2, Exam Human Anatomy, Fall 2008
1.
Skeletal muscles are involved in which of the following functions? A. warming the body, b. moving the body, c. stabilizing joints, d. all of these. The ability of muscle to react to signals from the nervous system is called a. contractability, b. excitability, c. extensibility, d. elasticity. Another name for a muscle cell is a. fiber, b. myofiber, c. myofibril, d. sarcoplasm. The smallest unit of contraction in a muscle cell is called the a. myofibril, b. motor unit, c. sacrcolemma, d. sarcomere. The A-bands in the striations of skeletal muscle are a. myosin, b. actin, c. the place where actin joins titin, d. the place in the dark band where actin does not overlap with myosin. The t-tubules function to a. store calcium, b. process fats, c. make receptors for neurotransmitters, d. speed up transmission of action potentials. Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, those that contract the weakest are: a. slow oxidative fibers, b. fast glycolytic fibers, c. fast oxidative fibers, d. slow glycolytic fibers. Which fiber type would be in highest proportion in your biceps brachii? a. slow oxidative fibers, b. fast glycolytic fibers, c. fast oxidative fibers, d. slow glycolytic fibers. When you exercise, differentiated skeletal muscle fibers a. divide, b. lengthen, c. thicken, d. all of these.
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10. Muscles with the most amount of fine control over contraction should have a. a large number of fibers per motor unit, b. a small number of fibers per motor unit, c. an intermediate number of fibers per motor unit, d. the number of fibers per motor unit is independent of fine control.
11. Satellite cells are found in a. all muscle, b. cardiac only, c. skeletal only, d. smooth only. 12. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (the type discussed in class) usually first shows up in a.
adult men, b. adult women, c. young boys, d. young girls.
13. All of the following can be functions of synergists except a. preventing contraction of the
prime mover, b. adds force to the contraction of the prime mover, c. fixing the origin of the prime mover, d. preventing extra movement (increasing efficiency).
14. A muscle that does the opposite of its agonist is called the a. aggressor, b. the opposite,
c. the antagonist, d. the synergist.
15. A muscle pulls against a fixed bone. This bone is called a. the origin, b. the insertion, c.
the antagonist, d. the synergist.
16. Which of these is not true? Muscles can be named for a. their bones of origin, b. the
actions they perform, c. the person that named them, d. the direction their fibers run.
17. The muscle group most closely involved in breathing is the a) deep thorax, b) abdominal
wall, c) pelvic floor, d) superficial thorax group.
18. The anterior compartment of the leg is mainly involved in a. dorsiflexion and eversion of
the foot, b. plantar flexion and eversion of the foot, c. plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, d. retraction of the toes.
19. Flexion of the forearm is primarily achieved by muscles of the a. anterior compartment of
the forearm, b. posterior compartment of the forearm, c. anterior compartment of the arm, d. posterior compartment of the arm.
20. In muscle groups with compartments, the compartments are divided by a. bone, b. loose
connective tissue, c. fascia, d. adipose tissue.
21. The peripheral nervous system includes a. all neurons, b. all neurons and neuroglia, c.
neurons with at least some part within the brain and spinal cord, d. neurons with any part outside of the brain or spinal cord.
22. An example of an effector is a. the eye, b. a gland, c. a sensory neuron, d. a motor
neuron.
23. The most common type of neuron in the body is a. multipolar, b. bipolar, c. unipolar, d.
all are equally common.
24. A group of neuron cell bodies located in the PNS is called a. a motor end plate, b. a
nucleus, c. a ganglion, d. a sympathetic trunk.
25. Myelin on axons functions to a. make axons live longer, b. store nutrients for use by the
axon, c. cover nodes of Ranvier, d. speed the rate of impulse conduction and insulate neighboring axons from one another.
26. neuroglial Ciliated cells that form an epithelium and play a role in moving cerebrospinal
fluid are: a. ependymal cells, b. Schwann cells, c. oligodendrocytes, d. astrocytes.
27. The main function of astrocytes is a. phagocytosis, b. production of CSF, c. feeding
neurons, d. insulation of neurons.
28. After ion channels open and allow sodium into the cell, potassium moves out of the cell
a. passively, with its charge gradient, b. passively with its diffusion gradient, c. passively with both its charge and diffusion gradients, d. passively against its diffusion gradient (note: active = requires ATP).
29. What feature of neurons restores the proper ionic balance after an action potential? A.
the ion channels, b. the sodium-potassium pump, c. the myelin sheaths, d. the Nodes of Ranvier.
30. Within a neuron, the signal travels a. from the dendrite, through the cell body, down the
axon, b. from the axon, through the cell body, out the dendrite, c. from the cell body out the dendrites and axon simultaneously, d. from the axon collateral to the main axon. 31. Neurons always fire when a. stimulated, b. when threshold is met, c. when they depolarize, d. all of the above are true.
32. Neurotransmitters allow a nervous signal to a. go from the dendrite to the cell body of a
neuron, b. extend out the axon, c. cross the synapse, d. all of these.
33. CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) functions primarily to a. provide cushioning against impacts, b.
moisten the brain, c. bring carbon dioxide to the brain, d. provide a space for immune cells to travel.
34. The cerebral cortex makes up approx. ___% of the cerebrum. A. 25, b. 30, c. 35, d. 40. 35. The premotor cortex of the cerebrum is involved in a. simple and precise voluntary
movements, b. speech, c. eye movements, d. complex voluntary movements.
36. The somatosensory association area is where a. peripheral and central vision is
integrated, b. information from the primary sensory cortex is intergrated, c. complex reasoning happens, d. all of the above.
37. Association fibers a. connect the two halves of the cerebrum, b. connect various parts of
the same cerebral hemisphere, c. connect the brain with the spinal cord, d. connect the spinal cord with skeletal muscles.
38. Parkinson's disease results from the degeneration of a. one of the basal nuclei, b. the
corpus collosum, c. the reticular formation, d. the cerebral white matter.
39. The hypothalamus is involved in a. melatonin secretion, b. emotion, c. personality, d.
blood pressure regulation.
40. The limbic system is important in a. vision, b. hearing, d. thought, d. emotion. 41. Destruction of the anterior horn of the spinal cord results in loss of a. intelligence, b.
sensation, c. pain, d. motor control. 42. Spina bifida results when a. the umbilical cord wraps around the body of the fetus, b. the fetus becomes twisted in the birth canal, c. the intervertebral discs fail to form properly, d. the vertebral arches fail to form properly.
43. The stimulus that we detect via vision is a. chemical, b. mechanical, c.
electromagnetism, d. heat.
44. Receptors that detect sound are a. mechanoreceptors, b. chemoreceptors, c.
thermoreceptors, d. photoreceptors.
45. All of the following are special senses except a. hearing, b. touch, c. equilibrium, d.
vision.
46. Fibers of the ANS differ from somatic motor fibers in that a. the neurotransmitter at ANS
synapses is always norepinephrine, b. the two fibers are always of equal length in the ANS, c. The axon is always thinner in the ANS fibers, d. all of the above.
47. Parasympathetic fibers emerge from the CNS a. cranially, b. in the cervical region, c. in
the thoracic and lumbar regions, d. in the cervical and sacral regions. The answer should have been cranial and sacral so I gave credit for both a. and d.
48. Which of the following is not a plexus: a. cervical, b. thoracic, c. lumbar, d. sacral. 49. The abducens nerve controls a. chewing, b. swallowing, c. head movements, d. eye
movements.
50. The pelvic floor musculature is innervated by the a. facial nerve, b. intercostals and L1,
c. tibial and fibular, d. S3-5 and pudental.