MISMExam2Review
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MISMExam2Review

Course Number: MISM 3301, Spring 2012

College/University: Dallas Baptist

Word Count: 9676

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21) Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes? A) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT B) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE C) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE D) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER Page Ref 210 22) Which of the following is not one of the main problems with a traditional file environment? A) data...

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Which 21) of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes? A) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT B) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE C) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE D) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER Page Ref 210 22) Which of the following is not one of the main problems with a traditional file environment? A) data inconsistency B) program-data independence C) lack of flexibility in creating ad-hoc reports D) poor security Page Ref 211 23) A DBMS reduces data redundancy and inconsistency by A) enforcing referential integrity. B) uncoupling program and data. C) utilizing a data dictionary. D) minimizing isolated files with repeated data. Page Ref 213 24) A characteristic or quality describing an entity is called a(n) A) field. B) tuple. C) key field. D) attribute. Page Ref 210 25) Which of the following non-digital data storage items is most similar to a database? A) library card catalog B) cash register receipt C) doctor's office invoice D) list of sales totals on a spreadsheet Page Ref 210-211 26) The confusion created by ________ makes it difficult for companies to create customer relationship management, supply chain management, or enterprise systems that integrate data from different sources. A) batch processing B) data redundancy C) data independence D) online processing Page Ref 211 27) Duplicate data in multiple data files is called data ________. A) redundancy B) repetition C) independence D) partitions Page Ref 211 28) A DBMS makes the A) physical database available for different logical views. B) logical database available for different analytical views. C) physical database available for different analytical views. D) logical database available for different physical views. Page Ref 212 29) The logical view A) shows how data are organized and structured on the storage media. B) presents an entry screen to the user. C) allows the creation of supplementary reports. D) presents data as they would be perceived by end users. Page Ref 212 30) DBMS for midrange computers include all of the following EXCEPT A) DB2. B) Oracle. C) Microsoft SQL Server. D) Microsoft Access. Page Ref 213 31) The type of logical database model that treats data as if they were stored in two-dimensional tables is the A) OODBMS. B) pre-digital DBMS. C) relational DBMS. D) hierarchical DBMS. Page Ref 213 32) Oracle Database Lite is a(n) A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices. B) Internet DBMS. C) mainframe relational DBMS. D) DBMS for midrange computers. Page Ref 213 33) Microsoft SQL Server is a(n) A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices. B) Internet DBMS. C) desktop relational DBMS. D) DBMS for midrange computers. Page Ref 213 34) In a table for customers, the information about a single customer would reside in a single A) field. B) row. C) column. D) table. Page Ref 214 35) In a relational database, a record is referred to in technical terms as a(n) A) tuple. B) row. C) entity. D) field. Page Ref 214 36) A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the A) primary key. B) key field. C) primary field. D) unique ID. Page Ref 214 37) A field identified in a record as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the A) primary key. B) key field. C) primary field. D) unique ID. Page Ref 214 38) In a relational database, the three basic operations used to develop useful sets of data are A) select, project, and where. B) select, join, and where. C) select, project, and join. D) select, from, and join. Page Ref 215 39) The select operation A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available. B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table. C) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected. D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria. Page Ref 215 40) The join operation A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available. B) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected. C) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table. D) organizes elements into segments. Page Ref 215 41) The project operation A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available. B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table. C) organizes elements into segments. D) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected. Page Ref 215 42) You are creating a video and animation sharing Web site whose content will be supplied by content, video, and applets stored in a database and you anticipate very high loads on the server. Which of the following DBMSs will most likely serve your needs? A) object-relational DBMS B) relational DBMS C) hierarchical DBMS D) OODBMS Page Ref 215 43) The type of database management approach that can handle multimedia is the A) hierarchical DBMS. B) relational DBMS. C) network DBMS. D) object-oriented DBMS. Page Ref 215 44) The data dictionary serves as an important data management tool by A) assigning attributes to the data. B) creating an inventory of the data elements contained in the database. C) presenting data as end users or business specialists would perceive them. D) maintaining data in updated form. Page Ref 217 45) An automated or manual file that stores information about data elements and data characteristics such as usage, physical representation, ownership, authorization, and security is the A) data dictionary. B) data definition diagram. C) entity-relationship diagram. D) relationship dictionary. Page Ref 217 46) The specialized language programmers use to add and change data in the database is called A) a data access language. B) a data manipulation language. C) Structured Query Language. D) a data definition language. Page Ref 217 47) The most prominent data manipulation language today is A) Access. B) DB2. C) SQL. D) Crystal Reports. Page Ref 217 48) DBMSs typically include report-generating tools in order to A) retrieve and display data. B) display data in an easier-to-read format. C) display data in graphs. D) perform predictive analysis. Page Ref 219 49) The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called A) normalization. B) data scrubbing. C) data cleansing. D) data defining. Page Ref 220 50) A schematic of the entire database that describes the relationships in a database is called a(n) A) data dictionary. B) intersection relationship diagram. C) entity-relationship diagram. D) data definition diagram. Page Ref 221 51) A one-to-one relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends with A) two short marks. B) one short mark. C) a crow's foot. D) a crow's foot topped by a short mark. Page Ref 221 52) Which of the following is not one of the techniques used in Web mining? A) content mining B) structure mining C) usage mining D) user mining Page Ref 228 53) You work for a retail clothing chain whose primary outlets are in shopping malls and are conducting an analysis of your customers and their preferences. You wish to find out if there are any particular activities that your customers engage in, or the types of purchases made in the month before or after purchasing select items from your store. To do this, you will want to use data mining software that is capable of A) identifying associations. B) identifying clusters. C) identifying sequences. D) classification. Page Ref 225 54) You work for an national car rental agency and want to determine what characteristics are shared among your most loyal customers. To do this, you will want to use data mining software that is capable of A) identifying associations. B) identifying clusters. C) identifying sequences. D) classification. Page Ref 225 55) A data warehouse is composed of A) historical data from legacy systems. B) current data. C) internal and external data sources. D) historic and current internal data. Page Ref 222 56) A data mart usually can be constructed more rapidly and at lower cost than a data warehouse because A) a data mart typically focuses on a single subject area or line of business. B) all the information is historical. C) a data mart uses a Web interface. D) all of the information belongs to a single company. Page Ref 223 57) Tools for analyzing data to help users find patterns, relationships, and insights and make better business decisions are known as A) DSS. B) business intelligence. C) OLAP. D) data mining. Page Ref 224 58) The tool that enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions is A) predictive analysis. B) SQL. C) OLAP. D) data mining. Page Ref 224 59) OLAP is a tool for enabling A) users to obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time. B) users to view both logical and physical views of data. C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships. D) programmers to normalize data. Page Ref 224 60) Data mining is a tool for allowing users to A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years. B) find hidden relationships in data. C) obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time. D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports. Page Ref 224-225 61) In terms of data relationships, associations refers to A) events linked over time. B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs. C) occurrences linked to a single event. D) undiscovered groupings. Page Ref 225 62) ________ tools are used to analyze large unstructured data sets, such as e-mail, memos, survey responses, etc., to discover patterns and relationships. A) OLAP B) Text mining C) Web mining D) Web content mining Page Ref 226 63) An alternative to using application server software for interfacing between a Web server and back-end databases is A) CGI. B) HTML. C) Java. D) SQL. Page Ref 229 64) The organization's rules for sharing, disseminating, acquiring, standardizing, classifying, and inventorying information is called a(n) A) information policy. B) data definition file. C) data quality audit. D) data governance policy. Page Ref 230 65) The special organizational function whose responsibilities include the technical and operational aspects of managing data, including physical database design and maintenance, is called A) data administration. B) database administration. C) information policy administration. D) data auditing. Page Ref 230 66) Which common database challenge is illustrated by a person receiving multiple copies of an L.L. Bean catalog, each addressed to a slightly different variation of his or her full name? A) data normalization B) data accuracy C) data redundancy D) data inconsistency Page Ref 231 67) Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called A) data auditing. B) defragmentation. C) data scrubbing. D) data optimization. Page Ref 231 68) You are creating a database to store temperature and wind data from national airport locations. Which of the following fields is the most likely candidate to use as the basis for a primary key in the Airport table? A) address B) city C) airport code D) state Page Ref 214 69) Data cleansing not only corrects errors but also A) establishes logical relationships between data. B) structures data. C) normalizes data. D) enforces consistency among different sets of data. Page Ref 231 70) Which of the following is NOT a method for performing a data quality audit? A) surveying entire data files B) surveying samples from data files C) surveying data definition and query files D) surveying end users about their perceptions of data quality Page Ref 231 21) The device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination is called a(n) A) hub. B) switch. C) router. D) NIC. Page Ref 248 CASE Comprehension 22) The Internet is based on which three key technologies? A) TCP/IP, HTML, and HTTP B) TCP/IP, HTTP, and packet switching C) client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers D) client/server computing, packet switching, and HTTP Page Ref 258 CASE Comprehension 23) The method of slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations is called A) multiplexing. B) packet switching. C) packet routing. D) ATM. Page Ref 250 24) The telephone system is an example of a ________ network. A) peer-to-peer B) wireless C) packet-switched D) circuit-switched Page Ref 250 25) Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching? A) Packets travel independently of each other. B) Packets are routed through many different paths. C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits. D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors. Page Ref 250 26) In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for A) disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission. B) establishing an Internet connection between two computers. C) moving packets over the network. D) sequencing the transfer of packets. Page Ref 251 27) In a telecommunications network architecture, a protocol is A) a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network. B) a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network. C) a communications service for microcomputer users. D) the main computer in a telecommunications network. Page Ref 251 28) What are the four layers of the TCP/IP reference model? A) physical, application, transport, and network interface B) physical, application, Internet, and network interface C) application, transport, Internet, and network interface D) application, hardware, Internet, and network interface Page Ref 251-252 29) Which signal types are represented by a continuous waveform? A) laser B) optical C) digital D) analog Page Ref 252 30) To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use A) a modem. B) a router. C) DSL. D) twisted wire. Page Ref 252 31) Which type of network is used to connect digital devices within a half-mile or 500-meter radius? A) microwave B) LAN C) WAN D) MAN Page Ref 253 32) Which of the following Internet connection types offers the greatest bandwidth? A) T3 B) DSL C) cable D) T1 Page Ref 258 33) Which type of network would be most appropriate for a business that comprised three employees and a manager located in the same office space, whose primary need is to share documents? A) wireless network in infrastructure mode B) domain-based LAN C) peer-to-peer network D) campus area network Page Ref 253-254 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 34) In a bus network A) signals are broadcast to the next station. B) signals are broadcast in both directions to the entire network. C) multiple hubs are organized in a hierarchy. D) messages pass from computer to computer in a loop. Page Ref 254 35) All network components connect to a single hub in a ________ topology. A) star B) bus C) domain D) peer-to-peer Page Ref 254 36) The most common Ethernet topology is A) bus. B) star. C) ring. D) mesh. Page Ref 254 37) A network that spans a city, and sometimes its major suburbs as well, is called a A) CAN. B) MAN. C) LAN. D) WAN. Page Ref 254 38) A network that covers broad geographical regions is most commonly referred to as a(n) A) local area network. B) intranet. C) peer-to-peer network. D) wide area network. Page Ref 254 39) ________ work by using radio waves to communicate with radio antennas placed within adjacent geographic areas. A) Cell phones B) Microwaves C) Satellites D) WANs Page Ref 257 40) Bandwidth is the A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium. B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium. C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel. D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second. Page Ref 257 41) The total amount of digital information that can be transmitted through any telecommunications medium is measured in A) bps. B) Hertz. C) baud. D) gigaflops. Page Ref 257 42) Digital subscriber lines A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video. B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access. C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies. D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels. Page Ref 258 43) T lines A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video. B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access. C) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels. D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels. Page Ref 258 44) Which protocol is the Internet based on? A) TCP/IP B) FTP C) packet-switching D) HTTP Page Ref 258 45) Which of the following is not an advantage of using VOIP? A) VOIP can reduce a firm's communication costs by 20 to 30 percent. B) It allows e-mail and voice mail to be combined into a single directory. C) It enables the creation of two distinct networks for voice and data. D) It allows new phones to be added to a network without rewiring or reconfiguring the network. Page Ref 265 46) The child domain of the root is the A) top-level domain. B) second-level domain. C) host name. D) domain extension. Page Ref 258 47) In the domain name "http//myspace.blogging.com", what are the root, top-level, second-level, and thirdlevel domains, respectively? A) "http//", myspace, blogging, com B) "http//", com, blogging, myspace C) ".", com, blogging, myspace D) ".", myspace, blogging, com Page Ref 258-259 48) Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet? A) none (no one "owns" the Internet) B) W3C C) ICANN D) IAB Page Ref 260 49) IPv6 is being developed in order to A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth. B) create more IP addresses. C) allow for different levels of service. D) support Internet2. Page Ref 261 50) Which of the following services enables logging on to one computer system and working on another? A) FTP B) LISTSERV C) Telnet D) World Wide Web Page Ref 261 51) Instant messaging is a type of ________ service. A) chat B) cellular C) e-mail D) wireless Page Ref 264 52) Which of the following distinguishes wikis from blogs? A) Wikis allow users to add content, whereas blogs are created by a single person. B) Blogs are personal publishing tools, while Wikis have business uses. C) Wikis require some knowledge of Web programming, whereas blogs are designed to be created by people without HTML skills of any kind. D) Wikis allow users to modify content created by other users, whereas blogs only allow comments to posted material. Page Ref 273 Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities in terms of appraise 53) ________ integrate(s) disparate channels for voice communications, data communications, instant messaging, e-mail, and electronic conferencing into a single experience. A) Wireless networks B) Intranets C) Virtual private networks D) Unified communications Page Ref 265 54) A VPN A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network. B) is more expensive than a dedicated network. C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet. D) is an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications. Page Ref 268 55) Web browser software requests Web pages from the Internet using which protocol? A) URL B) HTTP C) DNS D) HTML Page Ref 269 56) Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n) A) uniform resource locator. B) IP address. C) third level domain. D) root domain. Page Ref 269 57) The most common Web server today, controlling 54 percent of the market, is A) Microsoft IIS. B) WebSTAR C) Apache HTTP Server. D) Netscape Server. Page Ref 269 58) Which of the following statements is not true about search engines? A) They are arguably the Internet's "killer app". B) They have solved the problem of how users instantly find information on the Internet. C) They are monetized almost exclusively by search engine marketing. D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged. Page Ref 269-270 59) The process of employing techniques to help a Web site achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines is called A) VPN. B) IAB. C) SEM. D) SEO. Page Ref 270 60) What technology allows people to have content pulled from Web sites and fed automatically to their computers? A) FTP B) RSS C) HTTP D) Bluetooth Page Ref 273 61) Which of the following is not one of the four defining features of Web 2.0? A) interactivity B) real-time user control C) cloud computing D) social participation Page Ref 272 62) Which of the following statements is true? A) GSM is the primary U.S. digital cellular standard. B) CDMA's strength is in its international roaming capabilities. C) CDMA randomly assigns users to a range of frequencies over time. D) GSM was developed by the military during World War II. Page Ref 276 63) Which of the following standards is most appropriate for creating a PAN? A) WiMax B) IEEE 802.11b C) WiFi D) Bluetooth Page Ref 276 64) Bluetooth can be used to link up to ________ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication. A) four B) six C) eight D) ten Page Ref 276 65) The 802.11 set of standards for wireless LANs is known as A) Wi-Fi. B) WiMax. C) Bluetooth. D) RFID. Page Ref 277 66) One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as A) touch points. B) hotspots. C) hot points. D) wireless hubs. Page Ref 278 67) The next evolution in wireless communication is A) 3G networks. B) 2.5G networks. C) WiMax. D) RFID. Page Ref 276 68) The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately A) 30 meters. B) 500 meters. C) 30 miles. D) 5 miles. Page Ref 279 69) Passive RFID tags A) have their own power source. B) have a range of several feet. C) enable data to be rewritten and modified. D) are used in automated toll-collection systems. Page Ref 280 70) Which of the following would you be most likely to use RFID technology for? A) tracking inventory B) enabling CRM systems C) lowering network costs D) enabling client communication Page Ref 279-280 21) ________ refers to policies, procedures, and technical measures used to prevent unauthorized access, alternation, theft, or physical damage to information systems. A) "Security" B) "Controls" C) "Benchmarking" D) "Algorithms" Page Ref 293 22) ________ refers to all of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization's assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards. A) "Legacy systems" B) "SSID standards" C) "Vulnerabilities" D) "Controls" Page Ref 293 23) Which of the following does not pose a security threat to wireless networks? A) broadcasted SSIDs B) scannability of radio frequency bands C) SQL injection attacks D) geographic range of wireless signals Page Ref 295-296 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 24) Electronic data are more susceptible to destruction, fraud, error, and misuse because information systems concentrate data in computer files that A) are usually bound up in legacy systems that are difficult to access and difficult to correct in case of error. B) are not secure because the technology to secure them did not exist at the time the files were created. C) have the potential to be accessed by large numbers of people and by groups outside of the organization. D) are frequently available on the Internet. Page Ref 293-294 in terms of compare 25) Unauthorized access is a security challenge that is most likely to occur in which of the following points of a corporate network? A) client computer B) communications lines C) corporate server D) internal corporate back-end system Page Ref 293 in terms of examine 26) Sniffing is a security challenge that is most likely to occur in which of the following points of a corporate network? A) client computer B) communications lines C) corporate servers D) internal corporate back-end system Page Ref 293 in terms of examine 27) Inputting data into a poorly programmed Web form in order to disrupt a company's systems and networks is called A) a Trojan horse. B) an SQL injection attack. C) key logging. D) a DDoS attack. Page Ref 298 in terms of examine 28) The Internet poses specific security problems because A) it was designed to be easily accessible. B) Internet data is not run over secure lines. C) Internet standards are universal. D) it changes so rapidly. Page Ref 294 29) Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true? A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders. B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one provides access. C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network. D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network. Page Ref 294-295 in terms of appraise 30) An independent computer program that copies itself from one computer to another over a network is called a A) worm. B) Trojan horse. C) bug. D) pest. Page Ref 296 Reflective Thinking 31) A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor in order to drive the competitor's advertising costs up. This is an example of A) phishing. B) pharming. C) spoofing. D) click fraud. Page Ref 302 in terms of categorize 32) In 2004, ICQ users were enticed by a sales message from a supposed anti-virus vendor. On the vendors site, a small program called Mitglieder was downloaded to the users machine. The program enabled outsiders to infiltrate the users machine. What type of malware is this an example of? A) Trojan horse B) virus C) worm D) spyware Page Ref 298 in terms of categorize 33) Redirecting a Web link to a different address is a form of A) snooping. B) spoofing. C) sniffing. D) war driving. Page Ref 299 Reflective Thinking 34) A keylogger is a type of A) worm. B) Trojan horse. C) virus. D) spyware. Page Ref 298 Reflective Thinking 35) Hackers create a botnet by A) infecting Web search bots with malware. B) by using Web search bots to infect other computers. C) by causing other peoples computers to become "zombie" PCs following a master computer. D) by infecting corporate servers with "zombie" Trojan horses that allow undetected access through a back door. Page Ref 299 Reflective Thinking 36) Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a ________ attack. A) DDoS B) DoS C) SQL injection D) phishing Page Ref 299 37) Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as a target of crime? A) knowingly accessing a protected computer to commit fraud B) accessing a computer system without authority C) illegally accessing stored electronic communication D) threatening to cause damage to a protected computer Page Ref 300 in terms of categorize 38) Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as an instrument of crime? A) theft of trade secrets B) intentionally attempting to intercept electronic communication C) unauthorized copying of software D) breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data Page Ref 300 in terms of categorize 39) Phishing is a form of A) spoofing. B) logging. C) sniffing. D) driving. Page Ref 301 Reflective Thinking 40) An example of phishing is A) setting up a bogus Wi-Fi hot spot. B) setting up a fake medical Web site that asks users for confidential information. C) pretending to be a utility company's employee in order to garner information from that company about their security system. D) sending bulk e-mail that asks for financial aid under a false pretext. Page Ref 301 in terms of categorize 41) Evil twins are A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application. B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business. C) fraudulent Web sites that mimic a legitimate businesss Web site. D) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users. Page Ref 301 Reflective Thinking 42) Pharming involves A) redirecting users to a fraudulent Web site even when the user has typed in the correct address in the Web browser. B) pretending to be a legitimate businesss representative in order to garner information about a security system. C) setting up fake Web sites to ask users for confidential information. D) using e-mails for threats or harassment. Page Ref 301 Reflective Thinking 43) You have been hired as a security consultant for a law firm. Which of the following constitutes the greatest source of security threats to the firm? A) wireless network B) employees C) authentication procedures D) lack of data encryption Page Ref 302 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 44) Tricking employees to reveal their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called A) sniffing. B) social engineering. C) phishing. D) pharming. Page Ref 302 Reflective Thinking 45) How do software vendors correct flaws in their software after it has been distributed? A) issue bug fixes B) issue patches C) re-release software D) issue updated versions Page Ref 303 46) The HIPAA Act of 1997 A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data. B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control. C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information. D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. Page Ref 306 Reflective Thinking 47) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data. B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control. C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information. D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. Page Ref 306 Reflective Thinking 48) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data. B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control. C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information. D) outlines medical security and privacy rules. Page Ref 306 Reflective Thinking 49) The most common type of electronic evidence is A) voice mail. B) spreadsheets. C) instant messages. D) e-mail. Page Ref 307 50) Electronic evidence on computer storage media that is not visible to the average user is called ________ data. A) defragmented B) ambient C) forensic D) fragmented Page Ref 307 51) Application controls A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls. B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization. C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment. D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls. Page Ref 308 52) ________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage. A) Software B) Administrative C) Data security D) Ref Implementation Page 308 53) Analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost is included in a(n) A) security policy. B) AUP. C) risk assessment. D) business impact analysis. Page Ref 309 54) A(n) ________ system is used to identify and authorize different categories of system users and specify which portions of the organization's systems each user can access. A) identity management B) AUP C) authentication D) firewall Page Ref 310 55) Which of the following is not one of the main firewall screening techniques? A) application proxy filtering B) static packet filtering C) NAT D) secure socket filtering Page Ref 314-315 56) Rigorous password systems A) are one of the most effective security tools. B) may hinder employee productivity. C) are costly to implement. D) are often disregarded by employees. Page Ref 314 57) An authentication token is a(n) A) device the size of a credit card that contains access permission data. B) type of smart card. C) gadget that displays passcodes. D) electronic marker attached to a digital authorization file. Page Ref 313 58) Which of the following is not a trait used for identification in biometric systems? A) retinal image B) voice C) hair color D) face Page Ref 313 Reflective Thinking 59) A firewall allows the organization to A) prevent unauthorized communication both into and out of the network. B) monitor network hot spots for signs of intruders. C) prevent known spyware and malware from entering the system. D) all of the above. Page Ref 314 60) In which technique are network communications are analyzed to see whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and a receiver? A) stateful inspection B) intrusion detection system C) application proxy filtering D) packet filtering Page Ref 315 61) ________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors. A) Stateful inspections B) Intrusion detection systems C) Application proxy filtering technologies D) Packet filtering technologies Page Ref 316 62) Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are A) TCP/IP and SSL. B) S-HTTP and CA. C) HTTP and TCP/IP. D) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP. Page Ref 317 63) Most antivirus software is effective against A) only those viruses active on the Internet and through e-mail. B) any virus. C) any virus except those in wireless communications applications. D) only those viruses already known when the software is written. Page Ref 316 in terms of applying 64) In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key? A) SSL B) symmetric key encryption C) public key encryption D) private key encryption Page Ref 317 65) A digital certificate system A) uses third-party CAs to validate a users identity. B) uses digital signatures to validate a users identity. C) uses tokens to validate a users identity. D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence. Page Ref 318 66) Downtime refers to periods of time in which a A) computer system is malfunctioning. B) computer system is not operational. C) company or organization is not operational. D) computer is not online. Page Ref 319 67) For 100% availability, online transaction processing requires A) high-capacity storage. B) a multi-tier server network. C) fault-tolerant computer systems. D) dedicated phone lines. Page Ref 319 68) In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data. A) high availability computing B) deep-packet inspection C) application proxy filtering D) stateful inspection Page Ref 319 69) The development and use of methods to make computer systems resume their activities more quickly after mishaps is called A) high availability computing. B) recovery oriented computing. C) fault tolerant computing. D) disaster recovery planning. Page Ref 319 70) Smaller firms may outsource some or many security functions to A) ISPs. B) MISs. C) MSSPs. D) CAs. Page Ref 319 21) From your reading of the Cannondale case study, the firm implemented new information systems in order to achieve which of the main six business objectives? A) customer and supplier intimacy B) survival C) competitive advantage D) operational excellence Page Ref 335 in terms of categorize 22) Which of the following is not an example of next-generation enterprise applications? A) open-source solutions B) on-demand solutions C) solutions incorporating SCM D) solutions incorporating SOA Page Ref 357 Reflective Thinking 23) A suite of integrated software modules for finance and accounting, human resources, manufacturing and production, and sales and marketing that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes best describes A) SCM software. B) ERP systems. C) ERM software. D) CRM modules. Page Ref 337 24) Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect A) the firm's organization. B) industry goals. C) best practices. D) cutting edge workflow analyses. Page Ref 338 25) Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems? A) Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products. B) Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization. C) Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices. D) Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance. Page Ref 337-339 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 26) You have been asked to implement enterprise software for a manufacturer of kitchen appliances. What is the first step you should take? A) Select the functions of the system you wish to use. B) Select the business processes you wish to automate. C) Map the companys business processes to the softwares business processes. D) Map the softwares business processes to the companys business processes. Page Ref 338 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 27) When tailoring a particular aspect of a system to the way a company does business, enterprise software can provide the company with A) configuration tables. B) Web services. C) data dictionaries. D) middleware. Page Ref 338 28) In order to achieve maximum benefit from an enterprise software package, a business A) customizes the software to match all of its business processes. B) uses only the processes in the software that match its own processes. C) changes the way it works to match the softwares business processes. D) selects only the software that best matches its existing business processes. Page Ref 339 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 29) Supply chain complexity and scale increases when firms A) move to globalization. B) manage the procurement, manufacturing, and distribution functions themselves. C) produce products and services that coordinate with hundreds or more firms and suppliers. D) modify their existing workflows to comply with supply-chain management systems. Page Ref 340 in terms of appraise 30) Why is overstocking warehouses not an effective solution for a problem of low availability? A) It does not speed product time to market. B) It is an inefficient use of raw materials. C) It increases sales costs. D) It increases inventory costs. Page Ref 342 in terms of appraise 31) A network of organizations and business processes for procuring raw materials, transforming these materials into intermediate and finished products, and distributing the finished products to customers is called a A) distribution channel. B) supply chain. C) value chain. D) marketing channel. Page Ref 340 Reflective Thinking 32) Components or parts of finished products are referred to as A) upstream materials. B) raw materials. C) secondary products. D) intermediate products. Page Ref 341 Reflective Thinking 33) A companys suppliers and the processes for managing relationships with them is the A) supplier's internal supply chain. B) external supply chain. C) upstream portion of the supply chain. D) downstream portion of the supply chain. Page Ref 341 Reflective Thinking 34) A companys organizations and processes for distributing and delivering products to the final customers is the A) supplier's internal supply chain. B) external supply chain. C) upstream portion of the supply chain. D) downstream portion of the supply chain. Page Ref 341 Reflective Thinking 35) Uncertainties arise in any supply chain because of A) inaccurate or untimely information. B) poor integration between systems of suppliers, manufacturers, and distributors. C) inefficient or inaccurate MIS. D) unforeseeable events. Page Ref 342 in terms of appraise 36) Which of the following traditional solutions enables manufacturers to deal with uncertainties in the supply chain? A) safety stock B) continuous replenishment C) just-in-time strategies D) demand planning Page Ref 342 Reflective Thinking 37) A scheduling system for minimizing inventory by having components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line best describes a ________ strategy. A) just-in-time B) frictionless C) bullwhip D) safety-stock Page Ref 342 38) A distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain is called the ________ effect. A) network B) bullwhip C) ripple D) whirlpool Page Ref 342 Reflective Thinking 39) Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems. A) push; pull B) demand; continual C) upstream; downstream D) planning; execution Page Ref 344 40) Systems that enable a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product best describes supply chain ________ systems. A) demand B) delivery C) planning D) execution Page Ref 344 41) Supply chain planning systems A) track the physical status of goods. B) identify the transportation mode to use for product delivery. C) track the financial information involving all parties. D) track the status of orders. Page Ref 344 42) Which supply chain planning function determines how much product is needed to satisfy all customer demands? A) distribution management B) replenishment planning C) demand planning D) order planning Page Ref 344 43) Supply chain ________ systems manage the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner. A) demand B) delivery C) planning D) execution Page Ref 344 44) Capabilities of supply chain execution systems would not include A) identifying the optimal transportation mode. B) tracking the flow of finished goods. C) managing materials. D) managing warehouse operations. Page Ref 344 45) From your reading of the Southwest Airlines case study, the company implemented a new inventory management system to achieve which of the following six business objectives? A) customer and supplier intimacy B) new products, services, and business models C) survival D) operational excellence Page Ref 345-346 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 46) A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model. A) pull-based model B) build-to-stock C) push-based D) replenishment-driven Page Ref 347 47) A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a ________ model. A) supply-based B) demand-driven C) replenishment-driven D) push-based Page Ref 347 48) Concurrent supply chains are made possible by which technology? A) ERP systems B) the Internet C) supply chain management systems D) just-in-time supply-chain technologies Page Ref 348 49) The business value of an effective supply chain management system includes all of the following except A) faster time to market. B) cost reduction. C) supply matched to demand. D) increased inventory levels. Page Ref 348 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess 50) A ________ is a method of interaction with a customer, such as telephone or customer service desk. A) point of presence B) touch point C) sales point D) client channel Page Ref 350 Reflective Thinking 51) Which of the following would not be considered a contact point? A) e-mail B) Web site C) intranet D) retail store Page Ref 350 52) ________ modules use many of the same data, tools, and systems as CRM to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners. A) SCM B) SFA C) ERM D) PRM Page Ref 351 53) ________ modules deal with issues such as setting objectives, employee performance management, and performance-based compensation. A) SCM B) SFA C) ERM D) PRM Page Ref 351 54) Customer relationship management systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and A) marketing. B) account management. C) advertising. D) public relations. Page Ref 351-352 55) SFA modules in CRM systems would provide tools for A) assigning and managing customer service requests. B) capturing prospect and customer data. C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers. D) managing sales prospect and contact information. Page Ref 351 56) Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for A) assigning and managing customer service requests. B) capturing prospect and customer data. C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers. D) managing sales prospect and contact information. Page Ref 351 57) Marketing modules in CRM systems would provide tools for A) assigning and managing customer service requests. B) capturing prospect and customer data. C) identifying profitable and unprofitable customers. D) managing sales prospect and contact information. Page Ref 352 58) ________ software deals with employee issues that are closely related to CRM, such as setting objectives, employee performance management, performance-based compensation, and employee training. A) Enterprise B) ERM C) PRM D) ERP Page Ref 286 59) Selling a customer with a checking account a home improvement loan is an example of A) operational CRM. B) direct marketing. C) cross-selling. D) cross-channel promotions. Page Ref 352 60) ________ management is an important capability for service processes that is found in most major CRM software products. A) Returns B) Lead C) Account D) Events Page Ref 353 61) Which of the following is an important capability for sales processes that is found in most major CRM software products? A) returns management B) lead management C) channel promotions management D) events management Page Ref 353 62) Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes ________ applications. A) operational CRM B) analytical CRM C) operational SCM D) analytical SFA Page Ref 354 in terms of applying 63) Analytical CRM applications A) include tools for marketing automation. B) provide consolidated data for operational CRM applications. C) are based on data warehouses consolidated from operational CRM applications. D) provide customer-facing applications. Page Ref 354 64) Operational CRM applications include tools for A) identifying buying patterns. B) calculating CLTV. C) salesforce automation. D) pinpointing unprofitable customers. Page Ref 354 65) Analyzing customer buying patterns is an example of A) CLTV. B) analytical CRM. C) operational CRM. D) demand planning. Page Ref 354 66) Which metric is based on the relationship between the revenue produced by a specific customer, the expenses incurred in acquiring and servicing that customer, and the expected life of the relationship between the customer and the company? A) churn rate B) CLTV C) cost per lead D) cost per sale Page Ref 355 Reflective Thinking 67) The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called A) switching costs. B) churn rate. C) CLTV. D) switch rate. Page Ref 355 Reflective Thinking 68) All of the following statements about enterprise applications are true except for A) Enterprise applications are more successfully implemented when an organization has prepared for organizational change. B) Once you have purchased and implemented a vendor's enterprise system, it is much less expensive to switch vendors. C) The total implementation cost of a large system runs into millions of dollars. D) Enterprise applications are based on organization-wide definitions of data. Page Ref 355-356 in terms of appraise 69) ________ integrate(s) multiple applications from multiple business functions, business units, or business partners to deliver a seamless experience for the customer, employee, manager, or business partner and provide a greater degree of cross-functional integration than the traditional enterprise applications. A) PRM software B) SFA software C) ERP suites D) Service platforms Page Ref 360 70) Enterprise application vendors have created ________ to make their own customer relationship management, supply chain management, and enterprise systems work closely together with each other. A) e-business suites B) ERP systems C) middleware D) legacy systems Page Ref 356-357 21) Because of outsourcing and increased automation, the costs of system maintenance and content creation have fallen and typically make up less than a quarter of Web site budgets. Answer FALSE Page Ref 405 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.6 22) Based on your reading of the chapter, e-commerce is A) still in a revolutionary phase. B) widely accepted by consumers, although technology is still quickly changing. C) not yet fully accepted by consumers, although much of its driving technology is firmly in place. D) well entrenched as a form of modern commerce. Page Ref 374 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess Objective 10.1 23) The quality of ubiquity, as it relates to e-commerce, is illustrated by A) the same set of standards being used across the globe. B) the spread of plentiful, cheap information. C) the enabling of commerce worldwide. D) the availability of the Internet everywhere and anytime. Page Ref 374-375 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 24) A marketplace extended beyond traditional boundaries and removed from a temporal and geographic location is called a(n) A) exchange. B) marketspace. C) online marketplace. D) e-hub. Page Ref 375 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 25) Which of the following is not a recent development in e-commerce? A) Wireless Internet connections grow rapidly. B) Social networking sites become a new platform for e-commerce. C) The music recording industry is disrupted as music creation and distribution become decentralized. D) Online entertainment business models surge. Page Ref 375 in terms of examine Objective 10.1 26) How are the Internet and e-commerce causing severe disruption to the existing advertising business model? A) Ties between customer and businesses are being rethought. B) Technology players such as Yahoo! seek to dominate online advertising and expand into offline ad brokerage. C) New methods of advertising, such as blog advertising, are emerging. D) The market entry costs for online advertising services are extremely low. Page Ref 375 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess Objective 10.3 27) Which of the following is not one of the unique features of e-commerce technology? A) information density B) transparency C) richness D) social technology Page Ref 376 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 28) The act of engaging consumers in a dialog that dynamically adjusts the experience to the individual describes which dimension of e-commerce technology? A) ubiquity B) personalization/customization C) richness D) interactivity Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 29) The integration of video, audio, and text marketing messages into a single marketing message and consumer experience describes which dimension of e-commerce technology? A) ubiquity B) personalization/customization C) richness D) interactivity Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 30) The effort required to locate a suitable product is called A) price discrimination. B) search costs. C) menu costs. D) shopping costs. Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 31) The lowered costs of information storage, processing, and communication, along with the improvement of data quality, has resulted in which unique quality of e-commerce? A) information density B) richness C) customization D) interactivity Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 32) Information density refers to the A) richnesscomplexity and contentof a message. B) total amount and quantity of information delivered to consumers by merchants. C) total amount and quantity of information available to all market participants. D) amount of information available to reduce price transparency. Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 33) Selling the same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called A) cost customization. B) cost optimization. C) price gouging. D) price discrimination. Page Ref 377 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 34) Information ________ exists when one party in a transaction has more information that is important for the transaction than the other party. A) transparency B) asymmetry C) complexity D) discrimination Page Ref 378 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 35) Which of the following businesses uses the market creator business model? A) an online auction house B) an online newspaper C) a video-sharing site D) an online bookseller Page Ref 384 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 36) Varying a product's price according to the supply situation of the seller is called ________ pricing. A) menu B) flexible C) dynamic D) asymmetric Page Ref 379 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 37) Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have A) lower search costs. B) stronger network effects. C) higher delayed gratification effects. D) higher transaction costs. Page Ref 380 in terms of compare Objective 10.1 38) Reducing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called A) disintermediation. B) BPR. C) market segmentation. D) network effects. Page Ref 379 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 39) Digital goods are goods that are A) produced digitally. B) sold over digital networks. C) delivered digitally. D) used with digital equipment. Page Ref 380 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.1 40) Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have A) greater pricing flexibility. B) lower marketing costs. C) higher production costs. D) higher inventory costs. Page Ref 380 in terms of compare Objective 10.1 41) Compared to traditional markets, digital markets have A) lower distributed delivery costs. B) higher marginal costs per unit. C) equivalent copying costs. D) similar inventory costs. Page Ref 380 in terms of compare Objective 10.1 42) Selling products and services directly to individual consumers via the Internet best describes A) B2B e-commerce. B) C2C e-commerce. C) M-commerce. D) B2C e-commerce. Page Ref 381 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 43) Consumers selling goods and services electronically to other consumers best describes A) disintermediation. B) C2C e-commerce. C) M-commerce. D) B2C e-commerce. Page Ref 3871 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 44) EBay is an example of A) C2C e-commerce. B) B2B e-commerce. C) B2C e-commerce. D) M-commerce. Page Ref 381 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 45) Your company provides online tax preparation software. Users can download forms and read tips online without paying, but a fee is charged for using the advanced tax form management services. This is an example of which type of revenue model? A) subscription B) affiliate C) transaction fee D) free/freemium Page Ref 388 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 46) Which of the following businesses utilizes the content provider Internet business model? A) Amazon.com B) eBay.com C) CNN.com D) Motocross.com Page Ref 383 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 47) In which of the following Internet business models does a merchant create an online digital environment that enables people with like interests to share information or buy and sell goods? A) community provider B) service provider C) market creator D) transaction broker Page Ref 384 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 48) Transaction brokers A) generate revenue from advertising or from directing buyers to sellers. B) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions. C) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products. D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses. Page Ref 384 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 49) Market creators A) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions. B) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products. C) create revenue by providing digital content over the Web. D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses. Page Ref 384 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 50) Which of the following best illustrates the sales revenue model? A) EBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item. B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase. C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services. D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. Page Ref 388 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 51) Which of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model? A) EBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item. B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase. C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services. D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. Page Ref 388 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 52) In which of the following revenue models does a Web site charge a fee for access to some or all of its offerings on a continual, regular basis? A) subscription B) free/freemium C) transaction fee D) sales Page Ref 388 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.2 53) Which of the following best illustrates the affiliate revenue model? A) EBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item. B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she makes a purchase. C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services. D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads. Page Ref 389 in terms of categorize Objective 10.2 54) In a phenomenon called ________, some argue that large numbers of people can make better decisions about a wide range of topics or products than a single person or even a small committee of experts. A) the wisdom of crowds B) outsourcing C) crowdsourcing D) social networking Page Ref 391-392 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 55) Netflix's public announcement of a reward for a technology solution to its movie recommendation system is an example of A) prediction markets. B) behavioral targeting. C) long-tail marketing. D) crowdsourcing. Page Ref 392 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 56) Exposing an individual to ads that are chosen and based on the recorded and analyzed online behavior of the individual is referred to as A) clickstream advertising. B) behavioral targeting. C) online profiling. D) long-tail marketing. Page Ref 392-393 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 57) Which of the following was the leading marketing format in 2010? A) display ads B) e-mail C) classifieds D) search engine Page Ref 393 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 58) Which of the following statements about B2B commerce is not true? A) Eighty percent of online B2B e-commerce is still based on EDI. B) B2B e-commerce represents approximately three-quarters of the overall B2B marketplace. C) B2B e-commerce only includes commercial transactions between firms. D) B2B e-commerce revenues in 2009 were over $3 trillion. Page Ref 396 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.4 59) Which of the following describes long-tail marketing? A) The unexpected growth of sales of a product long after its initial release. B) The yearly sales of one or two copies each of thousands of obscure films. C) The dwindling sales of a once-popular book. D) The continued successful sales of a product over years. Page Ref 392 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.3 60) Which of the following statements about m-commerce is not true? A) In 2010, m-commerce represented less than 10 percent of all e-commerce. B) M-commerce is the fastest growing form of e-commerce. C) M-commerce applications are especially popular in Europe, Japan, and South Korea. D) In 2010, the top-grossing category of m-commerce was e-book sales. Page Ref 399 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.5 61) The system functionalities of an e-commerce site are best described as the A) general capabilities wanted. B) information systems capabilities wanted. C) information elements needed. D) software and hardware required. Page Ref 402 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.6 62) EDI is A) the use of Internet technologies for electronic data transactions. B) the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network. C) electronic data invoicing. D) electronic delivery infrastructure. Page Ref 396 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.4 63) The process of sourcing goods and materials, negotiating with suppliers, paying for goods, and making delivery arrangements is called A) procurement. B) e-procurement. C) SCM. D) sourcing. Page Ref 397 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.4 64) An extranet that links a large firm to its suppliers and other key business partners is called a(n) A) e-hub. B) marketspace. C) exchange. D) private industrial network. Page Ref 397 Objective 10.4 65) E-hubs are more ________ than private industrial networks. A) transaction-oriented B) collaborative C) independent D) supply-chain oriented Page Ref 397 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess Objective 10.4 66) Net marketplaces A) focus on continuous business process coordination between companies for supply chain management. B) are industry owned or operate as independent intermediaries between buyers and sellers. C) are geared towards short-term spot purchasing. D) are more relationship oriented than private industrial networks. Page Ref 397 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess Objective 10.4 67) A third-party Net marketplace that connects many buyers and suppliers for spot purchasing is called a(n) A) exchange. B) vertical market. C) private exchange. D) e-hub. Page Ref 398 Reflective Thinking Objective 10.4 68) Which of the following is not one of the categories of services that are popular for m-commerce? A) location-based services B) financial services C) games and entertainment D) retail shopping Page Ref 400 CASE Evaluation in terms of assess Objective 10.5 69) In the United States, m-commerce A) has become widely adopted. B) is still in its infancy. C) now represents a major fraction of total e-commerce transactions. D) is growing slowly. Page Ref 399-400 in terms of appraise Objective 10.5 70) You are planning the requirements for a site tracking and reporting system for your company Web site. Which of the following information requirements would not be essential for this function? A) number of unique visitors B) pages visited C) products purchased D) secure credit card clearing Page Ref 402-403 in terms of build, model Objective 10.6
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