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anatomyexam202

Course: BIO BIO 229, Spring 2011
School: Murray State KY
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2, Exam Human Anatomy, Fall 2006 1. Gomphoses can be a. immovable joints only, b. slightly movable joints only, c. freely movable joints only, d. any of the above. 2. The main subtype of tissue that connects the bones in sutures is a. areolar connective tissue, b. dense regular connective tissue, c. hyaline cartilage, d. fibrocartilage. 3. The main subtype of tissue that connects the bones in synchondroses is...

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2, Exam Human Anatomy, Fall 2006 1. Gomphoses can be a. immovable joints only, b. slightly movable joints only, c. freely movable joints only, d. any of the above. 2. The main subtype of tissue that connects the bones in sutures is a. areolar connective tissue, b. dense regular connective tissue, c. hyaline cartilage, d. fibrocartilage. 3. The main subtype of tissue that connects the bones in synchondroses is a. areolar connective tissue, b. ligaments, c. hyaline cartilage, d. fibrocartilage. 4. The articular capsule of a synovial joint has two layers, the synovial membrane and the fibrous capsule. The function of the inner layer is to a. strengthen the joint against tension, b. produce synovial fluid, c. contain all nerves and blood vessels of the joint, d. act as an articular disc. 5. The articular cartilage in synovial joints function to a. protect the end of the bone, b. soak up synovial fluid when the joint is relaxed, c. providing a smooth surface to reduce friction in the joint, d. all of the above. 6. If you were a physical therapist and a patient came to you with a torn cartilage, which of the following would you recommend to increase stability of the joint? A. exercise to increase muscle tone, b. exercise to increase ligament thickness, c. exercise to stimulate repair of the ton cartilage, d. rest to allow the cartilage to fully regenerate. 7. The main function of synovial fluid proteins is a. cooling, b. nourishing bone, c. lubrication, d. removing metabolic wastes. 8. An injury in which the joint comes out of alignment is called a. arthritis, b. a sprain, c. a dislocation, d. a compound fracture. 9. A chronic disorder of joints in which the articular cartilages degenerate and bony spurs develop is a. Lyme disease, b. rheumatoid arthritis, c. gout, d. osteoarthritis. 10. Elasticity of skeletal muscle refers to the ability to a. regain its original shape, b. stretch out to its full length, c. pull forcefully, d. all of these. A and B were close enough that I gave credit for either of them plus D. 11. The cell membrane of a muscle cell is called the a. saroplasm, b. sarcoplasmic reticulum, c. sarcasm, d. sarcolemma. 12. Thick and thin muscle protein filaments are composed of a. collagen and elastin, respectively, b. elastin and collagen, respectively, c. myosin and actin, respectively, d. actin and myosin, respectively. 13. Calcium is stored in muscle fibers in an organelle called the a. sarcoplasmic reticulum, b. sarcolemma, c. sarcoplasm, d. myofibril. 14. T-tubules are a. part of the endomysium, b. part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, c. extensions of the cell membrane, d. made of actin and myosin. 15. When a sarcomere shrinks, a. the A-band shrinks, b. the Z-disks get closer to each other, c. the I-band grows, d. the area of overlap of myosin and actin shrinks. 16. When a nervous signal causes a muscle fiber to contract, the path the signal takes is a. neuron, sarcolemma, ttubule, sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), b. sarcolemma, neuron, T-tubule, SR, c. neuron, SR, sarcolemma, Ttubule, d. sarcolemma, t-tubule, SR, neuron. 17. Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the ones that contract the weakest are: a. slow oxidative fibers, b. fast glycolytic fibers, c. fast oxidative fibers, d. slow glycolytic fibers. 18. Which fiber type would be in highest proportion in your biceps brachii? a. slow oxidative fibers, b. fast glycolytic fibers, c. fast oxidative fibers, d. slow glycolytic fibers. 19. Undifferentiated muscle cells that can merge with skeletal muscles in adults for growth or healing are called a. satellite cells, b. celestial bodies, c. comet cells, d. myotomes. 20. The muscle mass of men and women make up approx. what percent of their body mass? A. 25 and 20, b. 33 and 26, c. 40 and 30, d. 42 and 36. 21. A muscle that aids in a particular movement is called a. the origin, b. the insertion, c. the antagonist, d. the synergist. 22. Movement of the head (e.g., flexion and extension) is achieved for the most part by muscles of the a. head, b. anterior neck and throat, c. deep thorax, d. neck and vertebral column. 23. Muscles of the abdominal wall are primarily involved with a. head movement, b. breathing, c. flexion and rotation of the trunk, d. all of these. 24. Muscles that move the hand as a whole are generally located in the a. hand itself, b. forearm, c. arm, d. the anterior compartment. 25. The lateral compartment of the leg is mainly involved in a. dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot, b. plantar flexion and of eversion the foot, c. plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, d. extension of the toes. 26. The posterior compartment of the arm (crossing elbow joint) is generally involved in a. circumduction of the upper arm, b. flexion of the forearm, c. extension of the forearm, d. pronation of the forearm. 27. Muscles have few diseases. However, one disease that affects muscles directly (rather than via the nervous tissue that innervates them) is a. Lupus, b. muscular sclerosis, c. arthritis, d. muscular dystrophy. 28. Visceral motor fibers are part of the a. central nervous system, b. autonomic nervous system, c. sympathetic nervous system, d. somatic nervous system. 29. All of the following are characteristics of neurons except a) do not divide, b) short-lived, c) high metabolism, d) can be very long. 30. The most common type of neuron in the body is a. multipolar, b. bipolar, c. unipolar, d. all are equally common. 31. Neuroglial cells that feed neurons are called a. astrocytes, b. microglia, c. Schwann cells, d. oligodendrocytes. 32. Multiple sclerosis is a disease of a. microglia, b. CSF, c. myelin sheaths, d. astrocytes. 33. When protein-gated ion channels open, sodium moves a. passively, with its charge gradient, b. actively with its diffusion gradient, c. passively against its charge gradient, d. passively against its diffusion gradient (note: active = requires ATP). 34. What feature of neurons restores the proper ionic balance after an action potential? A. the ion channels, b. the sodium-potassium pump, c. the myelin sheaths, d. the Nodes of Ranvier. 35. A neuron is inhibitory if it a. decreases the polarization of its target neuron, b. increases polarization of its target neuron, c. decreases the threshold of its target neuron, d. increases the threshold of the target neuron. 36. Neurons always fire when a. stimulated, b. when threshold is met, c. when they depolarize, d. all of the above are true. 37. Put these synaptic events in the order in which they occur (assume the synapse is excitatory): 1. diffusion of neurotransmitter across the synapse 2. action potential reaches synapse 3. neurotransmitter contacts receptor 4. vesicles merge with neuronal membrane 5. new signal starts answers: a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 c. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 d. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4. 38. All of the following are one of the 4 major areas of the brain except a. cerebellum, b. cerebrum, c. brain stem, d. basal nuclei. 39. The protective tough outer covering of the brain is called the a. cortex, b. medulla, c. meninges, d. mesentaries. 40. Gray matter consists primarily of a. neurons, b. neuroglia, c. cell bodies of neurons, d. myelinated axons. 41. The primary motor cortex of the cerebrum is involved in a. simple and precise voluntary movements, b. complex voluntary movements, c. eye movements, d. speech. 42. Broca's area a. allows us to detect our own facial movements, b. is where we perceive information from touch, c. is the site where fine motor movements are initiated, d. is the site where speech is initiated. 43. When sensory information comes in from the nose, it goes to the _____ of the cerebral cortex: a. gustatory area, b. primary somatosensory area, c. auditory area, d. olfactory area. 44. The area of the cerebrum that has most to do with conscious perception of the viscera (gut) is the a. insula, b. diencephalon, c. prefrontal cortex, d. general interpretation area. 45. The primary sensory and primary motor cortexes have in common that they a. are contralateral, b. are part of the somatic nervous system, c. are areas that perceive/control movement over a large part of the body, d. all of the above. NOTE A is correct but B is very close (not correct because it is CNS, not PNS) so I gave credit for A, B or D 46. Association fibers a. connect the two halves of the cerebrum, b. connect various parts of the same cerebral hemisphere, c. connect the brain with the spinal cord, d. connect the spinal cord with skeletal muscles. 47. The cerebellum makes up approx. ____% of our brain: a. 85, b. 52, c. 11, d. 2. 48. The limbic system is important in a. vision, b. hearing, d. thought, d. emotion. 49. The posterior, anterior and lateral funiculi are all parts of the a. grey commisure, b. the white matter of the spinal cord, c. the gray matter of the spinal cord, d. the cervical enlargement. 50. The area of the spinal cord where spinal taps and epidurals are done is generally the a. lumbar enlargement, b. gray commisure, c. anterior funiculus, d. conus medularis.
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Murray State KY - BIO - BIO 229
Exam 1, Fall 2008, Fuller1.An example of an organ system is a. the areolar system, b. the heart system, c. the integumentary system, d. the kidney system. The main advantage of MRI over other medical imaging technique is a. safety, b. the patient feels
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Exam 2, Human Anatomy, Fall 20081.Skeletal muscles are involved in which of the following functions? A. warming the body, b. moving the body, c. stabilizing joints, d. all of these. The ability of muscle to react to signals from the nervous system is ca
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Exam 3, Fall 2008, Fuller1.In a healthy person, the buffy coat makes up less than _% of the blood: a. 5, b. 3, c. 2, d. 1. When all of the clotting proteins are removed from plasma, what is left is called a. hemoglobin, b. platelets, c. serum, d. water.
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Study Guide, Exam 1 Human Anatomy, Fall 2008NOTE: This study guide is not intended to replace your lecture notes. It is just a list of topics so that you'll know if you missed some information somewhere.Topic 1, Introduction (Chapt. 1): Definitions of a
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Study Guide, Exam 2 Human Anatomy, Fall 2008Topic 7, Introduction to muscles (Chapt. 10): General characteristics (special capabilities) and functions of muscle. Muscle terminology what are the names for muscle cells and their components? Organization of
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Study Guide, Exam 3 Bio 227, Fall 2008 Blood (Chapt. 17) What are the general structures and functions of the cardiovascular system? General composition of blood: non-formed elements what is the composition of plasma and serum; what macromolecules are in
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Study Guide 4, Bio 227 Fall 2008Digestive System (Chapt. 22) (intro material is on last study guide) What do the plexuses do in the alimentary tract? What are the major molecules that we digest and in what form are they absorbed? What types of enzymes di
Murray State KY - BIO - BIO 229
Exam 3, Fall 2008, Fuller1.In a healthy person, the buffy coat makes up less than _% of the blood: a. 5, b. 3, c. 2, d. 1. When all of the clotting proteins are removed from plasma, what is left is called a. hemoglobin, b. platelets, c. serum, d. water.
Murray State KY - BIOLOGY - BIO 101
Name:_Biology 101 Lab Quiz 2: Scientific Method and Metric System1. Come up with your own hypothesis, (remember the rules for coming up with a expectable hypothesis): _ _ _ _ _ _ 2. Now using your hypothesis explain which group is the control and which
Murray State KY - BIOLOGY - BIO 101
Name:_Biology 101 Lab Quiz 2: Scientific Method and Metric System1. Come up with your own hypothesis, (remember the rules for coming up with a expectable hypothesis): _ _ _ _ _ _ 2. Now using your hypothesis explain which group is the control and which
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Name:_ _Quiz 3: Carbon Cycle1. Humans are producers of? a. Oxygen b. Carbon Dioxide c. Sunlight d. All of the above 2. Where does Carbon Dioxide come from that plants use for photosynthesis a. Animals b. Water c. Air d. None of the above 3. What are the
Sault College - NURSING - NURS1194 -
Chapter 1: The Health Care SystemMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An 89-year-old man, recently discharged from a rehabilitation hospital because of his inability to concentrate and frequent memory lapses, cannot be left alone while his family works because of safety c
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Chapter 2: Patient Care SettingsMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. While the home health nurse is doing the entry to service assessment on a home-bound patient, the wife of the patient asks whether Medicare will cover the patients ventilator therapy and his insulin inje
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Chapter 3: Legal and Ethical ConsiderationsMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A good friend of the LPN confides that she is in a serious romantic relationship with a man the LPN had as a patient when he was diagnosed with HIV. HIPPA policies prevent the nurse from warni
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Chapter 4: The Leadership Role of the Licensed Practical NurseMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The LPN, as a regular staff member, knows all the patients and anticipates many of their needs. Other staff members are comfortable asking for advice. The advice is given fr
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Chapter 5: The Nurse-Patient RelationshipMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is preparing the anxious patient for major surgery and remarks, Everyone feels some anxiety, but you will be asleep during the whole thing. This is an example of which communication st
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Chapter 6: Cultural Aspects of Nursing CareMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The home health nurse prepares to teach a Hispanic patient who neither speaks nor reads English how to measure and administer insulin. The most helpful teaching tools would be: 1. a booklet fr
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Chapter 7: The Nurse and the FamilyMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The family is an important unit in society primarily because it: 1. offers unconditional love and acceptance. 2. provides emotional support and security. 3. is essential to life and society. 4. promot
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Chapter 8: Health and IllnessMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that the health-illness continuum is based on: 1. prevention of acute illness. 2. individual response to health or illness. 3. promotion of health and wellness. 4. variation in degree of
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Chapter 9: NutritionMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Regulation of the gastrointestinal system requires which two mechanisms? 1. Neural control and cardiovascular control 2. Secretion of hormones and kidney filtration 3. Neural control and secretions of hormones 4. Ca
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Chapter 10: Developmental ProcessesMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Developmental tasks may be defined as: 1. all the activities performed throughout life. 2. activities learned primarily in the middle years of life. 3. things to be learned and accomplished in each st
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Chapter 11: The Older PatientMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Old age or the term aged can best be defined as: 1. a persons state of mind. 2. a person over 65 years of age. 3. the process of growing older. 4. a person of advanced age. ANS: 4 Age is defined as old or a
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Chapter 12: The Nursing Process and Critical ThinkingMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The primary purpose of incorporating the nursing process into the care of patients is to: 1. establish a basis of communication with other nursing staff. 2. maintain compliance with
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Chapter 13: Inflammation, Infection, and ImmunityMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The patient in early labor says to the nurse: I will pass on protection from diseases and the baby will not ever need any shots. The best response by the nurse should be: 1. Babies are b
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Chapter 14: Fluids and ElectrolytesMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse assesses that the patients urine has become much more concentrated, which results from the effect of: 1. adrenaline. 2. aldosterone. 3. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). 4. insulin. ANS: 2 Aldoste
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Chapter 15: Pain ManagementMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse applying heat to an injured hip of a patient is careful not to leave the heat on longer than: 1. 15 minutes. 2. 20 minutes. 3. 30 minutes. 4. 1 hour. ANS: 3 If a heating device is left on more than
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Chapter 16: First Aid, Emergency Care, and Disaster ManagementMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A maintenance man falls from a ladder into the unit hall, striking his head on some equipment. The man is unconscious and not breathing; the Code Team has already been paged
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Chapter 17: Surgical CareMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A postoperative patient is complaining of incisional pain. An order has been given for morphine every 4 to 6 hours PRN. The first assessment by the nurse should be to: 1. assess for the presence of bowel sounds
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Chapter 18: Intravenous TherapyMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In an assessment of a patient who has been receiving IV fluids for the last 6 hours, the nurse finds that the pulse is now bounding, the blood pressure is more than 15 mm Hg higher than the last reading,
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Chapter 19: ShockMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient is being sent to the unit from the ER with a diagnosis of shock. The nurse knows that the three types of shock are: 1. multiple organ, cardiogenic, and renal shock. 2. cardiogenic, renal, and hypovolemic shoc
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Chapter 20: FallsMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse caring for a patient with ataxia would recommend that the family, in preparation for discharge home: 1. remove all scatter rugs from the home. 2. rearrange the bedroom furniture. 3. arrange for someone to sta
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Chapter 21: ImmobilityMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In assessing a patients risk for complications of immobility, the nurse should be aware that there are several reasons for a person becoming immobile. A therapeutic reason may be: 1. to reduce the workload of the
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Chapter 22: ConfusionMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The family of a patient with Alzheimers disease asks the nurse, When will my mother quit being so confused? The nurses response should be based on the fact that dementia is: 1. a short-term confusional state that i
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Chapter 24: Loss, Death, and End-of-Life CareMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Following the death of a patient, the nurse should position the body: 1. prone. 2. supine. 3. on the side. 4. in Fowlers position. ANS: 2 The body should be placed in the supine position, wi
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Chapter 25: The Patient with CancerMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement reflects useful information to include in a teaching plan for a cancer patient? 1. Cancer is a group of diseases. The cancer cells are different from the cells in the tissue of origin
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Chapter 26: The Patient with an OstomyMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that an artificial opening into a body cavity is a(n): 1. gastrostomy. 2. ostomy. 3. colonoscopy. 4. ureterostomy. ANS: 2 An ostomy is an artificial opening into a body cavity. P
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Chapter 27: Neurologic DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that the neural synapse refers to the: 1. length of time it takes for afferent neurons to carry impulses to the CNS. 2. length of time it takes for efferent neurons to carry impulses t
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Chapter 28: Cerebrovascular AccidentMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A post-CVA patient who has weakness on the right side and impaired reasoning has had the CVA in the: 1. left hemisphere of the cerebrum. 2. right hemisphere of the cerebrum. 3. left cerebellum. 4. ri
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Chapter 29: Spinal Cord InjuryMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that the spinal cord extends from the brainstem to the level of which vertebra? 1. Last thoracic 2. Second lumbar 3. First sacral 4. Coccygeal ANS: 2 The cord starts at the brainstem and
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Chapter 30: Acute Respiratory DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient asks the nurse about how air goes from the nose to the lung. The nurse draws the route according to which sequence? 1. Trachea, larynx, bronchi 2. Pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli 3. B
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Chapter 31: Chronic Respiratory DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse assesses wheezes in a patient with asthma and realizes that these breath sounds result from: 1. increased thickness of respiratory secretions. 2. use of accessory muscles of respiratio
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Chapter 32: Hematologic DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse assesses the abnormal blood value for a young woman as: 1. platelets, 200,000/mm. 2. hemoglobin, 14 g/dL. 3. red blood cells, 2,000,000/mm. 4. iron, 68 g/dL. ANS: 3 The RBCs are low. The norma
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Chapter 33: Immunologic DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that the inflammatory response is initiated by immunoglobulin (IgE) and the: 1. macrophages and eosinophils. 2. macrophage and histamine. 3. monocytes and basophils. 4. neutrophils an
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Chapter 34: HIV/AIDSMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The school nurse uses a chart to demonstrate that according to statistics from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the population with the greatest incidence of HIV infection in the United States i
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Chapter 35: Cardiac DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse performs an apical-radial pulse evaluation, with the result of 100/88. This pulse deficit assessment is: 1. 12. 2. 24. 3. 76. 4. 88. ANS: 1 To detect an apical radial pulse deficit, the rates shou
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Chapter 36: Vascular DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A normal age-related change in older adults that makes them susceptible to cardiovascular disease is: 1. increasing cardiac output. 2. an increase in stroke volume. 3. stiff peripheral vessels. 4. oxygen c
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Chapter 37: HypertensionMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient inquires if his blood pressure is normal. The nurse responds that normal blood pressure is defined as less than: 1. 160/70 mm Hg. 2. 128/60 mm Hg. 3. 139/89 mm Hg. 4. 130/85 mm Hg. ANS: 4 Normal blood
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Chapter 38: Digestive Tract DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is preparing to give a brevity flow tube feeding using a large syringe. Prior to infusion, the nurse should: 1. roll the patient flat. 2. check for residual and return to the stomach. 3. p
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Chapter 39: Disorders of the Liver, Gallbladder, and PancreasMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The complication that the nurse would monitor for after a liver biopsy is: 1. headache. 2. muscle cramps. 3. bleeding. 4. respiratory distress. ANS: 3 Liver biopsy is a vascu
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Chapter 40: Urologic DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse assesses a facial characteristic that is a sign of fluid retention in the patient with renal impairment, which is: 1. broken blood vessels around the nose. 2. periorbital edema. 3. rash on cheeks
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Chapter 41: Connective Tissue DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains to a 51-year-old professional tennis instructor who is diagnosed with osteoarthritis that the disease is best understood as the: 1. presence of antibodies in the synovial fluid.
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Chapter 42: FracturesMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient is 1 day postsurgery for a crushed pelvis. The CNA reports that the patient is complaining of being short of breath and demonstrating signs of confusion and restlessness. The nurse suspects from these sig
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Chapter 43: AmputationsMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is aware that the patient who is to have his leg amputated is also to have a prosthesis fitted in the OR at the same time. The preoperative teaching plan will include the fact that there will be: 1. the
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Chapter 44: Pituitary and Adrenal DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The patient with acromegaly asks the purpose of the glucose tolerance test (GTT). The nurse responds by saying that: 1. The doctor wants to know if you have either diabetes or acromegaly. 2. T
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Chapter 45: Thyroid and Parathyroid DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A young woman makes an appointment to see a physician at the clinic. She complains of tiredness, weight gain, muscle aches and pains, and constipation. The physician will likely order: 1. T3
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Chapter 46: Diabetes Mellitus and HypoglycemiaMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse explains that type 1 diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the body does not produce enough insulin so my blood glucose is elevated because of: 1. prolonged elevation of stress
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Chapter 47: Female Reproductive DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse cautions the patient who is taking Danocrine (danazol), an androgenic steroid, for the treatment of menorrhagia, that she should be prepared for the side effect of: 1. heavier menses.
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Chapter 48: Male Reproductive DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When reviewing the drugs taken by the 50-year-old male patient, the nurse recognizes that the drug that is most probably causing erectile dysfunction (ED) is the: 1. vasodilator for hypertension.
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Chapter 49: Sexually Transmitted InfectionsMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse in the out patient clinic notes that the patient has been treated for syphilis three separate times in the last 2 years. The nurse explains that the antibiotic treatment this time wi
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Chapter 50: Skin DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Displaying her hands, a patient asks, Do you think my liver is OK? Look at all these liver spots! The most appropriate response would be: 1. The spots could mean there is something wrong; I will make a note of
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Chapter 51: Eye and Vision DisordersMULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The 60-year-old patient who has had an enucleation asks when he can get his prosthesis fitted. The nurse responds that the prosthesis will be fitted by an optician in approximately: 1. 2 weeks. 2. 4