain (ETC). Which of
the following would be correct regarding the response of a cell metabolizing
glucose in the presence of non-lethal doses of this poison?
a. Glycolysis would stop because of a build-up of ATP in the cell.
b. FADH2 would not be able to deliver its electrons to the ETC.
c. The Krebs cycle would increase in an effort to make more ATP.
d. The cell would switch to the metabolism of fat to overcome the blockage.
e. The electron transport chain would run in reverse, generating ADP and Pi
from ATP
50. The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of replicated DNA
together is called _____.
a. chromatin
b. a centriole
c. a centromere
d. a chromatid
e. a centrosome
1 6 of 22
1
1
e
f
2
2
3
3
a
b
c
d
The figure above depicts chromosomes seen in a cell undergoing meiosis. Use this to
answer the next 5 questions:
51. The protein complex holding chromosomes 1 and 1 together is formed during
____.
a. S phase of meiosis I
b. S phase of meiosis II
c. prophase of meiosis I
d. prophase of meiosis II
e. anaphase of meiosis I
52. Which of the following belong to different chromosomes of a homologous pair?
a. chromatids a and b
b. chromatids b and c
c. chromatids c and d
d. chromatids c and f
e. chromatids e and a
53. What stage of meiosis is depicted?
a. metaphase I
b. metaphase II
c. anaphase I
d. anaphase II
e. prophase II
1 7 of 22
54. Which statement is correct for each of the four gametes that will result from the
meiosis depicted?
a. 2n=6, 2C
b. 1n=6, 1C
c. 1n=3, 1C
d. 2n=3, 1C
e. 1n=3, 2C
55. Normal crossing over events that yield genetic variation would involve
chromatids ___.
a. a and b
b. b and c
c. a and e
d. d and e
e. All of the above are normal and would lead to increased genetic diversity.
56. The protein structure most responsible for the shortening of the microtubules
attached to the centromeres of chromosomes is the _____.
a. centrosome
b. kinetochore
c. synaptonemal complex
d. p53 protein
e. MPF complex
57. An increase in ATP in a cell would ____.
a. increase the activity of glycolysis via allosteric activation of PFK
b. decrease the activity of glycolysis via allosteric inhibition of PFK
c. increase the activity of the ETC via activation of the ATP synthase
d. increase the activity of the Krebs cycle by increasing breakdown of acetyl
CoA
e. kill the cell as ATP buildup is toxic to normal cells
58. Which of the following steps/processes in metabolism yields the most ATP?
a. glucose => pyruvate
b. pyruvate => acetyl CoA
c. citrate => oxaloacetate
d. pyruvate => ethanol
e. the ETC (chemiosmosis)
59. The non-dividing somatic cells of a diploid organism contain 32 chromosomes.
At metaphase 2, a gamete forming cell from this organism would contain ___
chromatids.
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
e. 128
60. There is no production of carbon dioxide via glycolysis. Which of the following is
1 8 of 22
the best explanation for this?
a. There are no oxidation or reduction reactions in glycolysis to produce CO2.
b. There is very little ATP produced in glycolysis.
c. The pyruvate molecules produced contain three carbon atoms each.
d. The initial steps of glycolysis require an input of energy in the form of ATP.
e. None of the above is correct.
61. The movement of electrons down the ETC is driven by the fact that _____.
a. oxygen is strongly electronegative
b. the electrons coming from NADH have less potential energy than those of
FADH2
c. the electrons are used by the ATP synthase to form ATP from ADP and
Pi
d. the electrons coming from FADH2 have less potential energy than those of
NADH
e. glycolysis requires ADP as a reactant to proceed
62. If, at the end of meiosis, the four daughter cells have four chromosomes, how
many chromosomes were in the mother cell?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. Not enough information to tell
63. Cancer cells differ from normal cells in that they _____.
a. do not have functional cell cycle checkpoint systems
b. do not have centrosomes to guide cell division
c. do not contain functional MPF
d. only go through mitosis and do not enter interphase
e. do not utilize the cytoskeleton to separate their chromosomes during
mitosis
64. As mitosis begins, a condensed chromosome consists of two ____.
a. centromeres
b. chromatids
c. centrioles
d. kinetochores
e. nucleosomes
65. The first ATP derived from the breakdown of a fat molecule would be produced
_____.
a. in the cytosol via glycolysis
b. in the mitochondria via the Krebs cycle
c. in the mitochondria via the ETC
d. in the mitochondria via glycolysis
e. in the cytosol via the Krebs cycle
66. How many maternal chromosomes (chromosomes from the female parent) are
1 9 of 22
present in a somatic human cell in G1?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 92
d. 184
e. none of the above
67. DNA replication occurs in _____.
a. prophase of both mitosis and meiosis
b. metaphase of meiosis only
c. the S phase of interphase in both body (somatic) cells and reproductive
cells
d. the S phase of interphase in somatic cells only
e. the M phase of the cell's life cycle
68. The first fully oxidized carbon released from the breakdown of a glucose
molecule is produced during _____ and is formed in _____.
a. the Krebs cycle, mitochondria
b. the ETC, mitochondria
c. glycolysis, the cytosol
d. the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, the cytosol
e. the production of acetyl CoA from pyruvate, the mitochondria
69. A cell at metaphase of meiosis 2 contains X amount of DNA. A resting (G1)
somatic cell from this organism would contain __ DNA .
a. 0.5X
b. X
c. 2X
d. 4X
e. 8X
70. Cell fusion experiments demonstrated that the cell cycle____
a. is dependent on cytoplasmic factors
b. does not involve enzymes
c. is dependent solely on external signals
d. can not be influenced by a mixing of the cytoplasm of cells at different
stages
e. is dependent on ATP levels
71. DNA damage in dividing cells results in _______.
a. failure to pass cell cycle checkpoints
b. cell death via apoptosis
c. formation of MPF from cyclin and cdk
d. a or b
e. a, b or c
20 o f 22
72. Which of the following correctly represents the process of mitosis in a human
cell?
a. one cell (2n, 1C) => two cells, each is (2n, 1C)
b. one cell (2n, 2C) => two cells, each is (2n, 2C)
c. one cell (1n, 1C) => two cells, each is (2n, 2C)
d. one cell (1n, 2C) => two cells, each is (1n, 1C)
e. one cell (2n, 2C) => two cells, each is (1n, 1C)
73. A diploid organism contains 6 chromosomes in each non-dividing somatic cell.
How many chromosomes would be present at G2 of mitosis of a cell from this
organism?
a. 1
b. 3 c. 6 d. 12 e. 24
74. Based on independent assortment, how many DIFFERENT gametes can be
produced by the organism in the previous question (ignore crossing over)?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
75. During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill from
a. food => Krebs => ATP => NAD+
b. food => NADH => ETC => oxygen
c. glucose => ATP => oxygen
d. glucose => ATP => ETC => NADH
e. food => glycolysis =>Krebs => NADH => ATP
76. There are several poisons that dissolve in membranes and allow protons (H+) to
diffuse across the membrane until equilibrium is reached. What would be the
effect of this type of poison on energy production by yeast cells?
a. The cells would die due to a lack of ATP production.
b. The cells would produce ATP via fermentation and survive.
c. The cells would continue to utilize the ETC via the formation of a different
gradient.
d. Yeast cells dont utilize the ETC so the poisons would have no effect on
them.
e. Yeast dont utilize protons in their ETC so they would not be affected.
77. A cell contains 30 chromosomes prior to meiosis. How many tetrads would be
formed during meiosis I?
a. 0
b. 4
c. 15
d. 30
e. 60
21 of 22
78. How many ATP are gained (net) via substrate level phosphorylation in the
complete oxidation of a single glucose molecule?
a. 0
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 30
79. Which of the following is/are true regarding kinases and their role in cell division?
a. They control the activities of other proteins by adding phosphate groups to
them.
b. They are involved in allowing cells to get past cell cycle checkpoints.
c. Their activity may be controlled by binding to regulatory subunits.
d. a and b
e. All of the above are correct.
80. Which of the following is a result of the crossing over that occurs in meiosis?
a. The sister chromatids that separate in meiosis II are not identical.
b. The homologous chromosomes do not separate during meiosis I.
c. The four gametes formed are genetically identical.
d. The four gametes formed contain different numbers of genes.
e. Independent assortment does not occur.
22 o f 22