Midterm Sample 2 Darwin, Lamarck, Natural Selection 1. Experiments in which the tails of mice were cut off generation after generation to see if their offspring would ever be born without tails was testing a. evolution by natural selection b. inheritance of acquired characteristics c. both of these d. neither of these 2. Lamarck's early 1800's theory of evolution is characterized primarily by the idea that a. characteristics acquired during life are passed on to offspring b. evolution is a completely random process c. most organisms don't produce enough offspring d. none of these 3. Which is true of Lamarck's evolutionary hypothesis? a. it was untestable b. it was testable, but experiments did not support it c. it was testable, and most experiments supported it 4. Evolution is: a. A rare event c. Constantly occurring at the same rate in ALL organisms 5. The process of biological evolution a. is not supported by scientific evidence c. results in changes in allele frequencies over generations 6. Which evolves? a. individuals
b. Currently occurring only in scientific laboratories d. An inevitable consequence of the nature of organisms
b. requires biological diversity in a population d. both b and c
b. populations
c. genes
d. all of these
7. Evolution is the theme that ties together all of biology. This is because the process of evolution a. explains how organisms become adapted to their environment. b. explains the diversity of organisms c. explains why distantly related organisms sometimes resemble one another. d. all of the above are appropriate answers. 8. Which of the following is an acceptable definition of evolution? a. a change in the phenotypic makeup of a population c. a change in the environmental conditions of a population
b. a change in the genetic makeup of a population d. a change in the species composition of a region
9. Each of the following phrases describes the process of evolution EXCEPT a. changes in allele frequency over time b. traits acquired by an individual during its lifetime are passed on to its offspring c. descent with modification d. progressively more complex forms of life are derived from simpler ancestors 10. In the evolution of organisms through time, a. species always become bigger, stronger, or faster c. there is no particular direction to evolutionary change
b. intelligence continually increases in animal species d. species slowly degenerate
11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE? a. Organisms can produce many more offspring than can survive. b. All organisms of a species show the same characteristics. c. Among organisms, there is a constant struggle for survival. d. Individuals that possess favorable characteristics for their environment have a higher rate of survival and produce more surviving offspring. 12. When hit with a new pesticide, the bug that survives is the one that a. already has a gene to break it down b. can evolve a new gene to break it down c. can figure out how to break it down d. can learn to use old genes in new ways
13. In one evolutionary study, fish that died in a pond were compared to those that survived. The results are shown in the table below. Average length (mm) 29.5 26.3 Average weight (g) 52.4 55.1
Dead fish Surviving fish
This study indicates that what type of fish is being selected for? a. longer, wider fish b. shorter, wider fish c. shorter, narrower fish 14. When do new traits appear in a population? a. as soon as they are needed c. when the selection pressure is applied
d. longer, narrower fish
b. before they are needed d. when new predators appear
15. Darwin and Wallace first suggested a. The idea that evolution might occur. b. A testable and believable mechanism to explain how evolution might occur. c. The idea that changes to an organism's body caused by the environment might be passed on to its offspring. d. None of the above. 16. Darwin explained the differences in beak shape among Galapagos finches as being the result of a. chance events b. adaptations to eating different foods c. differences that existed in the colonizing species d. inheritance of acquired characteristics 17. Darwin's observations during the voyage of the Beagle convinced him that a. new species can arise during evolution b. modern species are related to one another c. similar species share a common ancestor d. all of the above 18. Which of the following is the best measure of the "fitness" of an organism? a. reproductive success b. strength c. life span 19. The relative ability to survive and reproduce in a particular environment is a. gene pool b. natural selection c. evolutionary fitness 20. Natural selection a. usually leads to adaptation. b. is the process whereby organisms who are "best fit" survive and leave more offspring. c. favors those organisms that are better able to survive and reproduce in a particular environment. d. All of these statements are correct. 21. According to natural selection, birds such as cardinals, egrets, and ducks have differently shaped feet due to a. random changes in foot structure b. adaptations to different environments c. differences inherited from their ancestors d. inheritance of acquired characteristics 22. The Galapagos Islands are located a. in the eastern Pacific off the coast of Ecuador c. between Australia and New Zealand
d. geographic range
d. gene flow
b. in the central Atlantic west of Africa d. between Hawaii and Alaska
23. The tendency of organisms that are well adapted to their environment to leave more viable offspring is called a. speciation b. natural selection c. interbreeding d. homology 24. The theory of uniformitarianism (or gradualism), which stated that geological processes in the past operated the same way that they do today, was important in helping scientists understand and interpret which? a. evolution b. that some species previously found on Earth were no longer here c. the age of the Earth d. the origin of species 25. Which of the following is an example of a microevolution? a. The evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria. b. The speciation of finches on the Galapagos islands. c. The increase in size, over time, of fossil horses. d. The evolution of humans from an ancestral primate.
26. Which describes natural selection? a. Some live and some die in each generation b. Only the largest and strongest survive c. Random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations d. The best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most to the next generation 27. Which of the following is indirect evidence in support of the theory of evolution by natural selection? a. Improvement of domesticated animals and plants by breeding individuals with desirable traits b. The fossil record that shows a clear relationship between living and extinct animals c. homologous structures in different organisms are dissimilar in form and function but have underlying structural similarities. d. all of the above 28. Which of the following statements is true? a. Antibiotics kill all bacterial that they encounter. b. Antibiotics don't kill bacteria which have a pre-existing allele allowing them to break down the antibiotic. c. Antibiotics don't kill bacteria which can evolve an allele allowing them to break down the antibiotic after they encounter the antibiotic d. None of these are true 29. Artificial selection has given us a. the many species of wild cats c. various human societies
b. breeds of domesticated dogs d. the many rainforest species
30. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a result of artificial selection in plants? a. production of larger fruits b. better protection against predators, such as thorns and toxin c. loss of dispersal mechanisms (parachutes, wings, etc.) on the fruit d. simultaneous ripening of fruit 31. All of the following statements are related to the ideas of natural selection except which one? a. There is heritable variation among individuals. b. Production of offspring is unrelated to the availability of essential resources. c. Only a fraction of offspring survive because of competition for limited resources. d. Unequal reproductive success leads to adaptations. 32. Natural selection tends to reduce variation in gene pools. What process serves to balance natural selection by creating new alleles? a. meiosis b. sex c. mutation d. migration 33. Mutations of genetic material a. are usually harmful c. usually help an organism adapt more effectively to its environment
b. are often beneficial d. occur frequently
34. When the allele frequencies within a species change over time, that species is a. mutating b. on its way to extinction c. evolving 35. Which owl was most fit? a. Owl 1 laid 8 eggs, of which 6 hatched and 5 young successfully left the nest. b. Owl 2 laid 9 eggs, of which 8 hatched and 3 young successfully left the nest. c. Owl 3 laid 12 eggs, of which 10 hatched and were all eaten by a squirrel. d. Owl 4 laid 4 eggs, of which all 4 hatched and all 4 young successfully left the nest.
d. none of the above.
36. Which ONE of the following statements is true of evolution: a. Evolution by natural selection leads to changes which increase the ability of a population to succeed in the environment in which they find themselves. b. Evolutionary changes must lead to increased genetic diversity in a population. c. When a population is evolving, offspring will not resemble their parents. d. Natural selection can cause inheritable (genetic) changes in an organism. 37. Specific environmental factors that favor certain characteristics in organisms are called a. selecting agents b. hurricanes c. mutations
d. disruptive factors
38. Which of the following environments would select for flight in insects? a. a cage with slippery walls that insects can't climb, and an electrified screen at the top b. a swamp full of frogs that can see and catch flying insects better than crawling insects c. a forest full of bats the catch insects in flight d. a cage with no predators, in which food is provided in high dishes 39. The gene pool of a species a. remains constant over time c. is changed by evolution
b. continually loses alleles d. is identical to that of many other species
40. Death of some individuals due to dehydration in a desert would be an example of _____ selection. a. natural b. artificial c. sexual d. parental 41. Average beak size in one generation of Galapagos finches is associated with a. amount of rain the previous year b. average temperatures the previous year c. size of predators the previous year d. the prevalence of ticks and mites the previous year 42. Which of the following might exert selection pressure on a population of mice? a. their predators b. their diseases c. their food d. any of these 43. Selection is any process that changes the genetic composition of a population by ensuring that some individuals leave __________ offspring than others. a. more b. fewer c. better d. larger 44. Body parts, behavior, or physiological process that improve an organisms chance of survival and/or reproduction are called a. selections b. adaptations c. mutations d. genes 45. In coevolution, selection is carried out by a. the natural environment b. humans
c. another type of organism
d. mates
46. In many cases, one type of organism puts selection pressure on another, so they evolve together. For example, flowers and their pollinators. This is called a. artificial selection b. coevolution c. random mutation d. mimicry 47. The impressive tail of the peacock a. may not be favored by natural selection b. may provide peahens with an index of the health status prospective mates c. is most likely a result of the founder effect instead of natural selection d. both a and b are true 48. Which of the following is NOT required in order for mimicry to evolve? (Note that models are the toxic or inedible organisms that mimics resemble.) a. models and mimics must inhabit the same area b. models and mimics must eat the same food c. mimics must be rarer than models d. all of these requirements must be met for mimicry to evolve 49. Modern whales lack hindlimbs, but have tiny bones in their skeletons which are the remnants of pelvic and leg bones. Which of the following is NOT TRUE concerning this information? a. The remnants of pelvic and leg bones in whales are vestigial structures. b. Modern whales most likely had an ancestor that possessed hindlimbs. c. This is anatomical evidence in support of the theory of evolution. d. This is biochemical evidence in support of the theory of evolution. 50. The Irish elk may have become extinct because of the males' giant horns, which evolved due to a. natural selection b. artificial selection c. sexual selection d. none of these Speciation, Macroevolution 51. If individuals from one population mate on a regular basis with individuals from another population, which statement will be true about these two populations? a. The allele frequencies of the two groups would tend to remain similar b. The allele frequencies of the two groups would tend to diverge. c. The allele frequencies of the two groups are not affected by their mating habits.
52. Hawaiian silverswords evolved from California tarweeds. Which group would be expected to have more genetic diversity, the small group of recently evolved silverswords, or the large group of much older tarweeds? a. the tarweeds b. the silverswords c. both should have the same diversity d. you can't tell 53. Snapping shrimp populations were divided into two by the appearance of the Isthmus of Panama, and each original species evolved into two related species. Which group would be expected to have more genetic diversity, the species on the Caribbean Sea side of the Isthmus, or the species on the Pacific side of the Isthmus? a. the Caribbean side b. the Pacific side c. both should have the same diversity d. you can't tell 54. Two nucleotide sequences found in two different species are almost exactly the same. This suggests that these species a. will eventually evolve into one species b. contain identical DNA c. had similar evolutionary histories d. have the same number of mutations 55. Flying squirrels, which are placental mammals, and marsupial sugar gliders are not closely related but both can glide from tree to tree. They show a. adaptive radiation b. homologous structures c. convergent evolution 56. One finds that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that a. island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors b. common environments are inhabited by the same organisms c. the islands were originally part of the continent d. island forms and mainland forms frequently interbreed 57. An allele which arises by mutation in one group can only get to another group by a. Migration of one group into the other's territory b. A change in environmental conditions so that both groups are under the same selection pressures. c. Cross breeding between the two groups d. All of the above 58. When a population's territory becomes divided into two geographically separate groups which can't interbreed, what is likely to happen? a. adaptive radiation b. speciation c. mutation d. they will become living fossils 59. Which of the following is a prezygotic barrier to reproduction? a. A female mammal is unable to carry a hybrid embryo to term b. Hybrid plants produce only sterile pollen. c. A male hybrid between two bird species sings a song that is not recognizable by the females of either species. d. A male fly of one species performs a wing-waving dance that does not convince a female of another species to mate. 60. Which of the following can be used to study the evolutionary process? a. Fossil record b. Comparative anatomy c. Biochemical differences and similarities among taxa d. All of the above 61. Homologous structures in two species I. have no apparent function II. are usually very reduced in size III. Indicate that these species shared a common ancestory a. I only b. II only c. III only
d. I and III both
62. Of the following structures, which one has less similar construction due to less recent common ancestry? a. cat leg b. human arm c. whale flipper d. fish fin 63. What does speciation, the formation of one species from another, usually require? a. human intervention b. billions of years c. reproductive isolation
d. all of the above
64. During a speciation event, which normally comes first, geographical isolation or reproductive isolation? a. reproductive isolation b. geographical isolation c. they both occur at the same time
65. In evolutionary trees, each branch point represents a. a single species b. an extinction c. when one species diverged into two
d. none of these
66. When populations descended from the same ancestral group show different adaptations with the same basic underlying structure to them (for example whale flippers and human arms), it is referred to as a. homology b. natural selection c. analogy d. coevolution 67. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat? a. the dorsal fin of a shark b. the tail of a kangaroo c. the wing of a butterfly d. the arm of a human 68. Which of the following has provided an abundance of evidence that the diversity of life on Earth has changed over time? a. population genetics b. the fossil record c. natural selection d. creationism 69. Which of the following is NOT cited as a source of evidence in favor of the occurrence of macroevolution? a. fossils b. comparative embryology c. similarity of genes and proteins d. all of the above are used as evidence 70. According to the biological species concept, a species is a. a group of individuals which can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. b. a group of individuals which can interbreed and which live close enough together to actually do so c. a group of individuals who look very similar d. a group of individuals who have a common ancestor 71. If two groups are reproductively isolated from one another, their members will never meet one another. a. true b. false 72. Which of the following is (are) true of species, according to the biological species concept? a. Species consist of a group of plants or animals which all look very similar to one another. b. A species is a group of plants or animals that has the potential to evolve as a unit. c. A species is a group of plants or animals which can interbreed under natural conditions and produce fertile offspring. d. Both b and c are true. 73. Which of the following might be able to lead to reproductive isolation within a species of insect? a. If one subpopulation of the insects had wings larger than the other subpopulation. b. If one subpopulation had larger wings than the other subpopulation, and the subpopulation with larger wings was more successful at escaping from enemies. c. If one subpopulation had larger wings than the other subpopulation, and the subpopulation with larger wings flew up higher in the trees to mate. d. All of these would be likely to lead to isolation of the gene pools of the two subpopulations. 74. If you found a fish fossil, you would determine which species the fossil belonged to based on a. the morphological species concept b. the biological species concept c. you could use either d. you could not use either one 75. Homologous structures in two species a. have no apparent function c. indicate that those species share a common ancestor
b. are usually very reduced in size d. all of the above
76. Which of the following is least likely to become fossilized? a. a jellyfish b. a dinosaur bone c. a clam shell 77. Which of the following pairs shows convergent evolution? a a bird wing and an insect wing b. a bird wing and a human arm c. both pairs d. neither pair 78. Which is the broadest (most inclusive) category? a. class b. kingdom c. species 79. Which of the following is a vestigial trait in humans? a. opposable thumbs b. forearms
d. pollen
d. family
c. goosebumps
d. body hair
80. In some plants, pollen from one flower is transferred to the flower of another type, and fertilization occurs. The seeds start to grow but the embryo does not develop right and dies, producing a fruit with unusually small, nonfunctional seeds. This is a a. prefertilization barrier to reproduction b. postfertilization barrier to reproduction c. neither a nor b d. it could be either a or b 81. Which of the following is true about a vestigial structure or trait? a. It does not have a necessary function in more highly evolved organisms, but it did in more ancestral organisms. b. It did not have a necessary function in more ancestral organisms, but it does in more highly evolved organisms. c. It has an important function in both more highly evolved and more ancestral organisms. 82. Similarity between species that is the result of common descent is termed a. analogy b. convergence c. homology 83. If two species have each descended from the same common ancestor, then a. those species will be identical b. those species will have no anatomical features in common c. those species will have DNA sequences in common d. those species will still exist on Earth today 84. Which pair is most likely to be associated with speciation? a. a changing environment and animals struggling for survival c. mountains and icebergs 85. Which is easy to see occurring around us? a. microevolution b. macroevolution 86. Fossils are used as evidence to show that ____ has occurred. a. microevolution b. macroevolution c. both 87. Which is most likely to become fossilized? a. teeth b. flowers 88. Horse evolution occurred as their habitat was becoming a. wetter b. drier c. colder
d. homoplasy
b. a high mutation rate and reproductive isolation d. human impact and global warming
c. both
d. neither
d. neither
c. worms
d. eggs
d. hotter
89. North American cacti resemble South African euphorbs because they a. both live in hot, dry deserts b. are closely related c. are eaten by similar animals 90. It is possible for footprints to become fossilized. a. true b. false
d. both a and b
91. From seeing the vestigial leg bones in whales, we can conclude: a. Whales have evolved very quickly. b. There used to be walking whales. c. Whales evolved from a walking ancestor. d. Whales must be related to humans, since we can walk. 92. According to the morphological species concept, a species is a. a group of individuals which can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. b. a group of individuals which can interbreed and which live close enough together to actually do so c. a group of individuals who look very similar d. a group of individuals who have a common ancestor 93. All but one of the following factors are associated with rapid evolution. Which one is not? a. small population size b. occurrence of natural selection c. non-random mating d. extremely low rate of mutation 94. When populations with different ancestors adapt in the same way to similar environments (for example wings in birds and beetles), it is referred to as a. homology b. natural selection c. convergent evolution d. coevolution
95. Which process might fool scientists into thinking two animals were related when actually they were not? a. homology b. comparative biochemistry c. convergent evolution d. none of these 96. The evolution of one species of horse into another was most likely caused by a. directional selection b. stabilizing selection c. diversifying selection
d. any of these
97. When the average beak length of a bird remain the same generation after generation, the population is mostly likely being subjected to a. directional selection b. stabilizing selection c. diversifying selection d. any of these Origin and Diversity of Life 98. The 3 things a basic cell needs to become alive are metabolic enzymes, genetic material, and a. photosynthesis b. a nucleus c. a membrane d. the ability to swim 99. Primordial soup was found on Earth a. soon after it was formed c. from the beginning of the Earth until now
b. for the first 4 billion years of Earth's history d. never
100. What do mitochondria and chloroplasts have that suggest they came from endosymbiotic cells? a. DNA b. enzymes c. membranes d. cell walls 101. One way in which prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes is that prokaryotes a. have several to many linear chromosomes b. lack a nucleus c .are multicellular d. are classified as viruses 102. The primordial soup a. was found on Earth early in its history only c. was a form of life
b. is still found on Earth d. was the first canned soup marketed by Campbell's
103. The Earth's first ecological crisis came about because a. humans were burning too many fossil fuels c. there were not enough food molecules to support much life
b. cells were forming toxic wastes d. there was no oxygen
104. Which of the following was a toxic waste product when first produced by some of the early forms of life on Earth? a. hydrogen gas b. nitrogen gas c. oxygen gas d. all of the above 105. What characteristic of life has been created in the laboratory under conditions resembling those of the primitive Earth ? a. organic molecules b. cells c. metabolism d. none of the above 106. Endosymbiosis is thought to have been necessary for the evolution of which group? a. non-photosynthetic procaryotes b. photosynthetic prokaryotes c. eucaryotes 107. The first known (oldest) fossils are of a. plants b. prokaryotic cells
d. all of the above
c. eukaryotic cells
d. small animals
108. Endosymbionts are a. structures residing within our cells which once were free-living bacteria c. two organisms which help each other survive
b. organisms which engulf their food d. a type of fungus
109. During the early history of life, which evolved first? a. photosynthetic prokaryotes b. heterotrophic (non-photosynthetic) prokaryotes c. eukaryotes d. all evolved at the same time 110. Chemicals in the ancient Earth's atmosphere may have been given the energy they needed to react by a. volcanic eruption b. UV light c. lightning d. all of the above 111. In the primordial soup, you might find all EXCEPT which? a. organic (cellular) molecules b. primitive cells
c. toxic substances
d. plants and animals
112. Oxygen in the atmosphere a. has always been present at the same concentration b. was produced by physical processes soon after the Earth was formed c. was produced by biological processes after the evolution of life d. None of the above are true 113. What is the defining feature of eukaryotic cells? a. ability to photosynthesize b. possession of a nucleus and other membranous organelles c. ability to carry out aerobic respiration d. all of these 114. Evidence for the endosymbiotic theory includes the observation that mitochondria a. have their own DNA b. can reproduce independently outside of a cell c both of these d. neither of these 115. Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is NOT true? a. they lack mitochondria b. they appear in the fossil record before eukaryotes do c. the theory of endosymbiosis explains their origin d. they can be seen only under a microscope 116. Which of the following is NOT believed to have been a component of the early Earth's atmosphere? a. nitrogen gas (N2) b. hydrogen gas (H2) c. carbon monoxide (CO) d. oxygen gas (O2) 117. Which evolved first on Earth? a. prokaryotic cells b. eukaryotic cells
c. photosynthetic cells
118. According to the hypothesis of endosymbiosis, some organelles within our cells derived from a. extraterrestrial life b. plants c. ancient aerobic bacteria d. none of these 119. Which group consists of multi-cellular organisms with rigid cell walls that absorb food from their environment? a. plants b. bacteria c. animals d. fungi 120. Which group consists of organisms whose body is formed of thread-like structures called hyphae, and which contribute greatly to forest ecosystem productivity? a. plants b. bacteria c. animals d. fungi 121. Which evolutionary innovation allowed animals to get and process more food faster? a. the head b. segmentation c. the flow-through digestive system
d. bilateral symmetry
122. Which evolutionary innovation allowed animals to grow bigger without needing new body parts or new genetic information, and also opened the door for the later evolution of many specialized body structures? a. the flow-though digestive system b. stinging tentacles c. the head d. segmentation 123. Which group consists of ancient organisms living in unusual environments such as hot springs, very salty water, or anaerobic conditions? a. plantae. b. bacteria c. fungi d. archaea 124. Bilateral symmetry, and the tendency to move forward in one direction, led to evolution of a. the flow-though digestive system b. stinging tentacles c. segmentation 125. In which group did we first see bilateral symmetry? a. fish b. roundworms
d. the head
c. sponges
d. flatworms
126. Which was the first animal group to evolve flow-through digestion? a. jellyfish b. flatworms c. roundworms
d. vertebrates
127. If an organism can make its own food, has cell walls, and can't move, it is most likely a a. bacteria b. animal c. plant d. fungus 128. Which evolved first in the history of animal evolution? a. segmentation b. flow-through digestive system
c. bilateral symmetry
129. Which is the smallest, most primitive plant group? a. mosses b. angiosperms 130. Which type of plant does NOT have seeds? a. gymnosperms b. angiosperms
c. gymnosperms
d. ferns
c. ferns
d. all of these have seeds
Human Evolution 131. Similarity in skin color among different human populations appears to be primarily the result of a. natural selection b. convergent evolution c. shared ancestry d. both a and b 132. Which was the first to use fire? a. Homo sapiens b. Homo erectus 133. Which is the most primitive direct human ancestor? a. Homo erectus b. Australopithicus afarensis 134. Humans evolved on which continent? a. Africa b. North America 135. Which lived on Earth before Homo habilis? a. Homo erectus b. Homo sapiens
c. Homo habilis
d. Australipithicus afarensis
c. Homo habilis
d. Australopithicus boysei
c. Asia
d. Europe
c. Australopithicus
d. all of the above
136. The first humans to expand their range well outside Africa were a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus afarensis 137. Humans ______ primates. a. are b. are related to (but are not themselves) 138. In the human line, which evolved first? a. a large brain 139. People with pale skin tend to suffer from a. not enough folate in sunny tropical areas 140. People with dark skin tend to suffer from a. not enough folate in regions with little sunlight 141. Mitochondrial genes are a. located within the nucleus
d. Neanderthals
c. are not related to
b. bipedalism (walking on two legs)
b. not enough vitamin D in sunny tropical areas
b. not enough vitamin D in region with little sunlight
b. maternally inherited
c. paternally inherited
d. not inherited at all
142. The high degree of similarity between chimp and human DNA suggests that a. chimps and humans are in the same genus b. chimps are descended from humans c. chimps and humans probably both descended from a more primitive apelike ancestor d. humans are descended from chimps 143. In order for an animal to be able to judge distance, a. its eyes must be forward-facing b. it must be able to see color c. it must be able to walk d. all of these 144. The first primates to appear were a. australopithicines b. prosimians
c. gorillas
d. New World monkeys
145. Lucy's skeleton revealed that she was bipedal. This means that she a. walked using all 4 limbs b. lived in trees c. walked on 2 legs
d. crawled on the jungle floor
146. Which of these split first from the human line of evolution? a. New World monkeys b. chimps c. gorillas d. none of these are related to humans
147. Tall, thin people evolve in what type of area? a. arctic b. high mountains
c. tropics
d. any of these
148. Which is the earliest member of the genus Homo? a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilis 149. Which vitamin is destroyed by UV light? a. folate 150. Which vitamin is made by UV light? a. folate
c. Homo neanderthalensis
d. Homo sapiens
b. vitamin D
b. vitamin D
151. During the time when hominins were evolving, the climate they inhabited was becoming a. cooler and drier b. warmer and drier c. hotter and more humid
d. much colder
152. Humans have genes in common with all of these, but with which do they have the most genes in common? a. bacteria b. mice c. fish d. jellyfish 153. To which group do humans belong? a. hominids b. hominins
c. both
d. neither
154. An important force influence the shape of the head in the primate line was the need for a. a keen sense of smell b. very acute hearing c. depth perception d. social interaction 155. Primates are well adapted to survive in a. trees b. grasslands
c. ocean
d. desert
156. We know for sure that Australopithicus afarensis, the animals of the "Lucy" fossil, could a. speak b. walk upright c. carry out religion rituals d. all of the above 157. The hominoid line arose from a. the prosimians b. the new world monkeys
c. the old world monkeys
158. Which is a characteristic of hominins but not other primates? a. nails rather than claws b. bipedalism c. depth perception d. no tail 159. Chimps have _________ skulls and __________ teeth compared with humans. a. larger; larger b. larger; smaller c. smaller; larger d. smaller; smaller 160. Living in trees helped the primates to evolve a. big brains b. very mobile shoulders
c. fingernails
d. all of these
161. Which of the following was the first major development in the evolution of hominins? a. tool use b. language c. binocular vision d. bipedalism Races and Populations 162. A group of organisms of the same species which interbreed under natural conditions are called a a. population b. species c. kingdom d. family 163. The statement that "Human populations classified in the same race appear to be more genetically similar than human populations placed in different races." is a. true b. false 164. M and N are codominant genes coding for blood proteins. If population A has the genotype frequencies: 55% NN, 10% MN, and 35% MM, does its allele frequency differ from population B which has genotype frequency of 20% NN, 80% MN and 0% MM? a. yes b. no c. you can't tell from this data
165. M and N are codominant genes coding for blood proteins. If population A has the genotype frequencies: 35% NN, 50% MN, and 15% MM, does its allele frequency differ from population B which has genotype frequency of 35% NN, 40% MN and 25% MM? a. yes b. no c. you can't tell from this data 166. Which list is in the correct order from least to greatest genetic differences? a. species, race, population b. population, race, species c. race, population, species d. species, population, race 167. Populations around the world evolve at about the same rate. a. true b. false 168. How would a genetic bottleneck affect the ability of a species to adapt to changes in its environment? a. the bottleneck would decrease a species' ability to adapt b. the bottleneck would increase a species' ability to adapt a. the bottleneck would neither decrease nor increase a species' ability to adapt 169. Sea lions were plentiful at one time, then killed off to only a few breeding males and their harems. Since then the population has recovered and they are numerous. This situation is called a. genetic drift b. the founder effect c. a genetic bottleneck 170. After a genetic bottleneck a. the total genetic diversity of the species increases b. the total genetic diversity of the species decreases c. the genetic diversity of a small subpopulation of the species decreases d. the genetic diversity of the species is not affected. 171. If two populations differ mainly in their size, which one will evolve faster? a. the smaller population b. the bigger population c. both will evolve at the same rate 172. A group of organisms of the same species which interbreed under natural conditions are called a a. population b. species c. kingdom d. family 173. Random, non-adaptive changes in a species' gene pool is called a. natural selection b. artificial selection c. genetic drift d. none of these 174. Genetic drift occurs due to a. survival and reproduction of the fittest members of the species b. random changes in the gene pool of a species c. parental choice as to which offspring to nurture d. none of these Answers 1b, 2a, 3b, 4d, 5d, 6b, 7d, 8b, 9b, 10c, 11b, 12a, 13b, 14b, 15b, 16b, 17d, 18a, 19c, 20d, 21b, 22a, 23b, 24c, 25a, 26d, 27d, 28b. 29b, 30b, 31b, 32c, 33a, 34c, 35a, 36a, 37a, 38d, 39c, 40a, 41a, 42d, 43a, 44b, 45c, 46b, 47d, 48b, 49d, 50c, 51a, 52a, 53c, 54c, 55c, 56a, 57c, 58b, 59d, 60d, 61c, 62d, 63c, 64b, 65c, 66a, 67d, 68b, 69d, 70a, 71b, 72d, 73c, 74a, 75c, 76a, 77a, 78b, 79c, 80b, 81a, 82c, 83c, 84b, 85a, 86b, 87a, 88b, 89a, 90a, 91c, 92c, 93d, 94c, 95c, 96a, 97b, 98c, 99a, 100a, 101b, 102a, 103c, 104c, 105a, 106c, 107b, 108a, 109b, 110d, 111d, 112c, 113b, 114a, 115c, 116d, 117a, 118c, 119d, 120d, 121c, 122d, 123d, 124d, 125d, 126c, 127c, 128c, 129a, 130c, 131b, 132b, 133b, 134a, 135c, 136b, 137a, 138b, 139a, 140b, 141b, 142c, 143a, 144b, 145c, 146a, 147c, 148b, 149a, 150b, 151a, 152b, 153c, 154c, 155a, 156b, 157c, 158b, 159c, 160d, 161d, 162a, 163b, 164b, 165a, 166b, 167b, 168a, 169c, 170b, 171a, 172a, 173c, 174b