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Central Nervous System

Course: MCB 32, Fall 2011
School: Cal Poly
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Reading Guided - The Central Nervous System I 1. _________% of total blood flow to the body per minute goes to the brain. A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 2. The neural tube and neural crest cells are of endodermal origin. True False 3. Ataxia is often associated with A. damage to the motor cortex. B. damage to the cerebellum. C. damage to the pyramidal tracts. D. damage to the occipital lobe. 4. Which of the following is...

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Reading Guided - The Central Nervous System I 1. _________% of total blood flow to the body per minute goes to the brain. A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 2. The neural tube and neural crest cells are of endodermal origin. True False 3. Ataxia is often associated with A. damage to the motor cortex. B. damage to the cerebellum. C. damage to the pyramidal tracts. D. damage to the occipital lobe. 4. Which of the following is the correct list of the lobes of the cerebrum? A. insula, temporal, parietal, pons, occipital B. temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital C. frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital D. cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata 5. Permanent aphasias often occur when A. Wernicke's area is damaged. B. Broca's area is damaged. C. the angular gyrus is damaged. D. spinal nerves are damaged. 6. Which imaging technique uses magnetic fields produced by postsynaptic electric currents to produce an image? A. EEG B. fMRI C. MEG D. PET 7. Knowing how to tie your shoes is an example of _____ memory. A. episodic B. semantic C. procedural D. working 8. Visual inputs are interpreted on the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. True False 9. Descending tracts carry motor impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. True False 10. Long-term memory is most often associated with the hypothalamus. True False 11. The forebrain develops into the telencephalon and the diencephalon. True False 12. Destruction of the superior colliculi would impact an individual's hearing. True False 13. Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson's disease is often due to A. degeneration of the red nucleus. B. degeneration of the substantia nigra. C. lack of regulation of the cerebral peduncles. D. degeneration of the mesolimbic system. 14. Cerebrospinal fluid is found A. within the central canal. B. within the ventricles. C. within the olfactory bulbs. D. both within the central canal and within the ventricles. 15. The pons and cerebellum comprise the metencephalon. True False 16. The ____________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory information (mostly pain) with visceral responses. A. temporal B. frontal C. parietal D. insula 17. Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ___________ and ___________ areas. A. Wernicke's and the angular gyrus B. fornix and Broca's C. Broca's and Wernicke's D. the angular gyrus and septal nuclei 18. The right side of the brain controls motor activity on the left side of the body because nerve tracts decussate in the A. pons. B. midbrain. C. thalamus. D. medulla. 19. What ion is involved in stimulating genetic transcription needed for learning and memory? A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. NO 20. Nerves that serve the arm come from the _______ plexus. A. cervical B. brachial C. lumbar D. sacral 21. In the spinal cord the gray matter is on the _____ and the white matter is on the ___. A. outside, inside B. inside, outside 22. LTP (long-term potentiation) studies have shown that protein synthesis must occur to form dendritic spines to make more permanent changes in synapses to create long-term memory. True False 23. MRI images of living amnesiac patients show a shrunken A. hypothalamus. B. epithalamus. C. hippocampus. D. pineal gland. 24. Interpretation of auditory inputs would be most affected by A. ablation of the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus. B. ablation of the hypothalamus. C. ablation to the medial geniculate nuclei of the thalamus. D. ablation of the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus. 25. Damage to the _____ prefrontal area will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire and deficient cognitive functions. A. lateral B. orbitofacial C. posterior D. palatine Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System II 1. There are many synaptic connected between limbic system structures and the cerebral cortex. True False 2. What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to increase LPT by increasing the release of glutamate from presynaptic terminals? A. Mg2+ B. Ca2+ C. NO D. ACh 3. A cranial nerve with only sensory fibers is the A. hypoglossal nerve. B. vestibulocochlear nerve. C. vagus nerve. D. trigeminal nerve. 4. Neurogenesis in the hippocampus may be involved in learning and memory. Answer: True True False 5. Cell bodies of motor neurons are found within the dorsal root ganglia. True False 6. What structure separates the frontal and parietal lobes? A. corpus callosum B. central sulcus C. lateral sulcus D. longitudinal fissure 7. What type of memory is involved in learning all this material about memory? A. semantic B. implicit C. episodic D. procedural 8. The cerebral cortex is made up of both gray and white matter. True False 9. Damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebrum would impair somatesthetic interpretation. True False 10. Impaired voluntary movements would suggest damage to the cerebral nuclei. True False 11. Destruction of the embryonic ____________ will prevent formation of the nervous system. A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. endoderm D. mesoglia 12. Which cranial nerve is NOT involved with eye movements? A. optic B. oculomotor C. abducens D. trochlear 13. The reticulospinal tracts are the major descending pathways of the pyramidal system. True False 14. Heart and respiratory rates increase during REM sleep as if the person were awake. True False 15. Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would limit A. voluntary skeletal muscle contraction. B. integration of cerebral activities. C. hearing. D. vision. 16. Which area of the brain contains neural stem cells that are apparently important in learning and memory? A. arcuate fasciculus B. subgranular zone of the hippocampus C. temporal lobe D. cerebral cortex 17. The liver, heart, and kidneys have a circadian rhythm. True False 18. Neurons of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO) of the hypothalamus release _______ that promotes sleep. A. GABA B. acetylcholine C. dopamine D. histamine 19. What type of cerebellar cells provide communication to other brain areas? A. Purkinje cells B. reticular cells C. supraoptic cells D. pyramidal cells 20. Except for the sense of __________, all sensory information is relayed through the thalamus. A. taste B. vision C. balance D. smell 21. The largest body regions have the largest areas of the cerebral cortex. True False 22. Which drug acts to inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and amphetamines into the nucleus accumbens in the forebrain? A. alcohol B. amphetamines C. cocaine D. opiates 23. Sensory impulses associated with crude touch and pressure are transmitted by the posterior spinocerebellar tracts to the thalamus. True False 24. Which of the following is used to map neuronal activity with scalp electrodes? A. MEG B. PET C. EEG D. MRI 25. The ______ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content. A. caudate nucleus B. substantia nigra C. amygdala D. lentiform nucleus Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System III 1. The limbic system, especially the ____________ and _______________, are rich in "stress hormone" receptors. A. caudate nucleus, hippocampus B. hippocampus, amygdala C. cingulated gyrus, amygdala D. septal nuclei, hippocampus 2. __________________ is a technique for visualizing brain region activity indirectly by detecting increases in blood oxygen levels. A. Computed tomography B. Electroencephalogram C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging D. Positron emission tomography 3. Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata? A. vasomotor control B. cardiac control C. thirst control D. respiratory control 4. Sensory impulses for fine touch, precise pressures, and body movement are carried by the _____ tracts. A. anterior spinothalamic B. posterior spinocerebellar C. lateral spinothalamic D. fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis 5. The cerebral nuclei contain A. the corpus striatum. B. the supraoptic nucleus. C. reticular formation. D. All of the choices are correct. 6. The brain ventricles are remnants of the hollow neural tube. True False 7. Neurogenesis is the formation of new ______________ from neural stem cells. A. ependymal cells B. astrocytes C. neurons D. All of the choices are correct. 8. Based on experimental evidence, the ___________ hypothalamus acts as the body's thermostat. A. preoptic-anterior B. lateral C. medial D. supraoptic 9. An electroencephalogram obtained from an adult who is thinking would probably display A. many alpha waves. B. many beta waves. C. many delta waves. D. many theta waves. 10. The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the A. pons. B. thalamus. C. hypothalamus. D. medulla oblongata. 11. What condition is caused by a sudden failure of the RAS? A. narcolepsy B. Parkinson's disease C. Alzheimer's disease D. insomnia 12. Visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the A. superior colliculi. B. inferior colliculi. C. red nucleus. D. medial geniculate nuclei. 13. Which of the following statements is true of the cerebral cortex? A. Sensations from the feet would be on the most inferior area of the somatesthetic cortex. B. Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex. C. The hands have a very small area on the motor cortex. D. The left side of the motor cortex controls muscles on the left side of the body. 14. The cerebellum is the largest brain structure. True False 15. During ______________ sleep, dreams that can be recalled are most likely to occur. A. REM B. deep C. nonREM D. dozing 16. The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in A. aggression. B. fear. C. sex. D. goal-directed behavior. E. All of the choices are correct. The 17. inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to the A. pons. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. midbrain. 18. What is the first structure of a reflex arc? A. effector (muscles or glands) B. receptor C. sensory neuron D. motor neuron 19. The inability to chew would be associated with damage to the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. True False 20. Nerves that serve the leg come from the A. sacral plexus. B. brachial plexus. C. lumbar plexus. D. both the sacral and lumbar plexuses. 21. Individuals with aphasia A. often have damage to spinal nerves. B. may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged. C. often speak slowly if Wernicke's area is damaged. D. often form nonsensical sentences if Broca's area is damaged. 22. The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by A. ablation of the pons. B. ablation of the cerebral nuclei. C. ablation of the hippocampus. D. ablation of the occipital lobe. 23. Nerve fibers of the ___________ tract decussate in the spinal cord and are involved in regulating fine motor movements. A. tectospinal B. anterior spinothalamic C. lateral corticospinal D. anterior corticospinal 24. Reflex arcs A. require the actions of the brain. B. do not utilize somatic motor nerves. C. generally rely on the actions of the hypothalamus. D. may have a single synapse. 25. The ___________________ is the dorsal diencephalon, containing the choroid plexus and the pineal gland. A. epithalamus B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. third ventricle Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System IV 1. Which cranial nerve allows one to make facial expressions and secrete tears? A. trigeminal B. glossopharyngeal C. hypoglossal D. facial 2. Ablation of the ___________ in the midbrain would impair the ability to respond to sounds. A. superior colliculi B. medial colliculi C. red nucleus D. inferior colliculi 3. Writing skills would be impaired if the ___________ cerebral hemisphere atrophied. A. right B. left C. both 4. Which type of EEG pattern in an awake adult is indicative of brain damage? A. alpha waves B. beta waves C. theta waves D. delta waves 5. Damage to the Papez circuit prevents communication between A. the limbic system and olfactory bulbs. B. the limbic system and hippocampus. C. the limbic system and the diencephalon. D. the limbic system and the cerebrum. 6. Neural crest cells differentiate into A. the telencephalon. B. the red nucleus. C. the basal nuclei. D. peripheral nervous system ganglia. 7. The function of ____________ neurons is to link sensory stimuli with the appropriate motor responses. A. bipolar B. association C. motor D. pseudounipolar 8. Damage to the white matter of the brain would prevent transmission of information between nuclei. True False 9. Eye movements would be compromised by A. damage to the trochlear nerve. B. damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve. C. damage to the vagus nerve. D. damage to the accessory nerve. 10. The limbic system is considered the emotional brain. True False 11. The spinal cord begins at the foramen magnum and ends at the hip. True False 12. The spinocerebellar tract would carry information from sensory receptors to the cerebral cortex. True False 13. A circular path of neurons synapsing with one after another is called a ____ circuit. A. recurrent B. dendritic C. synaptic D. parallel 14. Which of the following is NOT required to coordinate movement? A. cerebellum B. pons C. cerebral nuclei D. motor cortex 15. Which tracts are NOT part of the extrapyramidal motor tracts? A. vestibulospinal B. corticospinal C. rubrospinal D. reticulospinal 16. Being able to recognize the face of a schoolmate at your 30 year reunion, would be a function of the A. inferior temporal lobes. B. occipital lobe. C. medial temporal lobes. D. anterior frontal lobes. 17. In the cerebrum, the _________ matter is generally superficial and the _______ matter is deep. A. white, gray B. gray, white 18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Alzheimer's disease? A. an accumulation of intracellular proteins that form neurofibrillar tangles B. loss of neurons in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex C. an accumulation of extracellular proteins that form senile plaques D. most cases are inherited 19. Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness? A. dopamine B. GABA C. norepinephrine D. Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct. 20. The midbrain forms from the A. telencephalon. B. mesencephalon. C. myelencephalon. D. diencephalon. 21. _________________ is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a particular damaging amyloid -peptide that is implicated in inherited forms of early-onset Alzheimer's disease. A. -secretase B. -secretase C. -secretase D. -secretase 22. Cerebral dominance, in which the _____ cerebral hemisphere is specialized for language and analytical ability and the right for visuospatial ability, is true for 97% of all people. A. right B. left 23. Mirror neurons are found in the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, and Broca's motor speech area; and are connected to the limbic system through the insula. True False 24. Communication between the cerebrum and cerebellum is facilitated by the corpus callosum. True False 25. The famous patient "H.M." could not remember events that occurred after his memory was damaged after he had brain surgery to treat his epilepsy. He retained his perceptual and motor skills, but lost his memory of new facts and events. Thus, H.M.'s deficit was in A. nondeclarative or implicit memory B. declarative or implicit memory C. declarative or explicit memory D. nondeclarative or explicit memory Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System V 1. What part of the mesolimbic system found in the midbrain is involved with behavioral reward? A. corpora quadrigemina B. ventral tegmental area C. substantia nigra D. nigrostriatal system 2. The cerebellum forms from the A. telencephalon. B. metencephalon. C. myelencephalon. D. diencephalon. 3. Which cranial nerve is vital for the functioning of the visceral organs? A. abducens B. glossopharyngeal C. hypoglossal D. vagus 4. The pons gives rise to cranial nerves VIII through XII. True False 5. A hypothalamic tumor inducing hyperactivity of the medial hypothalamus may result in weight loss. True False 6. Damage to the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex causes A. memory deficiencies. B. cognitive deficiencies. C. severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior. D. inhibited fear response. 7. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A. controls hunger and thirst B. controls motor coordination C. controls body temperature D. controls the autonomic nervous system 8. Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system? A. cingulate gyrus B. angular gyrus C. amygdala D. hippocampus 9. Which of the following spinal nerve groups is incorrect? A. cervical - 7 B. thoracic - 12 C. lumbar - 5 D. sacral - 5 10. In the spinal cord, the gray matter is arranged into _____ and the white matter is arranged into ______. A. columns, horns B. funiculi, tracts C. horns, funiculi D. tracts, funiculi 11. Pyramidal tracts begin at the motor cortex of the frontal lobe and synapse in the medulla before descending the spinal cord. True False 12. Ablation of the amygdala and limbic system would primarily result in A. loss of voluntary muscle contraction. B. attenuation of aggressive behaviors. C. loss of ability to detect olfactory inputs. D. no noticeable effects. 13. Most corticospinal tracts decussate in the A. midbrain. B. cerebral nuclei. C. medulla oblongata. D. spinal cord. 14. The suprachiasmatic nuclei A. are located in the anterior hypothalamus. B. controls melatonin secretion from the pineal gland. C. contains "clock cells" that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours. D. All of the choices are correct. 15. Neural stem cells in adult mammalian brains are found in the A. cerebral cortex. B. subventricular zone. C. midbrain. D. subgranular zone. E. both the subventricular and subgranular zones. 16. A record of the electrical currents of the cerebral cortex is a/an A. computed tomograph. B. electroencephalogram. C. magnetic resonance image. D. positron-emission tomograph. 17. The medulla oblongata A. contains numerous vital centers. B. contains the facial nuclei. C. acts only as a relay center. D. is the most advanced region of the brain. 18. __________ innervate muscles and glands. A. Sensory neurons B. Ganglia C. Motor neurons D. Association neurons 19. The neurohypophysis is derived embryonically from the diencephalon. True False 20. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT associated with cerebral nuclei function? A. dopamine B. GABA C. acetylcholine D. glutamate 21. If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were to be cut, the individual would A. have no motor responses for that nerve. B. have no sensory perception from that nerve. C. have no reflexes involving that nerve. D. Both have no sensory perception from that nerve and have no reflexes involving that nerve are correct. 22. Chorea is most likely to result from A. damage to the caudate nucleus. B. damage to the spinal ganglia. C. damage to the occipital lobe. D. damage to the hypothalamus. 23. Delta waves in an awake infant indicate brain damage. True False 24. What structure connects Wernicke's area to Broca's area? A. corpus striatum B. angular gyrus C. arcuate fasciculus D. corpus callosum 25. Brain metabolism may be best studied by A. electroencephalography. B. computed tomography. C. magnetic resonance imaging. D. positron-emission tomography.
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Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands I 1. What is the function of prolactin in females? A. stimulates milk production in the mammary glands B. regulates the gonadotropins C. regulates water and electrolyte balance in the kidneys D. All of the choices and cor
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Blood, Heart, and Circulation I1. Endogenously applied _ or tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) can induce blood clot dissolution. A. albumin B. streptokinase C. thromboxane A2 D. penicillin2. What type of cell found in the blood produce
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Blood, Heart, and Circulation II1. Which vessels are most important for controlling resistance to blood flow? A. elastic arteries B. venules C. capillaries D. arterioles2. The lymphatic system can help cancer _ since cancer cells may en
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Blood, Heart, and Circulation III1. Myocardial cells exhibit a plateau phase instead of quickly repolarizing. This is due to A. inward diffusion of calcium through slow Ca2+ channels. B. inward diffusion of sodium through fast Na+ channe
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Blood, Heart, and Circulation IV1. What is the role of serotonin in blood clotting? A. causes platelets to become sticky B. enhances the platelet release reaction C. causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood D. conve
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Blood, Heart, and Circulation V1. Which anticoagulant and its action is NOT correctly matched? A. aspirin - inhibits prostaglandin production and platelet aggregation B. heparin - inhibits action of thrombin C. coumadin - inhibits tissue
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Blood Pressure III1. The sounds heard during the first phase of blood-pressure measurement are A. murmurs. B. snapping sounds. C. thumping sounds. D. muffled thumping sounds.2. Blood volume would be incre
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Blood Pressure I1. The type of shock resulting from lipopolysaccharides is termed A. hypovolemic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. septic shock. D. neurogenic shock.2. Hypotension could be induced by A. exc
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Blood Pressure II1. Sympathetic stimulation promotes an overall increase in blood flow resistance. True False2. At rest, most blood is within the venous system. True False3. The effect of acetylcholine b
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Blood Pressure IV1. The ability to distend with pressure increases is called A. chronotropism. B. oncotism. C. inotropism. D. compliance. 2. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like captopril bl
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Blood Pressure V1. Vasodilation is induced by all of the following EXCEPT A. increased tissue carbon dioxide. B. decreased tissue metabolism. C. decreased tissue oxygen. D. increased extracellular K+.2. A
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands I1. What is the function of prolactin in females? A. stimulates milk production in the mammary glands B. regulates the gonadotropins C. regulates water and electrolyte balance in the kidneys D. All of the choices and cor
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands II1. Cortisol secretion would cease if the _ no longer secreted ACTH. A. posterior pituitary gland B. hypothalamus C. anterior pituitary gland D. adrenal cortex 2. What controls release of corticoids from the adrenal cor
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands III1. What hormone(s) is/are released when blood glucose levels decrease? A. insulin B. glucagon C. glucocorticoids D. both glucagon and glucocorticoids2. A tumor stimulating oversecretion of hormones by the thyroid gla
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands IV1. Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone function? A. It causes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium. B. It causes the dissolution of calcium phosphate from bones. C. It increases blood calcium levels. D. Al
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Endocrine Glands V1. _ inhibits COX3 in the brain which results in pain and fever reduction. A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. Aspirin C. Ibuprofen (Motrin) D. All of the choices are correct.2. The same prostaglandin may produce different e
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control I1. The pyramidal tracts include the _ and _ tracts. A. rubrospinal, lateral corticospinal B. reticulospinal, ventral corticospinal C. ventral corticospinal, lateral corticospinal D. rub
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control II1. The _ reflex prevents excessive muscle contraction. A. flexor B. cross-extensor C. Golgi tendon D. muscle spindle 2. Which of the following statements about muscles is FALSE? A. Dur
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control III1. Smooth muscle cells A. contain intercalated discs. B. contain A and I bands. C. are innervated by somatic nerves. D. may contain gap junctions.2. The deadly botulinum toxin can be
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control IV1. The _ complex contains three proteins designated as the I, T, and C types. A. actin B. myosin C. tropomyosin D. troponin 2. Smooth muscle contraction requires the actions of myosin
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control V1. The prime mover of any skeletal movement is called the A. flexor. B. agonist. C. abductor. D. antagonist.2. Exceeding the VO2max will result in lactate production by the muscle. Tru
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology I1. Which of the following statements is true? A. Our senses can perceive a wide range of energies. B. Different modalities of sensations have different types of impulses. C. Sensory receptors transduce different forms
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology II1. Which taste modality involves membrane receptors that are coupled to G-proteins? A. umami B. salty C. sour D. All of the choices are correct. 2. Nociceptors relay sensory information to the cortex via the lateral
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology III1. The optic radiations project fibers from the lateral geniculate nuclei to area A. 9 of the occipital lobe. B. 19 of the occipital lobe. C. 17 of the occipital lobe. D. 21 of the occipital lobe.2. What is the rol
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology IV1. The law of specific nerve energies can be used to explain A. phantom limbs. B. paradoxical cold. C. sensory adaptation. D. lateral inhibition. 2. Myopia generally occurs when the A. eyeball is too short. B. eyebal
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Sensory Physiology V1. Contraction of ciliary muscles allows the lens to become thicker. True False 2. Match the cutaneous receptor with the sensation it responds to. 1. Meissner's corpusclestexture and slow vibration _2. 3. Pacinian cor
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology VI1. The _ phenomenon refers to amputees reporting sensations in limbs that are no longer there. A. phantom limb B. lateral inhibition C. referred pain D. adaptation2. Acute itch is produced by _ binding to its recept
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Autonomic Nervous System I1. Damage to the autonomic motor nerves would probably result in A. no change in muscle tone. B. muscle atrophy. C. flaccid paralysis. D. increased skeletal muscle contraction.2. Damage to the thoracic and
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Autonomic Nervous System II1. Stimulation of the iris by parasympathetic nerves stimulates pupillary constriction. True False 2. Salivary secretions are decreased and become thicker in response to sympathetic stimulation. True False
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Autonomic Nervous System III1. Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine has one less methyl group. True False2. Nonshivering thermogenesis requires the A. somatic nervous system. B. sympathoadrenal system. C. parasympathetic system.
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System I1. _% of total blood flow to the body per minute goes to the brain. A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 302. The neural tube and neural crest cells are of endodermal origin. True False3. Ataxia is often associated with A.
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System II1. There are many synaptic connected between limbic system structures and the cerebral cortex. True False 2. What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to increase LPT by increasing the release of gluta
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System III1. The limbic system, especially the _ and _, are rich in "stress hormone" receptors. A. caudate nucleus, hippocampus B. hippocampus, amygdala C. cingulated gyrus, amygdala D. septal nuclei, hippocampus2. _
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System IV1. Which cranial nerve allows one to make facial expressions and secrete tears? A. trigeminal B. glossopharyngeal C. hypoglossal D. facial 2. Ablation of the _ in the midbrain would impair the ability to resp
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Central Nervous System V1. What part of the mesolimbic system found in the midbrain is involved with behavioral reward? A. corpora quadrigemina B. ventral tegmental area C. substantia nigra D. nigrostriatal system2. The cerebellum f
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses I1. Benzodiazepines act by increasing _ activity. A. GABA B. glutamate C. ACh D. enkephalin2. Muscarinic Ach receptors are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT A. skeletal muscle B. smo
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses II1. In a myelinated axon, Na+ channels are A. along the whole length of the axon. B. every 5 mm. C. concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier. D. less numerous at the nodes of Ranvier.2. Ion channels
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses III1. The normal effect of b-endorphin can be blocked by A. curare. B. naloxone. C. muscarine. D. nicotine2. Astrocytes can be excited by changes in intracellular Ca2+ concentration. True False3
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses IV1. CCK (cholecystokinin) may act as a neurotransmitter in the brain to promote feelings of satiety. True False 2. What portion of the neuron is NOT involved in integration? A. cell body B. axon
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses V1. The minimum depolarization needed to open Na+ gates is called the A. repolarization. B. threshold. C. refractory period. D. All-or-none law. 2. What action produces an IPSP on the postsynaptic
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses VI1. Neurotransmitter release from synaptic vesicles is caused by Ca2+-synaptotagmin complex interruption of the SNARE complex. True False 2. Nitric oxide A. is a chemical messenger activating ade
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control I 1. The pyramidal tracts include the _ and _ tracts. A. rubrospinal, lateral corticospinal B. reticulospinal, ventral corticospinal C. ventral corticospinal, lateral corticospinal D. rub
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses I 1. Benzodiazepines act by increasing _ activity. A. GABA B. glutamate C. ACh D. enkephalin 2. Muscarinic Ach receptors are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT A. skeletal muscle B. smo
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Sensory Physiology I 1. Which of the following statements is true? A. Our senses can perceive a wide range of energies. B. Different modalities of sensations have different types of impulses. C. Sensory receptors transduce different forms
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - The Digestive System I 1. "Traveler's diarrhea" results when A. enterogastrone secretion is inhibited. B. gastrointestinal motility is stimulated by increased parasympathetic outflow. C. guanylin receptors in the ileum and colon are stimu
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Physiology of the Kidneys II1. What is present in the vasa recta to remove water for the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla? A. Na+/K+ pump B. urea transporters C. aquaporins D. ADH receptors 2. The efferent arteriole delivers blood
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Physiology of the Kidneys I1. In response to alkalosis A. the kidney maximally reabsorbs bicarbonate. B. the kidney excretes bicarbonate. C. excess H+ enters the tubular filtrate. D. tubular carbonic anhydrase is inhibited.2. The minimu
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Physiology of the Kidneys III1. Which transporters in the proximal tubule are polyspecific and transport small molecules of drugs and toxins to the ultrafiltrate? A. water transporters B. renal aquaporins C. organic anion transporters D.
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Physiology of the Kidneys IV1. _ is a nonsalt molecule that contributes to the hypertonicity of the interstitial fluid of the renal tubules. A. Urea B. Protein C. Creatinine D. Xenobiotic molecule 2. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Physiology of the Kidneys V1. A decrease in blood pressure will cause an increase in GFR through sympathetic stimulation. True False2. The concentration of glucose in the glomerular ultrafiltrate is less than that of plasma. True False
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Regulation and Metabolism I1. Ghrelin is postulated to be important as a satiety factor. True False2. Elevated blood glucose triggers insulin secretion. True False3. Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, protein
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Regulation and Metabolism II1. The BMI of a female weighing 130 pounds with a height of 68 inches would be closest to A. 2.4. B. 19.8. C. 76.5. D. 34.8. 2. Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid? A. leucine B. valine C. ly
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Regulation and Metabolism III1. If an unsaturated fatty acid chain is 22 carbons long and the first of three double bonds is at the fifth carbon from the methyl end, it would be an A. omega-5 fatty acid. B. omega-22 fatty acid. C. omega-
Cal Poly - MCB - 32
Guided Reading - Regulation and Metabolism IV1. If an individual consumes excess calories in the form of carbohydrates, the excess energy is stored as A. glycogen. B. structural carbohydrates. C. fat. D. skeletal muscle. 2. _ lipolysis would result from
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
TEST 1 MGF 407 Investment Management Fall 2011 Name_Please answer the following questions. Formulas are given on the last page. (Note: Total Points = 100; Multiple Choice = 4 points each) 1. You work for a company that acts as a dealer in the Interest Ra
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
Derivative Instruments - In general, is literally a contract between two or more parties. - The contract represents an underlying asset. - The contract's value comes from the fluctuations in the underlying asset's value. - An example would be a futures co
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
Calculating Yield to Maturity in Excel 5.5% bond, 3 years maturity, price = 1,056.03, annual coupon =YIELD(Settlement,Maturity,Rate,Price,Redemption,Frequency) Settlement = purchase date Maturity = redemption date Rate = annual coupon rate Price = Today's
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
Calculating Yield to Maturity in Excel 5.5% bond, 3 years maturity, price = 1,056.03, annual coupon =YIELD(Settlement,Maturity,Rate,Price,Redemption,Frequency) Settlement = purchase date Maturity = redemption date Rate = annual coupon rate Price = Today's
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
This guide is to act as a summary of the course chapters Chapter 1 Investments: Background and Issues Concepts The Informational role of Financial Markets In a capitalist society, financial markets play a central role in the allocation of capital resource
SUNY Buffalo - BUSINESS - MGF402 MGF
Securities MarketsCHAPTER 3 McGrawHill/Irwin 2007 The McGrawHill Companies, Inc., All Rights Reserved.Primary vs. Secondary Security SalesPrimary New issue Key factor: issuer receives the proceeds from the saleSecondary Existing owner sells to anot