Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice
183 Pages

Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice

Course Number: NUR 140, Spring 2012

College/University: Piedmont TC

Word Count: 33060

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Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice Comprehensive Test Bank Susan G Dudek Lippincott Williams & Wilkins This Test Bank and its Page References Correspond to the Instructor Edition of the Text Book. Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which statement is FALSE concerning the field of nutrition? A) Nutrition is the study of how food nourishes the body. B) Nutrition encompasses how we consume, digest, metabolize,...

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Essentials Nutrition for Nursing Practice Comprehensive Test Bank Susan G Dudek Lippincott Williams & Wilkins This Test Bank and its Page References Correspond to the Instructor Edition of the Text Book. Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which statement is FALSE concerning the field of nutrition? A) Nutrition is the study of how food nourishes the body. B) Nutrition encompasses how we consume, digest, metabolize, and store food. C) Nutrition is an ancient science that dates back to the fourteenth century. D) Nutrition involves studying the factors that influence eating patterns. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 2 2) Which of the following is most important in determining what foods people choose to eat? A) texture B) smell C) taste D) eye appeal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 9 3) Which of the following is an example of a disease that is directly caused by a nutritional deficiency? A) scurvy B) cancer C) obesity D) heart disease Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 3 4) Which of the following is NOT a nutrient? A) water B) alcohol C) vitamins D) minerals Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 5 5) Which of the following is a macronutrient? A) carbohydrate B) vitamin C) mineral D) alcohol Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 5 6) Which of the following are examples of carbohydrate-rich foods? A) butter and corn oil B) beef and pork C) wheat and lentils D) bacon and eggs Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 7) Which of the following nutrients are the most energy dense? A) carbohydrates B) fats C) minerals D) vitamins Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 8) Which of the following BEST describes minerals? A) micronutrients that are broken down easily during digestion B) micronutrients that are easily destroyed by heat and light C) micronutrients found in a variety of foods D) nutrients that are needed in large amounts by the body Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 8 9) ________ serve(s) as an important source of energy for muscles during times of rest and lowintensity activity. A) Protein B) Vitamins C) Fat D) Minerals Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 10) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of dietary protein? A) building new cells and tissues B) repairing damaged structures C) regulating metabolism and fluid balance D) serving as a primary source of energy for the body Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 11) Vitamins are classified into two groups, ________ and ________. A) fat soluble; water-soluble B) microsoluble; macrosoluble C) nutritive; nonnutritive D) major; trace Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 12) ________ are micronutrients that are not broken down by the human body or destroyed by heat. A) Vitamins B) Minerals C) Proteins D) Fats Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 8 13) The standard used to estimate the daily nutrient needs of half of all healthy individuals in a particular life stage or gender group is: A) EAR. B) AI. C) RDA. D) UL. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 14 14) The dietary standard used to predict average energy (kcal) intake needed to maintain energy balance in healthy adults is the: A) DRI. B) EER. C) AI. D) UL. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 15 15) Your grandmother has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following professionals is most likely to be qualified to offer your grandmother assistance in planning her diabetic diet? A) registered dietitian (RD) B) PhD in nutrition C) medical doctor (MD) D) nutritionist Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 30 16) Which of the following professional titles has no definition or laws regulating it? A) registered dietitian B) medical doctor C) licensed nutritionist/dietitian D) nutritionist Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 30 17) The type of study that compares two groups of individuals, one with the disease and one without the disease, in order to identify factors that might prevent the disease is a(n): A) case controlled study. B) clinical trial. C) epidemiological study. D) animal study. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 34 18) The four characteristics of a healthful diet are adequacy, balance, moderation, and ________. A) calories B) color C) value D) variety Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 13 19) Which of the following BEST describes vitamins? A) Micronutrients that are needed in large amounts by the body. B) Micronutrients that play a vital role in building and maintaining healthy bone, blood and muscle tissue. C) Micronutrients that provide 4 calories per gram. D) Micronutrients that are not vulnerable to prolonged exposure to heat and/or light. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 20) In MyPyramid, an ounce-equivalent from the grain group is defined as: A) 1 slice bread. B) cup pasta. C) 1 cup ready-to-eat cereal. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 22 21) Which of the following is required on all food labels? A) statement of identity B) ingredient list C) Nutrition Facts Panel D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 27 22) The Nutrition Facts Panel on a box of crackers indicates that one serving provides 140 calories, with 55 calories coming from fat. Calculate the percentage of calories from fat in this product. A) 39% B) 55% C) 85% D) need more information to calculate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 28 23) Jack is a college athlete who requires 2,800 kcal/day to support his total energy needs. Even though Jack likes many different foods and makes it a point to try new things, he consumes only approximately 1,600 kcal/day. Which one of the characteristics of a healthy diet is Jack missing? A) adequacy B) balance C) moderation D) variety Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 11 24) Rosa is a stay-at-home mom who generally prepares the majority of meals for her household. Even though she always prepares meals that offer enough calories and nutrients for her family of four, she tends to make the same meals again and again. Which one of the characteristics of a healthy diet is Rosa not incorporating into her meal planning? A) adequacy B) balance C) moderation D) variety Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 13 25) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends a minimum of: A) 30 minutes of moderate activity most days. B) 60 minutes of moderate activity most days. C) 60 minutes of intense activity most days. D) 8 hours of moderate activity per week. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 16 26) Foods high in sugar promote: A) tooth decay. B) elevated blood pressure. C) type 1 diabetes. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 18 27) Excess sodium in the diet is linked to ________ in some individuals. A) cancer B) hyperactivity C) obesity D) high blood pressure Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 18 28) Julie doesn't care for meat and poultry and restricts her intake of animal foods to only milk and yogurt sources. Which dietary guideline is Julie failing to practice? A) adequacy B) value C) balance D) moderation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 13 29) Which statement best describes nutrient density? A) Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the same old thing. B) Consume a variety of foods from the five major food groups every day. C) Plan your entire day's diet so that you juggle nutrient sources. D) Consume foods that have the most nutrients for their calories. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 23 30) Which of the following foods has the greatest nutrient density? A) 2 cups strawberry Life Savers (200 kcal) B) 1 cup strawberry Life Savers (100 kcal) C) 8 fluid ounces strawberry soda (100 kcal) D) 1 cup fresh strawberries (100 kcal) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 23 31) Assuming each has the same number of calories, which has the greatest nutrient density? A) 1 medium fresh orange B) cup orange juice C) 2 Thin Mint Girl Scout cookies D) 1 oz. orange Lifesaver candies Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 23 32) Including fiber in your diet is beneficial to your GI tract, but consuming excess amounts of fiber can result in the loss of nutrients. This statement is an example of which of the following factors to consider in planning diets? A) adequacy B) calorie control C) variety D) moderation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 13 33) Healthier fat sources include ________ and canola oil. A) butter B) lard C) margarine D) olive oil Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 18 34) Which of the following is NOT one of the six components for physical health found in MyPyramid? A) moderation B) balance C) proportionality D) activity Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 35) The fruits section of MyPyramid emphasizes "focus on fruits" and encourages the consumption of all of the following EXCEPT: A) fruit juice. B) canned fruit. C) dried fruit. D) frozen fruit. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 36) ________ is the slogan used by MyPyramid to encourage gradual improvements in diet and lifestyle. A) Five a Day to a Better Health B) Steps to a Healthier You C) You Are What You Eat D) Take One Day at a Time Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 37) Why are there 12 possible pyramids generated by the MyPyramid.gov Web site? A) to account for differences in estimating portion sizes B) to account for individual variances in gender, age, and activity level C) to account for both children's and adults' dietary requirements D) to allow for personal preferences Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 38) According to MyPyramid, which of the following foods would count towards an individual's discretionary calorie allowance? A) margarine B) soft drinks C) alcohol D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 21 39) Which of the following recommendations is emphasized in the grains group of MyPyramid? A) Make half your grains whole. B) Choose grains low in fats and added sugars. C) Focus on fiber. D) Find your balance between enriched and whole grains. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 40) As an alternative to the USDA's Food Guide Pyramid, the Harvard School of Public Health created an alternative called the: A) Vegetarian Pyramid. B) Healthy Eating Pyramid. C) Mediterranean Pyramid. D) Low-Carbohydrate Pyramid. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 36 True/False Questions 1) The earliest discoveries in the field of nutrition focused on nutritional deficiencies. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 3 2) Over the past twenty years, obesity rates in the United States have not changed significantly. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 4 3) Macronutrients are compounds that the body cannot make and must obtain from food. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 5 4) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are the only nutrients in foods that provide energy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 5 5) Because water doesn't provide any calories to the body, scientists do not consider it a nutrient. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 8 6) Alcohol is a nutrient that provides energy to the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 5 7) Of all the senses, the sense of smell is the most important determinant of what foods we eat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 9 8) Fat is an important energy source for muscles during low-intensity activity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 9) Protein's primary role is to provide energy for the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 10) Minerals are classified by their pH; major minerals have a pH > 7.0 and trace minerals are ones with a pH < 7.0. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 8 11) Minerals contain 4 kcal/gram. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 8 12) Because they are needed in relatively large quantities, vitamins and minerals are considered meganutrients. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 7 13) The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) include an upper level of safety for all known nutrients. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 14 14) The Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) is a nutrient standard used to approximate the energy needs of growing infants and children based on age, weight, height, and gender. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 14 15) The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) meet the nutrient needs of 97 to 98% of healthy people in a particular life stage and gender group. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 14 16) In most states, the term nutritionist has no definition or laws regulating it. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 30 17) The last item on an ingredient list is the predominant ingredient in that food product. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 27 18) Nutrient information required for food labels is based on an energy intake level of 2,000 calories a day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 29 19) Food labeling regulations allow manufacturers to omit the footnote of the Nutrition Facts Panel on smaller products. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 29 20) Individuals who follow specific religious or cultural practices cannot use MyPyramid to design a healthful diet. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 25 21) One of the limitations of MyPyramid is that the portion recommendations may not be equal to the common sizes of foods Americans buy, prepare, and serve. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 23 22) MyPyramid recommends that all grains sources be whole-grain choices. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 19 Short Answer Questions 1) We express the energy derived from food in units called ________. Answer: kilocalories/calories, kcal Page Ref: 6 2) ________ describes a multidimensional, lifelong process that includes physical, emotional, and spiritual health. Answer: Wellness Page Ref: 3 3) Although not considered a nutrient, ________ is an energy-yielding chemical found in the diet. Answer: alcohol Page Ref: 5 4) ________ are the chemicals found in foods that are critical to human growth and function. Answer: Nutrients Page Ref: 5 5) The primary source of fuel for the body is ________. Answer: carbohydrate Page Ref: 6 6) ________ are a classification of nutrients needed in relatively small amounts by the body. Answer: Micronutrients Page Ref: 7 7) Major minerals are needed in amounts greater than ________ per day. Answer: 100 mg Page Ref: 8 8) In both the United States and Canada, the ________ are a group of revised nutritional reference standards established to prevent deficiency disease and reduce the risk for chronic disease. Answer: Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) Page Ref: 14 9) A(n) ________ is a health professional who has earned a bachelor's degree, has completed extensive nutrition-related course work, and has successfully completed a national dietetics exam. Answer: registered dietitian Page Ref: 30 10) The amount of nutrients contained in a food compared with the amount of calories is referred to as ________. Answer: nutrient density Page Ref: 23 11) The ________ on a food package contains the nutrition information on that product. Answer: Nutrition Facts Panel Page Ref: 27-28 12) Required on all food products, ________ is a common name of the item that clearly describes its contents. Register to View Answerstatement of identity Page Ref: 27 13) Provided on the Nutrition Facts Panel, the ________ tell the consumer how much a serving of the food contributes to the recommended overall daily intake of nutrients. Answer: percent daily values (%DVs) Page Ref: 29 14) MyPyramid was developed by the ________. Answer: United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Page Ref: 27 15) The ________ was developed by the Harvard School of Public Health to address limitations of the Food Guide Pyramid. Answer: Healthy Eating Pyramid Page Ref: 26 16) Consuming alcoholic beverages in moderation is defined as no more than ________ drink(s) for women and no more than ________ drink(s) for men per day. Answer: one; two Page Ref: 16 17) A new concept included in MyPyramid is ________, or the extra amount of energy one consumes after meeting all other essential nutrient needs. Answer: discretionary calories Page Ref: 21 18) ________ is the misrepresentation of a product, program, or service for financial gain. Answer: Quackery Page Ref: 30 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) DRI Page Ref: 14 2) EAR Page Ref: 14 3) RDA Page Ref: 14 4) AI Page Ref: 15 5) UL Page Ref: 15 6) EER Page Ref: 15 7) AMDR Page Ref: 15 A) Average energy intake recommended for energy balance in healthy adults B) An updated set of nutritional reference values that apply to healthy people C) Average daily nutrient intake level that meets the needs of half of all healthy individuals D) Recommended range of caloric intakes for the energy-yielding nutrients E) When an RDA has yet to be established, this daily nutrient value serves as the recommended adequate intake level F) Average daily nutrient intake level that meets or exceeds the need of 97 to 98% of healthy individuals G) Highest average daily nutrient intake level of a nutrient thought to be safe Answers: 1) B 2) C 3) F 4) E 5) G 6) A 7) D Match the following items. 8) Adequacy Page Ref: 12 9) Balance Page Ref: 13 10) Moderation Page Ref: 13 11) Variety Page Ref: 13 12) Nutrient density Page Ref: 23 13) Healthful diet Page Ref: 12 A) Provides enough energy, nutrients, and fiber to maintain health B) Relative amount of nutrients per amount of energy (number of calories) C) Eating many different foods each day D) Provides the proper combination of energy and nutrients and is adequate, moderate, balanced, and varied E) Containing the proper proportion of nutrients F) Eating enough, but not too much, of the right amounts of foods to optimize the body's function Answers: 8) A 9) E 10) F 11) C 12) B 13) D Essay Questions 1) What is the difference between hunger and appetite? Explain how external cues influence our consumption of food. Page Ref: 9-10 2) Describe and explain the four characteristics of a healthful diet. Page Ref: 11-14 3) The USDA released MyPyramid in 2005. Describe this new food guidance system and explain the six major components. Page Ref: 19 4) The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for most nutrients consist of four separate values: Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA), Adequate Intake (AI), and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). Explain what each of these values represents. Page Ref: 14-15 5) Discuss the trustworthy sources of nutrition information a consumer could utilize to evaluate fraudulent or deceptive nutrition information in the media. Page Ref: 30-31 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) The ________ is the premier public health agency in the United States working to protect the health and safety of people. A) ASN B) CDC C) NCI D) ADA Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 31 2) Dr. Taylor is conducting a study in her introductory Biology class to determine if taking vitamin W can improve tests scores on the first exam. She puts all of her students' names in a hat and has her teaching assistant draw names to determine which students will be placed in the control or the experimental group. The experimental group receives a capsule of vitamin W while the control group receives a "sugar pill" that tastes and looks identical to the vitamin capsule. Dr. Taylor, her teaching assistant and the students do not know who is receiving the experimental or control treatment. This experiment is best described as: A) single blind, random selection. B) double-blind, placebo controlled. C) single-blind, random selection, placebo controlled. D) double-blind, random selection, placebo controlled. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 34 3) A hypothesis is also known as a research question. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 33 4) Double-blind studies are generally not reliable because there is a conflict of interest between the researchers and participants. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 34 5) A ________ represents a hypothesis or group of hypotheses that have been confirmed through repeated scientific experiments. Answer: theory Page Ref: 33 6) ________ studies assess nutritional habits, disease trends, or other health phenomena of large populations and determine the factors that may influence these phenomena. Answer: Epidemiological (or observational) Page Ref: 33 7) Describe the major steps of the scientific method. Page Ref: 32-33 1) ________ are organs that are grouped together to perform an integrated function. A) Molecules B) Tissues C) Systems D) Organelles Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 2) The ________ is most responsible for prompting individuals to seek food. A) stomach B) small intestine C) hypothalamus D) mouth Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 3) Which physiological trigger(s) will result in the sensation of hunger? A) low glucose levels B) high glucose levels C) release of the chemical messengers leptin and serotonin D) eating a meal with a high satiety value Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 43 4) Hunger is best described as: A) a physiological desire to find food and eat. B) a psychological desire to find food and eat. C) eating that is often driven by environmental cues. D) eating that is often driven by emotional cues. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 5) Which of the following is NOT a regulator of satiety in the body? A) GI tract B) hypothalamus C) hormones D) kidneys Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 43 6) Which of the following snacks will have the highest satiety value, assuming the calories and relative size are similar? A) slice of whole-grain bread B) piece of cheese C) glass of whole milk D) glass of skim milk Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 43 7) The smallest units of matter that cannot be broken down by natural means are: A) atoms. B) molecules. C) cells. D) lipids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 40 8) The human body is organized into the following structural levels (smallest to largest): A) molecules: atoms: organs: systems: tissues: cells. B) atoms: molecules: cells: tissues: organs: systems. C) organs: tissues: molecules: systems: atoms: organs. D) atoms: cells: systems: tissues: molecules: organs. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 41 9) Cell membranes are: A) very rigid and resistant to all noncellular molecules. B) semi-permeable. C) the organelles responsible for ATP production. D) chemical messengers that are secreted into the bloodstream by a gland. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 40 10) In which organelle is the cell's DNA located? A) nucleus B) mitochondria C) cell membrane D) cytoplasm Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 11) The "powerhouses" of the cell that produces energy from food molecule are the: A) mitochondria. B) ribosomes. C) nuclei. D) cytoplasm. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 12) What is the term that describes the process by which the foods we eat are broken down into smaller components by either mechanical or chemical means? A) digestion B) absorption C) elimination D) peristalsis Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 44 13) Which of the following is NOT a role that the liver plays in digestion and absorption of nutrients? A) Filters the blood removing potential toxins such as alcohol and drugs. B) Secretes insulin and glucagon to assist in the regulation of blood glucose concentrations. C) Receives the products of digestion from the small intestine and releases nutrients depending on body needs. D) Synthesizes bile to assist in the digestion and absorption of fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52 14) Most digestion and absorption occurs in the: A) stomach. B) esophagus. C) small intestine. D) mouth. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 15) Juanita eats her breakfast and his GI tract will now begin the process of digesting and absorbing the nutrients from this meal. What is the order in which each of the organs of the GI tract will work to achieve this process? A) mouth: esophagus: small intestine: stomach: large intestine B) mouth: esophagus: stomach: small intestine: large intestine C) mouth: stomach: esophagus: small intestine: large intestine D) mouth: stomach: esophagus: large intestine: small intestine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 45 16) The mechanical and chemical digestion of food is initiated in the: A) mouth. B) small intestine. C) stomach. D) esophagus. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 45-46 17) Salivary amylase is a(n): A) hormone. B) antibody. C) bicarbonate. D) enzyme. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 18) Which best explains why carbohydrate digestion ceases when food reaches the stomach? A) Carbohydrate is completely digested in the mouth. B) Salivary amylase cannot function in the acid environment of the stomach. C) Carbohydrate is completely absorbed in the esophagus. D) Intestinal bacteria are needed for carbohydrate digestion. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 19) Which of the following is NOT a component of the gastric juices? A) hydrochloric acid B) pepsin C) insulin D) gastric lipase Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 48 20) What is chyme? A) ulcerations of the esophageal lining B) healthy bacteria of the small intestine C) mixture of partially digested food, water, and gastric juices D) substance that allows for the emulsification of dietary lipid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 48 21) A primary function of the mucus in the stomach is to: A) neutralize stomach acid. B) activate pepsinogen to form pepsin. C) protect stomach cells from digestion. D) emulsify fats. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 48 22) Which of the macronutrients is NOT broken down chemically in the stomach? A) protein. B) carbohydrate. C) fat. D) vitamin C. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 23) Proteins that induce chemical changes to speed up body processes are called: A) hormones. B) peptides. C) enzymes. D) chymes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 24) The brush border is located in the: A) esophagus. B) stomach. C) small intestine. D) large intestine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 50 25) What is the name of the sphincter that separates the esophagus and the stomach? A) pyloric B) gastroesophageal C) ileocecal D) rectal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 47 26) The last section of the small intestine that connects to the ileocecal valve is called the: A) bile duct. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) ileum. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 27) Responding to the presence of fat in our meal, the gallbladder releases a substance called: A) lipase. B) pepsin. C) chyme. D) bile. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 28) Which of the following organs is responsible for the manufacturing and secretion of insulin and glucagon, as well as many digestive enzymes? A) liver B) stomach C) pancreas D) gallbladder Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 29) The fingerlike projections of the small intestine that increase surface area and allow for the absorption of nutrients are called: A) villi. B) lacteals. C) sphincters. D) diverticuli. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 50 30) Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries most of the fat-soluble nutrients? A) vascular B) mesenteric C) lymphatic D) enterohepatic Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 51 31) Which large vessel transports absorbed nutrients to the liver? A) portal vein B) pulmonary vein C) aorta D) subclavian vein Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52 32) In which organ does the majority of water absorption occur? A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52 33) Collectively, the nerves of the gastrointestinal tract are referred to as: A) peptic nerves. B) hepatic nerves. C) enteric nerves. D) gastric nerves. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 53 34) If a person has GERD, the ________ is malfunctioning. A) gallbladder B) pancreas C) epiglottis D) gastroesophageal sphincter Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 56 35) What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? A) stress B) H. pylori bacteria C) prolonged use of aspirin D) eating too many spicy foods Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 57 36) Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment approach for someone who has GERD? A) surgical removal of the gallbladder B) omission of all lactose foods C) antibiotic therapy D) lose weight and quit smoking Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 56 37) Which of the following statements best describes irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)? A) an erosion of the gastrointestinal tract caused by the overproduction of hydrochloric acid B) an immune response resulting from the ingestion of an allergen C) a hypersensitivity to wheat resulting in diarrhea and bloating D) a bowel disorder that interferes with the colon; no definite cause is known Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 61 38) Mary experiences anaphylactic shock after eating a peanut butter sandwich. What is the most appropriate treatment for Mary? A) IV glucose B) Tylenol or another pain medication C) antibiotics D) epinephrine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 59 39) What are probiotics? A) specialty foods to which nutrients have been added B) antibiotics that are specific to harmful bacteria while protecting healthful bacteria C) live microorganisms naturally found in or supplemented to food products D) foods known to have disease-fighting effects Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 54 40) Which of the following food sources is a rich source of probiotics? A) whole-wheat bread B) yogurt C) orange juice D) calcium supplements Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 54 True/False Questions 1) Atoms are the smallest units of matter. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 40 2) The cell's nucleus is the organelle responsible for producing energy from food molecules. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 3) Hunger is the physical sensation that drives humans to eat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 4) The primary organ producing the sensation of hunger is the stomach. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 42 5) Foods containing carbohydrate have the highest satiety value. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 43 6) Overall, very little digestion occurs in the human mouth. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 7) Typically, ingested food remains in the stomach for 2 hours prior to traveling to the small intestine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 48 8) The pancreas is the largest digestive organ. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52 9) The small intestine is the longest portion of the human GI tract. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 48 10) The majority of nutrient absorption takes place in the stomach. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 11) Since they do not require further digestion, dietary vitamins and minerals are small enough to be absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 50-51 12) The presence of any bacteria in the large intestine indicates a potentially serious systemic allergic reaction that can be fatal if left untreated. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 53 13) The most common symptom of GERD is chronic diarrhea. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 56 14) Irritable bowel syndrome is more common among women than men. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 61 15) The sigmoid colon is the first segment of the large intestine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52 16) Food allergies cause an immune response by the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 59 17) Most instances of constipation are caused by intestinal bacteria. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 61 18) Diarrhea and dehydration are the most serious potential reactions when consuming an allergenic food product. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 59 19) Untreated diarrhea can be fatal in young children. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 61 20) Currently, the only treatment for celiac disease is a diet free of wheat, barley, & rye. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 60 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is the liquid within an animal cell. Answer: cytoplasm Page Ref: 42 2) ________ is the physiological sensation that encourages us to seek out food. Answer: Hunger Page Ref: 42 3) The ________ is the region of the forebrain where physiological signals are translated into thirst and hunger messages. Answer: hypothalamus Page Ref: 42 4) Secreted from many glands of the body, ________ are chemical messengers that trigger a physiological response. Answer: hormones Page Ref: 43 5) The macronutrient with the highest satiety value is ________. Answer: protein Page Ref: 43 6) The ________ is the smallest unit of life that exhibits the properties of growth, reproduction, and metabolism. Answer: cell Page Ref: 40 7) ________ are the smallest units of matter in nature. Answer: Atoms Page Ref: 40 8) A(n) ________ is a functional grouping of similar cells. Answer: tissue Page Ref: 42 9) ________ are tight rings of muscles that control the movement of food through the organs of the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: Sphincters Page Ref: 45 10) The human GI tract is approximately ________ feet long. Answer: 30 Page Ref: 45 11) Chemical digestion begins in the ________. Answer: mouth Page Ref: 46 12) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________ and protein digestion begins in the ________. Answer: mouth; stomach Page Ref: 46 and 48 13) Once food is swallowed, the ________ keeps it from entering the trachea. Answer: epiglottis Page Ref: 46 14) ________ is the wavelike contractions that move food along the GI tract. Answer: Peristalsis Page Ref: 47 15) The major site of nutrient absorption in the body is the ________. Answer: small intestine Page Ref: 49 16) ________ is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder; emulsifies fats in the small intestine. Answer: Bile Page Ref: 49 17) The ________ is a term that describes the microvilli of the small intestine's lining, which greatly increase its absorptive capacity. Answer: brush border Page Ref: 50 18) ________ nerves are the nerves of the GI tract. Answer: Enteric Page Ref: 53 19) The semifluid mass consisting of partially digested food, water, and gastric juices is called ________. Answer: chyme Page Ref: 48 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Cell Page Ref: 40 2) Nucleus Page Ref: 42 3) Mitochondria Page Ref: 42 4) Cell membrane Page Ref: 40-42 5) Cytoplasm Page Ref: 42 6) Atom Page Ref: 40 A) Gatekeeper B) Smallest unit of life C) Smallest unit of matter D) Organelles that converts nutrients into energy E) Fluid material of the cell F) DNA material found here Answers: 1) B 2) F 3) D 4) A 5) E 6) C Using the figure, label A - J. 7) ________ Gallbladder Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 8) ________ Small intestine Answer: I Page Ref: 48 9) ________ Esophagus Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 47 10) ________ Liver Answer: H Page Ref: 52 11) ________ Pancreas Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 12) ________ Large intestine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52-53 13) ________ Stomach Answer: G Page Ref: 48 14) ________ Salivary glands Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 15) ________ Mouth Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 46 16) ________ Rectum Answer: J Page Ref: 53 17) ________ Secretes digestive enzymes, insulin, and glucagon Answer: H Page Ref: 52 18) ________ Most digestion and absorption occurs here. Answer: I Page Ref: 49 19) ________ Most water is absorbed here. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 52-53 20) ________ Stores bile Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 49 Essay Questions 1) Starting at the mouth and ending at the rectum, describe the process of human digestion and absorption. Page Ref: 44-53 2) Describe the symptoms and treatment of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Page Ref: 61-62 3) Describe the lining of the small intestine. How does its unique structure contribute to the process of nutrient absorption? Page Ref: 50-53 4) What is the difference between a food intolerance and a food allergy? Page Ref: 58-59 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Probiotics have been shown to be effective in treating all of the following health problems EXCEPT: A) Travelers' diarrhea B) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Childhood eczema D) Diabetes mellitus Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 54 2) When traveling outside the country, which of the following are good strategies to help prevent Travelers' diarrhea? A) Drink only brand-name bottled beverages. B) Do not eat raw meat, fish or shellfish. C) Avoid eating food purchased from street vendors. D) All of the above are good strategies to help prevent Travelers' diarrhea. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 62 3) Because the activity of probiotics in the GI tract is short-lived, they need to be consumed on a daily basis to be effective. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 54 4) Alcohol, stress, and spicy foods are the leading causes of peptic ulcers. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 57 5) What are probiotics and how are they involved in keeping us healthy? Page Ref: 54 1) Which of the following carbohydrates is the end product of photosynthesis? A) glycogen B) galactose C) lactose D) glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 67 2) Single units (molecules) of carbohydrates are called: A) fatty acids. B) amino acids. C) monosaccharides. D) calories. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 68 3) A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of: A) two monosaccharides. B) two polysaccharides. C) one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide. D) two oligosaccharides. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 68 4) What is the major monosaccharide found in fruit? A) glucose B) fructose C) galactose D) glycogen Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 68 5) Dietary sources of fructose include: A) milk and cheese. B) high-fructose corn syrup. C) fruits. D) both B and C Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 68 6) Which of the following is a disaccharide? A) maltose B) fructose C) galactose D) glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 69 7) When galactose and glucose are bonded together, they form: A) table sugar. B) malt sugar. C) milk sugar. D) fruit sugar. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 69 8) The term complex carbohydrates refers to: A) monosaccharides. B) disaccharides. C) polysaccharides. D) glucose. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 69 9) Found in liver and skeletal muscle cells, ________ is the storage form of glucose in animals. A) fructose B) starch C) glycogen D) raffinose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 10) In the body, the major storage sites for glycogen are the: A) muscles and liver. B) kidney and muscles. C) liver and kidney. D) liver and pancreas. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 11) Which of the following enzymes, involved in breaking down CHO, is found in the mouth? A) lactase B) maltase C) pancreatic amylase D) salivary amylase Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 75 12) The only non-plant source of carbohydrates are foods derived from: A) butter. B) milk. C) fish. D) chicken. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 67 13) Gluconeogenesis is: A) the synthesis of new glucose from amino acids. B) the release of stored glycogen from the liver. C) the process by which plants use sunlight to synthesize glucose. D) the uptake of glucose by the body's cells. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 14) During periods of rest and low intensity activity the body uses ________ as its predominant fuel source. A) fat B) ketones C) carbohydrate D) vitamins Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 73 15) Insulin is secreted by the: A) brain. B) liver. C) pancreas. D) gallbladder. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 77 16) Which of the following hormones is released when your blood glucose levels fall too low? A) insulin B) estrogen C) bile D) glucagon Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 78-79 17) After a meal, which hormone is responsible for moving glucose into the body's cells? A) glucagon B) estrogen C) CCK D) insulin Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 78-79 18) Which of the following BEST describes the glycemic index? A) an individual's glucose/insulin ratio in a fasted state B) the amount of insulin required to metabolize 100 grams of glucose C) the glucose content of a given food D) the potential of a given food to raise blood glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 79 19) Glucose is the preferred source of energy for which of the following? A) brain B) red blood cells C) nerve cells D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 67 20) In the absence of carbohydrate, ________ are produced from body fat as an alternative fuel for the brain. A) amyloses B) amylases C) ketones D) bacteria Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 21) Which of the following is associated with the development of ketosis? A) a diet that contains too much fat B) a diet that contains insufficient fat C) a diet that contains too much carbohydrate D) a diet that contains insufficient carbohydrate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 22) All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance EXCEPT: A) bad breath. B) diarrhea. C) gas. D) nausea. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 76 23) Increased fiber intake is associated with an decreased risk of developing: A) kidney stones. B) dental caries. C) diabetes. D) diverticulosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 24) The fiber that is manufactured and added to foods and fiber supplements is called: A) functional fiber. B) total fiber. C) essential fiber. D) dietary fiber. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 71 25) Which of the following health benefits is associated with consumption of soluble fibers? A) regular bowel movements B) reduced risk of diverticulitis C) reduced risk of type 2 diabetes D) alleviating constipation. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 71 26) In healthy individuals, the RDA for carbohydrate is: A) 75 grams/day. B) 100 grams/day. C) 130 grams/day. D) 160 grams/day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 80 27) Which of the following is associated with diets high in added sugars? A) hyperactivity B) tooth decay C) diabetes D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 81-84 28) Sugar alcohols are most often used in which of the following products? A) diet sodas B) baked confections C) chewing gums D) infant formulas Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 82 29) The brand name for sucralose is: A) Sunette. B) Splenda. C) Sweet One. D) Equal. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 82 30) Individuals with the disease PKU (phenylketonuria) should not consume the artificial sweetener aspartame. Why? A) People with PKU are highly prone to development of diabetes. B) People with PKU are allergic to the sweetener. C) People with PKU experience severe headaches when they consume aspartame. D) People with PKU cannot metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 82 31) Jose's physician has recommended that he increase his fiber intake. When buying bread what should Jose look for on the label that will help him consume more fiber each day? A) whole-wheat flour B) enriched wheat flour C) fortified wheat flour D) unbleached wheat flour Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 85 32) ________ describes the generation of glucose from the breakdown of proteins into amino acids. A) Ketosis B) Gluconeogenesis C) Lipolysis D) Glycolysis Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 33) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of type 2 diabetes? A) arises most commonly during adulthood B) insulin resistance or insensitivity C) often associated with obesity D) develops during pregnancy Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93-94 34) Why can't insulin therapy be taken orally by individuals with type 1 diabetes? A) Insulin is only manufactured in an injectable form. B) Insulin is a protein and if taken orally will be digested in the intestines. C) Oral insulin takes too long to reach the blood stream, so is unable to affect blood glucose levels. D) Insulin causes severe gastrointestinal distress when taken orally. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 35) Diabetes is a chronic disease in which the body doesn't process ________ properly. A) vitamins B) amino acids C) glucose D) fatty acids Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 92 36) In type 1 diabetes, the ________ may be destroyed by an autoimmune disease. A) hepatocytes of the liver B) beta cells of the pancreas C) neurotransmitters of the brain D) glomerulus cells of the kidney Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 37) Which of the following is associated with type 2 diabetes? A) autoimmune disease B) obesity C) prone to ketosis D) body fails to produce insulin Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94 38) Peggy Sue's doctor has just informed her that she has type 2 diabetes. Which of the following would be recommended for Peggy Sue? A) Peggy Sue should be encouraged to lose weight by modifying her diet and adding activity to her day. B) Peggy Sue should increase her fiber intake to a minimum of 35 grams/day. C) Peggy Sue should restrict all dairy products or use a lactase enzyme. D) Peggy Sue should start a low-carbohydrate diet immediately. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94-95 39) Lactose intolerance is due to a(n): A) deficiency of lactose. B) deficiency of lactase. C) deficiency of the GI flora (healthy bacteria). D) allergy to casein (milk protein). Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 76 40) Yogurt is tolerated better than milk by many lactase-deficient people because: A) yogurt has no lactose. B) bacteria in yogurt breaks down lactose. C) it has a thicker consistency. D) yogurt is acidic. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 76 True/False Questions 1) Carbohydrates are molecules made up of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 67 2) Glucose is the most abundant sugar in our bodies. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 68 3) Honey and maple syrup are rich food sources of maltose. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 69 4) When consumed, a high-glycemic-index food can cause a sudden rise in blood glucose levels. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 79 5) Overconsumption of simple sugars causes hyperactivity and behavioral problems in children. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 83 6) There is no scientific evidence that proves that eating a diet high in sugar causes diabetes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 84 7) Sweetened soft drinks are the most common source of added sugars in the American diet. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 81 8) The Tolerable Upper Intake Level for sugar is 100 grams a day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 84 9) Ketones are the primary fuel sources for the brain. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 74 10) In general, Americans do not consume recommended amounts of fiber in their diets. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 85 11) Research has proven that alternative sweeteners are not safe for children. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 82 12) Protection against heart disease is a potential benefit of a diet rich in simple sugar. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 84 13) Eating too much fiber can have adverse effects. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 85 14) People with type 1 diabetes cannot make enough insulin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 84 15) Moderate weight loss can reduce or eliminate the symptoms of type 2 diabetes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94-95 16) Insulin therapy can be administered by an oral medication or by injection. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 95 17) Type 2 diabetes is seen only in adults. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94 18) Alcohol consumption can result in hypoglycemia for people with diabetes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 95 19) Lactose intolerance is the consequence of a milk allergy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 76 20) Diabetes is a disease in which the blood glucose levels remain chronically low. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 92 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ carbohydrates include the monosaccharides and disaccharides. Answer: Simple Page Ref: 68 2) In photosynthesis, the pigment ________ absorbs sunlight to make glucose. Answer: chlorophyll Page Ref: 67 3) Sucrose is composed of the monosaccharides ________ and ________. Answer: glucose; fructose Page Ref: 69 4) ________ is the storage form of glucose in animals. Answer: Glycogen Page Ref: 72 5) The majority of carbohydrate digestion and absorption occurs in the ________. Answer: small intestine Page Ref: 76 6) In the body, glycogen is stored in the ________ and the ________. Answer: liver; muscle Page Ref: 76 7) When we eat a meal, blood glucose levels rise and the hormone ________ is released from the pancreas to assist in moving glucose into body's cells. Answer: insulin Page Ref: 78 8) The term ________ refers to the production of new glucose from the breakdown of protein. Answer: gluconeogenesis Page Ref: 79 9) The ________ rates foods on their potential to raise blood glucose levels. Answer: glycemic index Page Ref: 79 10) Inadequate intake of carbohydrate over an extended period of time can result in a dangerous condition known as ________ where the blood becomes very acidic. Answer: ketoacidosis Page Ref: 74 11) The muscles use ________ as a primary energy source during rest and low-intensity exercise. Answer: fat Page Ref: 73 12) A lack of fiber in the diet can lead to pockets that protrude from the wall of the large intestine in the disease called ________. Answer: diverticulosis Page Ref: 71 13) Ketones are produced for energy when ________ is broken down because ________ intake is insufficient. Answer: fat; carbohydrate Page Ref: 74 14) The AI for fiber is ________ grams/day for women and ________ grams/day for men. Answer: 25; 38 Page Ref: 85 15) Lactose intolerance is due to lack of the enzyme ________. Answer: lactase Page Ref: 76 16) ________ refers to blood glucose levels that are below normal levels. Answer: Hypoglycemia Page Ref: 79 Matching Questions For each of the following characteristics, indicate whether it is associated with: A = type 1 diabetes B = type 2 diabetes C = both 1) ________ Usually develops early in life (10 to 14 years of age) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 2) ________ Associated with obesity Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94 3) ________ Autoimmune disease Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 4) ________ More likely to develop after age 45 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94 5) ________ High levels of blood glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 92 6) ________ Insulin therapy is always needed. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 7) ________ Increasing prevalence among children and adolescents Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 94 8) ________ Insulin insensitivity Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 93 Match the following items. 9) Glycogen Page Ref: 72 10) Starch Page Ref: 70 11) Fiber Page Ref: 70 12) Lactose Page Ref: 69 13) Maltose Page Ref: 69 14) Glucose Page Ref: 68 A) Storage form of carbohydrate in plants B) Storage form of carbohydrate in animals C) Disaccharide found in beer D) Polysaccharide not digested by humans E) Primary source of energy for the body's cells F) Carbohydrate in milk Answers: 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) F 13) C 14) E Essay Questions 1) Your friend tells you that he wants to lose weight and has chosen to go on a low-carbohydrate diet. What would you say to your friend about this decision? How does the body respond when there is inadequate intake of dietary carbohydrate? Page Ref: 74 2) Discuss how the human body regulates blood glucose levels. What hormonal factors are responsible for this control? Page Ref: 77-79 3) Describes the health consequences of eating a diet high in added sugars. Page Ref: 83-84 4) Fiber has many health benefits. Discuss the health benefits of fiber and how to incorporate more fiber into the diet. Page Ref: 93 5) Describe the characteristics, similarities, and differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Page Ref: 93 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Which portion of the wheat kernel contains most of the vitamins and minerals? A) husk. B) germ. C) endosperm. D) bran Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 2) Infants should not be fed honey until age: A) three months. B) six months C) one year. D) two years. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 70 3) Within the grain kernel, the endosperm is the region with the highest fiber content. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 4) Honey is more nutrient-dense than table sugar. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 70 5) The ________ is an estimate determined by the FDA of the amount of a sweetner that someone can consume each day over a lifetime without adverse effects. Answer: acceptable daily intake (ADI) Page Ref: 83 6) People with the disorder ________ should not consume aspartame. Answer: phenylketonuria (PKU) Page Ref: 82 Using the figure, label A - C. 7) Bran Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 8) Endosperm Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 9) Germ Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 72 10) Section of grain highest in fiber Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 79 11) Major constituent of milled white wheat flour Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 79 12) Contains most of the grain's vitamins and minerals Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 79 1) Which of the following describes lipids? A) nutrients that are insoluble in water B) nutrients that are synthesized from amino acids C) nutrients that contain nitrogen D) nutrients that are calorie free Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 99 2) Which lipid is soluble in water? A) fatty acids B) triglycerides C) sterols D) phospholipids Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 3) Most fat in the diet is in the form of: A) sterols. B) triglycerides. C) phospholipids. D) glycerols. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 99 4) A triglyceride includes: A) three fatty acids and one glycerol. B) three glycerols and one fatty acid. C) three phospholipids and one glycerol. D) three glycerols and one phospholipid. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 100 5) Which of the following foods are high in saturated fatty acids? A) corn and soybean oils B) salmon and trout C) butter and lard D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 101 6) A fatty acid that contains no double bonds is termed: A) saturated. B) unsaturated. C) essential. D) nonessential. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 101 7) Which of the following fatty acids is generally solid at room temperature? A) short-chain B) saturated C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102 8) Which of the following foods are rich sources of monounsaturated fatty acids? A) palm and coconut oils B) olive and canola oils C) soy and corn oils D) butter and lard Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102 9) Which of the following is a rich source of polyunsaturated fatty acids? A) corn oil B) coconut oil C) beef fat D) butter Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 10) Which of the following foods is the richest source of omega-3 fatty acids? A) broccoli B) sirloin steak C) tofu D) salmon Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 104 11) The process of adding hydrogen to an unsaturated fatty acid and creating a more solid fat is called: A) emulsification. B) pressurization. C) hydrogenation. D) deamination. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 12) Diets high in trans fatty acids are associated with: A) decreased cancer risk. B) increased blood cholesterol levels. C) osteoporosis. D) decreased blood glucose levels. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 13) Which of the following statements is TRUE about trans fatty acids? A) They are made by the body in large quantities. B) They are essential and need to be obtained in the diet. C) They decrease the risk of developing heart disease. D) They result from the hydrogenation process. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102-103 14) Which of the following ingredients would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in a product? A) hydrogenated vegetable oil B) lecithin C) liquid corn oil D) vitamin E Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 15) Why are phospholipids NOT an essential nutrient? A) Our bodies manufacture phospholipids. B) Phospholipids are not naturally found in the healthy body. C) Beneficial GI bacteria produce phospholipids. D) They provide no useful function in the human body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 16) Transport vehicles for most lipids in the blood are called: A) lipoproteins. B) peptides. C) monoglycerides. D) glycerols. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 120 17) ________ is(are) the key structural component of a cell's membrane. A) Estrogen B) Glycerol C) Phospholipids D) Triglycerides Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 18) Sterols can be distinguished from other lipids due to their distinctive: A) multiple ring structure. B) double bonds. C) two glycerols and one fatty acid. D) 20 carbon structure. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 19) Sex hormones, bile and vitamin D are substances derived from which class of lipid? A) fatty acids B) triglycerides C) phospholipids D) sterols Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 107 20) All of the following organs assist in the digestion of lipids EXCEPT: A) the liver. B) the large intestine. C) the gallbladder. D) the pancreas. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 109-110 21) The vast majority of fat digestion and absorption occurs in the: A) stomach. B) liver. C) small intestine. D) large intestine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 110 22) To facilitate the digestion of dietary fats, the gallbladder stores and releases a substance known as: A) lipase. B) bile. C) hydrochloric acid. D) bicarbonate. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 110 23) Where in the body are the majority of triglycerides stored for future energy needs? A) lipoproteins B) beta cells of the pancreas C) liver D) adipose tissue Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 99 and 111 24) Trans fats are found naturally in: A) margarine. B) whole milk. C) crackers. D) Trans fats are not found naturally in foods, they are found only in processed foods. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102 25) Yesterday Margie consumed 1,560 kcal. Her meals included a total of 50 grams of fat. What percentage of calories of her day's intake came from fat? A) 13% B) 15% C) 29% D) 32% Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 116 26) Following a high-fat meal, specialized lipoproteins called ________ are created to transport dietary fat through the blood. A) micelles B) lipases C) chylomicrons D) biles Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 110 27) The two essential fatty acids are: A) cholesterol and bile. B) linoleic and alpha-linolenic acid. C) butyric and stearic acid. D) cis and trans. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103-104 28) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are made by the body from: A) trans fat. B) alpha-linolenic acid. C) linoleic acid. D) cholesterol. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 104 29) How does fat consumption relate to vitamin A, D, E, and K intake? A) These vitamins are normally highly unstable molecules and are stabilized by fatty acids. B) These vitamins require fats for their transport. C) Fats provide the energy required to move these large molecules across the intestinal wall. D) These vitamins are only found in animal sources. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 108 30) The longer an individual exercises, the more ________ is used for energy. A) fat B) glycogen C) glucose D) amino acids Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 108 31) Which of the following statements does NOT describe alpha-linolenic fatty acids? A) It is an omega-3 fatty acid. B) In the body it is transformed into arachidonic acid. C) Major dietary sources include leafy green vegetables and flaxseed oil. D) Has been show to reduce blood clotting and blood pressure. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103-104 32) One potential problem with a very low-fat diet is that it may be deficient in: A) phosphorus. B) cholesterol. C) trans fatty acids. D) essential fatty acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 33) Which of the following types of dietary fat is known to elevate blood cholesterol levels? A) saturated B) trans C) monounsaturated D) both A and B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 107 34) Which of the following foods contains invisible fats? A) olive oil B) zucchini C) chocolate cake D) butter Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 113-114 35) Which of the following health problems has been associated with high intakes of fat replacers? A) allergies B) gastrointestinal distress C) elevated blood cholesterol levels D) hypertension Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 118 36) What is the leading cause of death in the United States? A) cancer B) cardiovascular disease C) diabetes D) infection Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 119 37) Diets high in ________ have been shown to decrease blood levels of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL). A) saturated fatty acids B) trans fatty acids C) omega-3 fatty acids D) omega-6 fatty acids Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 120 38) The production of HDL is increased by: A) exercise. B) simple sugars. C) extra calories. D) dietary cholesterol. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 121 39) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the process of hydrogenation? A) Hydrogenation creates trans fatty acids. B) Hydrogenation is the process in which hydrogen atoms are added to double bonds. C) Hydrogenation creates a "heart-healthy" product. D) Hydrogenation makes a product more solid at room temperature. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 40) Which of the following type of fish would be the most likely to contain contaminants? A) flounder B) sole C) swordfish D) mahi-mahi Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 118 41) The lipoprotein with the most protein is: A) chylomicron. B) high-density lipoprotein. C) low-density lipoprotein. D) very low density lipoprotein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 120 42) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration requires food manufacturers to list ________ content on the Nutrition Facts Panel of their products. A) phospholipid B) sterol C) essential fatty acid D) trans fatty acid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 True/False Questions 1) All lipids are liquid at room temperature. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 99 2) The human body synthesizes cholesterol. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 107 3) Fat is more energy dense than carbohydrate and protein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 107 4) Foods that are rich in saturated fatty acids are healthier choices than those that are high in unsaturated fatty acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102 5) Essential fatty acids must be consumed in the diet and cannot be made by our body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 6) Hydrogenation increases a fat's susceptibility to rancidity and shortens its shelf life. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 103 7) People attempting to lose weight will be most successful if they limit their consumption of fat to less than 15% of kilocalories. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 112 8) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans (2005) and the Institute of Medicine recommend that intake of trans fatty acids be kept to an absolute minimum. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 113 9) Triglycerides are composed of three glycerol molecules attached to one fatty acid chain. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 100 10) Olive oil is a low-calorie alternative to butter and margarine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 107 11) Research has demonstrated a very strong relationship between dietary fat consumption and an increased risk for breast cancer. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 126 12) In the United States, foods containing olestra are currently required to bear a label warning of potential gastrointestinal side effects. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 118 13) Diabetes decreases an individual's risk for developing heart disease. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 126 14) Most fats are a combination of monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, and saturated fatty acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105-106 15) Most saturated fats are liquid at room temperature. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 102 16) During times of weight gain, extra energy is stored as fat in our adipose tissue. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 108 17) Invisible fats are ones that are translucent at room temperature. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 114 18) High blood levels of HDLs are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 120 19) Studies show that very-low fat diets are essential for people to follow if they want to lose weight. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 112 20) Across racial and ethnic groups, cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death in the United States. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 119 21) Carbohydrate and protein are digested more quickly than fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 109 Short Answer Questions 1) Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols are the three types of ________. Answer: Lipid/fats Page Ref: 99 2) ________ are molecules consisting of three fatty acids attached to a three-carbon glycerol backbone. Answer: Triglycerides Page Ref: 100 3) A(n) ________ fatty acid has hydrogen atoms attached on diagonally opposite sides in the fatty acid chain. Answer: trans Page Ref: 102 4) ________ are lipids that contain multiple carbon-ring structures. Answer: Sterols Page Ref: 107 5) ________ is a process of adding hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fatty acids, making them more saturated and more solid at room temperature. Answer: Hydrogenation Page Ref: 103 6) The recommended intake of saturated fat is less than ________% of total energy. Answer: 7 Page Ref: 113 7) Bile is made in the ________ and stored in the ________. Answer: liver; gallbladder Page Ref: 110 8) ________ is the leading cause of death in the United States. Answer: Cardiovascular disease Page Ref: 119 9) The lipoprotein ________ transports cholesterol from tissues back to the liver for disposal. Answer: HDL (high-density lipoprotein) Page Ref: 120 10) Fatty acids travel in the blood within spherical compounds called ________. Answer: lipoproteins Page Ref: 120 11) A(n) ________ fatty acid contains no double bonds between carbons. Answer: saturated Page Ref: 101 12) A(n) ________ is a structure composed of bile and phospholipids that prepares dietary fat for absorption into the intestinal wall. Answer: micelle Page Ref: 110 13) ________ is the buildup of cholesterol in the arterial wall that hardens and blocks the arteries. Answer: Plaque Page Ref: 120 14) ________ fatty acids are those that the human body cannot synthesize; therefore, they must be consumed in the diet. Answer: Essential Page Ref: 103 15) Fat provides ________ kcals per gram. Answer: 9 Page Ref: 107 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Phospholipids Page Ref: 105 2) Saturated fatty acids Page Ref: 101 3) Monounsaturated fatty acids Page Ref: 102 4) Polyunsaturated fatty acids Page Ref: 102 5) Trans fatty acids Page Ref: 102-103 6) Sterol Page Ref: 107 A) Fatty acids that are lacking any double bonds along the chain B) Fatty acids that contain two or more double bonds along the chain C) Consist of glycerol backbone, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group D) Fatty acids that contain one double bond along the chain E) By-product of hydrogenating unsaturated fatty acids F) Lipid that has a ring structure Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) F Match the following items. 7) Micelle Page Ref: 110 8) Chylomicron Page Ref: 110 9) Glycerol Page Ref: 100 10) Triglyceride Page Ref: 100 11) LDL Page Ref: 120 12) HDL Page Ref: 120 A) Lipoprotein synthesized in the intestine to transport dietary fat to the body B) Small lipoproteins that assist in removing cholesterol from body tissues for disposal C) Loose spherical structure of bile and phospholipids that assists in the absorption of dietary fat D) Predominant dietary fat E) Three-carbon alcohol that serves as the backbone of a triglyceride molecule F) Lipoprotein that delivers cholesterol to the body's cells Answers: 7) C 8) A 9) E 10) D 11) F 12) B Essay Questions 1) What is hydrogenation? Why do food manufacturers utilize this process and what are the potential health impacts of hydrogenation? Page Ref: 103 2) Beginning with the mouth, describe the digestion and absorption of dietary fat. What is the fate of fat in the human body? Page Ref: 109-110 3) Juan has a strong family history of heart disease. What lifestyle & dietary factors are important for Juan to follow to decrease his risk of heart disease? Page Ref: 122-124 4) Why are certain fats essential for good health? List and discuss the various roles of the essential fatty acids in maintaining proper body function. Page Ref: 103-104 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Which of the following strategies is recommended for a heart-healthy diet? A) Limit the intake of nuts. B) Substitute higher-fat cheeses for lower-fat cheeses. C) Choose margarines with at least 2 grams of trans-fatty acids/serving. D) Add foods with omega-3 fatty acids to the diet, such as salmon and flaxseed Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 125 2) Butter and margarine are both rich sources of saturated fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 105 3) All low-fat products are low calorie. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 114 4) Sue is a 59-year old nurse trying to eat a more heart-healthy diet. Provide five practical suggestions for Sue and provide your rationale for each. Page Ref: 122-125 1) What element makes protein different from carbohydrate and fat? A) carbon B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) nitrogen Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 2) What dictates the structure of a protein molecule synthesized by the body? A) the body's need for a protein B) the DNA inside the nucleus of the cell C) the number of essential amino acids available D) the combination of proteins consumed in the diet Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 3) All of the following are parts of an amino acid molecule EXCEPT: A) a central carbon. B) an amine group. C) an acid group. D) a fatty acid group. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 131 4) The ________ gives each amino acid its distinct properties. A) side chain B) central carbon C) amine group D) acid group Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 131 5) The part of the protein molecule that carries nitrogen is the: A) acid group. B) amine group. C) side chain. D) hydrogen group. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 131 6) Polypeptides are strings of ________ amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. A) 1 to 2 B) 3 to 6 C) 7 to 9 D) 10 or more Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 7) Which of the following foods is a source of complete proteins? A) broccoli B) apple C) chicken D) whole-grain bread Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 8) When egg whites are whipped they stiffen into a meringue. The change that occurs in the protein is called: A) denaturation. B) translocation. C) transcription. D) deamination. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 9) The structure of a protein molecule is dictated by our: A) DNA. B) blood type. C) blood pH. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 10) The specific function of a protein is determined by: A) its sequence of amino acids. B) its length. C) its three-dimensional shape. D) its electric charge. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 11) In the human body, proteins are found: A) in muscle tissue. B) in bone tissue. C) in the blood. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 12) In order to synthesize hemoglobin the amino acid histidine is needed. If histidine is either missing or in short supply it is called the ________ amino acid. A) essential B) complete C) limiting D) restricting Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134-135 13) Which of the following is NOT a major function of protein in the human body? A) maintaining fluid balance B) providing energy to the body C) growth and maintenance of new tissue D) maintaining acid-base balance. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 14) All of the following are examples of protein hormones EXCEPT: A) insulin. B) thyroid. C) glucagon. D) testosterone. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 135 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) HCl denatures protein. B) HCl inhibits the digestion of fat. C) HCl breaks the strands of protein. D) HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 16) In the stomach, proteins are broken down into smaller peptides by: A) buffers. B) pepsin. C) saliva. D) insulin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 17) The process of combining two incomplete proteins to make a complete protein is called: A) the protein combining method. B) the amino acid sequencing method. C) mutual supplementation. D) protein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 18) Jorge is a reasonably healthy 21-year-old college student who is sedentary. He is 5' 11" tall and weighs 175 pounds. How many grams of protein would you recommend he consume each day? A) 45 grams B) 64 grams C) 76 grams D) 92 grams Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 139 19) Which of the following is NOT typically a nutrient of concern for vegans? A) iron B) vitamin B 12 C) vitamin C D) calcium Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 152 20) The type of vegetarian who consumes dairy products but excludes all other types of animal protein, is called a: A) vegan. B) lactovegetarian. C) lacto-ovo-vegetarian. D) pescovegetarian. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 148 21) Associated with times of famine, ________ is a type of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by a general lack of energy and nutrients. A) marasmus B) sickle cell anemia C) cystic fibrosis D) kwashiorkor Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 139 22) The proteins that help defend the body against bacteria, toxins and allergens are called: A) enzymes. B) antibodies. C) buffers. D) transport proteins. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 23) In the absence of adequate dietary carbohydrate the body can breakdown protein to provide glucose to the brain by a process known as: A) oxidation. B) gluconeogenesis. C) glycolysis. D) denaturation. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 24) Which of the following best describes denaturation? A) a scientific term for omitting animal foods from the diet B) a process in which DNA is translated into a protein molecule C) a chemical reaction that causes a protein to lose its shape and function D) an enzymatic action that breaks peptide bonds Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 25) Which of the following is the only complete vegetable protein? A) peanuts B) wheat C) corn D) soy Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 26) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding dietary protein intake in the United States? A) Most adults do not consume enough protein in their diets. B) Most adults consume more protein than they need. C) Vegetarians cannot get enough protein without using supplements. D) Athletes cannot get enough protein without using supplements. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 27) A complete protein: A) contains all twenty amino acids. B) contains all nine essential amino acids. C) has not been denatured. D) is composed of only di- and tripeptides. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 28) The absorption of proteins occurs in the: A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) large intestine. D) liver. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 29) Which of the following is used to measure protein quality? A) the amount of essential amino acids present B) the digestibility of the protein C) the pH of the protein D) both A and B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 139 30) Proteases are: A) protein messengers that are released from storage in response to an alteration in the body's homeostasis. B) transport proteins that move substances throughout the body. C) defense proteins that attack foreign bacteria, viruses, and toxins. D) enzymes that break down polypeptides. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 31) Which of the following proteins help maintain proper acid-base balance by attaching to or releasing hydrogen ions? A) antibodies B) enzymes C) buffers D) hormones Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 32) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The healthy body's primary energy source is carbohydrate and fat. B) The body stores excess protein primarily for energy reserves. C) To utilize protein for energy, the amine group is removed. D) Eating sufficient carbohydrate and fat will spare body protein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 33) Which of the following health problems has been associated with high protein intakes? A) elevated blood cholesterol B) marasmus C) edema D) sickle cell anemia Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 141 34) ________ is the waste product that forms when nitrogen is removed from the amine group during amino acid metabolism. A) Ketone B) Phosphofructokinase C) Urea D) Lactate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 143 35) Well-planned vegetarian diets can reduce the risk of all of the following chronic diseases EXCEPT: A) obesity. B) heart disease. C) anemia. D) cancer. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 150 36) The severe protein deficiency seen in toddlers when they are weaned from breast milk and fed a low protein diet is called: A) phenlyketouria. B) marasmus. C) kwashiorkor. D) cystic fibrosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 139 37) Mad cow disease is a fatal brain disorder caused by a: A) virus. B) bacteria. C) fungus. D) prion. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 149 38) What is edema? A) a pH imbalance of the blood B) an immune deficiency resulting from malnutrition C) a fluid imbalance that results in swelling of tissues D) a genetic disorder that causes protein abnormalities Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 136 39) After amino acids are absorbed in the small intestine they are transported by the blood stream directly to the: A) cell membrane. B) liver. C) skeletal muscles. D) large intestine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 40) Which of the following types of vegetarians eat mostly plant foods, eggs, and dairy but occasionally eat red meat, poultry and/or fish? A) flexitarian B) lactovegetarian C) carnivegetarian D) pescovegetarian Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 146-148 True/False Questions 1) Proteins are classified as micronutrients because they contain nitrogen. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 2) Essential amino acids are more important to the human body than nonessential amino acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 132 3) The three-dimensional shape of a protein determines the protein's function in the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 4) It is necessary to eat animal-based proteins to stay healthy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 150 5) Surveys show that most Americans eat only half their RDA for protein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 140 6) Unlike the other macronutrients, protein molecules contain the element nitrogen. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 130 7) Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body are termed nonessential. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 132 8) Because of their increased protein needs, it is unhealthy for athletes to choose to become vegetarians. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 140 9) Incomplete proteins are also known as low-quality proteins. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 10) Most complete proteins are found in animal-based foods. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 134 11) Denaturation results in the loss of the protein's function. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 133 12) Protein digestion begins in the mouth by the enzyme amylase. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 13) Hydrochloric acid converts the inactive pepsin into its active form pepsinogen. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 14) Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions without being physically altered. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 135 15) The pH of a substance or solution is determined by the nitrogen content. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 16) In properly nourished individuals, protein contributes minimally to energy needs. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 137 17) Kwashiorkor is a condition observed in athletes who consume excessive protein in the diet. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 139 18) Vegetarian diets are associated with increased risk of kidney stones. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 150 19) Diets high in protein are associated with low blood cholesterol levels. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 141 20) The absorption of dietary protein occurs in the stomach. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 138 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ amino acids can be manufactured by the body. Answer: Nonessential Page Ref: 132 2) A(n) ________ omits animal flesh and eggs, but does consume grains, fruits, vegetables, and dairy products. Answer: lactovegetarian Page Ref: 148 3) A segment of DNA that carries the instructions for assembling available amino acids into a unique protein is called a(n) ________. Answer: gene Page Ref: 132 4) The ________ of a solution is a measure of the acidity, or level of hydrogen. Answer: pH Page Ref: 137 5) The ________ is the portion of the amino acid that makes it unique. Answer: side chain Page Ref: 131 6) The essential amino acid found in the shortest supply or missing from the amino acid pool is called a(n) ________ amino acid. Answer: limiting Page Ref: 134 7) Combining two incomplete proteins to make a complete protein is called ________. Answer: mutual supplementation Page Ref: 134 8) In the stomach, ________ converts the inactive enzyme pepsinogen into its active form pepsin to facilitate the breakdown of proteins. Answer: HCl Page Ref: 138 9) ________ are the enzymes that digest polypepides in the small intestine. Answer: Proteases Page Ref: 138 10) The ________ of a protein describes how efficiently our bodies can digest and absorb it. Answer: digestibility Page Ref: 139 11) A(n) ________ bond links amino acids together within a protein molecule. Answer: peptide Page Ref: 130 12) A deficiency of protein can lead to a condition called ________ in which fluid accumulates in the body's tissue spaces. Answer: edema Page Ref: 136 13) A process called ________ converts amino acids into glucose to provide energy to the brain. Answer: gluconeogenesis Page Ref: 137 14) When a protein attracts and neutralizes hydrogen it acts as a(n) ________. Answer: buffer Page Ref: 137 15) The recommended protein intake for most adults is ________ grams per kilogram of bodyweight per day. Answer: 0.8 Page Ref: 139 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Antibodies Page Ref: 137 2) Enzymes Page Ref: 135 3) Buffers Page Ref: 137 4) Pepsin Page Ref: 138 5) Prions Page Ref: 149 6) Carcinogens Page Ref: 150 7) Hormones Page Ref: 137 A) Act as chemical messengers in the body B) Abnormal form of proteins that cause mad cow disease C) Maintain proper acid-base balance D) Produced by the body when bacteria or viruses are present E) Hydrochloric acid activates this enzyme F) Some pesticides, industrial chemicals, and pollutants G) Speed up chemical reactions Answers: 1) D 2) G 3) C 4) E 5) B 6) F 7) A Match the following items. 8) Marasmus Page Ref: 139 9) Mutual supplementation Page Ref: 134 10) Kwashiorkor Page Ref: 139 11) Gluconeogenesis Page Ref: 139 12) Denaturation Page Ref: 133 13) Mad cow disease Page Ref: 149 14) Edema Page Ref: 136 A) Combining two or more sources to make a complete protein B) Changing the shape and function of a protein C) Malnutrition often seen in young children of developing countries and associated with early weaning to low protein diets D) Swelling of body tissues as a result of fluid imbalance E) Chronic malnutrition characterized by insufficient energy nutrients F) Fatal brain disorder resulting from foods contaminated with prions G) Converts amino acids into glucose Answers: 8) E 9) A 10) C 11) G 12) B 13) F 14) D Essay Questions 1) Describe three physiological consequences of consuming too much protein. Page Ref: 141-143 2) Discuss the different reasons why an individual might choose to become a vegetarian. Page Ref: 148-150 3) Describe the mechanical and chemical digestion of dietary protein. Page Ref: 138 4) The quality of dietary protein differs among various sources. List and explain the factors that influence protein quality. Page Ref: 138-139 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Which of the following is the reason that athletes need more protein than sedentary individuals? A) Additional protein is needed to produce hemoglobin to carry oxygen to body tissues during exercise. B) Additional protein is needed to repair tissue damage caused by exercise. C) Additional protein is needed to produce glucose in order to prevent hypoglycemia during exercise. D) All of the above are reasons that athletes need more protein than sedentary individuals. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 140 2) Research to date indicates that the weight loss and positive impact on blood lipids seen with low carbohydrate-high protein diets in due primarily to a/an: A) decrease in caloric intake B) loss of body fat. C) increase in fat burned for energy. D) utilization of glucose for energy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 142 3) Tempeh, tofu, and miso are foods derived from: A) seaweed. B) cow's milk. C) soy. D) wheat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 145 4) Athletes cannot get adequate amounts of protein from the diet alone. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 140 5) Athletes have increased protein needs as compared with sedentary individuals. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 140 6) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is also known as ________. Answer: mad cow disease Page Ref: 149 7) What are the health benefits of soy? How can you include more soy in the diet? Page Ref: 145-146 1) Which of the following statements BEST describes fat-soluble vitamins? A) A carbon containing, essential micronutrient that is insoluble in water B) An non-carbon containing,, non-essential macronutrient that is soluble in water C) A carbon containing, essential micronutrient that is soluble in water D) A non-carbon containing, non-essential macronutrient that is not soluble in water Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 157 2) Which of the following is NOT considered an essential nutrient? A) vitamin A B) beta-carotene C) vitamin C D) vitamin E Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 162 3) Diseases that cause the malabsorption of fat can result in a deficiency of: A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) both A and B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 158 4) The best known role that vitamin A plays in the human body is: A) maintaining a healthy reproductive system. B) acting as an antioxidant and scavenging free radicals. C) maintaining a healthy immune system. D) maintaining healthy vision. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 160 5) Which of the following organs is responsible for the synthesis of vitamin D? A) skin B) liver C) kidneys D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 163 6) Where do humans obtain vitamin D? A) diet B) sunlight C) intestinal bacteria D) both A and B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 163 7) Which of the following is the primary dietary source of vitamin D for humans? A) seafood B) chicken C) green leafy vegetables D) fortified milk Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 164 8) Vitamin D toxicity is associated with: A) sunburns. B) suntan lotions. C) seafood. D) supplements. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 164 9) Caused by a vitamin D deficiency during the adult years, ________ is characterized by "soft bones" and increased fracture risk A) rickets B) osteomalacia C) osteoporosis D) hypocalcemia Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 165 10) Vitamin K serves as a(n) ________ to various enzymes involved in the coagulation of blood. A) inhibitor B) coenzyme C) antagonist D) carrier Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 165 11) Newborn infants receive vitamin K at birth due to the fact that: A) newborns do not have enough bacteria in their small intestine to make vitamin K. B) breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. C) the trauma of labor and delivery depletes the newborn's vitamin K stores. D) newborns cannot absorb any of the vitamin K from breast milk or formula. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 12) Vitamin K's primary role in the body is: A) muscle contraction. B) enzyme action. C) nerve transmission. D) blood clotting. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 165 13) Which of the following are good sources of vitamin K? A) spinach and collards B) intestinal bacteria C) canola and soybean oil D) All are sources of vitamin K. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 14) Which of the following diseases has been linked to free radical damage? A) cancer B) heart disease C) diabetes D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 168 15) Which water-soluble vitamin can regenerate vitamin E after it has been oxidized? A) vitamin D B) vitamin B 12 C) vitamin C D) folate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 171 16) About 90% of vitamin E is stored in: A) adipose tissue. B) the liver. C) cell membranes. D) the skin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 168 17) Which of the following is NOT a function of vitamin E? A) protecting cell membranes from oxidation B) enhancing the immune system and protecting white blood cells C) improving the absorption of vitamin C if dietary intake is low D) protecting LDLs (low-density lipoproteins) from oxidation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 168 18) Megadoses of niacin are used to treat: A) unhealthy blood lipid levels. B) premenstrual syndrome. C) cataracts. D) osteomalacia. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 177 19) Which of the following food preparation methods would cause the greatest loss of vitamin C? A) microwaving B) deep frying C) steaming D) stir-frying Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 173 20) Which of the following nutrients requires the most frequent consumption to prevent deficiency symptoms? A) vitamin A B) vitamin E C) vitamin C D) beta-carotene Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 157 and 159 21) Which of the following statements describes vitamin C's role as an antioxidant? A) Vitamin C defends the lungs from damage caused by ozone and cigarette smoke. B) Vitamin C reduces the formation of nitrosamines in the stomach. C) Vitamin C binds to free radicals to keep them from destroying the cell membrane. D) All of these statements describe vitamin C's role as an antioxidant. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 171 22) The doctor has recently told Julie that her iron stores are low. Julie should consume ________ with her iron supplement to increase its absorption. A) a tablespoon of castor oil B) a glass of milk C) a glass of orange juice D) scrambled eggs Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 172 23) Which of the following are rich sources of vitamin C? A) milk and cheese B) seafood C) wheat and oats D) broccoli and spinach Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 173 24) Which of the following symptoms is associated with consuming a megadose of vitamin C? A) night blindness B) scurvy C) nausea and diarrhea D) erythrocyte hemolysis Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 173 25) The primary role of the B-complex vitamins is to: A) provide the body with energy. B) act as coenzymes. C) maintain and repair body tissues. D) maintain acid-base balance. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 175 26) Which amino acid is a precursor for niacin? A) phenylalanine B) beta-carotene C) tryptophan D) organosulfate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 178 27) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding thiamin? A) It plays a critical role in the breakdown of glucose for energy. B) Rich dietary sources include enriched cereals and grains. C) It is often toxic when consumed in excess. D) Deficiency produces the disease beriberi. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 175-176 28) Which of the following describes the main symptom(s) of beriberi? A) dermatitis B) muscle wasting and nerve damage C) hemorrhaging D) blindness Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 175-176 29) Which of the following is the BEST source of thiamin? A) citrus fruits B) green leafy vegetables C) milk and cheese D) enriched cereals and grains Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 175 30) A deficiency of riboflavin is referred to as: A) riboflavinitis. B) hyporiboflavin. C) ariboflavinosis. D) primary riboflavin insufficiency. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 176 31) What is the primary symptom of niacin toxicity? A) dizziness B) diarrhea C) fatigue D) flushing Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 177 32) Beriberi is the deficiency disease associated with: A) folate. B) niacin. C) thiamin. D) riboflavin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 176 33) Which of the following conditions have vitamin B supplements been used to treat? 6 A) high cholesterol B) hypertension C) baldness D) premenstrual syndrome Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 178 34) Major dietary sources of lycopene in the American diet include: A) whole grains and soy products. B) garlic and cruciferous vegetables. C) green tea and garlic. D) tomato products and pink grapefruit. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 188 35) Which of the following explains why folate is critical to the health of a newly conceived embryo? A) Folate is needed for proper cell division. B) Folate is essential for maintaining proper fluid balance. C) Folate regulates bone formation. D) Folate is essential for heart function. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 36) Folate deficiency during pregnancy is associated with: A) Down's syndrome. B) gestational diabetes. C) neural tube defects. D) pellagra. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 37) Often seen in the elderly, atrophic gastritis can result in: A) rickets. B) indigestion. C) cancer of the GI tract. D) low stomach-acid secretions. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 38) Vitamin B is essential for the proper functioning of: 12 A) epithelial cells. B) nerve cells. C) gastric (stomach) cells. D) hepatic (liver) cells. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 39) High concentrations of homocysteine in the blood are associated with the development of: A) diabetes. B) heart disease. C) neural tube defects. D) osteoporosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 40) Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a(n) ________ deficiency. A) niacin B) vitamin B 6 C) iron D) vitamin B 12 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 41) Which of the following B-complex vitamins is involved in the metabolism of fatty acids? A) vitamin B 6 B) vitamin B 12 C) folate D) pantothenic acid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 181 42) At what stage in the development of cancer do the mutated cells divide repeatedly? A) initiation B) promotion C) progression D) metastasis Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 183 43) Which of the following terms is synonymous with the word malignant? A) tumor B) benign C) cancerous D) undifferentiated Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 183 44) Research studies have demonstrated an association between a reduced risk of cancer and: A) the use of vitamin C supplements. B) increased consumption of fruits and vegetables. C) increased consumption of monounsaturated fatty acids. D) the use of beta-carotene supplements. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 184 True/False Questions 1) Fat-soluble vitamins, such as vitamin A, are stored by the human body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 157 2) Megadosing of some nutrients, such as vitamins A and D, can be deadly. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 157 3) Using a sunscreen can inhibit the synthesis of vitamin D. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 165 4) To prevent deficiencies, water-soluble vitamins need to be consumed on a daily or weekly basis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 159 5) Geographical location affects one's ability to synthesize vitamin D. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 164 and 168 6) Overexposure to the sun can result in vitamin D toxicity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 164 7) Without adequate vitamin K, our blood cannot clot adequately. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 165 8) There are no known side effects associated with consuming large amounts of vitamin K from supplements or food. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 9) Research has clearly demonstrated that a deficiency of vitamin K causes osteoporosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 10) Vitamin K deficiency is associated with an overgrowth of intestinal bacteria. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 11) All antioxidants are fat-soluble. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 167 12) Because they are generally fortified, dairy products are good sources of vitamin D. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 164 13) Deep-frying vegetable oil decreases its vitamin E content. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 170 14) A deficiency of vitamin A is associated with vision disorders. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 160 15) The B-complex vitamins are good energy sources for the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 174 16) Riboflavin is destroyed when it is exposed to light. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 181 17) Because of a condition known as atrophic gastritis, infants are given periodic injections of B to prevent anemia. 12 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 181 18) Adequate folate consumption is the most critical during the last trimester of pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 19) Diets rich in folate and vitamin B 12 are associated with elevated blood levels of the amino acid homocysteine. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 179 20) Antioxidants are highly unstable atoms with unpaired electrons in the outer shells. Register to View Answer Page Ref: 182 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ are micronutrients that contain carbon and assist us in regulating our bodies' processes. Answer: Vitamins Page Ref: 157 2) A(n) ________ is a compound that is needed to activate an enzyme. Answer: coenzyme Page Ref: 165 3) A megadose of nutrient is a dose ________ or more times greater than the recommended amount. Answer: ten Page Ref: 157 4) Beta-carotene is a(n) ________ to vitamin A. Answer: provitamin (or precursor) Page Ref: 162 5) Although not considered nutrients, ________ are fat-soluble plant pigments associated with decreased risk of cancer and heart disease. Answer: carotenoids Page Ref: 162 6) ________ results from a vitamin D deficiency during adulthood. Answer: Osteomalacia Page Ref: 165 7) A deficiency of thiamin leads to the development of the disease known as ________. Answer: beriberi Page Ref: 175 8) A severe folate deficiency results in a condition called ________ anemia. Answer: macrocytic Page Ref: 179 9) A highly unstable atom with an unpaired electron in its outermost shell is called a(n) ________. Answer: free radical Page Ref: 168 10) ________ is a protein found in all connective tissues in the body. Answer: Collagen Page Ref: 171 11) Rickets is caused by a deficiency of _________. Answer: vitamin D Page Ref: 165 12) The ________ is the light-sensitive membrane lining the inner eye. Answer: retina Page Ref: 161 13) ________ is a vitamin A deficiency disorder that results in the loss of the ability to see in dim light. Answer: Night blindness Page Ref: 162 14) ________ is a condition that results in low stomach-acid secretions. Answer: Atrophic gastritis Page Ref: 179 15) When ________ is inadequate during the first few weeks of pregnancy, the fetus can develop a neural tube defect. Answer: folate Page Ref: 179 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Vitamin B 6 Page Ref: 178 2) Thiamin Page Ref: 175 3) Riboflavin Page Ref: 176 4) Folate Page Ref: 179 5) Vitamin A Page Ref: 160 6) Vitamin D Page Ref: 163 7) Vitamin K Page Ref: 165 8) Vitamin C Page Ref: 171 A) Supplements used to treat premenstrual syndrome B) Can be synthesized from exposure to the sun C) Destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet rays D) First B-complex vitamin to be discovered E) Essential in the synthesis of collagen F) Critical in the maintenance of normal vision G) Essential for normal blood clotting H) Deficiency is implicated in neural tube defects Answers: 1) A 2) D 3) C 4) H 5) F 6) B 7) G 8) E Using the figure, label A - G. 9) ________ Retina Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 10) ________ Pupil Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 11) ________ Cornea Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 12) ________ Macula Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 13) ________ Lens Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 14) ________ Optic nerve Answer: G Page Ref: 161 15) ________ Iris Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 161 Using the figure, label A - C. 16) ________ Promotion Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 183 17) ________ Metastasis Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 183 18) ________ Normal cell undergoing mutation in DNA Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 182 19) ________ Progression Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 183 20) ________ Initiation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 182 Essay Questions 1) Describe how vitamin A functions in the maintenance of healthy vision. Page Ref: 182-183 2) Describe the process by which the body converts sunlight to active vitamin D in the body. Discuss the organs involved in this process. Page Ref: 163 3) Why is folate such an important nutrient for the developing fetus? Page Ref: 179 4) Name and describe the three primary steps of cancer development. Page Ref: 182-183 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) All of the following are functional foods EXCEPT: A) Orange juice with calcium B) Enriched whole wheat bread C) Yogurt with probiotics D) Vitamin water Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 186 2) Joan asks you if it is safe to take herbal supplements. Which of the following would be the best advice you could give Joan? A) Herbs can interact with other medications and cause health problems. B) Research has shown that herbs are safe for human consumption. C) Herbs that are labeled "natural" are the only ones that are safe to use. D) Herbs are strictly regulated by the FDA and are therefore safe to use. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 169 3) Which herbal supplement is sometimes used as a laxative? A) hawthorn B) goldenseal C) psyllium D) echinacea Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 170 4) Research suggests that daily vitamin C supplements will reduce the incidence of the common cold. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 172 5) It is safe to use an herbal supplement as long as the label indicates that it is natural. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 169 6) All nutritional supplements must be approved by the FDA before than can be placed on the market. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 186 7) Research has shown a consistent and strong link between taking antioxidant supplements and a reduced risk of developing cancer. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 184 8) Can vitamin C prevent the common cold? Discuss the research that has been done to prove or disprove this question. Page Ref: 172 9) Which individuals would likely benefit from taking a vitamin/mineral supplement? Which individuals could be harmed by taking these supplements? Page Ref: 186-187 1) Which of the following is TRUE? A) Water freely moves across cell membranes. B) Water and electrolytes move across the cell membranes only through protein channels. C) Electrolytes freely move across cell membranes. D) Water and electrolytes cannot move across cell membranes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 199-200 2) Which of the following will likely result if the concentration of electrolytes inside a cell is higher than that of the extracellular environment? A) The cell will swell. B) The cell will become dehydrated. C) The cell will mitosis undergo and divide. D) The cell will be unaffected. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 200 3) Which of the ultra-trace minerals is essential for human health? A) boron B) molybdenum C) iron D) selenium Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 197 4) Which of the following does NOT describe a mineral? A) Minerals are organic micronutrients. B) Minerals have the ability to carry an electrical charge. C) Minerals are needed in small amounts by the body. D) Minerals cannot be created or destroyed by natural means. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 196 5) Hyponatremia can result from: A) an infant drinking an underdiluted formula. B) an athlete not drinking enough water during intense exercise. C) an elderly person suffering from severe diarrhea and vomiting. D) an athlete eating excessive amounts of sodium on a very hot and humid day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 202 6) The ________ diet has been used successfully to treat hypertension. A) Weight Watchers B) Atkins C) Zone D) DASH Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201-202 7) The AI for sodium is ________ milligrams/day. A) 1,000 B) 1,500 C) 2,400 D) 3,000 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 8) Diets rich in ________ are associated with maintaining healthy blood pressure levels. A) sodium B) chloride C) potassium D) phosphorus Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 202 9) Which of the following individuals is at risk for a potassium deficiency? A) a marathon runner B) a newborn C) an individual with hypertension D) an individual with kidney disease Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 204 10) The majority of dietary chloride is consumed from: A) animal protein sources. B) alcohol. C) table salt. D) water. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 204 11) Which of the following is NOT a function of chloride? A) assists in regulating the body's fluid balance B) assists white blood cells during an immune response C) in the form of hydrochloric acid, prepares food for digestion D) used in public water supplies to kill harmful bacteria Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 204 12) Which of the following foods contains the lowest amount of sodium? A) One medium fresh orange B) 1 cup canned vegetable soup C) 1 large dill pickle D) 1 ounce potato chips Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 13) All of the following are major functions of sodium EXCEPT: A) assists in muscle contraction. B) maintains fluid balance. C) synthesis of thyroid hormones. D) maintains acid-base balance. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 14) Which of the following do sodium and potassium NOT have in common? A) Rich sources of both include fresh foods such as bananas, cantaloupe, and potatoes. B) Both participate in maintaining fluid balance. C) Both are involved in nerve transmission. D) Both are major electrolytes in the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 15) Chromium assists in the transport of ________ into the cells. A) calcium B) sodium C) potassium D) glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 206 16) The major dietary source of iodine is: A) nuts. B) fruits and vegetables. C) dairy products. D) fortified table salt. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 207 17) Iodine is essential for the synthesis of ________ hormones. A) estrogen B) growth C) thyroid D) androgen Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 207 18) A pregnant woman who does not consume enough iodine in her diet is at risk of delivering an infant with: A) phenylketonuria. B) cretinism. C) spina bifida. D) Down syndrome. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 207 19) Which of the following hormones requires selenium for its synthesis? A) estrogen B) insulin C) cortisol D) thyroid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 207 20) The oxygen-carrying protein found in our muscle cells is called: A) myoglobin. B) hemoglobin. C) hemotocrit. D) hemosiderin. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 21) A deficiency of ________ is the most common deficiency worldwide. A) calcium B) vitamin B 12 C) iron D) folate Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 212 22) The MPF factor is: A) a special factor found in meat, fish, and poultry that enhances iron absorption. B) the protein carrier needed by the body to absorb dietary manganese, folate, or vitamin B . 6 C) a coenzyme involved in the metabolism of protein and fat. D) the increased absorption of dietary folate by the mother during pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 23) Bob's physician has just diagnosed him with iron-deficiency anemia. All of the following would be good advice for Bob to utilize more dietary iron EXCEPT: A) Eat meat with beans and vegetables. B) Drink a glass of orange juice with your breakfast cereal. C) Drink a glass of milk with your iron supplement. D) Cook your foods in cast-iron pans. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 24) The spongy bone found within the ends of long bones is called: A) cortical. B) osteoblast. C) collagen. D) trabecular. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 217 25) Which of the following is FALSE in regard to trabecular bone? A) found within the ends of the long bones B) porous and spongy in composition C) found inside the pelvis, skull and vertebrae D) comprises approximately 80% of the skeleton Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 217 26) ________ refers to the two-step process in which bone tissue is recycled. A) Bone growth B) Bone modeling C) Bone remodeling D) Bone regeneration Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 217 27) Bone cells that are responsible for the synthesis of new bone tissue are called: A) osteoclasts. B) cortical. C) osteoblasts. D) trabecular. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 217 28) In addition to breaking down bone, osteoclasts are critical in maintaining: A) blood glucose levels. B) acid and base balance C) blood coagulation. D) vitamin D production. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 218 29) At what age does bone resorption generally begin to occur more rapidly than bone formation? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 60 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 217 30) Which of the following is the most abundant mineral in our body? A) calcium B) iron C) phosphorus D) fluoride Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 218 31) Which of the following is FALSE concerning calcium? A) Calcium's alkalinity assists in regulating acid-base balance. B) Ninety-nine percent of calcium is found in the blood and soft tissue. C) When blood calcium falls, calcium is released from the skeleton. D) Calcium is a major mineral. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 218 32) Blood calcium is critical for: A) transmission of nerve impulses. B) muscle contraction. C) maintenance of blood pressure. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 218 33) Assuming equal serving sizes, which of the following foods would be the poorest source of calcium? A) skim milk B) whole milk C) cheddar cheese D) cottage cheese Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 219 34) Which of the following nutrients increases the absorption rate of calcium? A) iron B) vitamin D C) zinc D) phosphorus Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 219 35) Which of the following foods is high in phosphorus? A) processed foods B) apples C) oranges D) table salt Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 221 36) Oxalates can inhibit the absorption of: A) vitamin E. B) thiamin. C) calcium. D) protein. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 218 37) Most of the body's phosphorus is stored in: A) the liver. B) adipose tissue. C) the skeleton. D) the kidneys. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 221 38) Which of the following foods are good sources of magnesium? A) green leafy vegetables B) citrus fruits C) french fries and onion rings D) soft drinks and fruit juices Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 221 39) The majority of our body's fluoride is stored in the: A) liver. B) adipose tissue. C) teeth and bones. D) interstitial fluid. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 222 40) Fluorosis is associated with: A) insufficient intake of fluoride. B) consuming too much fluoride. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) osteoporosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 223 41) Aging results in an increased risk for the development of osteoporosis due to the fact that: A) Elderly individuals have a decreased ability to metabolize vitamin D. B) Elderly individuals do not exercise as much as younger individuals. C) Aging results in a decrease in the production of estrogen and testosterone which make bone more sensitive to osteoclasts. D) All of the above are reasons why the elderly are more prone to osteoporosis than younger individuals. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 224 42) Dowager's hump is one characteristic of: A) fluorosis. B) osteoporosis. C) rickets. D) the female athlete triad. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 224 43) Mary is 60 years old and at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following dietary supplements would be the MOST helpful to minimize bone loss? A) magnesium and fluoride B) vitamin K and fluoride C) calcium and phosphorus D) calcium and vitamin D Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 227 True/False Questions 1) Sodium is an essential nutrient necessary for human health. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 200 2) Most Americans exceed the dietary recommendations for sodium. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 3) Processed foods tend to be high in sodium and low in potassium. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 202-204 4) Extreme dehydration, vomiting, and diarrhea can result in a potassium deficiency. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 204 5) On average, the American diet is deficient in both phosphorus and chloride. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 204; 221 6) In healthy individuals, eating too much sodium will damage the kidneys. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 201 7) A diet rich in potassium has been shown to help maintain a healthy blood pressure. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 202 8) Because iodine is found throughout the food supply, deficiencies are rare. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 207 9) Selenium is the only mineral with a known antioxidant function. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 10) Heme iron is absorbed better than non-heme iron. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 11) Non-heme iron is found in both plant- and animal- based foods. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 12) Vegans absorb less dietary iron than meat eaters. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 211 13) Females are at a greater risk for iron deficiency than men. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 212 14) Both excessive and insufficient intakes of zinc can impair immune function. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 214 15) Phosphorus deficiencies are common among children and adolescents. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 221 16) Smoking increases bone loss. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 224 17) Regular participation in activity and weight-bearing exercise can help increase and maintain bone mass. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 225 18) As adults age, bone density increases. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 224 19) Osteoporosis affects men and women equally. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 224 20) The primary symptom of fluoride deficiency is fluorosis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 223 Short Answer Questions 1) Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by very low blood ________ levels. Answer: sodium Page Ref: 202 2) ________ are solid, crystalline substances that do not contain carbon and are not changed by natural processes. Answer: Minerals Page Ref: 196 3) We consume the majority of our dietary chloride in the form of ________. Answer: salt (sodium chloride) Page Ref: 204 4) The majority of the body's phosphorus is stored in ________. Answer: bone Page Ref: 221 5) ________ minerals are those that the body needs in excess of 100 milligrams/day. Answer: Major Page Ref: 196 6) A(n) ________ is a substance that dissociates in solution into positively and negatively charged ions. Answer: electrolyte Page Ref: 198 7) ________ is a trace mineral that enhances the ability of insulin to transport glucose into the body's cells. Answer: Chromium Page Ref: 206 8) Cretinism is a type of mental retardation caused by insufficient ________ during fetal development. Answer: iodine Page Ref: 207 9) Red blood cells called ________ transport oxygen through the body. Answer: erythrocytes Page Ref: 209 10) The fluid portion of the blood is called ________. Answer: plasma Page Ref: 209 11) ________ is the oxygen-carrying protein found in red blood cells. Answer: Hemoglobin Page Ref: 210 12) The oxygen-carrying protein found in skeletal muscle is ________. Answer: myoglobin Page Ref: 211 13) In the United States, accidental overdose of ________ is the most common cause of poisoning deaths in children under age six. Answer: iron Page Ref: 212 14) ________ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland and is often caused by iodine toxicity or deficiency. Answer: Goiter Page Ref: 207 15) Also called compact bone, ________ bone is dense bone tissue that makes up the outer surface of all bones and most small bones. Answer: cortical Page Ref: 217 16) The protein ________ forms the strong fibers in bone and connective tissue. Answer: collagen Page Ref: 217 17) ________ is the term used to describe the breaking down of existing bone and formation of new bone. Answer: Remodeling Page Ref: 217 18) ________ is the most abundant mineral in the body. Answer: Calcium Page Ref: 218 19) The term ________ refers to the degree to which our body can absorb and utilize nutrients. Answer: bioavailability Page Ref: 218 20) ________ is the point at which our bones are the most dense. Answer: Peak bone density Page Ref: 217 21) ________ is a condition that results from the overconsumption of fluoride. Answer: Fluorosis Page Ref: 223 22) ________ is the absence of the menstrual period Answer: Amenorrhea Page Ref: 224 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Potassium Page Ref: 202 2) Sodium Page Ref: 199 3) Iron Page Ref: 210-211 4) Calcium Page Ref: 218 5) Iodine Page Ref: 207 6) Sulfur Page Ref: 206 A) Component of hemoglobin and myoglobin B) Needed by the liver to detoxify alcohol C) Critical in the synthesis of thyroid hormones D) Primary electrolyte within human cells E) Extracellular electrolyte involved in fluid balance F) Most abundant mineral in the body Answers: 1) D 2) E 3) A 4) F 5) C 6) B Match the following items. 7) Goiter Page Ref: 207 8) MPF factor Page Ref: 211 9)Hemoglobin Page Ref: 210 10)Myoglobin Page Ref: 211 11)Collagen Page Ref: 217 12)Cortical Page Ref: 217 13) Trabecular Page Ref: 217 14) Osteoclasts Page Ref: 217 15) Osteoblasts Page Ref: 217 A) Dietary substance that enhances the absorption of non-heme iron B) Cells that break down bone tissue C) Fibrous protein that provides strength to bone tissue D) Iron-containing protein found in red blood cells E) Dense tissue found on the outer surface of all bone F) Cells that stimulate the formation of bone G) Porous tissue found inside bones H) Enlargement of the thyroid gland I) Iron-containing protein found in muscle cells Answers: 7) H 8) A 9) D 10) I 11) C 12) E 13) G 14) B 15) F Using the figure, label A- C. 16) ________ Plasma Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 210 17) ________ Erythrocytes Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 210 18) ________ Whole blood Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 210 19) ________ Leukocytes Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 210 20) ________ Cells that transport oxygen throughout body Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 209 21) ________ Only fluid tissue in human body Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 209 22) ________ Immune cells that protect us from infection Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 209 Essay Questions 1) How do electrolytes function in controlling fluid balance in the body? Page Ref: 198-200 2) Describe bone remodeling. Page Ref: 217 3) Describe the risk factors associated with osteoporosis. Page Ref: 224-225 4) Iron-deficiency anemia is the leading nutrient deficiency worldwide. Discuss dietary approaches to optimize the intake and absorption of iron. Page Ref: 211-212 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) The majority of sodium in our diet comes from processed foods. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 203 2) Research has demonstrated that taking zinc lozenges can reduce the length and severity of the common cold. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 215 3) Most research has shown that chromium supplementation is not effective in increasing muscle mass or strength. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 208 4) Discuss the research evidence related to zinc lozenges and the common cold. Page Ref: 215 5) Mark's doctor has placed him on a low-sodium diet. Discuss practical ways in which Mark could reduce his sodium intake. Page Ref: 203 1) The fluid found between cells is called: A) interstitial B) extracellular C) intracellular D) both A & B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 2) ________ of an adult's healthy body weight is fluid. A) Ten to thirty percent B) Thirty to fifty percent C) Fifty to seventy percent D) Seventy to ninety percent Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 232 3) Mary is a healthy college student. She weighs 120 pounds. How much of her body weight is water? A) 12 to 24 pounds B) 30 to 60 pounds C) 60 to 84 pounds D) 96 to 108 pounds Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 232 4) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of low blood pressure? A) stroke B) confusion C) fainting spells D) lethargy Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 234 5) Water has a high cooling power. What does this mean? A) Water requires lots of external energy to raise the temperature. B) Water heats up or cools down very quickly. C) Water provides a useful source of stored kilocalories. D) Water transports the energy-yielding nutrients throughout the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 235 6) The majority of the body's fluid is found: A) within the cells. B) within the bloodstream. C) within the gastrointestinal tract. D) within the lymphatic system. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 7) Which of the following statements does NOT describe fluids? A) Fluids have the ability to move freely in the body. B) Fluids are colorless and tasteless. C) Fluids are composed of a precise ratio of hydrogen, carbon and oxygen molecules. D) Fluids adapt to the shape of the container they occupy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 232 8) What is the primary reason we sweat? A) to maintain blood volume B) to maintain sodium balance C) to excrete waste products D) to regulate body temperature Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 235 9) What is the function of the cerebrospinal fluid? A) maintains blood volume B) acts as a shock absorber C) lubricates body joints D) maintains body temperature Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 235 10) Which of the following stimulates the thirst mechanism? A) increased concentration of sodium in the blood B) elevated blood volume and pressure C) lubrication of the mouth and throat tissues D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 236 11) Which organ(s) is (are) primarily responsible for maintaining fluid balance? A) small intestine B) kidneys C) liver D) pancreas Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 236-237 12) How much fluid intake per day is recommended for adult man? A) 1.8 liters B) 2.0 liters C) 2.2 liters D) 3.0 liters Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 238 13) Which of the following groups are the MOST vulnerable to dehydration? A) pregnant women and the elderly B) adolescents and children C) infants and pregnant women D) infants and the elderly Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 243 14) Agnes drinks 4 cups of water. How many milliliters is this equivalent to? A) 240 milliliteres B) 480 milliliters C) 960 milliliters D) 1250 milliliters Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 237 15) The body's thirst mechanism is located in the: A) stomach. B) hypothalamus. C) kidneys. D) mouth. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 236 16) On average, which of the following individuals would have the highest percentage of body water? A) a 35-year-old overweight man B) a 35-year-old overweight woman C) a 35-year-old lean man D) a 35-year-old lean woman Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 17) Which of the following is a diuretic? A) alcohol B) soda C) water D) orange juice Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 237 18) ________ is a potentially fatal condition characterized by the failure of the body's heatregulating mechanisms. A) Hypertension B) Hepatitis C) Dehydration D) Heatstroke Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 19) Which of the following is treated to remove all dissolved minerals? A) mineral water B) carbonated water C) distilled water D) purified water Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 239 20) Moderate alcohol consumption has been linked with a reduced risk of: A) obesity. B) liver disease. C) diabetes mellitus. D) cardiovascular disease. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 247 21) Which of the following is NOT a health consequence of chronic alcohol abuse? A) a decrease in HDL-cholesterol B) an increase in the risk of breast cancer in women C) a decrease in the absorption of vital nutrients such as folate and thiamin D) an increased risk of hypertension Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 247-250 22) How does a diuretic affect the body? A) increases fluid loss via the urine B) signals hormonal cascade and increases blood pressure C) replenishes fluids and electrolytes to prevent dehydration D) speeds up the metabolism of alcohol to restore sobriety Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 237 23) Alcohol is absorbed in the: A) pancreas. B) liver. C) small intestine. D) stomach and intestines. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 246 24) The most effective way to avoid alcohol intoxication is to: A) drink a cup of coffee after every drink. B) stay active; walk around and do not sit down. C) consume no more than one drink an hour. D) drink an eight ounce glass of water after each drink. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 246-247 25) The government agency that regulates bottled water is the: A) FDA. B) FBI. C) USDA. D) EPA. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 240 26) Hyponatremia is most commonly associated with: A) binge drinking. B) hypertension. C) water intoxication. D) dehydration. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 27) Alcohol provides ________ kcal/gram. A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 12 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 28) Bob drinks five beers. Each contains 13 grams of alcohol. How many kilocalories from alcohol does Bob consume? A) 91 kcal B) 182 kcal C) 364 kcal D) 455 kcal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 29) Water that comes from underground rock formations is called ________ water. A) ground B) surface C) distilled D) organic Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 240 30) Which of the following athletes would benefit from using a sports drink to meet their hydration needs? A) a Little Leaguer B) a weight lifter C) a marathon runner D) a gymnast Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 242 31) Why is alcohol NOT considered a nutrient? A) Alcohol doesn't provide any kilocalories to the body. B) Alcohol is inorganic. C) Alcohol doesn't provide any vitamins. D) Alcohol is not essential to the body's functioning. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 32) Humans obtain water from all of the following EXCEPT: A) beverages. B) food. C) plasma. D) metabolic water. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 236-237 33) Why are infants at a greater risk for dehydration as compared to adults? A) They excrete urine at a higher rate. B) They cannot communicate their thirst. C) A greater proportion of an infant's body weight is water. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 243 34) A "drink" refers to a beverage that provides ________ fluid ounce(s) of alcohol. A) 1/2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 2 1/2 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 35) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heatstroke? A) deep breathing B) excessive perspiration C) rapid pulse D) high body temperature Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 36) One hundred forty (140) proof liquor contains ________% alcohol. A) 12 B) 23 C) 36 D) 70 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 37) Binge drinking is defined as the consumption of ________ or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion. A) three B) five C) seven D) nine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 249 38) The liver normally breaks down alcohol at a rate of one drink per hour. Which of the following techniques speeds this process up? A) abstaining from food B) carbonating the alcoholic drink C) superhydrating D) There is no effective way to speed up the break down of alcohol. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 247 39) Which of the following conditions is potentially fatal? A) heatstroke B) water intoxication C) alcohol poisoning D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 and 249 40) Which of the following is NOT a consequence of fetal alcohol syndrome? A) iron-deficiency anemia B) facial deformities C) impaired growth D) cognitive impairment Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 253 True/False Questions 1) Fat tissue contains a greater percentage of fluid as compared to lean tissue. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 2) Because it doesn't provide any kcalories, water is considered a nonessential nutrient. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 3) The thirst mechanism is highly sensitive and responsive to changes in fluid balance, especially as we age. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 236 4) Water is the main component of all body fluids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 232 5) Overhydration is rare in healthy individuals. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 6) Men have a higher percentage of body fluid than women. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233 7) When blood volume decreases, blood pressure increases. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 234 8) If an individual is well hydrated, his or her urine will be clear to pale yellow in color. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 243 9) Heat stroke can be fatal. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 10) As most foods contain very little water, the fluid contribution from food is insignificant. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 237 11) Consuming too much water can lead to hypertension. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 12) Because of their diuretic properties, caffeinated beverages should not be counted toward an individual's daily fluid intake. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 237-238 13) A pregnant woman can safely drink alcohol after the first three months of pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 253 14) The alcohol consumed by a lactating woman can pass into the breast milk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 253 15) It is impossible to drink too much water. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 244 16) Alcohol is considered a nutrient because it contains many B-complex vitamins. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 245 17) Carbonated beverages are absorbed more quickly than noncarbonated beverages. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 246 18) Because they absorb a higher percent of a given intake of alcohol, men are more susceptible to alcohol-related effects than women. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 246 19) Alcohol consumption is the leading cause of death among people under the age of 21. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 250 20) Drinking coffee will restore sobriety to an intoxicated individual. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 247 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ is a substance characterized by its ability to move freely and adapt to the shape of the vessel that contains it. Answer: Fluid Page Ref: 232 2) About ________ of body fluids are found within the cells. Answer: two-thirds Page Ref: 233 3) The ________ is a cluster of nerve cells in the hypothalamus that stimulates the sense of thirst. Answer: thirst mechanism Page Ref: 236 4) A(n) ________ is a substance, that increases fluid loss via the urine such as alcohol. Answer: diuretic Page Ref: 237 5) Approximately ________ to ________% of a healthy body weight is fluid. Answer: 50; 70 Page Ref: 232 6) Coma and death can result when a loss of body water exceeds ________% of total body weight. Answer: 8 Page Ref: 243 7) Water is a good example of a ________, a substance that is capable of mixing and breaking apart a variety of compounds. Answer: solvent Page Ref: 233 8) ________ is a common type of alcohol abuse defined as the consumption of five or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion. Answer: Binge drinking Page Ref: 249 9) The liver can break down about ________ drink(s) per hour. Answer: one Page Ref: 246 10) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend that we drink in moderation. Moderation is defined as ________ drink(s) per day for women and ________ drink(s) a day for men. Answer: one; two Page Ref: 245 11) The fluid portion of the blood is called ________. Answer: plasma Page Ref: 233 12) ________ water is formed when the body metabolizes carbohydrate, protein, and fat. Answer: Metabolic Page Ref: 237 13) ________ occurs when there is a dilution of body fluid. It results when water intake or retention is excessive and can lead to hyponatremia. Answer: Water intoxication Page Ref: 244 14) High blood pressure is also called ________. Answer: hypertension Page Ref: 248 15) ________ is an inflammation of the liver caused by a virus or toxic agent. Answer: Hepatitis Page Ref: 250 16) End-stage liver disease is called ________. Answer: cirrhosis Page Ref: 250 17) A(n) ________ is a substance capable of causing a birth defect. Answer: teratogen Page Ref: 253 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Plasma Page Ref: 233 2) Fluid Page Ref: 232 3) Solvent Page Ref: 233 4) Metabolic water Page Ref: 237 5) Diuretic Page Ref: 237 6) Teratogen Page Ref: 253 A) A substance that increases fluid loss B) Capable of dissolving a wide variety of substances C) By-product of metabolism D) Substance that causes birth defects E) Fluid portion of the blood F) Substance characterized by its ability to move freely and changeably Answers: 1) E 2) F 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) D Using the figure, label A - C. 7) ________ Tissue fluid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 234 8) ________ Plasma Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 234 9) ________ Intracellular fluid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 234 10) ________ Fluid type that constitutes the majority (2/3) of total body water Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 233-234 Essay Questions 1) Molly goes to the movies and consumes a piece of pizza, a diet cola, and a large tub of salted popcorn. Describe how Molly's body will regulate her fluid balance and adapt to this highsodium meal. Page Ref: 236 2) Describe how the body cools itself. Page Ref: 235 3) Discuss the three health benefits and three health risks associated with alcohol consumption. Page Ref: 247-248 4) Fluids perform a number of functions in the body that are critical to life. List and discuss four of these functions. Page Ref: 233-235 5) Why is consuming alcohol during pregnancy detrimental to the developing fetus? Page Ref: 253 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) The government agency that sets and monitors the standards for municipal water supplies is the: A) EPA B) FDA C) USDA D) NIH Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 240 2) Which of the following is likely to occur if one regularly consumes sports drinks without exercising? A) hyponatremia B) hypertension C) weight gain D) dehydration Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 242 3) The ________ is the government agency that regulates bottled water. Answer: FDA (Food and Drug Administration) Page Ref: 240 4) ________ is the most common chemical used to purify water. Answer: Chlorine Page Ref: 240 5) Drinking bottled water is safer and offers more health benefits than drinking from the municipal water supplies. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 240 6) Discuss the physical and social consequences of alcohol abuse. Page Ref: 248-250 1) A body weight that exceeds 100% of the normal standard for a given height is called: A) overweight. B) obesity. C) morbid obesity. D) severe obesity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 2) Body mass index is determined from: A) the percentage of an individual's body weight as compared to a reference standard. B) an individual's body density. C) the ratio of an individual's fat tissue to their lean tissue mass. D) the ratio of an individual's body weight to their height. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 3) Which of the following BMI ranges is associated with an increased mortality rate? A) <18.5 B) 20-25 C) >30 D) both A and C Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 4) Which of the following is considered one of the most accurate methods for determining body composition? A) skinfold measurements B) underwater-weighing C) bioelectrical impedance D) Bod Pod Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 260 5) An apple-shaped fat pattern increases a person's risk for: A) type 2 diabetes. B) heart disease. C) osteoporosis. D) both A and B Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 261-262 6) Which of the following assessment techniques can be used to evaluate an individual's fat distribution pattern? A) BMI B) underwater weighing C) BIA D) waist circumference Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 262 7) Which of the following correctly describes the energy balance equation? A) energy intake > energy expended B) energy expended < energy intake C) energy expended + energy intake D) energy intake = energy expended Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 263 8) Joe would like to lose 2 pounds a week. If his present energy intake is 4,200 kcals/day and his energy expenditure does not change, how many kilocalories should he consume each day to achieve his goal? A) 2,000 kcal B) 2,500 kcal C) 3,200 kcal D) 3,700 kcal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 263 9) About ________% of our total energy output is attributable to basal metabolism. A) 20 to 35 B) 35 to 55 C) 60 to 75 D) 80 to 90 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 264 10) The primary determinant of basal metabolic rate is an individual's: A) gender. B) fat mass. C) lean body mass. D) age. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 264 11) Assuming their body weights are the same, which of the following individuals would most likely have the highest basal metabolic rate? A) a 20-year-old conditioned male athlete B) a 50-year-old normal-weight woman C) a 45-year-old obese male D) a 20-year-old sedentary female college student Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 264 12) Anthony is an 18-year-old college student who is 5' 10" tall and weighs 170 pounds. How many kilocalories does he expend each day for basal metabolism? A) 1,575 kcal B) 1,669 kcal C) 1855 kcal D) 3,360 kcal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 13) The three components of total energy expenditure are: A) basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and adaptive thermogenesis. B) basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and the thermic effect of food. C) basal metabolic rate, physical activity, and sleep activity. D) basal metabolic rate, the thermic effect of food, and adaptive thermogenesis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 263-264 14) The amount of energy expended by the body in digesting, absorbing, transporting, metabolizing, and storing nutrients is called: A) the basal metabolic rate. B) the nutrient expenditure quotient. C) the thermic effect of food. D) adaptive thermogenesis. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 15) George's dinner contains 750 kcal. How many kilocalories will George expend in order to process this meal? A) 7 to 10 kcal B) 25 to 50 kcal C) 38 to 75 kcal D) 113 to 150 kcal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 16) Skinfold measurements, underwater weighing, and the Bod Pod A) basal metabolism. B) total energy expenditure. C) body composition. D) the thermic effect of food. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 260-261 all measure: 17) The thrifty gene theory suggests that: A) our bodies are designed to maintain weight within a narrow range. B) some people possess a gene that allows them to expend less energy than other people. C) adult body weight is determined by the weight of our parents. D) our adult weight is determined by our weight at birth. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 267 18) The set point theory suggests that: A) our bodies are designed to maintain weight within a narrow range. B) some people possess a gene that allows them to expend less energy than other people. C) adult body weight is determined by the weight of our parents. D) our adult weight is determined by our weight at birth. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 267 19) Leptin is a hormone produced by: A) liver cells. B) pancreatic cells. C) muscle cells. D) fat cells. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 267 20) The macronutrient that requires the least amount of energy to digest and transport is: A) protein B) fat C) carbohydrate D) alcohol Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 21) Janine is a 20-year-old college student who is 5'4" tall and weighs 130 pounds. She engages in moderate exercise 3-5 times a week. How many kilocalories should Janine consume each day to maintain her present body weight? A) 1,276 kilocalories B) 1,493 kilocalories C) 1,914 kilocalories D) 2127 kilocalories Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265; 272 22) Ben is a 50 year old sedentary obese man who would like to develop sound weight loss strategies to improve his health. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary components of a sound weight-change plan? A) Start by exercising a minimum of 15 minutes a day and increase the time and intensity gradually. B) Set a goal to lose a minimum of 4 pounds a week. C) Reduce serving sizes on all foods to those recommended by MyPyramid. D) Limit daily fat intake to 15-25% of total energy intake. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 273 23) What type of weight loss will an individual experience by restricting calories but not increasing his or her level of physical activity? A) The individual will lose mostly adipose tissue. B) The individual will lose mostly lean body tissue. C) The individual will lose both adipose and lean body tissue. D) The individual will not lose any body weight. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 276 24) Which agency regulates prescription and over-the-counter medications in the United States? A) USDA (United States Department of Agriculture) B) CDC (Centers for Disease Control) C) AMA (American Medical Association) D) FDA (Food and Drug Administration) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 280 25) Which of the following weight-loss medications was banned in 1996 because it resulted in illness and several deaths? A) orlistat B) fenfluramine C) sibutramine D) caffeine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 280 26) All of the following would be good advice for someone who is trying to gain weight EXCEPT: A) eat an additional 500 to 1,000 kcal a day. B) do not exercise. C) eat frequent meals and snacks. D) eat approximately 25 to 35% of your kilocalories from fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 286 27) Which of the following correctly describes androstenedione? A) proven to enhance muscle gain and strength B) steroid precursor that does not increase muscle growth or strength and has unknown side effects C) popular weight loss therapy of the 1980s D) protein supplement banned by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 286 28) Being obese increases a person's risk of developing: A) sleep apnea. B) high blood pressure. C) type 2 diabetes. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 282 29) Obesity is classified as having a BMI of: A) 18.5 to 24.9. B) 25.0 to 29.9. C) 30.0 to 39.9. D) 40.0 or above. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 30) What is a multifactorial disease? A) a disease that exhibits many different forms, depending upon the individuals B) a disease that has many different causes C) a disease that affects many different organ systems D) a disease that requires many different treatments or therapies Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 281-282 31) There are three critical periods in which weight gain is associated with increased risk of adult obesity. Which of the following is NOT considered one of these critical periods? A) gestation and early infancy B) toddlerhood (age 2 to 3) C) early childhood (age 5 to 7) D) adolescence Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 284 32) The surgical procedure for weight loss that involves attaching the lower part of the small intestine to the reduced stomach is: A) gastroplasty. B) gastrosectioning. C) gastric banding. D) gastric bypass. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 284 33) Which of the following is NOT an effective long-term treatment for obesity? A) gastroplasty B) gastric bypass C) gastric banding D) liposuction Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 285 34) Which of the following BEST describes an eating disorder? A) a psychiatric condition that requires a physician's diagnosis B) any condition in which one's eating behavior changes more than six times per year C) a general term that describes a variety of abnormal or atypical eating behaviors D) any behavior in which one attempts to reduce one's body weight below a healthy range Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 287 35) Which of the following BEST describes disordered eating? A) a psychiatric condition that requires a physician's diagnosis B) any condition in which one's eating behavior changes more than six times per year C) a general term that describes a variety of abnormal or atypical eating behaviors D) any disorder in which one attempts to reduce one's body weight below a healthy range Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 287 36) The type of eating disorder characterized by episodes of bingeing and purging is: A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa. C) compulsive eating disorder. D) binge-eating disorder. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 253 37) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of anorexia nervosa? A) refusal to maintain body weight at a minimally normal weight for age and height B) intense fear of gaining weight C) loss of menstrual cycle D) secretive consumption of large amounts of food in a short period of time Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292 38) What percentage of women with anorexia nervosa die from complications? A) 1 to 5% B) 5 to 20% C) 7 to 15% D) 10 to 20% Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 290 39) Which family characteristic is most often associated with bulimia nervosa? A) rigid family structure. B) unclear interpersonal boundaries. C) less nurturing and more disruptive. D) avoidance of open discussion to resolve conflict. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 289 40) Which of the following sports is least likely to be associated with the female athlete triad? A) diving B) field hockey C) gymnastics D) ballet Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 296 True/False Questions 1) Body mass index is the most accurate method of determining body composition. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 2) Individuals with a BMI of less than 18.5 have an increased risk of health problems and premature death. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 259 3) Underwater weighing is a very practical method for determining body composition in obese individuals. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 260 4) Upper-body obesity increases one's risk for chronic disease. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 261-262 5) Pear-shaped fat patterning is more common in men than in premenopausal women. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 262 6) Because minerals and vitamins have no energy value, they can be disregarded when calculating a day's total energy intake. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 263 7) The energy expended due to physical activity accounts for the majority of our total energy output each day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 264 8) Genetic heritage is the primary determinant of body fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 266 9) The thermic effect of food describes the energy we expend to digest, absorb, transport, metabolize, and store the nutrients we eat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 10) Oversecretion of the hormone leptin will result in weight gain. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 267-268 11) Our diet and activity pattern as children influence our body weights as adults. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 268 12) People trying to gain weight should consume most of their kilocalories from fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 268 13) In its natural form, ephedra is a safe and effective treatment for obesity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 280 14) Amino acid and protein supplements have been shown to safely increase lean body mass. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 286 15) The female athlete triad describes the three most common eating disorders: anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 296 16) Liposuction is a surgical procedure recommended only for morbid obesity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 285 17) The terms eating disorder and disordered eating can be used interchangeably. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 287 18) Anorexia nervosa does not occur in males. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 291-292 19) The dental problems associated with bulimia nervosa are related to the insufficient intake of calcium. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 294 20) Most people who suffer from binge eating disorder are overweight. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 294 Short Answer Questions 1) The ________ is a comparison of an individual's body weight to his or her height. Answer: body mass index Page Ref: 259 2) An individual's ________ refers to the amount of fat tissue mass as compared with lean tissue mass. Answer: body composition Page Ref: 260 3) ________ obesity is the type of fat distribution pattern associated with an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and heart disease. Answer: Upper-body Page Ref: 261-262 4) ________ is the energy we expend just to maintain our resting functions, such as respiration and circulation. Answer: Basal metabolism or basal metabolic rate Page Ref: 264 5) ________ is a hormone produced by body fat that acts to reduce food intake. Answer: Leptin Page Ref: 267 6) The most variable component of expenditure is ________. Answer: physical activity Page Ref: 265 7) ________ is the fat stored mainly around the hips and thighs. Answer: Lower-body obesity/pear shaped fat pattern Page Ref: 262 8) ________ is a disorder characterized by binge eating an average of twice a week or more, without compensatory purging. Answer: Binge-eating disorder Page Ref: 294 9) The ________ refers to the energy expended to digest, absorb, transport, metabolize, and store the nutrients we eat. Answer: thermic effect of food Page Ref: 265 10) In the United States, the sale of the herb ________ was banned by the Food and Drug Administration because of its potentially fatal side effects. Answer: ephedra Page Ref: 280 11) ________ obesity is a condition in which a person's body weight exceeds 100% of normal. Answer: Morbid Page Ref: 259 12) A person's perception of his or her body's appearance or functioning describes a person's ________. Answer: body image Page Ref: 289 13) Obesity is known as a ________ disease, meaning that there are many things that cause it. Answer: multifactorial Page Ref: 282 14) ________ involves "stapling" a small section of the stomach to decrease food intake. Answer: Gastroplasty Page Ref: 284 15) A surgical procedure called ________ removes fat cells from selected areas of the body. Answer: liposuction Page Ref: 285 16) ________ is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for three or more months. Answer: Amenorrhea Page Ref: 292 17) Examples of ________ behaviors include vomiting, excessive exercise, fasting, or laxative abuse. Answer: purging Page Ref: 294 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Underwater weighing Page Ref: 260 2) Skinfold measurements Page Ref: 260-261 3) BIA Page Ref: 261 4) Bod Pod Page Ref: 261 5) Gastric bypass Page Ref: 284 6) Gastroplasty Page Ref: 284 A) Often performed by exercise physiologists; considered the most accurate method of determining body composition B) Determines body composition based upon conduction of electricity C) Accuracy requires a trained technician, specially designed calipers, and the appropriate equation D) Analysis based upon air displacement technology E) Surgical attachment of the lower part of the small intestine to the reduced stomach F) Partitioning a small section of the stomach to reduce total food intake Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) E 6) F Match the eating disorder with its signs and symptoms by marking accordingly. A = anorexia nervosa B = bulimia nervosa C = both 7) ________ Electrolyte imbalance Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292; 294 8) ________ Calluses on knuckles Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 294 9) ________ Amenorrhea Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292 10) ________ Eating large amounts of food over a short period of time Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 293 11) ________ Distorted body image Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292; 293 12) ________ Purging by vomiting or using laxatives Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 293 13) ________ Extreme weight loss Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292 14) ________ Tooth decay and staining Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 294 15) ________ Intense fear of becoming fat Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 292; 293 Essay Questions 1) Describe the methods that are presently used to determine body composition. What are the strengths and limitations of each? Page Ref: 260-261 2) What are the cultural, economic, and social factors that contribute to obesity? Page Ref: 268-272 3) Discuss the benefits of physical activity in the loss and maintenance of body weight. What type of exercise program would be the most effective in this effort? Page Ref: 276 4) Scott wants to begin a weight-loss program. What specific and practical suggestions can you give him to reduce his energy intake? Page Ref: 273-277 5) Describe the symptoms associated with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Discuss the similarities and differences between these two conditions. Page Ref: 290-294 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Which of the following increases the basal metabolic rate? A) pregnancy B) depressed levels of thyroid hormone C) aging D) fasting Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 265 2) Which of the following is a good behavior modification technique to utilize when attempting to maintain a healthy body weight? A) Keep a log of everything you eat each day. B) Avoid grocery shopping when you are hungry. C) Serve food on smaller plates. D) All of the above are good behavior modification techniques. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 277 3) Which eating disorder is more common in men than women? A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa C) muscle dysmorphia. D) binge eating disorder. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 291 4) When compared to women, men are more likely to use ________ as the primary method of weight control. A) excessive exercise B) binging and purging C) severe caloric restriction D) laxatives and diet pills Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 291-292 5) Organic foods are a more healthful choice than non-organic foods Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 269 6) Describe reverse anorexia nervosa. How are eating disorders different among men as compared to women? Page Ref: 291-292 1) Which of the following BEST describes exercise? A) any movement produced by muscles that increases energy expenditure B) maximal force or tension level that can be produced by a muscle group C) leisure physical activity that is purposeful, planned, and structured D) ability to move a joint fluidly through the complete range of motion Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 302 2) Which of the following is NOT one of the physiological effects of regular physical activity? A) enhances the action of insulin B) enhances gastric motility C) maintains and/or increases lean body mass D) decreases high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 303 3) The 2005 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends engaging in a minimum of ________ minutes of moderate physical activity most days of the week. A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 305 4) ________ is the ability to carry out daily tasks with vigor and alertness, without undue fatigue. A) Endurance B) Flexibility C) Athleticism D) Physical fitness Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 302 5) Which of the following can be found at the base of the Physical Activity Pyramid? A) aerobic exercise three to five times a week B) leisure activities two to three times a week C) engage in general activity every day D) strength and flexibility training two to three times a week Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 6) The top of the Physical Activity Pyramid emphasizes: A) activities that are harmful, such as failing to stretch prior to starting an activity. B) activities that we should do less of, such as watching TV. C) activities that should be done three to five times a week to improve cardiovascular fitness, such as aerobic exercise. D) activities that should be engaged in every day. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 7) Alberto wants to improve his cardiovascular health. Which type of activity would be the MOST effective to achieve this goal? A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) resistance training D) endurance Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 302 8) What is meant by the overload principle? A) subjecting the body to inappropriately high stress B) stretching a muscle group beyond the joint's healthy range of motion C) improving fitness by placing extra physical demand on the body D) complete depletion of the body's glycogen Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 9) Claire is 28 years old and exercises three to five days a week on a routine basis. In order to achieve her aerobic training range her target heart rate should be: A) 90 - 120 bpm B) 123 - 173 bpm C) 143 - 188 bpm D) 154 - 198 bpm Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 308 10) To achieve muscular fitness it is recommended that training should occur at least: A) daily. B) two to three days a week. C) three to five days a week. D) more than five days a week. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 307 11) The FIT principle is: A) the level of fitness one should achieve according to one's age. B) the principle that a good physical fitness program should be based on frequency, intensity, and time of activity. C) a method to determine your fitness level based on your target heart rate. D) a method to determine fitness based on flexibility and muscle strength. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 12) Which of the following is traditionally used to evaluate the level of intensity of aerobic activity? A) heart rate B) blood glucose level C) blood pressure D) distance traveled per unit of time (e.g., steps per hour) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 308 13) To achieve and maintain physical fitness, exercise intensity should be ________ of the maximal heart rate. A) 15 to 25% B) 25 to 30% C) 35 to 50% D) 64 to 90% Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 308 14) Which of the following individuals should have a medical evaluation prior to beginning an exercise regimen? A) Jack, a 65-year-old man with diabetes B) Betty, a 55-year-old woman who is healthy but inactive C) Frank, a 45-year-old man who is healthy but inactive D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 309 15) In which of the following types of exercise would CP (creatine phosphate) be an important source of energy? A) running a 10-kilometer road race B) biking up a mountain C) playing in a football game D) sprinting in a 100-meter race Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 16) Which of the following best describes the recommended simple sugar intake for athletes? A) Athletes should eliminate all sugar from the diet. B) Athletes should keep sugar intake to less than 10% of total daily energy intake. C) Athletes should keep sugar intake to less than 15% of total daily energy intake. D) Sugar should not be restricted in the athlete's diet because it provides a good source of carbohydrate for the working muscle. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 319 17) The amount of ATP stored in a muscle cell will fuel the muscle's activity for: A) 1 to 3 seconds. B) 1 to 3 minutes. C) 1 to 3 hours. D) 1 to 3 days. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 18) When oxygen is scarce, cellular pyruvic acid will be converted to: A) glucose. B) ATP. C) lactic acid. D) fatty acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 19) Which of the following is FALSE concerning aerobic metabolism? A) It is used in exercise lasting from 3 minutes to 4 hours. B) It leads to muscle fatigue. C) It provides fuel for low-intensity exercise. D) It supplies more energy than anaerobic exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313-316 20) Aerobic means: A) with oxygen. B) without oxygen. C) with glucose. D) without glucose. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 21) Why do hot, humid days pose such a risk of dehydration to athletes? A) Extreme heat raises body temperature dramatically making it harder to cool the body. B) Muscles and skin compete for blood flow which prevents the body from cooling down. C) High humidity inhibits evaporative cooling from the skin which prevents the body from cooling down. D) All of the above are reasons that hot, humid days pose a risk of dehydration to athletes. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 322-323 22) Which of the following BEST describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells? A) Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule. B) Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine. C) Energy is released when ATP is transported out of the cell membrane. D) Energy is released when adenosine binds to three phosphate molecules. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 312-313 23) ________ metabolism supports physical activity that lasts more than 3 minutes. A) Anaerobic B) Aerobic C) Nitrogen D) Fatty acid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 24) A triglyceride consists of: A) one glycerol and three fatty acids. B) one glycerol and three phospholipids. C) three glycerols and one fatty acid. D) one glucose and three fatty acids. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 314-315 25) Where in the body do we find the greatest storage of potential energy? A) muscle glycogen B) blood glucose C) muscle protein D) body fat Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 316 26) At rest, the body's fuel source is primarily ________. A) protein B) carbohydrate C) fat D) none of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 316 27) Joseph plays basketball for his high school team and he is concerned that he is not consuming enough kilocalories to support his activity. Which of the following would be the best indicator that he is not consuming adequate kilocalories? A) His performance has been impaired. B) He is losing weight. C) His blood glucose levels are low. D) His hemoglobin is low. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 318 28) Rachel is a gymnast who trains every day. She supports her daily activity by consuming 2,500 kcal/day. How many kilocalories should she be consuming from carbohydrate sources? A) 960 - 1,100 kcal B) 1,125 -1,625 kcal C) 1,735 -1,800 kcal D) 1,825 - 1,950 kcal Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 318 29) The best time to replenish glycogen stores is: A) the first 24 h after exercising. B) the day before exercising. C) the day after exercising. D) a few hours before exercising. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 318-319 30) In which of the following events would carbohydrate loading be the most beneficial? A) weight lifting B) baseball game C) cross-country skiing D) 100-yard dash Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 3320 31) Andrea thinks that carbohydrate loading could be beneficial to her. Which of the following statements is TRUE about this practice? A) Carbohydrate loading is appropriate in endurance activities such as a marathon. B) Carbohydrate loading may cause water retention. C) Carbohydrate loading maximizes glycogen stores. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 320 32) Which of the following is a disadvantage of carbohydrate loading? A) high blood glucose levels B) muscle cramps C) diarrhea D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 320 33) All of the following are advantages of using body fat as a fuel during exercise EXCEPT: A) The body's fat stores are abundant even in the leanest athlete. B) Fat provides 9 kcals/gram, where carbohydrate and fat only provide 4 kcals/ gram. C) Fat is broken down very quickly by the body. D) Fat is the primary fuel source during low and moderate intensity types of exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 321 34) Which of the following would be the best fluid replacement for events lasting less than one hour? A) water B) sports drink C) orange juice D) ginger ale Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 323 35) Which of the following is the most potentially harmful? A) heat cramps B) heat stroke C) heat exhaustion D) heat syncope Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 323 36) Which of the following best explains the cause of sports anemia? A) insufficient intake of dietary iron B) loss of iron stores due to excessive activity C) increased plasma volume D) cessation of a normal menstrual cycle Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 325 37) Which of the following athletes would be LEAST likely to develop iron-deficiency anemia? A) a female marathon runner B) a male distance swimmer C) a male basketball player who is a vegan D) a female gymnast Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 325 38) Which of the following ergogenic aids is a precursor to testosterone? A) Creatine B) Ephedra C) Androstenedione D) Carnitine Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 328 39) Some athletes believe that caffeine can enhance athletic performance because it has been shown to: A) increase muscle flexibility and strength. B) increase the use of fatty acids as a fuel source. C) regenerate ATP for energy. D) increase the transport of amino acids to exercising muscle. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 325 40) What is the primary mechanism by which the human body dissipates heat? A) urination B) evaporative cooling C) shivering D) syncope Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 322 True/False Questions 1) Regular physical activity can increase HDL-cholesterol and lower triglycerides. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 303 2) More than half of adults in the United States are physically inactive and not meeting national health recommendations. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 304 3) For an exercise program to be beneficial you should feel some pain. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 4) For physical activity to improve general health and fitness, each session should be at least 30 minutes without interruption. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 305 5) To improve one's fitness level, extra physical demand must be placed on the body. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 306 6) When a phosphate group is cleaved from ATP, energy is released. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 7) Lactic acid is a useless, toxic by-product of high-intensity exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313-314 8) The amount of ATP stored in muscles is unlimited. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 9) The human body can store an unlimited amount of glycogen. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 314 10) Athletes have larger glycogen stores than inactive people. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 314 11) Carbohydrate loading is not beneficial for athletes participating in low- to moderately-intense activities. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 320 12) Because fat is metabolized rapidly, it is a good fuel source for short-intensity exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 316 13) Anaerobic metabolism of glucose fuels the muscles during high intensity short-term exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 313 14) Amino acids are the primary fuel source utilized in both anaerobic and aerobic exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 316 15) The best way to stimulate growth of skeletal muscle is to eat a high-protein diet. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 322 16) To stay healthy, athletes should consume less than 15% of their kilocalories from fat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 321 17) Studies suggest that athletes need to consume more than 2 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight each day to maintain muscle strength. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 322 18) Most inactive people and many athletes consume enough protein in their diet to support their added physical activity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 322 19) Thirst is a very reliable indicator of dehydration. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 323 20) The best way to treat sports anemia is with iron supplements. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 325 21) Sports anemia is a major cause of poor athletic performance. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 325 22) Anabolic steroids are illegal in the United States. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 328 23) Creatine has been shown to increase the risk of cancer in humans. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 328-329 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ is a subcategory of leisure-time physical activity that is purposeful, planned, and structured. Answer: Exercise Page Ref: 302 2) ________ is the currency of energy for the cells. Answer: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) Page Ref: 312 3) A(n) ________ reaction occurs in the absence of oxygen. Answer: anaerobic Page Ref: 313 4) ________ exercise involves the repetitive movement of large muscle groups, increasing the body's use of oxygen. Answer: Aerobic Page Ref: 313 5) ________ is a by-product of glycolysis and was once thought to cause muscle fatigue and soreness during exercise. Answer: Lactic acid Page Ref: 313 6) ________ is the breakdown of carbohydrate to provide quick energy to the body. Answer: Glycolysis Page Ref: 313 7) Placing an extra physical demand on the body in order to improve the fitness level is called the ________. Answer: overload principle Page Ref: 306 8) Maximal heart rate equals 220 minus one's ________. Answer: age Page Ref: 308 9) ________ is the primary end product of glycolysis. Answer: Pyruvic acid Page Ref: 313 10) Eating small meals throughout the day is called ________. Answer: grazing Page Ref: 318 11) ________ is a process that involves altering training and food intake to maximize the amount of glycogen stored in skeletal muscles. Answer: Carbohydrate loading Page Ref: 320 12) The primary way the body dissipates heat is through ________ cooling, or sweating. Answer: evaporative cooling Page Ref: 322 13) Heat ________ is dizziness that occurs when people are in the sun too long. Answer: syncope Page Ref: 322 14) ________ aids are substances used to enhance athletic performance. Answer: Ergogenic Page Ref: 326 15) A product, such as DHEA, that is marketed to increase muscle mass and strength is called a(n) ________ substance. Answer: anabolic Page Ref: 328 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) ATP Page Ref: 312 2) Lactic acid Page Ref: 313 3) Pyruvic acid Page Ref: 313 4) Glycolysis Page Ref: 313 5) Creatine Phosphate Page Ref: 313 6) Aerobic Page Ref: 313 7) Anerobic Page Ref: 313 A) High-energy compound that can regenerate ATP in seconds B) End product of glycolysis when there is a limited supply of oxygen C) Energy currency of the cell D) Primary end product of glycolysis E) Breakdown of glucose; yields two ATP molecules F) Without oxygen; high-intensity exercise G) With oxygen; low-intensity exercise Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) A 6) G 7) F Match the following items. 8) Chromium Page Ref: 325 9) GHB Page Ref: 328 10) Carnitine Page Ref: 329 11) Ephedrine Page Ref: 329 12) Dehydroepiandrosterone Page Ref: 328 13) Creatine Page Ref: 328 14) Caffeine Page Ref: 329 A) Black market substance promoted to build muscle; linked to fatal side effects B) Stimulant that has been shown to increase the use of fat as a fuel C) Derived from the herb ma huang; stimulant illegal in the United States D) Compound stored in muscles; supplements marketed to prolong training E) Trace mineral that enhances insulin action F) Precursor of testosterone G) Assists in fatty acid transport; marketed as a "fat burner" Answers: 8) E 9) A 10) G 11) C 12) F 13) D 14) B Using the figure, label the steps in the glycolysis process by using A-E: 15) ________ Anaerobic Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 16) ________ Aerobic Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 17) ________ Glucose Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 18) ________ CO and H O 2 2 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 19) ________ Lactic acid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the health benefits of physical activity. Page Ref: 303-304 2) Describe how the body uses carbohydrate, protein, and fat during physical activity. Page Ref: 312-316 3) Design a physical fitness program for yourself. What are the most important components to include in planning a sound fitness program? Page Ref: 305-311 4) Describe the four major categories of heat illness: heat syncope, heat cramps, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke. Page Ref: 322-323 5) Describe the optimal diet for an athlete. Page Ref: 317-325 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) In the United States, if an ergogenic aid has been granted a patent it has been proven to be both effective and safe. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 326 2) Lactic acid is an energy source for muscle cells during both rest and exercise. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 315 3) It is recommended that you drink ________ cups of fluid for each pound of body weight lost during an exercise bout. Answer: three Page Ref: 324 4) The ________ describes the improved performance based on the belief that a product or supplement is beneficial although it has no true physiological benefit. Answer: placebo effect Page Ref: 327 1) Inadequate intakes of ________ during pregnancy are associated with neural tube defects in the fetus. A) protein B) iron C) folate D) calcium Register to View Answer Page Ref: 334 2) ________ is the point at which the ovum becomes fertilized by the sperm. A) Implantation B) Conception C) Parturition D) Gestation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 334 3) A full-term infant is born: A) weighing less than 5.5 lbs. B) less than 17 inches long. C) from 38 to 42 weeks' gestation. D) prior to the full development of the respiratory system. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 335 4) In which trimester of pregnancy is the placenta formed? A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 335 5) A low-birth-weight infant will weigh: A) less than 5.5 pounds. B) less than 6.0 pounds. C) less than 6.5 pounds. D) less than 7.0 pounds. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 337 6) In which trimester of pregnancy is the fetus the most vulnerable to teratogens? A) first B) second C) third D) fourth Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 335 7) Recommended weight gain during pregnancy is based on the: A) mother's weight at the end of the first trimester. B) size of the fetus at three months' gestation. C) mother's prepregnancy weight. D) mother's age. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 337 8) During the first trimester, women are advised to gain no more than: A) 3 to 5 pounds. B) 5 to 10 pounds. C) 10 to 15 pounds. D) 15 to 20 pounds. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 337-338 9) During the second and third trimesters, the caloric needs of a pregnant woman increase by ________ kcal/day. A) 150 to 250 B) 350 to 450 C) 550 to 650 D) 750 to 850 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 339 10) Which of the following fatty acids is critical to fetal brain and eye development? A) stearic acid B) oleic acid C) docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) D) palmitic acid Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 339 11) To avoid ________ contamination during pregnancy, fish consumption should not exceed 12 ounces a week. A) mercury B) lead C) arsenic D) nitrogen Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 339 12) At what point during pregnancy is adequate intake of DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) the MOST important? A) during the first four weeks B) during the second trimester C) during the third trimester D) immediately prior to parturition (delivery) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 339 13) Fetal demand for iron is highest during the: A) first trimester. B) second trimester. C) third trimester. D) entire gestational period. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 341 14) Which of the following nutrients would be the most difficult for a pregnant vegan to obtain from diet alone? A) folate B) sodium C) vitamin C D) vitamin B 12 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 342 15) A normal-weight woman should gain approximately ________ during pregnancy. A) 15 to 20 pounds B) 25 to 35 pounds C) 35 to 40 pounds D) 40 to 55 pounds Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 337 16) The most common cause of blindness in the elderly is: A) cataracts. B) macular degeneration. C) diabetes. D) accidents. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 374 17) Sofia is three months pregnant. Prior to becoming pregnant she consumed approximately 54 grams of protein a day. How many grams of protein does she need to consume now? A) 54 grams B) 65 grams C) 79 grams D) 92 grams Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 339 18) During the first six months of lactation, the caloric needs of the mother increase by ________ kcal/day. A) 150 B) 330 C) 550 D) 730 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 350 19) Milk that is rich in protein and antibodies and produced in the first few days of lactation is termed: A) hindmilk. B) colostrum. C) final milk. D) foremilk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 347 20) Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding? A) assists the uterus in returning to prepregnancy size B) potential decreased risk of premenopausal breast cancer C) shortens the intervals between pregnancies D) is less costly Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 347-348 21) At birth Baby Molly weighs 7 pounds. If her growth and development are normal, what would you expect Molly to weigh at her first birthday? A) 14 pounds B) 18 pounds C) 21 pounds D) 30 pounds Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 347 22) It is best if the first solid food introduced to infants is: A) iron-fortified rice cereal. B) strained vegetables. C) strained fruit. D) strained meat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 352 23) Which of the following are cues that an infant is ready to accept solid foods? A) The infant can sit up with or without support. B) The infant's tongue extrusion reflex has begun to subside. C) The infant is at least four months old. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 352 24) Over-reliance on breast milk or formula in children can result in: A) rickets. B) dehydration. C) milk anemia. D) hypocalcemia. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 353 25) The development of the ________ is particularly dependent on adequate consumption of fat during the toddler years. A) digestive system B) nervous system C) skeletal system D) urinary system Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 351 26) Approximately ________ percent of U.S. households with children are food insecure. A) 5 B) 12 C) 15 D) 20 Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 362 27) Which nutrient is generally NOT a concern for vegan children? A) vitamin D B) iron C) vitamin B 12 D) vitamin C Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 357-358 28) All of the following are associated with developing toddlers' healthy eating habits EXCEPT: A) snacking between meals. B) small portion sizes. C) rewarding meal completion with dessert. D) introducing new foods gradually. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 356-357 29) All of the following are rationales for NOT introducing whole cow's milk to children under one year of age EXCEPT: A) Cow's milk is too high in protein and is difficult for infants to digest. B) Cow's milk is low in fat and cannot support the development of the infant's nervous system. C) Cow's milk contains too few carbohydrates and cannot support the infant's energy needs. D) Cow's milk is too high in sodium and could stress the infant's immature kidneys. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 353 30) Janie is four years old. What serving size of green beans would you recommend for her? A) 2 tablespoons B) 3 tablespoons C) 4 tablespoons D) 6 tablespoons Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 357 31) On average, humans experience a ________ increase in height during adolescence. A) 10 to 20% B) 20 to 25% C) 25 to 35% D) 35 to 45% Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 364 32) AI fluid recommendations for adolescents are: A) 8 cups for boys and girls B) 11 cups for boys and girls C) 11 cups for boys and 8 cups for girls D) 8 cups for boys and 11 cups for girls Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365 33) Which of the following is generally NOT a nutrient of concern during adolescence? A) vitamin C B) calcium C) iron D) vitamin A Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365 34) All of the following are characteristic of adolescent eating habits EXCEPT: A) low intake of fruits and vegetables. B) preference for fast food and convenience foods. C) regular consumption of three meals per day. D) soft drinks preferred over nutritionally dense beverages. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365-367 35) Which of the following is NOT related to the increased iron needs in adolescence? A) Skeletal muscle mass increases. B) Iron utilization slows down. C) Iron is lost as a result of menstruation (in girls). D) Food choices are often inadequate in iron. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365 36) ________ percent of U.S. adolescents between the ages of 12-19 are overweight. A) Five B) Seventeen C) Twenty-five D) Thirty-five Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 367 37) All of the following are physiological changes that typically occur with aging EXCEPT: A) decreased production of saliva. B) decreased bone density. C) decreased fat mass. D) decreased sense of taste. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 368-370 38) In older adults, which of the following is a mineral important to a healthy immune system and wound healing? A) calcium B) vitamin C C) vitamin A D) zinc Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 371 39) On average, Americans have a life expectancy that reaches into the: A) early seventies. B) late seventies. C) early eighties. D) late eighties. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 368 40) The absorption of vitamin ________ increases in older adults. A) A B) B 12 C) C D) D Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 371 True/False Questions 1) Only overweight pregnant women should restrict their caloric intake and attempt to lose some weight before delivery. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 338 2) Preconception malnutrition contributes to abnormalities in sperm. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 335 3) Miscarriages are most common during the second trimester. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 335 4) All cases of neural tube defects are directly related to a lack of folate consumption during pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 340 5) Vitamin A supplementation during pregnancy can cause birth defects. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 341 6) Recommendations for weight gain vary but are based upon a woman's prepregnancy weight. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 337 7) Only a small minority of women (< 5%) experience morning sickness during pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 342 8) Well-planned vegetarian diets are contraindicated during pregnancy. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 345 9) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is dangerous only during the first trimester. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 345 10) Caffeine and alcohol can readily enter breast milk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 345 11) Children under age one should not be given formula derived from cow's milk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 353 12) The precise cause of colic is not fully known. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 354 13) If a toddler is overweight, a practical approach would be to start the child on 1% milk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 355 14) New foods should be presented one at a time and infants should be monitored for allergic reactions for at least 4-5 hours before introducing additional new foods. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 353 15) Multivitamin/mineral supplements are never recommended for preschoolers. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 359 16) High intake of fiber may be harmful in young children, as it may interfere with the absorption of nutrients. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 359 17) Current federal regulations prohibit soda vending machines from public high schools. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 361 18) Due to the additional losses via the menstrual cycle, adolescent girls require more iron than do adolescent boys. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365 19) U.S. school lunches are regulated by the federal government. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 361 20) The growth spurt starts earlier in boys than in girls. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 364 21) Girls gain more body fat through adolescence than do boys. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 364 22) Eliminating chocolate and fried foods from the diet has been shown to be more effective than prescription medications for treating acne. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 365 23) The energy needs of older adults are higher than those of younger adults. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 371 24) Although considered an epidemic among U.S. adults, obesity rates in school-aged children have remained constant since the 1970s. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 362 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) ________ is any substance that causes a birth defect in the developing fetus. Answer: teratogen Page Ref: 334 2) The first fluid made and secreted by the breasts from late in pregnancy to about a week after birth is called ________. Answer: colostrum Page Ref: 347 3) The ________ will differentiate into the fetus's brain and spinal cord. Answer: neural tube Page Ref: 339 4) A low birth weight baby is less than ________ pounds at the time of delivery. Answer: 5.5 Page Ref: 337 5) ________ is the most common cause of death in infants more than 1 month of age. Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) Page Ref: 348 6) ________ fluid cushions and protects the developing fetus. Answer: Amniotic Page Ref: 342 7) ________ is an abnormal craving for nonfood items, such as clay and ice chips. Answer: Pica Page Ref: 342 8) Insufficient insulin production during pregnancy could result in the condition known as ________. Answer: gestational diabetes Page Ref: 343 9) ________ is characterized in healthy infants by inconsolable crying for hours at a time. Answer: Colic Page Ref: 354 10) ________ is the key macronutrient for the development of the nervous system during the preschool years. Answer: Fat Page Ref: 359 11) It is recommended that a child's television watching should be limited to no more than ________ hours a day. Answer: two Page Ref: 362 12) The Institutes of Medicine recommend that children be physically active for at least ________ hour(s) a day. Answer: one Page Ref: 362 13) ________ is the period of life when secondary sexual characteristics develop and people are biologically capable of reproducing. Answer: Puberty Page Ref: 363 14) Growth ________ are periods of accelerated growth. Answer: spurts Page Ref: 364 15) ________ describes the concurrent use of three or more medications at the same time. Answer: Polypharmacy Page Ref: 375 16) Absorption of vitamin ________ increases in older adults. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 371 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Conception Page Ref: 334 2) Low birth weight Page Ref: 337 3) Ovulation Page Ref: 348 4) Embryo Page Ref: 335 5) Teratogen Page Ref: 334 6) Fetus Page Ref: 335 7) Placenta Page Ref: 335 8) Neural tube Page Ref: 339 A) Embryonic structure that will develop into brain and spinal cord B) Organ formed during pregnancy that delivers nutrients to the fetus C) Fetal development from the third to the eighth week after fertilization D) Substance that can cause a birth defect in the developing fetus E) Release of ovum from ovary F) Human growth and development lasting from beginning of ninth week after conception to birth. G) Fertilization of the ovum by the sperm H) Birth weight of less than 5.5 pounds Answers: 1) G 2) H 3) E 4) C 5) D 6) F 7) B 8) A Match the following items. 9) Vitamin K Page Ref: 351 10) Zinc Page Ref: 341 11) Vitamin D Page Ref: 341 12) Vitamin B 12 Page Ref: 340 13) Calcium Page Ref: 341 14) Sodium Page Ref: 341 15) Vitamin A Page Ref: 371 A) Too much is associated with fluid retention and bloating B) Critical for individuals not exposed to sunlight C) Newborns receive injection shortly after birth D) Vegan diet must include supplemental and/or fortified source of this vitamin E) Absorption of this nutrient increases in older adults F) Low intake of this mineral in adolescence is associated with "milk displacement" G) Mineral associated with immune health; often suboptimal in elderly individuals Answers: 9) C 10) G 11) B 12) D 13) F 14) A 15) E Essay Questions 1) Discuss why folate is crucial during pregnancy. Page Ref: 339-340 2) Describe a healthy diet for pregnant women. Page Ref: 338-342 3) Explain the appropriate progression of solid foods during the first year of life and the rationale behind each of these recommendations. Page Ref: 352-353 4) Describe eating habits in toddlers and suggest how parents can encourage healthy eating habits during this time. Page Ref: 355-357 5) Explain the physiological changes that occur with aging and how they affect nutrition status. Page Ref: 368-370 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) Research has found that rodents fed a low calorie diets experience an extended life span. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 377 2) The lack of dietary iron is the major cause of pica in pregnant women. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 343 3) The American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Dietetic Association have stated that a well-planned vegan diet can promote normal growth and development in children. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 358 4) During a fast, glycogen stores are depleted after approximately ________ hours. Answer: twelve Page Ref: 366 5) Discuss four benefits of eating breakfast. Page Ref: 366 6) Discuss the benefits and concerns in feeding a vegan diet to a young child. Page Ref: 358 1) Pesticides are: A) chemicals added to food to enhance them in some way. B) chemicals added to food that help prevent microbial spoilage and enzymatic deterioration. C) chemicals used in the field and in storage areas to decrease destruction caused by insects and fungus. D) chemicals produced by microorganisms that harm tissue and elicit an immune response. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 406 2) In the 1800's pasteurization was first used to destroy organisms in: A) milk. B) wine. C) poultry. D) cheese. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 400 3) In the United States, the most common food-borne illnesses result from which of the following bacteria? A) Giardia lamblia and Clostridium botulinum B) helminths and molds C) Campylobacter jejuni and Salmonella D) Bovine spongiform and mycotoxins Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 386 4) The food-borne illness caused by Campylobacter jejuni is associated with consuming: A) grains that have been stored in a moist environment. B) water that has been contaminated with fecal material. C) tapeworms. D) contaminated beef or pork. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 386 5) Which of the following bacteria causes food-borne illness by releasing a toxin? A) hepatitis A B) Norwalk virus C) Salmonella D) Clostridium botulinum Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 389 6) Hepatitis A is a food-borne virus that can result in ________ damage. A) nerve B) intestinal C) liver D) muscle Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 388 7) Which of the following is a potential source of contamination from Clostriidum botulinum? A) split or pierced bulging can goods. B) foods improperly canned at home. C) raw honey. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 389 8) Why do fungi rarely cause food infection? A) Few species of fungi cause serious illness. B) Fungal growth makes food look unappealing. C) Diseases associated with fungi are not typically food-borne. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 388 9) The vitamin that is often added to fat-based products in order to prevent rancidity is: A) vitamin A. B) thiamin. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin E. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 403 10) Which of the following is FALSE regarding prions and mad cow disease? A) Prions are destroyed when subjected to temperatures >120F. B) Prions are found in the animal tissue of infected animals. C) Cattle contract the disease by eating contaminated feed. D) Mad cow disease primarily affects the neurological system. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 388 11) The main symptom associated with Clostridium botulinum intoxication is: A) diarrhea. B) paralysis. C) anemia. D) jaundice. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 389 12) All of the following are protective responses to encountering food-borne microbes EXCEPT: A) vomiting and diarrhea. B) enzymes in saliva. C) hydrochloric acid in the stomach. D) decreased inflammatory response. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 389 13) Which agency monitors all confirmed cases of food-borne illness? A) FDA B) CDC C) USDA D) EPA Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 385 14) In which of the following environments does Clostridium botulinum flourish? A) acidic B) alkaline C) <40F D) >140F Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 390 15) Which of the following are fungi? A) spongiforms B) helminths C) prions D) molds Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 388 16) When ________ are exposed to prolonged light the toxin solanine is produced. A) eggs B) molds C) mushrooms D) potatoes Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 389 17) The easiest and most effective way to prevent food-borne illnesses is to: A) wash hands before handling food. B) separate foods to avoid cross-contamination. C) chill foods to prevent microbes from growing. D) cook foods to their proper temperature. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 391 18) Which of the following is NOT a recommended method for preventing cross-contamination? A) washing utensils and cutting boards in the dishwasher B) using a porous wood cutting board C) washing dishtowels and aprons often D) separating raw and cooked foods Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 392 19) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the safe storage of leftovers? A) Leftovers should be refrigerated within two hours of serving. B) Leftovers should be stored at a depth of no greater than two inches. C) Leftovers should be refrigerated only for up to four days. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 393 20) An estimated ________ of all chicken eggs in the United States are contaminated with Salmonella. A) one-fifth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) one-half Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 397 21) Marguerite likes fish and seafood, but she is concerned about its mercury content. Which of the following would you advise her to avoid? A) swordfish B) cod C) salmon D) shrimp Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 406 22) Which of the following food preservation methods limits spoilage by drawing water out of foods, making them inhospitable to bacterial growth? A) drying B) salting C) smoking D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 399 23) The proper steps developed for canning foods ensures that all endospores of ________ are eliminated when followed carefully. A) Salmonella B) Clostridium botulinum C) Giardia intestinalis D) Campylobacter jejuni Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 390 24) Which of the following are most likely to contain nitrites? A) canned vegetables B) milk and yogurt C) beer and wine D) processed meats Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 400 25) ________ is a process that uses gamma rays to eliminate harmful bacteria. A) Irradiation B) Aseptic packaging C) Genetic modification D) Pasteurization Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 401 26) In the United States iodine is added to ________ in order to reduce the incidence of goiter. A) municipal water supplies B) breads and cereals C) table salt D) baby food Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 403 27) Which of the following BEST describes the Delaney Clause? A) government action that prevents the intentional addition of compounds that have been shown to cause cancer in animals or humans B) government recommendation that all predatory fish be tested for mercury before being sold to the consumer C) list of food additives generally regarded as safe; established in 1958 by the U.S. Congress D) pending legislation to ban irradiation as a method of food preservation Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 404 28) Foods most commonly associated with Salmonella infection are: A) sauces and gravies. B) raw eggs and chicken. C) seafood and raw fish. D) custard and cream-filled pastries. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 397 29) The majority (65%) of all pesticides produced in the United States are: A) insecticides. B) herbicides. C) fungicides. D) biopesticides. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 407 30) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using biopesticides? A) degrade rapidly and are easily washed away by water B) do not leave pesticide residues on crops C) can be produced synthetically and are therefore inexpensive D) low impact on the environment Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 407 31) Which human organ system is most affected by toxic levels of mercury? A) nervous B) renal C) cardiovascular D) digestive Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 406 32) Which of the following is an example of a persistent organic pollutant? A) lead B) GMO C) sulfite D) coal tar Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 406 33) Approximately ________ percent of all food additives are flavoring agents. A) five B) twenty C) fifty D) eighty Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 403 34) Which government agency regulates the labeling, sale, distribution, use, and disposal of all pesticides in the United States? A) Food and Drug Administration B) U.S. Department of Agriculture C) Environmental Protection Agency D) Centers for Disease Control Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 408 35) Why is rBGH given to many U.S. dairy cows? A) to prevent the growth of microbes in the cows' milk B) to improve the nutritional quality of the cows' milk C) to strengthen the cows' immune systems D) to increase milk production without increasing feed Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 408 36) Which of the following is associated with kwashiorkor? A) swollen abdomen B) redding of the hair. C) severe muscle wasting. D) all of the above Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 37) Which of the following is NOT a type of malnutrition? A) nutrient deficiency B) food poisoning C) undernutrition D) overnutrition Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 410-411 38) The nutrition transition is associated with the increased prevalence of: A) nutrient deficiencies. B) food poisoning. C) food allergies. D) obesity. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 416 39) A deficiency of ________ is associated with childhood blindness. A) vitamin A B) iodine C) vitamin C D) iron Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 415 40) What food additive is used to keep moisture to foods such as chewing gum and shredded coconut? A) emulsifiers B) desiccants C) stabilizers D) humectants Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 403 True/False Questions 1) Some researchers consider food allergies a form of food-borne illness. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 385 2) Most food-borne illness is caused by mold. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 385 3) Food intoxications result from consuming foods in which microorganisms have secreted poisonous toxins. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 386 4) The majority of food infections are caused by bacteria and viruses. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 386 5) Thoroughly cooking beef, pork, or fish will destroy helminth larvae and prevent infection. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 388 6) The safety of raw seafood cannot be guaranteed; it must be cooked. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 395 7) Clostridium botulinum thrives in an alkaline environment. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 390 8) Foods of plant origin are the most common sources of food-borne illnesses. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 386 9) Refrigerating or freezing foods will kill any bacteria present in the food. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 392 10) It is safe to thaw frozen foods on the kitchen counter as long as the room temperature is < 85 F. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 394 11) The toxins produced by microbes are destroyed by heat. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 397 12) All preservatives must be listed on the food label. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 400 13) Nitrites have been shown to cause cancer in humans. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 400-401 14) All additives are synthetic. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 401 15) One limitation of using aseptic packaging is that it is an environmentally unfriendly process. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 400 16) Products that are "100% organic" or "organic" may display the USDA seal. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 409 17) Organic farmers cannot use pesticides in any circumstance. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 409 18) Irradiation is a process that exposes foods to gamma rays from radioactive metals to kill any microorganisms in the food. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 401 19) In the United States, products containing recombinant bovine growth hormone (rBGH) must be labeled and clearly identifiable. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 408 20) Worldwide famines are the major cause of malnutrition. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 411 Short Answer Questions 1) ________ illness arises from ingesting food or water that contains harmful microorganisms. Answer: Food-borne Page Ref: 385 2) Some people are sensitive to ________, mold inhibitors used in preserving grapes, beer, and wines. Answer: sulfites Page Ref: 400 3) Food ________ are chemicals added to food to help prevent microbial spoilage and enzymatic deterioration. Answer: preservatives Page Ref: 400 4) Food ________ are substances intentionally put in food to enhance appearance, palatability, and/or quality. Answer: additives Page Ref: 401 5) ________ are chemicals used to develop and stabilize the pink color associated with cured meat. Answer: Nitrites Page Ref: 400 6) An infectious protein called a(n) ________ can lead to mad cow disease. Answer: prion Page Ref: 388 7) ________ are poisonous chemicals produced by fungi. Answer: Mycotoxins Page Ref: 389 8) The danger zone of bacterial growth is a range of temperature at which many microorganisms capable of causing human illness thrive; this range is ________ F. Answer: 40 140 Page Ref: 390 9) A form of sterilization using high temperatures for a short time is called ________. Answer: pasteurization Page Ref: 406 10) The ________ List identifies substances used in foods that are thought to be safe based on a history of long-term use or on the consensus of qualified experts. Answer: GRAS (Generally Recognized as Safe) Page Ref: 404-405 11) ________ agriculture techniques of food production preserve the environment indefinitely. Answer: Sustainable Page Ref: 412 12) Food ________ are chemicals that remain in foods despite cleaning and processing. Answer: residues Page Ref: 405 13) A shift in dietary pattern toward greater food security, greater variety of foods, and more foods with high energy density because of added fat and sugar is called the ________. Answer: nutrition transition Page Ref: 416 14) ________ describes the circumstance when a person has every-day access to a supply of safe foods with enough energy and sufficiently rich nutrient quality to promote a healthy, active life. Answer: Food security Page Ref: 409 15) ________ is a genetically engineered hormone injected into dairy cows to enhance their milk output. Answer: Recombinant bovine growth hormone (rBGH) Page Ref: 408 Matching Questions Match the following items. 1) Dioxin Page Ref: 406 2) Pasteurization Page Ref: 406 3) rBGH Page Ref: 408 4) Biopesticides Page Ref: 407 5) Desiccants Page Ref: 403 6) Humectants Page Ref: 403 7) Irradiation Page Ref: 401 8) Genetic modification Page Ref: 401 A) Sterilization process that applies high temperatures for a short period of time B) genetic engineered hormone used to enhance milk production in cows C) Natural pesticides that cause less harm to the environment D) Industrial pollutant resulting from discarded transformers E) Changing an organism's natural traits by altering the DNA material F) Help retain moisture in foods G) Sterilization process in which radiation energy is applied to foods H) Used to prevent foods from absorbing moisture from the air Answers: 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) H 6) F 7) G 8) E Please indicate if the following are characteristics/symptoms of kwashiorkor or marasmus by using the following designations: Kwashiorkor = A Marasmus = B 9) ________ Develops slowly (chronic) Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 10) ________ Inadequate intake of all nutrients Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 11) ________ Edema Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 12) ________ Discoloration of hair and skin Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 13) ________ Associated with sudden weaning Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 14) ________ Mainly due to inadequate or poor quality protein intake Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 15) ________ No body fat ("skin and bones") Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 16) ________ Swollen stomach Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 413 Essay Questions 1) Describe how the human body defends itself after contracting a food-borne illness. Page Ref: 389 2) Discuss the four basic rules of FightBAC for safe food handling. Page Ref: 390-398 3) Describe how organic farming practices differ from traditional methods. Page Ref: 409 4) Describe four ways to avoid food-borne illnesses when eating out. Page Ref: 398 Questions from Chapter Boxes 1) In the United States, which of the following products are commonly genetically modified organisms? A) chicken and pork B) milk and eggs C) soybeans and corn D) green and red peppers Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 402 2) The first commercially sold GMO (genetically modified organism) was: A) Olestra potato chips B) Benacol margarine C) Flavr Savr tomato D) orange juice with calcium Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 402 3) Because they do not contain proteins, GMOs pose no allergy risk. Register to View AnswerPage Ref: 402 4) Discuss the benefits and concerns regarding genetically modified foods. Page Ref: 402 5) Discuss four potential ways in which your actions as a consumer could contribute positively to global food security. Page Ref: 414-415
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