Study guide chapter 7-12
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Study guide chapter 7-12

Course Number: COMPUTER S 1, Fall 2013

College/University: Central Texas College

Word Count: 18750

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STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 7 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A podcast is an audio file that is distributed through downloads or the use of a feed, such as ____. a. XML c. Ajax b. RSS d. DHTML ____ 2. A(n) ____ is a collection of related information organized and formatted so it can be accessed using software called a browser. a. Web site c....

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GUIDE STUDY CHAPTER 7 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A podcast is an audio file that is distributed through downloads or the use of a feed, such as ____. a. XML c. Ajax b. RSS d. DHTML ____ 2. A(n) ____ is a collection of related information organized and formatted so it can be accessed using software called a browser. a. Web site c. Internet b. tag d. podcast ____ 3. A ____ is a collaborative Web site that can be accessed and edited by anyone who wants to contribute to it. a. wiki c. page b. link d. manual ____ 4. The process of accessing Web sites is sometimes referred to as ____. a. linking c. messaging b. texting d. surfing ____ 5. A(n) ____ is client software that displays Web page elements and handles links between pages. a. manager c. navigator b. explorer d. browser ____ 6. Which of the following is Web resource? a. a sound file b. an HTML document c. a graphic d. any of the above ____ 7. For HTTP, ____ usually are associated with port 80 on the client and server. a. methods c. exchanges b. sockets d. actions ____ 8. ____ is the most frequently used HTTP method. a. FTP c. GET b. THIS d. POST ____ 9. ____ is a protocol that works in conjunction with TCP/IP to get Web resources to your desktop. a. FTP c. HTTP b. HTML d. URL ____ 10. An HTTP exchange takes place over a pair of ____. a. packets c. networks b. sockets d. switches ____ 11. HTTP is classified as a ____ protocol because it maintains no record of previous interactions and handles each request based entirely on information that comes with it. a. stateless c. port-based b. status d. server ____ 12. A Web servers response to a browsers request includes an HTTP ____ that indicates whether the browsers request could be fulfilled. a. status code c. completion code b. socket code d. protocol code ____ 13. When your browser fetches pages and graphics to form a Web page, it stores them in temporary files on your hard drive called a Web ____. a. converter c. source b. cache d. plug-in ____ 14. A(n) ____ application is a program that extends a browsers ability to work with file formats. a. socket c. installation b. helper d. PDF ____ 15. ____ allow a Web site to store information on the client computer for later retrieval. a. Tags c. Cookies b. Labels d. Biscuits ____ 16. A ____ enables a Web server to keep track of your activity and compile a list of your purchases. a. plug-in c. style sheet b. cookie d. socket ____ 17. A(n) ____ adds HTML tags to a document, spreadsheet, or other text-based file to create an HTML document that can be displayed by a browser. a. wiki c. online Web authoring tool b. Web authoring software d. HTML conversion utility ____ 18. ____ provides tools specifically designed to enter and format Web page text, graphics, and links. a. Web authoring software c. W3C b. A text editor d. Web Creator ____ 19. A(n) ____ is a series of instructions that is embedded directly into an HTML document that instruct the browser to carry out specific actions or to respond to specific user actions. a. HTML tag c. podcast b. cookie d. HTML script ____ 20. Server-side scripts can be written using ____. a. C# c. Perl b. Java d. all of the above ____ 21. HTML ____ are typically used to collect shipping and payment information during checkout at an e-commerce Web site. a. tables c. forms b. gateways d. bins ____ 22. Applications written in the Java programming language are called Java ____. a. servlets c. fragments b. frames d. applets ____ 23. A(n) ____ is a compiled computer program that can be referenced from within an HTML document, downloaded, installed on your computer, and executed within the browser window. a. HTML form c. ActiveX control b. JAVA applet d. HTML tag ____ 24. A(n) ____ certificate is an electronic attachment to a file that verifies the identity of its source. a. authority c. authentication b. digital d. analog ____ 25. A(n) ____ helps you find information by searching the Web for pages that meet your query specifications. a. search engine c. HTML tag b. navigator d. browser ____ 26. Some search engines use a program called a Web ____ that combs the Web to gather data that is representative of the contents of Web pages. a. crawler c. archive b. converter d. glossary ____ 27. Search engine ____ software is designed to pull keywords from a Web page and store them in a database. a. crawler c. tracker b. archive d. indexer ____ 28. A search engines ____ looks for your search terms in the search engines indexed database and returns a list of relevant Web sites. a. Web crawler c. query processor b. indexer d. link ____ 29. Often, Web page authors include a(n) ____ keyword in a header section of a Web page when it is created to describe the page contents. a. archive c. query b. meta d. link ____ 30. When a Web page author includes meta keywords, like sex and money, that have little to do with the information on the page, the author is engaging in ____. a. e-commerce c. formulating searches b. keyword stuffing d. metasearching ____ 31. Keyword ____ is an unethical practice in which meta keywords are manipulated to gain high relevancy rankings. a. archiving c. stuffing b. indexing d. packing ____ 32. The ____ wildcard character allows a search engine to find pages with any derivation of a basic word. a. $ b. + c. * d. & ____ 33. In addition to using search engines, you can also find Web-based information using a(n) ____ engine that searches a series of other search engines and compiles the search results. a. compiled c. secure b. stuffed d. metasearch ____ 34. When you use a search engine, it stores all of the following information about your query EXCEPT ____. a. your IP address c. the search terms you used b. the date and time of the query d. your name ____ 35. Many ____ sites act as relay stations to forward your searches to search engines without leaving a trail back to a cookie or IP address. a. annihilator c. phishing b. anonymizer d. pharming ____ 36. When you purchase a textbook online from a site like www.amazon.com, you are participating in ____ e-commerce. a. B2G c. B2C b. B2B d. C2C ____ 37. When you purchase a used digital camera directly from the owner on an online auction, you are participating in ____ e-commerce. a. B2B c. C2C b. B2C d. B2G ____ 38. ____ e-commerce involves one enterprise buying goods or services from another enterprise. a. C2C c. B2C b. B2G d. B2B ____ 39. ____ e-commerce occurs when businesses sell to governments. a. G2G c. C2G b. B2G d. G2B ____ 40. A ____ ad overlays the content on a Web page, sometimes obscuring it until you click the ad or its timer expires and the ad disappears. a. pop-up c. click-through b. banner d. hover ____ 41. Both SSL and its successor ____ are protocols that encrypt data traveling between a client computer and an HTTP server. a. S-HTTP c. TLS b. EDGE d. P2P ____ 42. Which of the following technologies are used to create a secure connection between a client computer and a Web site? a. S-HTTP c. TLS b. SSL d. all of the above ____ 43. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. A secure Web site uses password security to prevent unauthorized access to pages on the site. b. A secure connection encrypts the data transmitted between your computer and a Web site. c. Web pages that provide a secure connection start with httpx: instead of http:. d. Secure connections differ from secure Web sites. ____ 44. PayPal is an example of a(n) ____ payment system. a. B2B (business-to-business) c. C2B (consumer-to-business) b. P2P (person-to-person) d. electronic wallet ____ 45. Most e-mail software has an HTML option. If the recipient of your HTML e-mail does not have HTML-compliant e-mail software, your message will be delivered as plain, unformatted ____ text. a. binary c. RTF b. ASCII d. MIME ____ 46. To include a third party on an e-mail message to someone without informing them of the third party recipient, you should ____. a. Use the HTML option c. Cc: the third party on the message b. Bcc: the third party on the message d. Add a priority to the message ____ 47. Before sending a large attachment in an e-mail, you can use a(n) ____ to shrink it. a. crawler program c. index utility b. compression program d. netiquette scanner ____ 48. ____ temporarily stores new messages in your inbox on an e-mail server. When you request your mail, it is downloaded and stored on your computer. a. POP (Post Office Protocol) b. IMAP (Internet Messaging Access Protocol) c. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) d. Web-based mail ____ 49. Web-based e-mail allows you to use a(n) ____ to access and view your e-mail messages. a. operating system c. crawler b. server d. browser ____ 50. ____ is similar to POP, but it gives you the option of downloading your mail or leaving it on the server. a. IMAP (Internet Messaging Access Protocol) b. PIN (Private Identification Number) c. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) d. URL (Uniform Resource Locator) ____ 51. To use POP e-mail you must install e-mail ____ software on your computer. a. resource c. database b. client d. server ____ 52. ____ e-mail stores your e-mail messages on a server, where you have less control over who can access them. a. SMTP c. Web-based b. IMAP d. POP ____ 53. Which of the following may pose a threat to your computers security and/or your privacy? a. Web bugs c. Flash cookies b. ad-serving cookies d. all of the above ____ 54. ____ software is a type of security software designed to identify and neutralize Web bugs, adserving cookies and other types of malware. a. Indexer c. Crawler b. Anti-spyware d. Antivirus ____ 55. Flash ____ can collect and store personal data, such as a users name or the users progress in a game. a. cookies c. indices b. bugs d. icons ____ 56. Junk e-mail messages may use ____ to monitor the number of people who view the e-mail. That data is collected and sometimes used to determine the direction of marketing campaigns. a. spam filters c. Web bugs b. Flash cookies d. anonymous proxy services ____ 57. When you view a page infested with a(n) ____, an HTTP set-cookie request automatically goes to a third-party server, which may set a cookie on your computer for later retrieval or record your IP address. a. spam filter c. anonymous proxy server b. Flash cookie d. Web bug ____ 58. A trade-off to the anonymity offered by anonymous ____ is that they tend not to operate at the same speed as your regular browser. a. indices c. URLs b. FTP sites d. proxies ____ 59. A(n) ____ is a type of utility software that captures unsolicited e-mails before they reach your inbox. a. quick check c. anonymizer b. spam filter d. proxy ____ 60. To avoid becoming a spam victim you should ____. a. always click on the links in e-mail messages b. use a disposable e-mail address when you register for online sites c. reply to spam when you receive it d. provide your e-mail address to all sites that request it ____ 61. ____ schemes redirect users to fake sites by poisoning a domain name server with a fake IP address. a. Pharming c. Filtering b. Hypertexting d. Proxy ____ 62. An e-mail scam designed to persuade you into revealing confidential information by replying to an e-mail is called ____. a. spoofing c. phishing b. pharming d. anonymizing ____ 63. Many search engines keep records of the queries submitted by users, and this practice is not highly regarded by privacy advocates. Of the following, which one tends NOT to be collected and stored along with search queries? a. The user's name. c. The user's IP address. b. The search words and Boolean d. The date of the query. operators. ____ 64. Basic Boolean operators are ___________________. a. AND OR NOT c. + - = b. yes, no, and maybe d. none of the above ____ 65. HTML is not a programming language, so other tools have been devised to make Web pages more interactive. __________________ are not displayed by the browser; instead, they instruct the browser to perform specific actions or respond to specific user actions. a. cookies c. Web caches b. Web crawlers d. HTML scripts ____ 66. The HTML documents that you post on the Web to be viewed as Web pages should have a __________________ extension. a. .doc or .docx c. .web or.www b. .htm or .html d. .http or .www ____ 67. Most HTML tags are used as pairs, with the closing version designated by ______________. a. a / symbol c. upper case b. angle brackets <> d. <end> ____ 68. The framework for an HTML document consists of two sections: __________. a. the head and the body c. <href> and <src> b. the opening tag and the closing tag d. the header and the footer ____ 69. You can use a(n) ________________ like Notepad (Windows) or TextEdit (Mac) to create simple HTML documents or to make quick modifications to more complex pages. a. browser c. HTML conversion utility b. HTML authoring utility d. text editor ____ 70. Once your browser has received a "Set-cookie" message from a Web server __________________. a. the cookie is stored on your computer's hard disk b. you can view the cookie file, though its contents are typically encrypted c. the server that created the cookie can request it the next time you connect to one of its Web pages d. All of the above ____ 71. HTTP is a __________________ that works with TCP/IP to get Web resources to your desktop. a. protocol c. HTML source document b. DHTML browser d. markup language ____ 72. If you are curious about how a Web page is constructed, you can _________. a. request the HTTP from the Web server socket that houses the Web page b. use your browser to view the HTML source document c. use an HTML reverse compiler to load the source code into your word processor d. use your browser to extract a list of HTML tags from the document ____ 73. <b> <title> and <img src> are examples of ___________________. a. MIME c. HTTP b. cookies d. HTML tags ____ 74. You notice that a Web site has many interactive elements, is visually appealing, and has lots of media. The site was likely created using tools such as ______________. a. DHTML and Ajax c. Notepad and W3C b. HTML and XHTML d. All of the above ____ 75. What is an important difference between a Windows file specification and a Web site URL? a. URLs cannot contain spaces or c. URLs use / symbols instead of \ periods. symbols. b. URLs don't contain extensions. d. URLs don't contain folder names. ____ 76. Why do most URLs begin with http://? a. Because HTTP is the Webs standard communications protocol. b. To make a secure connection. c. To separate Web sites from Web pages. d. So that you don't have to type www. ____ 77. A Web page can be based on ___________________. a. RSS and Atom b. a document stored as a file or on the information stored in a database c. IRC, MSNP, and Jabber d. HTTP, HTML, and MIME ____ 78. The term Web 2.0 refers to ____________________. a. a division in today's Web that would separate commercial activities, such as ecommerce, from non-commercial activities, such as academic research b. new and innovative ways of using the current Internet-based Web infrastructure c. a faster version of today's Web that will offer video simulcasting over fiber-optic cables d. a new version of the Web that won't have security problems such as spyware and fake Web sites ____ 79. You're reading a description of a new syndicated radio show and the article mentions that you can get it on your computer as an RSS or Atom feed. From this information, you assume that the radio show is a(n) ________________. a. blog c. wiki b. podcast d. DHCP server ____ 80. __________ is a communications system used to transport an interlinked collection of information from computers that store it to clients who want to view it. a. Netscape c. The Web b. Mosaic d. The Internet ____ 81. A _________ is an Internet-based computer that accepts requests from browsers. a. Web site c. Web page b. Web client d. Web server ____ 82. Web page links can appear as _________. a. underlined text c. buttons b. graphics d. all of the above ____ 83. HTML is the abbreviation for __________. a. Hypertext main link c. Hypertext markup language b. Hypertext machine link d. Hypertext makeup language ____ 84. HTTP is a protocol that works with __________ to get Web resources to your desktop. a. IP c. HTML b. TCP d. both A and B ____ 85. A __________ is an abstract concept that represents one end of a connection in an HTTP exchange. a. socket c. pocket b. switch d. packet ____ 86. Which of the following HTTP status codes indicates that the requested resource does not exist? a. 303 c. 404 b. 200 d. 500 ____ 87. Which of the following are examples of browsers? a. Apple Safari c. Google Chrome b. Mozilla Firefox d. All of the above ____ 88. Which one of the following Web authoring tools is considered "old-fashioned" because it requires you to manually type HTML tags? a. NotePad b. KompoZer c. ISP-provided online Web page authoring tool d. HTML conversion option in Microsoft Word ____ 89. A search engine contains the following components: a(n) _________, an indexing utility, a database, and a query processor. a. Web creeper c. time-shifting algorithm b. socket analyzer d. Web crawler ____ 90. A search engine _________ is software that culls keywords from a Web page and stores them in a database. a. crawler c. query processor b. spider d. indexer ____ 91. When you're using a search engine, the words you enter for your search are referred to as _________. a. search terms c. keywords b. search criteria d. all of the above ____ 92. In a search engine query, the ________ is sometimes referred to as a wildcard character, which allows a search engine to find pages with any derivation of a basic word. a. ampersand c. plus sign b. asterisk d. pound sign ____ 93. E-commerce "wares" - those purchased over the Internet - can be delivered to consumers __________. a. by parcel delivery service c. by postal service b. electronically d. by all of the above ____ 94. Popular online auctions, such as eBay, are examples of which type of e-commerce? a. C2C c. B2G b. B2B d. B2C ____ 95. A(n) __________ ad is an advertisement that is typically embedded at the top of a Web page. a. banner c. click-through b. pop-up d. hover ____ 96. __________ is a protocol that encrypts the data that travels between a client computer and an HTTP server and uses a specially designated port to create a secure connection. a. P2P c. S-HTTP b. HTTPS d. SSL ____ 97. Secure connections are indicated by ________. a. Verisign logo c. a padlock icon b. https in the URL d. all of the above ____ 98. The components of the unique address of a mailbox include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. a user ID b. an IP address c. an @ symbol d. the name of the computer that maintains the mailbox ____ 99. Which of the following is NOT a type of e-mail system? a. ISP c. Web-based mail b. IMAP d. POP ____100. Another term for Flash cookies is __________. a. local shared objects c. Flash tracking objects b. locally shared cookies d. Web cookies STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 8 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The audio CDs you buy at your favorite music store are recorded at a sampling rate of ____. a. 44.1 kHz c. 440 kHz b. 44.1 MHz d. 440 MHz ____ 2. Voice-overs and narration are often recorded with a sampling rate of 11 KHz, which means that 11,000 samples are taken ____. a. per minute c. per total recording b. per second d. per thousand notes ____ 3. A(n) ____ is a device that contains a variety of input and output jacks, plus audio-processing circuitry. a. sound card c. amplifier b. video card d. macro recorder ____ 4. ____ audio file format does NOT use compression to reduce file size. a. MP3 c. AIFF b. RealAudio d. AAC ____ 5. Which of the following tasks is NOT performed by a digital signal processor? a. Handling of compression and decompression. b. Transformation of digital bits to analog waves when you play back a digital audio file. c. Transformation of analog waves to digital bits when you make a sound recording. d. Elimination of extraneous noise. ____ 6. Windows Media Player does NOT play ____ files. a. AAC c. AIFF b. Wave d. MP3 ____ 7. Streaming audio does NOT ____. a. support voice chat sessions c. play files as they download b. cause lengthy delays as files download d. provide the technology for podcasts ____ 8. What is the approximate size of a 32 MB CD track when it is in MP3 format? a. 1 MB c. 16 MB b. 3 MB d. 32 MB ____ 9. Microsoft is promoting its ____ format at the Zune online music store. a. WMA c. AAC b. RM d. all of the above ____ 10. Which of the following is supported by the iPod? a. WAV c. WMA b. MIDI d. all of the above ____ 11. A MIDI sequence contains all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. a wavetable c. the volume of the note b. duration of the note d. the pitch of a note ____ 12. If you have dialed Directory Assistance lately to obtain a telephone number, you have probably encountered ____. a. speech analysis c. speech recognition b. virtual listening d. phonemic awareness ____ 13. A ____ graphic is composed of a grid of dots. a. roster c. vector b. bitmap d. none of the above ____ 14. One way to transfer photo data from a camera directly to a computer is via ____. a. driver wires c. e-mail b. printer cables d. FireWire ports ____ 15. If your computer and your camera have ____ ports, you can connect a cable between these two ports to transfer the photo data. a. adapter c. FireWire b. Flash d. memory ____ 16. Most cameras store photographic images in ____ or TIFF formats. a. JPEG c. DOC b. GIF d. AIFF ____ 17. A resolution of 1600 x 1200 could also be expressed as ____ megapixels. a. .19 c. 19 b. 1.9 d. 190 ____ 18. When a bitmap graphic is enlarged, it still retains its original ____. a. pixel c. resolution b. dimension d. interpolation ____ 19. Most experts recommend that Web graphics not exceed ____ KB. a. 1 c. 10 b. 5 d. 100 ____ 20. ____ refers to the process of selecting part of an image. a. Pixelation c. Resolution b. Cropping d. Interpolation ____ 21. The quality of a bitmap graphic is ____ dependent. a. resolution c. codec b. vector d. Rastering resolution ____ 22. A ____ bitmap would be displayed by manipulating the pattern of "off" and "on" pixels displayed on the screen. a. True Color c. monochrome b. 32-bit d. 24-bit ____ 23. A ____ bit in a monochrome bitmap represents black. a. 0 c. 56 b. 1 d. 255 ____ 24. A True Color or 24-bit bitmap can produce a maximum of ____ colors. a. 16.7 million c. 256 b. 10 million d. 2 ____ 25. A ____ palette contains a standard set of colors used by most Internet Web browsers. a. grayscale c. Web b. system d. monitor ____ 26. ____ is a graphics format with built-in compression that stores True Color bitmap data very efficiently in a small file. a. BMP c. PCX b. GIF d. JPEG ____ 27. The ____ bitmap graphics format is supported by most browsers. a. JPEG c. PCX b. BMP d. TIFF ____ 28. The ____ bitmap graphics file format was designed to improve on the GIF format, compresses bitmap data without losing any data, and supports trillions of colors. a. PCX c. PNG b. JPEG d. TIFF ____ 29. You plan to create a cartoon-like image of a computer to be used in a flyer for your schools computer lab. What type of graphic would you most likely use? a. A vector graphic c. A scanned graphic b. A bitmap graphic. d. A metafile graphic ____ 30. A ____ graphic consists of a set of instructions for re-creating a picture. a. bitmap c. vector b. pixelated d. raster ____ 31. Which of the following is a file extension you might find on a vector graphic filename? a. .gif c. .bmp b. .jpg d. .wmf ____ 32. One clue that an image might be a ____ graphic is a flat, cartoon-like quality. a. pixelated c. vector b. bitmap d. raster ____ 33. Vector graphics software is sometimes referred to as ____ software. a. scaling c. dithering b. drawing d. digitizing ____ 34. A ____ is a smooth blending of shades from one color to another, or from light to dark. a. metafile b. dither c. gradient d. trace ____ 35. Graphics files that contain both bitmap and vector data are called ____. a. pixelated files c. gradient files b. metafiles d. raster files ____ 36. A vector graphic can quite easily be converted into a bitmap graphic through a process called ____. a. rasterizing c. dithering b. resolution d. tracing ____ 37. ____ software locates the edges of objects in a bitmap image and converts the resulting shapes into vector graphic objects. a. Tracing c. Resolution b. Dithering d. Rasterizing ____ 38. ____ can be used to create the illusion of three dimensions by smoothly blending shades from one color to another, or from light to dark. a. Gradients c. Rendering b. Megapixels d. Dithering ____ 39. The ____ vector graphics format was designed specifically for the Web so that the graphics are automatically resized when displayed on different screens or when printed. a. GIF c. SVG b. JPEG d. BMP ____ 40. The process of covering a wireframe with surface color and texture is called ____. a. rendering c. dithering b. rasterizing d. resolution ____ 41. ____ video refers to videos that are constructed and displayed using a personal computer. a. Frame c. RAM b. Real d. Desktop ____ 42. ____ video refers to small-format video designed to be viewed on a cell phone screen, for example. a. CSS c. Micro b. Real d. PDA ____ 43. The process of converting analog video signals into a digital format is referred to as ____. a. video capture c. video streaming b. video cataloging d. video conversion ____ 44. When transferred to your computer, a DV clip requires roughly ____ of storage per 5 minutes of video. a. 1 KB c. 1 GB b. 1 MB d. 1 TB ____ 45. Most desktop video has a frame rate of ____ frames per second. a. 30 c. 50 b. 15 d. 48 ____ 46. Todays ____ editing simply requires a computer hard disk and video editing software. a. rated c. linear b. nonlinear d. extrapolated ____ 47. Digital video file formats are sometimes referred to as ____ formats. a. tracked c. integrated b. container d. baseline ____ 48. ____ is a popular format for Web-based video that requires Adobe Flash Player. a. QuickTime Movie c. Flash Video b. RealMedia d. Audio Video Interleave ____ 49. Each ____ uses a unique compression algorithm that allows the user to specify the compression ratio and/or bitrate used when compressing video. a. codec c. container format b. key frame d. frame rate ____ 50. ____ compression can be applied to video footage to eliminate redundant or unnecessary data between frames. a. Indexed c. Key b. Temporal d. Framed ____ 51. ____ is a collection of techniques that copyright holders use to limit access to and use of digital content. a. DRM c. Blu-ray b. Zune d. AACS ____ 52. ____ is the process of recording a broadcast so that it can be played back at a more convenient time. a. Program c. Delay b. Time shifting d. Format ____ 53. ____ shifting is the process of converting media files from a format suitable to one device to a format suitable for a different kind of device. a. Player c. Format b. Device d. Plug-in ____ 54. Signal ____ is a term commonly used for obscuring cable or satellite television images until they are restored by a set-top box or other authorized mechanism. a. dithering c. watermarking b. rasterization d. scrambling ____ 55. Which of the following is NOT a copy protection technology? a. Extended Copy Protection c. Copy Manager b. Copy Control d. Cactus Data Shield ____ 56. A ____ watermark is a pattern of bits inserted at various places in an image or a content stream that can be used to track, identify, verify, and control content use. a. digital c. patent b. copyright d. protected ____ 57. Which of the following is NOT true of broadcast flags? a. They can prevent a program from being unencrypted. b. They can limit copies of television programs to low resolution. c. They are intended to promote the use of digital video recorders like TiVo. d. They can prevent fast forwarding past commercials. ____ 58. ____ protection refers to technologies designed to prohibit consumers from copying content. a. PGP c. Privacy b. Copy d. Consumer ____ 59. Copy ____ management is a digital watermark that specifies the number of times a content stream can be duplicated. a. generation c. number b. iteration d. variety ____ 60. ____ prevents DVDs from being successfully duplicated by end-users using standard copy utilities. a. Analog protection c. A region code b. CSS d. AACS ____ 61. A(n) ____ specifies a geographical area of legitimate use for DVD disks and players. a. region code c. latitude code b. zip code d. area code ____ 62. ____ is a well-known DRM technology designed to encrypt and control the use of content stored on DVDs. a. CSS c. DeCSS b. Revocation d. AACS ____ 63. ____ is a DRM technology designed to encrypt and protect content on optical discs like Blu-ray discs. a. Copy Generator c. Red Book b. AACS d. FairPlay ____ 64. Forcing users to pay for licenses before accessing content is sometimes referred to as ____ distribution. a. super c. format b. prelicensing d. balanced ____ 65. MPEG-2, Sorenson, Cinepak, DivX, and Windows Media Video are examples of ___________________. a. video codecs c. temporal compression b. file compression utilities d. audio codecs ____ 66. Architects and engineers sometimes use a(n)____________ to turn a paper-based line drawing into a vector graphic. a. MIDI sequencer c. scanner b. image codec d. digitizing tablet ____ 67. Suppose you want to send a photo to a friend. You plan to attach it to an e-mail message, but when you look at the file, you notice it is almost 4 megabytes. To quickly store the photo in a small file without any loss in quality, you should _____________________. a. use a file compression utility like c. resave it using ripper software PKZIP b. convert the image into a RAW file d. use an MPEG codec ____ 68. A _____________________ , such as PKZIP or WinZip, uses lossless compression to shrink one or more files into a single new file. a. Web palette c. file compression utility b. solid state utility d. JPEG codec ____ 69. What type of compression replaces a series of similarly colored pixels with a code that indicates the number of pixels and their colors? a. JPEG compression c. run-length compression b. codec compression d. lossy compression ____ 70. Which one of the following would NOT typically be stored as a bitmap graphic? a. Images that appear in computer games b. Photographs c. Rendered images produced by 3-D graphics software d. Organizational charts ____ 71. On a personal computer, a speech recognition system typically collects words spoken into a microphone thats attached to the sound card. The sound cards ____________________ transforms the analog sound of your voice into digital data. This data is then processed by speech recognition software. a. wavetable c. digital signal processor b. advanced audio coding compiler d. MIDI sequencer ____ 72. The use of _____________________ to identify human speakers is an emerging part of law enforcement and homeland security. Not only can digitized samples of voices be analyzed to confirm identity, but real-time voice print identification can be used to match speakers with known recordings of their voices. a. audio codecs c. Audio Interchange formats b. digital spectrographic analysis d. MIDI sequences ____ 73. A(n) __________________ is analogous to a player-piano roll that contains punched information indicating which musical notes to play. a. MIDI sequence c. audio codec b. text-to-speech device d. MP3 file ____ 74. Although MP3 remains a popular audio file format, newer standards, such as ___________________, offer better sound quality and compression. a. RealAudio and MIDI c. AAC and WMA b. AIFF and NewTunes d. Wave and MP4 ____ 75. Digital audio files that sound muddy or fuzzy are probably __________________. a. compressed using a lossless compression technique b. stored in MP3 format c. recorded at low sampling rates d. Wave files ____ 76. Why are compressed audio file formats desirable? a. Portable music players typically work with compressed file formats. b. They require less storage space than uncompressed files. c. They can be transmitted over a network faster than uncompressed files. d. All of the above. ____ 77. When working with digital audio, higher sampling rates correspond to _______. a. higher fidelity sound c. higher pitches in the sound b. louder sound d. None of the above ____ 78. Which of the following digital audio file formats is used on the iTunes music download site? a. MP3 c. WMA b. AAC d. AIFF ____ 79. __________ is a compressed digital audio format that stores digitized music, vocals, and narrations in such a way that the sound quality is very good, but the file size remains relatively small. a. MP3 c. Wave b. AIFF d. MIDI ____ 80. Which of the following filename extensions is NOT associated with MIDI files? a. .rol c. .cmf b. .mid d. .aif ____ 81. MIDI music is a good choice for __________. a. adding background music for multimedia projects and Web pages b. getting the full resonance of real sound c. producing high-quality vocals d. all of the above ____ 82. Which of the following is the process by which computers produce sounds that resemble the spoken word? a. Speech reproduction c. Speech recognition b. Speech duplication d. Speech synthesis ____ 83. A basic speech synthesizer uses __________ software to generate sounds that are played through your computer's standard sound card. a. voice recognition b. text-to-speech c. speech recognition d. speech-to-text ____ 84. A bitmap graphic is composed of a grid superimposed on a picture that divides the picture into cells called __________. a. vectors c. lines b. bits d. pixels ____ 85. Which of the following digital photo data transfer methods allows you to "beam" the photo data to your computer? a. Card reader c. Direct cable transfer b. Infrared port d. Docking station ____ 86. Manufacturers sometimes express the resolution of digital cameras as __________. a. terapixels c. gigabytes b. megabytes d. megapixels ____ 87. Pixel interpolation causes some images, especially those that contain strong curved or diagonal lines, to develop an undesirable "bitmappy" or __________ appearance. a. reverse pixel c. digitized b. pixelated d. cropped ____ 88. Which of the following ready-made palettes contains a standard set of colors used by Internet Web browsers? a. Browser palette c. Web palette b. Web-safe palette d. All of the above ____ 89. Which of the following bitmap graphics formats do NOT support True Color? a. GIF c. BMP b. JPEG d. All of the above support True Color. ____ 90. Which of the following filename extensions is NOT a vector graphics file? a. .ai c. .png b. .wmf d. .eps ____ 91. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using vector graphics over bitmap graphics? a. Vector graphics are more realistic than bitmap graphics. b. The parts of a vector graphic are created as separate objects. c. Vector graphics usually require less storage space than bitmap graphics. d. Vector graphics typically are easier to edit than bitmap graphics. ____ 92. The process of converting a vector graphic into a bitmap graphic is called __________. a. rasterization c. bitmapping b. data compression d. ray tracing ____ 93. The process of covering a wireframe with surface color and texture is called __________. a. rasterization c. tracing b. wire fulfillment d. rendering ____ 94. AutoCad is an example of which type of software? a. Vector graphics c. 3-D graphics b. Bitmap graphics d. None of the above ____ 95. Which of the following video camera types is generally considered to produce the highest quality images? a. Analog video camera b. Videoconferencing camera c. Digital video camera d. All of the above produce images of similar quality. ____ 96. Most digital cameras provide which type of port for transferring data to your computer's hard disk? a. USB port c. Serial port b. FireWire port d. Both A and B ____ 97. __________ editing requires only a computer hard disk and video editing software. a. Nonlinear c. Linear b. Random access d. Digital ____ 98. Which of the following will NOT reduce the size of a video? a. Increasing the frame rate from 15 fps to 24 fps b. None--all of the above will reduce the size of a video. c. Selecting a compression technique d. Decreasing the size of the window in which your video is displayed ____ 99. Which of the following video file formats work on PC, Mac, UNIX, and Linux platforms? a. RealMedia c. QuickTime Movie b. Moving Pictures Experts Group d. All of the above (MPEG) ____100. A DVD _________ is essentially a prototype of your DVD, but it is stored on your computers hard disk. a. backup c. ROM b. image d. None of the above STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 9 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A step-by-step process by which numbers are manipulated is a(n) ____. a. abacus c. algorithm b. computer d. calculation ____ 2. The type of manual calculator first used in ancient Rome, Greece, India, China, and Japan is called a/n ____. a. slide rule c. Napiers Bones b. abacus d. algorithm ____ 3. A device consisting of several rods divided into ten squares each labeled with two numbers with the rods positioned according to the numbers in the calculation is a(n) ____. a. slide rule c. Napiers Bones b. algorithm d. abacus ____ 4. A calculator that implements instructions autonomously is a(n) ____. a. mechanical calculator c. algorithm b. abacus d. slide rule ____ 5. The first mass-produced calculator was the ____. a. IBM calculator c. Leibniz b. Pascaline d. de Colmars Arithmometer ____ 6. Punched cards were first used for ____. a. census taking b. input to a computer c. early forms of electronic voting d. controlling colors and patterns of yarn ____ 7. The U.S. Census Bureau held a competition to find a way to tabulate the 1890 census. The Hollerith Tabulating Machine won. The company is now known as ____. a. HAL c. HP b. IBM d. HTM ____ 8. An experimental device that typically must be further developed and perfected before going into production is called a(n) ____. a. prototype c. omega b. alpha d. beta ____ 9. The first electronic computer to use vacuum tubes instead of switches was the ____. a. Mark 1 c. Enigma b. Z3 d. ABC ____ 10. IBM created a computer that integrated 73 IBM Automatic Accounting Machines into a single unified computing unit called the ____. a. Enigma c. Z3 b. ABC d. Harvard Mark 1 ____ 11. The electronic device used to decode messages encrypted by the Germans was the ____. a. UNIVAC c. Enigma b. Enivac d. COLOSSUS ____ 12. The general-purpose electronic computer designed to calculate trajectory tables for the U.S. Army was the ____. a. UNIVAC c. Enigma b. ENIAC d. COLOSSUS ____ 13. The first commercially successful computer was the ____. a. UNIVAC c. Enigma b. Enivac d. COLOSSUS ____ 14. Computers characterized by their use of vacuum tubes are considered ____ generation. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 15. A vacuum tube can have ____ states. a. one b. two c. three d. unlimited ____ 16. Computers characterized by their use of transistors are considered ____ generation. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 17. The birth of the software industry was a result of high-level languages developed for ____generation computers. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 18. The first commercially successful minicomputer was the ____. a. DEC PDP-8 c. IBM 360 b. IBM AS400 d. RCA Spart 7 ____ 19. Computers characterized by their use of microprocessors are ____ generation. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 20. The first commercial micro computer was the ____. a. IBM PC c. Apple I b. Mark 8 d. MITS Altair ____ 21. The first IBM PCs used ____ as an operating system. a. Windows c. MS-DOS b. PC-DOS d. IBM-DOS ____ 22. By the mid-1990s, IBM-compatible computer systems accounted for more than ____ percent of all personal computer sales. a. 70 c. 90 b. 80 d. 100 ____ 23. The popularity of PCs was in large part brought about by the ____. a. Internet c. mouse b. graphical user interface d. Apple userbase ____ 24. Narrowly defined, the term computer industry encompasses those companies that ____. a. manufacture computers, components, peripherals b. develop, produce, sell, and support computers c. manufacture computers and computer components d. all of the above ____ 25. Segments of the IT industry include ____. a. software publishers c. computer retailers b. service companies d. all of the above ____ 26. Worldwide consumers spend more than US $____ on information technology each year. a. 1 billion c. 1 trillion b. 10 billion d. 10 trillion ____ 27. Factors affecting the success of the IT industry include: ____. a. gaining population & business globalization b. Internet declines & business globalization c. population growth & interest rate declines d. population growth & business globalization ____ 28. The first phase of testing generally carried out by software publishers in-house test team is called ____. a. white box testing c. alpha testing b. beta testing d. black box testing ____ 29. A set of testing conducted by a team of off-site testers is called ____. a. black box testing c. alpha testing b. white box testing d. beta testing ____ 30. Microsofts share of the total personal computer operating system market is about ____. a. 80% c. 90% b. 85% d. 95% ____ 31. The ____ tier of the computer industry consists of large companies. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 32. The ____ tier of the computer industry consists of companies falling below the cutoff for identifiable market share. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 33. The ____ tier of companies sell primarily through mail order. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 34. ____ tend to be small local shops or national chains that specialize in the sale of microcomputer software and hardware. a. Computer specialty stores c. Computer retail stores b. Large box stores d. None of the above ____ 35. ____ is a special type of retailing in which a vendor takes orders by phone or an Internet site. a. Mail order c. Manufacturer direct b. VAR d. All of the above ____ 36. ____ refers to hardware manufacturers that sell their products directly to consumers. a. VAR c. Manufacturer direct b. Mail order d. All of the above ____ 37. A ____ combines commercially available products with specialty hardware or software. a. manufacturer direct c. VAR b. mail order firm d. All of the above ____ 38. Most IS/T departments are headed by a ____. a. chief systems officer c. chief operating officer b. chief technology officer d. chief information officer ____ 39. A(n) ____ investigate the requirements of a business or organization, its employees, and its customers in order to plan and implement new or improved customer service. a. systems analyst c. system designer b. Programmer d. information analyst ____ 40. A person who designs, codes, and tests computer programs is a ____. a. computer analyst c. computer programmer b. computer specialist d. computer technician ____ 41. A person who creates documentation for large programming projects is a ____. a. program analyst c. technical writer b. computer specialist d. program documentation ____ 42. It is anticipated that the highest future demand for computer professionals will be in all of the following roles EXCEPT ____. a. security specialist c. network specialist b. technical writing d. technical support ____ 43. Advantages of telecommuting include all the following EXCEPT ____. a. data security c. no commute time b. increased productivity d. all of these are advantages ____ 44. All of the following are essential for secure business data transmitted over the Internet EXCEPT ____. a. high-speed connections c. virtual private networks b. secure connections d. encryption ____ 45. Careers in computer ____ focus on the design of computer hardware. a. Engineering c. design b. Construction d. science ____ 46. Careers in computer ____ focus on computer architecture and programming computers to make them work effectively and efficiently. a. construction c. design b. science d. engineering ____ 47. ____ degrees focus on applying computers to business problems. a. Information management c. Information technology b. Information system d. Information analysis ____ 48. ____ degrees focus on the computer equipment and software used by businesses. a. Information management c. Information analysis b. Information technology d. Information systems ____ 49. Resumes should be in a(n) ____ format. a. doc c. pdf b. xml d. all of the above ____ 50. To get maximum exposure for your resume in an online job database, you should focus on ____. a. adjectives c. verbs b. nouns d. all of the above ____ 51. A hypertext version of your resume is called a ____. a. Web page c. resume blog b. Web portfolio d. Web-based resume ____ 52. The ____ Act enhances the authority of Law enforcement agents to prevent various terrorist acts such as monitoring electronic communication without a warrant. a. Electronic Communications Privacy c. Homeland Security b. Computer Fraud and Abuse d. USA Patriot ____ 53. The ____ Act makes it a criminal offense to knowingly access a computer without authorization. a. USA Patriot c. Homeland Security b. Computer Fraud and Abuse d. Electronic Communications Privacy ____ 54. The ____ Act extends telephone wiretap laws by restricting government agents and unauthorized third parties from tapping into data transmissions without a search warrant. a. USA Patriot Act c. Electronic Communications Privacy b. Computer Fraud and Abuse d. Homeland Security ____ 55. The ____ Act establishes an agency to monitor threats to the communication infrastructure. a. USA Patriot c. Homeland Security b. Computer Fraud and Abuse d. Electronic Communications Privacy ____ 56. Although the radiation from most digital gadgets is considered harmless, researchers have raised concerns about radiation from ______________. a. notebook computers and PDAs b. game consoles and tablet computers c. cell phones and computer CRT display devices d. all of the above ____ 57. Advice such as "examine your motives," "try the normal chain of command first," "record events as they unfold," and "consult a lawyer" pertain to _____________________. a. outsourcing controversies c. employee confidentiality b. buying a computer d. whistleblowing ____ 58. RFID chips, ID badges, and network logs are all ______________________. a. unethical c. outsourcing technologies b. used to monitor employee activities d. required for telecommuting ____ 59. IC3, CSP, MCDBA, and CCNP are examples of ____________________. a. dot coms c. microprocessors b. certifications d. computer prototypes ____ 60. Suppose you have good people skills; you like business and computers; and you want to be an IT professional. However, you lack a strong math aptitude. Your best choice for an academic major would be ______________. a. information systems c. software engineering b. computer science d. computer engineering ____ 61. If a friend of yours is going to take classes in calculus, chemistry, physics, computer organization, logic design, microprocessor design, and signal processing so she can get a job at Intel, her major is most likely to be _____. a. computer science c. information systems b. computer engineering d. information technology ____ 62. If you're good at math, like computers, and think it would be fun to work on projects involving artificial intelligence, virtual reality, and computer games, your best major would be ________________. a. information technology c. computer science b. information systems d. computer engineering ____ 63. The dot com bubble burst ____________. a. in the 1970s c. in May 1997 b. in 2001 and 2002 d. in 1995 ____ 64. What is the significance of Silicon Valley? a. It was the birthplace of integrated circuits, microprocessors, and personal computers. b. It is the manufacturing center for most of the world's computers and peripheral devices. c. It was the location of research institutions and companies that developed computer prototypes, such as ABC, ENIAC, and UNIVAC. d. All of the above. ____ 65. Companies in the IT industry can be separated into several broad categories, sometimes referred to as ________________, including equipment manufacturers, chipmakers, software publishers, service companies, and retailers. a. tiers or markets c. conglomerates or channels b. sectors or segments d. dot coms or online groups ____ 66. The Intel 4004, Zilog Z80, and Motorola 68000 are examples of early ___________. a. microcomputers c. computer prototypes b. personal computers d. microprocessors ____ 67. What is the significance of minicomputers in the history of computing? a. They were the first smaller and less expensive alternatives to mainframe computers. b. They were the first computers to use microprocessors. c. They were small prototypes of handheld devices such as today's iPod. d. The Apple I was the first minicomputer, which introduced the concept of personal computers. ____ 68. What is the significance of UNIVAC in the history of computing? a. It was the first commercial computer to use transistors and include an operating system. b. It was the first minicomputer. c. Its design incorporated all the characteristics of modern computers, but it was too complicated to be completed. d. Historians consider it to the first commercially successful digital computer. ____ 69. What technology characterizes third-generation computers? a. microprocessors c. vacuum tubes b. transistors d. integrated circuits ____ 70. What technology characterizes second-generation computers? a. vacuum tubes c. microprocessors b. integrated circuits d. transistors ____ 71. What technology characterizes first-generation computers? a. gears c. vacuum tubes b. integrated circuits d. transistors ____ 72. Of the following computing devices, which one was on the drawing board first? a. IBM PC c. IBM 360 b. ENIAC d. UNIVAC ____ 73. Of the following prototype computing devices, which one was on the drawing board first? a. IBM 360 c. Harvard Mark I b. ENIAC d. UNIVAC ____ 74. Of the following prototype computing devices, which one was on the drawing board first? a. Atanasoff-Berry Computer c. Harvard Mark I b. Hollerith Tabulating Machine d. Z3 ____ 75. Of the following prototype computing devices, which one was on the drawing board first? a. Hollerith Tabulating Machine c. Analytical Engine b. Difference Engine d. ABC computer ____ 76. The design plan for Babbage's Analytical Engine included _______________. a. b. c. d. an output device storing data and programs on punched cards memory and a programmable processor all of the above ____ 77. In 1822, an English mathematician named Charles Babbage proposed a device called the Difference Engine that would operate using _____________ power, which was cutting-edge technology at the time. a. water c. electric b. steam d. horse ____ 78. A device that assists in the process of numeric calculations, but requires the human operator to keep track of the algorithm, is called a __________. a. counting aid c. manual calculator b. none of the above d. mechanical calculator ____ 79. Which of the following is an example of a manual calculator? a. Abacus c. Napier's Bones b. Slide rule d. All of the above ____ 80. Which of the following became the first mass-produced calculator? a. The Hollerith Tabulating Machine c. de Colmar's Arithmometer b. The Leibniz Calculator d. Schickard's Calculator ____ 81. All of the following are mechanical calculators EXCEPT __________. a. Babbage's Analytical Engine c. Leibniz Calculator b. Napier's Bones d. Schickard's Calculator ____ 82. In 1834, Charles Babbage began designing a device called the __________, which, according to computer historians, embodies many of the concepts that define the modern computer. a. Difference Engine c. Tabulating Machine b. Analytical Engine d. Differential Computer ____ 83. The Atanasoff-Berry Computer (ABC) is credited with which of the following in terms of electronic computer development? a. Being the first to use vacuum tubes instead of mechanical switches. b. Being the first to use decimal rather than binary representation. c. Being the first microprocessor-based digital computer. d. All of the above. ____ 84. Which of the following was the prototype for first-generation computers? a. RCA Spectra 70 c. Harvard Mark I b. IBM AS/400 d. ENIAC ____ 85. All of the following were available and used by second-generation computers EXCEPT __________. a. programming language compilers c. software developed by third parties b. integrated circuit technology d. operating systems ____ 86. __________ was the first electronic spreadsheet software. a. Calc1 c. Access b. VisiCalc d. Excel ____ 87. All of the following are included in the information technology industry EXCEPT __________. a. computer retailers c. financial institutions b. chipmakers d. software publishers ____ 88. In terms of dollar value, the biggest computer hardware-producing centers include the U.S., Japan, Taiwan, Singapore, and __________. a. Germany c. Canada b. China d. India ____ 89. During which one of the following life cycle stages of a computer product are you likely to pay the list price set by the manufacturer? a. Product announcement c. Introduction b. Retirement d. Maintenance ____ 90. In which category of companies are you most likely to find the best price, but perhaps not the best quality? a. Corporate tier c. First-tier b. Second-tier d. Third-tier ____ 91. In terms of computer sales, which of the following is an example of a marketing channel that usually targets large corporate or educational customers? a. Double-click online c. Mail order b. Manufacturer direct d. Computer retail stores ____ 92. The job of a __________ most likely will involve analyzing a company's data to determine the most effective way to collect and store it. a. computer programmer c. systems analyst b. database administrator d. security specialist ____ 93. Which of the following jobs requires a wide-ranging knowledge of computers and communications protocols that can be applied quickly to resolve a crisis? a. Computer operator c. Computer programmer b. Security specialist d. Database administrator ____ 94. To earn a degree in __________, your studies would focus on the design of computer hardware and peripheral devices. a. information systems c. information technology b. computer engineering d. computer science ____ 95. For resumes that become part of a computer-searchable database, all of the following are recommended EXCEPT __________. a. using adjectives to describe your personality b. using columns to organize your data c. including buzzwords and acronyms d. using nouns associated with programming language names, computer equipment, etc. ____ 96. A(n) __________ a is software program that performs broad-based Web searches, such as searching more than one job database at a time. However, it requires you to remain online to receive a list of links to applicable job listings. a. online job bank c. metasearch tool b. mega job search agent d. job search agent ____ 97. The __________ of 1998 makes it illegal to circumvent copy-protection technologies, such as those used to prevent unauthorized copying of software CDs, music CDs, and movie DVDs. a. Digital Millennium Copyright Act c. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act b. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act d. Electronic Communications Privacy Act ____ 98. Which among the following types of radiation is considered most harmful? a. Microwaves c. Gamma rays b. Ultraviolet rays d. RF waves ____ 99. __________ is the study of safe and efficient environments, particularly working environments. a. Environmental Science c. Occupational Economics b. Ergonomics d. Ethics ____100. __________ gets the credit for turning IT outsourcing into a major business. a. Dell Computers c. Lehman Brothers b. Electronic Data Systems d. Blue Shield of Pennsylvania STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 10 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A(n) ____ is a group of people working together to accomplish a goal. a. aggregate c. business b. organization d. mission ____ 2. Every organization has a goal or plan that is often referred to as its ____. a. Web site c. master directive b. mission d. organizing principle ____ 3. A(n) ____ depicts the hierarchy of employees in a typical organization. a. strategy table c. roster b. organizational chart d. mission statement ____ 4. ____ are the people who directly carry out the organization's mission by, for example, assembling products, selling merchandise, or answering phones. a. Workers c. CEOs b. Associates d. Managers ____ 5. The purpose of ____ planning is to set incremental goals that can be achieved in a year or less. a. futuristic c. operational b. tactical d. strategic ____ 6. As a low-level manager at your company, you are responsible for activities that make the day-today operation of the business run smoothly, like ordering office supplies and creating work schedules. What type of planning are you responsible for? a. tactical planning c. analysis b. strategic planning d. operational planning ____ 7. Which of the following best describes the process referred to as operational planning? a. Identifying incremental goals that can be achieved in a year or less. b. Planning an organization's long-range goals for market share. c. Planning an organization's long-range goals for profitability. d. Completing activities that make day-to-day systems run smoothly. ____ 8. As a buyer for a local dress store, you are responsible for choosing next seasons stock. Today you decided to include a selection of Asian-inspired dresses in your fall line based upon fashion trends and your own intuition. What type of problem did you handle? a. An unstructured problem. c. A schedule problem. b. A semi-structured problem. d. A structured problem. ____ 9. Some information systems store or provide access to ____ generated by sources outside the organization. a. online information c. real-time information b. external information d. internal information ____ 10. ____ systems use a commit or rollback strategy to ensure that each transaction is processed correctly. a. ERP c. TQM b. OLTP d. JIT ____ 11. As a manager, you are responsible for managing inventory. Every month you receive a low inventory report that lists stock items that have fallen below a minimum reorder point. This report is a type of ____. a. summary report c. exception report b. ad hoc report d. executive report ____ 12. A(n) ____ report is a customized report, generated to supply specific information not available in scheduled reports. a. exception c. detailed b. ad hoc d. additional ____ 13. A(n) ____ report combines, groups, or totals data. a. aggregate c. exception b. ad hoc d. summary ____ 14. Ad hoc reports are sometimes referred to as ____ reports. a. summary b. exception c. scheduled d. demand ____ 15. You are reviewing a cash-flow model of your business, which is designed to provide a numerical representation of a realistic situation. What type of tool are you using? a. a decision model c. a neural network b. a decision query d. an MIS table ____ 16. A(n) ____ helps people make decisions by directly manipulating data, analyzing data from external sources, generating statistical projections, and creating data models of various scenarios. a. MIS c. BPR b. TPS d. DSS ____ 17. A ____ is a numerical representation of a realistic situation, such as a cash-flow model of a business that shows how income adds to cash accounts and expenses deplete those accounts. a. decision matrix c. decision master b. decision model d. decision index ____ 18. A ____ is a question or set of instructions describing data that must be gathered to make a decision. a. decision model c. decision query b. decision request d. decision scale ____ 19. A DSS typically includes modeling tools to help managers create a numerical representation of a situation and explore "what-if" alternatives. Which of the following is an example of such a tool? a. database c. Web site b. spreadsheet d. expert system ____ 20. In an expert system, a(n) ____ engine analyzes the available data by following the rules in its knowledge base. a. expert c. reference b. difference d. inference ____ 21. A systems analyst is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. supervising the implementation of new information systems b. creating a development methodology c. creating specifications for application software d. analyzing information requirements ____ 22. A Project Development Plan includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. schedule for the project b. description of project scope c. justification for the project d. performance reviews of all project team participants ____ 23. The ____ technique is based on the idea that the best information systems are designed when end users and systems analysts work together as equal partners. a. MRP c. JAD b. EID d. RFP ____ 24. In a JAD ____, users and analysts jointly identify problems and look for solutions. a. session c. department b. mission d. group ____ 25. In the Planning Phase of the SDLC, a(n) ____ is assigned to analyze and develop the information system. a. beta team c. mission team b. RFP team d. project team ____ 26. In the PIECES framework, a ____ exists when an information system does not respond quickly enough to users, or takes too long to complete processing tasks. a. control problem c. processing problem b. response problem d. performance problem ____ 27. ____ is a method for analyzing the time needed to complete each project task and identifying the minimum amount of time needed to complete the total project. a. Just in Time (JIT) b. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) c. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) d. Manufacturing Resource Planning (MRP) ____ 28. A ____ breaks a complex task into a series of subtasks. a. legend c. PERT diagram b. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) d. Gantt chart ____ 29. A ____ uses bars to show the timing of development tasks as they occur over time. a. WBS chart c. Gantt chart b. PERT chart d. progress chart ____ 30. ____ elements are arranged to show which tasks must be completed before subsequent dependent tasks can begin. a. WBS chart c. Beta chart b. PERT chart d. Gantt chart ____ 31. The goal of the ____ of the SDLC is to produce a list of requirements for a new or revised information system. a. planning phase c. implementation phase b. analysis phase d. design phase ____ 32. In the ____ of the SDLC, the project team must decide how the new system will fulfill the requirements specified in the System Requirements Report. a. design phase c. planning phase b. implementation phase d. analysis phase ____ 33. With ____, processing tasks are shared by servers and workstations. a. distributed processing c. amortized processing b. automated processing d. turnkey processing ____ 34. A ____ processing model is one in which data is processed on a centrally located computer. a. fundamental b. distributed c. main d. centralized ____ 35. ____ might be chosen during the Design Phase of the SDLC because it requires little or no programming, and thus requires minimal development time. a. Industrial software c. Commercial software b. Custom software d. Trade software ____ 36. A(n) ____ is a request for a formal price quotation on a list of hardware and software. a. RFP c. RFQ b. SDLC d. BDG ____ 37. A project team submits an RFQ to vendors when it knows all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. price of the software needed c. make of the equipment needed b. titles of the software packages needed d. model of the equipment needed ____ 38. A(n) ____ is issued by a project team when it wants vendors to recommend hardware and software for the solution they have chosen. a. RFP c. RFT b. RFD d. RFQ ____ 39. Which of the following should be considered when reviewing a vendors RFP? a. The vendors financial stability. c. The vendors expertise. b. The vendors reliability. d. All of the above. ____ 40. In terms of software, ____ serve as a blueprint for the new system. a. custom software c. hardware requirements b. turnkey systems d. application specifications ____ 41. In the design phase of the SDLC, the project team ____. a. chooses a solution b. selects hardware and software c. designs detailed application specifications d. all of the above ____ 42. Many projects fail because of constant, unmanaged demand for changes, even before the system is implemented. This failure to constrain change is often referred to as ____. a. preapproval c. redevelopment b. concatenation d. feature creep ____ 43. ____ is the process of modifying a commercial application to reflect the needs of a particular organization. a. Software alteration c. Software regeneration b. Software customization d. Software tailoring ____ 44. ____ testing is performed to ensure that software modules operate together correctly. a. Amalgamation c. Assimilation b. Incorporation d. Integration ____ 45. Which quality of service (QoS) metric is defined as the number of errors occurring in a particular time interval for a particular function? a. capacity c. response time b. user levels d. accuracy ____ 46. Which quality of service (QoS) metric is defined as the amount of time a system is not available for processing? a. accessibility c. downtime b. capacity d. throughput ____ 47. A ____ metric is a technique for measuring a specific characteristic by monitoring system performance and analyzing responses to user satisfaction surveys. a. quality of service (QoS) c. satisfaction b. PIECES d. programming ____ 48. Three key concepts ensure good quality of service from a computer system. They include all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. cost c. availability b. reliability d. serviceability ____ 49. Computer systems are ____ when they can be counted on to function correctly. a. reliable c. high-performing b. serviceable d. available ____ 50. ____ refers to the ability of the system to be continuously accessible to all the people who use it. a. Reliability c. Performance b. Availability d. Serviceability ____ 51. Systems exhibit ____ when they are easily upgraded or repaired. a. serviceability c. availability b. reliability d. accessibility ____ 52. Which quality of service (QoS) metric is defined as the amount of data processed in a particular time interval? a. capacity c. downtime b. throughput d. accuracy ____ 53. A(n) ____ installs new versions of operating system software and modifies operating system settings to ensure maximum performance. a. applications programmer c. systems programmer b. database analyst d. system operator ____ 54. Many organizations establish a ____ to handle end-user problems. a. processing desk c. system desk b. user desk d. help desk ____ 55. A common threat to the data stored on a corporate information system is an act of war, which includes all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. bombings c. cyberterrorism b. human error d. viruses ____ 56. Multilevel authentication is an example of a security measure in the ____ category. a. corrective procedure c. detection activity b. deterrent d. preventative countermeasure ____ 57. Antivirus software is an example of a security measure in the ____ category. a. corrective procedure c. preventative countermeasure b. detection activity d. deterrent ____ 58. To avoid downtime, one of the most basic requirements for a data center is a ____. a. detection system c. power grid b. security sampler d. UPS ____ 59. The key to a ____ is an e-mail that looks like it originated from a legitimate company. a. pharming scam c. mining scam b. thieving scam d. phishing scam ____ 60. An enterprise-wide disaster recovery plan should do all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. temporarily suspend critical business operations b. facilitate effective coordination of recovery tasks c. minimize immediate damage and prevent additional losses d. ensure the safety of people on the premises ____ 61. In the corporate world, a ____ symbolizes a company, its products or services. This typically includes a name, trademark, and logo. a. brand c. reputation b. definition d. mission ____ 62. All of the following are guidelines to help corporations deal with identity theft EXCEPT ____. a. keep scams from happening to c. educate customers customers b. monitor domain name registration d. manage URLs ____ 63. With current ____ technologies, corporations have no way to lock down their branding elements. a. URI c. FTP b. HTTP d. UML ____ 64. Why is it a good practice to involve end users when an organization is developing a new information system? a. End users can clarify current processes and procedures. b. End users can help to identify the way data needs to be processed. c. End users will tend to accept the system and like it if they participate in creating it. d. All of the above. ____ 65. What is the relationship between a neural network and a local area network? a. A local area network runs on a neural network. b. Both use the TCP/IP protocol suite. c. Both are communications platforms. d. Neural network software could run on a LAN. ____ 66. Decisions about fixing a car, identifying whale species, diagnosing blood diseases, or ordering a customized personal computer could be handled best by ______________________. a. a neural network c. a decision support system b. a transaction processing system d. an expert system ____ 67. Which one of the following would not require an OLTP system? a. iTunes c. an ATM machine b. a university's course registration d. processing payroll system ____ 68. If you start the process of withdrawing cash from an ATM, but the machine jams and you don't get any cash, the system's ____________________ should ensure that your account is not charged for the failed transaction. a. commit or rollback strategy c. fuzzy logic b. batch processing d. fail-safe mode ____ 69. The integrity of a transaction handled by a transaction processing system depends on __________________. a. implementing a "commit or rollback" strategy b. precise data entry c. accurate programming algorithms d. all of the above ____ 70. An information system can help the people in an organization perform their jobs more quickly and effectively by automating routine tasks, but it can also ____________________. a. make strategic planning decisions b. eliminate the need for tactical planning c. help workers and managers make decisions in response to problems d. eliminate guesstimates in the process of solving unstructured problems ____ 71. Where can you find a corporation's mission statement?| a. In corporate reports or on its Web site c. In the joint application design b. In an online EULA d. In the corporate decision support system ____ 72. What is the connection between information systems and mission statements? a. An information system should help an organization accomplish its stated mission. b. A mission statement describes the goals for an information system. c. Most organizations include their information systems in their mission statements. d. An information system can generate the mission statement for an organization. ____ 73. __________ planning refers to the process of setting incremental goals that can be achieved in a year or less. a. Tactical c. Strategic b. Advanced d. Operational ____ 74. A(n) __________ problem requires that human intuition be the basis for finding a solution. a. pre-structured c. semi-structured b. structured d. unstructured ____ 75. Information systems have contributed most to solving __________ problems. a. personal c. unstructured b. semi-structured d. structured ____ 76. All of the following are examples of business transaction processing systems EXCEPT a(n) __________ system. a. point of sale c. order-entry/invoice b. general accounting d. enterprise application integration ____ 77. Which type of transaction processing system collects and holds a group of transactions for processing until the end of a day or a pay period? a. Rollback processing c. Group processing b. Batch processing d. Online processing ____ 78. A report containing the total sales from the last quarter is an example of a(n) __________ report. a. summary c. exception b. decision d. ad hoc ____ 79. A __________ is a numerical representation of a realistic situation. a. decision tool c. decision query b. decision model d. decision system ____ 80. A(n) __________ system is designed to analyze data and produce a recommendation, diagnosis, or decision based on a set of facts and rules. a. neural c. decision support b. expert d. transaction processing ____ 81. The process of designing, entering, and testing the rules in an expert system is referred to as _________. a. fuzzy logic c. knowledge engineering b. inference d. systems analysis ____ 82. A(n) __________ is a software tool containing an inference engine and a user interface that developers use to enter facts and rules for a knowledge base. a. expert system shell c. neural network b. fuzzy engine d. diagnosis engine ____ 83. A(n) __________ SDLC accounts for overlap between SDLC phases. a. waterfall c. iterative b. modified waterfall d. repeating ____ 84. A Project Development Plan should include all of the following EXCEPT a(n) __________. a. implementation plan c. list of project team participants b. schedule for the project d. justification for the project ____ 85. The computer professional directly responsible for analyzing information requirements, designing new information systems, and supervising their implementation is called a(n) __________. a. computer programmer c. end user b. CIO d. systems analyst ____ 86. Which of the following SDLC methodologies focuses on the data that an information system collects before working out ways to process that data? a. Object-oriented methodology c. Structured methodology b. Information engineering methodology d. All of the above ____ 87. Which of the following charts is an industry standard tool for scheduling and project management? a. GANTT c. WBS b. PERT d. All of the above ____ 88. A project team should consider the overall architecture of the information system based on which of the following? a. Level of automation c. Processing methodology b. Network technology d. All of the above ____ 89. Which software alternative provides the most flexibility, but is typically very expensive? a. Using a turnkey system b. Creating from an application development tool c. Using commercial software d. Creating from scratch ____ 90. All of the following are activities that take place during the implementation phase EXCEPT __________. a. creating applications c. making backups b. testing applications d. purchasing and installing software ____ 91. Application testing is performed in all of the following ways EXCEPT __________. a. WBS testing c. integration testing b. unit testing d. system testing ____ 92. Which of the following conversion strategies completely deactivates the old system and immediately activates the new system? a. Direct conversion c. System conversion b. Parallel conversion d. Pilot conversion ____ 93. Which of the following is an activity within the maintenance phase? a. Helping users c. Data modeling b. Converting data d. Testing applications ____ 94. Which phase of an SDLC is usually the most expensive? a. Implementation c. Analysis b. Design d. Maintenance ____ 95. __________ can present a threat to corporate information systems. a. Viruses c. Human error b. Acts of war d. All of the above ____ 96. An expert system is characterized by its ability to accomplish which of the following? a. Replicate the reasoning of a human expert b. Work with internal or external data c. Produce a recommendation or decision d. All of the above ____ 97. A typical TPS generates _________ reports. a. summary c. ad hoc b. exception d. detail ____ 98. According to Michael Porter, which of the following affects competition among business rivals? a. The bargaining power of suppliers c. The threat of substitute products b. The bargaining power of buyers d. All of the above ____ 99. During the _________ phase, project team members can observe a current system in action and interview people who use the system. a. design c. implementation b. analysis d. maintenance ____100. In a data flow diagram, a(n) ________ symbolizes a data flow and indicates how data travels from entities to processes and data stores. a. rounded rectangle c. square b. open rectangle d. arrow STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 11 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. In the broadest definition, a(n) ____ is a collection of information. a. field c. hierarchy b. index d. database ____ 2. Data ____ refers to the process of analyzing information in databases to discover previously unknown and potentially useful information. a. tracking c. warehousing b. leading d. mining ____ 3. The data accessed by data mining and other analysis techniques is often stored in a data ____. a. silo c. cellar b. stockyard d. warehouse ____ 4. ____ refers to a branch of data mining that focuses on predicting future probabilities and trends. a. Future-oriented analytics c. Predictive analytics b. Linked analytics d. Forecasting analytics ____ 5. ____ allows decision makers to look for relationships between multiple data dimensions. a. Flat file c. Predictive analytics b. Database modeling d. OLAP ____ 6. A(n) ____ file uses a uniform format to store data for each person or thing in the file. a. indexed c. fixed-length b. structured d. variable-length ____ 7. A fixed-length field contains a predetermined number of ____. a. letters c. units b. pixels d. bytes ____ 8. In the world of databases, a(n) ____ refers to a collection of data fields. a. record c. format b. structure d. index ____ 9. A record ____ contains data about a particular entity. a. stock c. type b. catalog d. occurrence ____ 10. ____ refers to the number of associations that can exist between two record types. a. Cardinality c. Referentiality b. Ordinality d. Relating ____ 11. Relationships between record types can be graphically depicted using a(n) ____. a. DRE c. GRD b. EDR d. ERD ____ 12. A(n) ____ is an association between data that is stored in different record types. a. method c. table b. relationship d. attribute ____ 13. The ____ database model uses a mesh-like structure, which allows for the definition of many-tomany relationships. a. network c. duplex b. parent-child d. hierarchical ____ 14. In an object database, an attribute is ____. a. equivalent to a field in a relational database b. any behavior that an object is capable of performing c. a group of objects d. equivalent to a record ____ 15. It is possible to enter data as a(n) ____ text file and then use a programming language to write routines to access that data. a. primary key c. ASCII b. binary d. relational ____ 16. Which of the following has the least versatility? a. spreadsheet software c. dedicated software b. database software d. custom software ____ 17. Data ____ means that data are separate from the programs used to manipulate the data. a. independence c. reliance b. dependence d. autonomy ____ 18. If a single data management tool can be used to maintain many different files and databases, it must support data ____. a. independence c. relationships b. dependence d. networks ____ 19. A(n) ____ allows you to create, update, and administer a relational database. a. RDBMS c. ERD b. OODBMS d. XML DBMS ____ 20. Database ____ software allows a remote computer or network workstation to access data in a database. a. management c. server b. client d. distribution ____ 21. With a(n) ____ database, the database is stored on several different computers, on multiple networks, or in different geographical locations. a. relational c. distributed b. network d. object ____ 22. Database ____ software is designed to manage billions of records and several hundred transactions per second. a. system c. client b. distribution d. server ____ 23. A technique called ____ Web publishing is a simple way to display the data in a database by converting a database report into an HTML document, which can be displayed as a Web page by a browser. a. entry c. static b. flexible d. dynamic ____ 24. The ____ Web publishing process generates customized Web pages as needed. a. dynamic c. flexible b. server-side d. static ____ 25. Dynamic Web publishing relies on a program or script, referred to as a(n) ____ program, that acts as an intermediary between your browser and a DBMS. a. XForm c. client-side b. server-side d. input ____ 26. All of the following are tools to help you create server-side programs EXCEPT ____. a. CGI c. JavaScript b. ASP d. PHP ____ 27. A CGI script can be written in all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. Java c. JavaScript b. Perl d. C++ ____ 28. ____ is a markup language that allows field tags, data, and tables to be incorporated into a Web document. a. ASP c. Java b. XML d. HTML ____ 29. Which of the following is NOT true of XML? a. It is portable so that it can be easily accessed from virtually any platform. b. XML documents are optimized for many operations you customarily associate with databases such as fast sorts and updates. c. It exists as a document in human-readable format. d. All that is required to view an XML document is an XML-enabled browser. ____ 30. The ____ data type is used to store true/false or yes/no data using minimal storage space. a. yes c. logical b. memo d. true ____ 31. A ____ data type usually provides a variable-length field into which users can enter comments. a. text c. character b. memo d. string ____ 32. What would be an appropriate data type to choose for a fixed-length field designed to hold a persons name? a. logical data type c. memo data type b. text data type d. real data type ____ 33. What would be an appropriate data type to choose for a field designed to hold an MP3 file? a. BLOB data type c. music data type b. computed field d. logical data type ____ 34. A field ____ is a template that adds the correct formatting as data is entered. a. screen c. roster b. format d. validation ____ 35. A field ____ rule is a specification that the database designer sets up to filter the data entered into a particular field. a. validation c. filter b. cardinality d. structure ____ 36. A ____ validates an entry by searching for the same data in a file or database table. a. lookup routine c. validating routine b. redundancy routine d. normalizing routine ____ 37. The goal of normalization is to minimize data ____. a. formatting c. cardinality b. indexing d. redundancy ____ 38. A table's ____ order is the order in which records are stored on disk. a. linked c. normal b. storage d. sort ____ 39. A database ____ contains a list of keys, and each key provides a pointer to the record that contains the rest of the fields related to that key. a. schema c. index b. roster d. catalog ____ 40. To provide a quality database interface, a designer might ____. a. minimize on-screen instructions to save space b. use only one type of control on the interface c. arrange fields in a logical order d. position entry areas randomly ____ 41. Which of the following can be used to delineate the data entry area in a user interface? a. a shaded area c. a line b. an edit box d. all of the above ____ 42. A ____ contains the outline or general specifications for a report, including such elements as the report title, fields to include, fields to subtotal/total, and report format specifications. a. report generator c. report matrix b. report converter d. report template ____ 43. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for creating a template for reports? a. Present information in a clear, unambiguous format b. Present as much information as possible c. Present information in the format most appropriate for the audience d. Present information in a usable format ____ 44. A(n) ____ copies data out of a software package, such as spreadsheet software, and into the database. a. export routine c. copy routine b. import routine d. paste routine ____ 45. ____ is a query language. a. XML b. SQL c. HTML d. Java ____ 46. Database ____ provides users with an easy-to-use interface for entering search specifications, new records, data updates, and so on. a. client software c. distribution software b. query software d. server software ____ 47. What is the SQL command used to introduce a brand-new database or table? a. CREATE c. START b. NEW d. BUILD ____ 48. What SQL command removes a record from a table? a. DELETE c. PURGE b. CUT d. REMOVE ____ 49. In an SQL query, a ____ clause is used to specify the table you want to access. a. WHICH c. SELECT b. FROM d. JOIN ____ 50. ____ are detailed specifications for an SQL command. a. Perimeters c. Parameters b. Boundaries d. Limits ____ 51. One of the most common database operations is to query for a particular record or group of records using the ____ command. a. INSERT c. FIND b. SELECT d. GET ____ 52. The ____ operator specifies that both of the search criteria must be true for the record to be selected. a. NONE c. NOT b. ALL d. AND ____ 53. Which of the following is NOT a Boolean operator? a. OR c. THIS b. NOT d. AND ____ 54. Which of the following SQL operators designates records that meet either one of a set of two criteria, or both? a. OR c. NOT b. ALL d. AND ____ 55. Which of the following SQL operators can be used to omit records from a search by specifying a not-equal relationship? a. NOT c. ALL b. OR d. AND ____ 56. A ____ update changes data in more than one record at a time. a. key c. primary b. mass d. global ____ 57. In SQL terminology, creating a relationship between tables is referred to as ____ tables. a. matching c. joining b. keying d. aligning ____ 58. Databases are NOT vulnerable to ____. a. encryption b. unauthorized access c. theft d. hacking ____ 59. Which of the following does NOT have the potential to add doubt about the veracity of database data? a. access controls c. hacking b. data entry errors d. update errors ____ 60. Criminals have become sophisticated in the use of all of the following EXCEPT ____ to access data stored on personal computers. a. keyloggers c. redirection b. bots d. ATMs ____ 61. Database data that is transmitted over the Web can be encrypted using encryption technologies such as ____. a. FTP c. SSL b. Telnet d. all of the above ____ 62. ____ can block unauthorized users and limit activities of authorized users. a. Monitoring controls c. Keystroke controls b. Access controls d. Activity controls ____ 63. Surveys show that as many as ____ of businesses never change the standard administrator password for a DBMS. a. 5% c. 15% b. 10% d. 25% ____ 64. A ____ establishes which fields and records a particular user may access. a. data view c. user view b. user privilege d. date picture ____ 65. A database audit can ____. a. trace the source of errors b. make comprehensive corrections c. maintain accountability d. all of the above ____ 66. Suppose you're designing a database for your Uncle Vinnie's used car business. What would make the best primary key for the Vehicles table? a. the vehicle's license plate number c. the vehicle's model number b. the Vehicle Identification Number d. the owner's Social Security number (VIN) ____ 67. Suppose you're designing a database for a friend who runs a small business selling used DVDs. If you want to store a scan of the DVD cover, what data type would you use? a. Real c. Logical b. BLOB d. Memo ____ 68. Suppose you're designing a database for a friend who runs a small business selling vintage record albums. You've created a list of fields that need to become part of the database structure. Your next task is to divide those fields into records using a process called ____________________. a. data redundancy c. indexing b. server-side scripting d. normalization ____ 69. ASP, CGI, and PHP are examples of ___________________. a. tools that can help create server-side programs and scripts b. database models c. data types d. field formats ____ 70. Suppose you're creating a database for a small business to keep track of customers. The state field _____________________. a. can be assigned the STATE data type c. should be a variable length field b. could use a lookup routine d. All of the above ____ 71. Suppose you're creating a database for a charitable organization to keep track of donors. The phone number field _____________________. a. should be assigned a character data c. should be created as a fixed length type field b. should use a field format d. All of the above ____ 72. A flat file ___________________. a. is the simplest model for storing data b. is supported by most spreadsheet software and word processing software| c. consists of a single, two dimensional table d. All of the above ____ 73. Privacy advocates are uncomfortable with the use of _________________ to scan a wide swath of databases in an attempt to discover who, in America, might be a terrorist. a. SQL and blogs c. XML and RFID b. predictive analytics and data mining d. Entity-relationship diagrams ____ 74. The tasks associated with creating, maintaining, and accessing the information in databases are referred to as __________. a. database management c. file management b. data management d. all of the above ____ 75. The data accessed by data mining and other analysis techniques is often stored in a data _________, which is a repository for data from more than one database. a. warehouse c. bank b. archive d. center ____ 76. The misuse of data mining is sometimes called _________. a. data scamming c. data dredging b. database auditing d. normalization ____ 77. A record ________ is simply a list of fields, whereas a record ________ contains data for a particular entity. a. occurrence, type c. type, row b. row, occurrence d. type, occurrence ____ 78. Which of the following elements of a structured file contains the smallest unit of meaningful information? a. A table c. A field b. A record d. A node ____ 79. __________ refers to the number of associations that can exist between two record types. a. Primary keys c. Cardinality b. Entity relationship d. Data independence ____ 80. Each ________ of a table is equivalent to a record; each ________ of a table is equivalent to a field. a. row, column b. type, occurrence c. column, row d. occurrence, type ____ 81. In an object-oriented database, a(n) __________ is the equivalent of a field in a relational database. a. attribute c. class b. method d. record ____ 82. The file management tools provided by word processing and spreadsheet software are good if you want to maintain __________ records. a. very complex c. a few hundred b. millions of d. several thousand ____ 83. Which of the following should you consider when selecting a data management tool? a. Versatility c. Ease of use b. Cost d. All of the above ____ 84. Which of the following database management systems allows you to create, update, and administer a relational database? a. XML DBMS c. RDBMS b. OODBMS d. None of the above ____ 85. It is possible to gain Web access to which of the following database types? a. Relational database c. Network database b. Hierarchical database d. All of the above ____ 86. Dynamic Web publishing requires a Web server, a database, a browser, and __________. a. client-side database software c. a distributed database b. a server-side program d. both A and C ____ 87. Which of the following data types cannot be used for calculations? a. Text c. Logical b. Memo d. All of the above ____ 88. In a database containing payroll data, the salary field should have a(n) _________ data type. a. logical c. integer b. real d. text ____ 89. In a record store's database, the comment "Turned platinum five weeks after its release" should be entered in a field with a(n) _______ data type. a. logical c. memo b. comment d. text ____ 90. A(n) __________ is a specification that a database designer sets up to filter data entered into a particular field. a. index c. field validation rule b. field format d. case-sensitive field ____ 91. Which of the following contains a list of keys, with each key providing a pointer to the record that contains the rest of the fields related to that key? a. Database key b. Database index c. Sort key d. SQL key ____ 92. All of the following are considered SQL special command words EXCEPT __________. a. JOIN c. CREATE b. CHANGE d. INSERT ____ 93. Which of the following SQL commands adds data to a table in your database? a. INSERT c. ADD b. UPDATE d. CHANGE ____ 94. Which of the following would you use to direct the DBMS to process a certain part of the search criteria first? a. OR c. AND b. NOT d. None of the above ____ 95. Database data thats transmitted over the Web can be encrypted by using an encryption technology such as ________. a. SSL c. HTTS b. SHTTP d. A and B ____ 96. The lowest level of user privileges is ________ access. a. indexing c. copying b. write d. read ____ 97. A database __________ is a procedure that monitors and records user activity within a database. a. view c. audit b. tracker d. policy ____ 98. To improve a database interface, a designer might consider providing a quick way to move through the fields in order. By convention, the __________ key performs this function. a. Alt c. Tab b. Shift d. Ctrl ____ 99. Most music CDs contain many tracks, an example of a(n) ___________ relationship. a. one-to-one c. many-to-many b. one-to-many d. None of the above ____100. While X-rays capture only a two-dimensional image, a computer can generate a threedimensional image from a series of X-ray images assembled using a technology called ____________. a. MRI c. CT b. HIPAA d. EKG STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 12 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. A computer program is typically stored as a file and transferred into ____ when needed. a. REM c. RUM b. ROM d. RAM ____ 2. A single programmer can, on average, write, test, and document only ____ lines of code per day. a. 10 c. 20 b. 15 d. 25 ____ 3. Software engineers tend to focus on ____. a. engineering c. designing b. developing d. coding ____ 4. Software engineering is a development process that uses ____ techniques to reduce cost and complexity. a. mathematical c. engineering b. management d. all of the above ____ 5. A ____ language uses command words and grammar based on human language. a. machine c. high-level b. modular programming d. low-level ____ 6. A ____ language typically includes commands specific to a particular CPU or microprocessor family. a. low-level c. third-generation b. high-level d. modular programming ____ 7. The first computers were programmed using ____. a. circuits c. low-level languages b. high-level languages d. assembler language ____ 8. Assembly languages are considered ____-generation languages. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 9. When high-level languages were originally conceived in the 1950s, they were dubbed ____generation languages. a. first c. third b. second d. fourth ____ 10. Languages which most closely resemble human languages are ____-generation languages. a. second c. fourth b. third d. fifth ____ 11. A computer programming language based on a declarative programming paradigm is a ____generation language. a. second c. fourth b. third d. fifth ____ 12. Software specially designed for entering code for computer programs is a ____. a. code editor c. program editor b. VDE d. text editor ____ 13. A ____ provides programmers with tools to build substantial sections of a program by pointing and clicking. a. VDE c. program editor b. code editor d. text editor ____ 14. When using a VDE, a ____ is a screen-based object whose behavior can be defined by the programmer. a. form c. grid b. property d. control ____ 15. Within the context of programming, a(n) ____ is defined as an action. a. event c. class b. control d. form ____ 16. A ____ error occurs when an instruction does not follow the grammar of the programming language. a. run-time c. logic b. syntax d. grammar ____ 17. A ____ error occurs when a program fails to perform as intended due to an error in the design of the program. a. syntax c. run-time b. programming d. logic ____ 18. Some ____ errors result from instructions the computer cannot execute. a. run-time c. programming b. logic d. syntax ____ 19. A collection of language-specific programming tools that enables a programmer to develop applications for a specific computer platform is a(n) ____. a. API c. SDK b. LPT d. IDK ____ 20. In gaming programming, explosions, flares, and fairy dust are accomplished by a(n) ____. a. particle renderer c. animation renderer b. pathfinder renderer d. special effects renderer ____ 21. The traditional approach to programming uses a(n) ____ paradigm. a. multi-paradigm c. object-oriented b. programming d. procedural ____ 22. ____ is a subset of the English language with a limited selection of sentence structures that reflect processing activities. a. Pseudocode c. Structured English b. Sub English d. Sub code ____ 23. During ____ execution, the first instruction in the program is executed first, followed by the second. a. straight-line c. control b. sequential d. functional ____ 24. A ____ control structure changes the order in which instructions are carried out by directing the computer to execute an instruction elsewhere in the program. a. sequence c. repetition b. selection d. directing ____ 25. A ____ control structure tells a computer what to do based on whether a condition is true or false. a. sequence c. selection b. repetition d. directing ____ 26. The first widely used, standardized procedural computer language was ____. a. FORTRAN c. C b. C++ d. BASIC ____ 27. A(n) ____ paradigm is based on the idea that the solution for a program can be visualized in terms of objects that interact with each other. a. declarative c. procedural b. objective d. object-oriented ____ 28. A(n) ____ is a unit of data that represents an abstraction or a real-world entity such as person, place or thing. a. object c. class b. attribute d. variable ____ 29. ____ attributes define the characteristics of a set of objects. a. Class c. Private b. Object d. Public ____ 30. A(n) ____ attribute is available for use by any routine in the program. a. class c. public b. object d. private ____ 31. A(n) ____ attribute is available only to the routine in which it is defined. a. object c. class b. private d. public ____ 32. ____ refers to passing certain characteristics from one class to another class. a. Objectification c. Encapsulation b. Inheritance d. Extensibility ____ 33. A method is activated by a message which is included as a line of program code also referred to as a(n) ____. a. include c. get b. call d. fetch ____ 34. The ability to redefine a method is called ____. a. encapsulation c. polymorphism b. instantiation d. inheritance ____ 35. The advantages of polymorphism include ____. a. simplifying program code b. easy extensibility c. the ability to dispense with procedural languages d. both a and b ____ 36. The computer begins executing a Java program by locating a standard method called ____. a. begin() c. start() b. main() d. initiate() ____ 37. The first computer language to work with objects, classes, inheritance and methods was ____. a. Smalltalk c. C++ b. Java d. SIMULA ____ 38. Object-oriented languages that are popular today include all of the following EXCEPT ____. a. Ada c. C++ b. C# d. Pascal ____ 39. ____ refers to the process of hiding the internal details of objects and their methods. a. Polymorphism c. Encapsulation b. Inheritance d. None of the above ____ 40. The ____ paradigm emphasizes the evaluation of expressions, rather than the execution of commands. a. object-oriented c. functional b. declarative d. procedural ____ 41. The ____ paradigm attempts to describe a problem without specifying exactly how to arrive at a solution. a. object-oriented c. declarative b. procedural d. functional ____ 42. In programming languages such as Prolog, finding a value for a variable is referred to as ___. a. querying c. instantiation b. goal finding d. assignment ____ 43. A(n) ____ table is a tabular method for visualizing and specifying rules based on multiple factors. a. assumptions c. decision b. truth d. rules ____ 44. The kinds of problems best suited to the declarative approach involve ____. a. words c. routines b. complex calculations d. simple calculations ____ 45. One of the first exploits to take advantage of buffer overflows was the ____. a. Phillip worm c. Morris worm b. Michelangelo virus d. love virus ____ 46. The language that offers little protection from buffer overflows is ____. a. C++ c. Java b. C# d. D ____ 47. In addition to buffer overflows, hackers can use ____ to find vulnerabilities. a. variable typing c. code reuse b. verbose error messages d. all of the above ____ 48. ____ help(s) programmers apply rigorous logical and mathematical models to software design. a. Formal methods c. Secure programming b. Threat modeling d. all of the above ____ 49. In the threat model, STRIDE, the S stands for ____ or pretending to be someone else. a. Spoofing c. Sabotage b. Simulating d. none of the above ____ 50. In the threat model, STRIDE, the T stands for ____ or changing, adding, or deleting data. a. tampering c. trading b. transforming d. none of the above ____ 51. In the threat model, STRIDE, the R stands for ____ or covering tracks to make attacks difficult to trace. a. reputation c. reimage b. repudiation d. retracing ____ 52. In the threat model, STRIDE, the I stands for ____ or gaining unauthorized access. a. information disclosure c. information detection b. information discovery d. intrusion ____ 53. In the threat model, STRIDE, the D stands for ____ or making a system unavailable to legitimate users. a. denial of service c. denial b. detection d. deauthorization ____ 54. In the threat model, STRIDE, the E stands for ____ or modifying user rights to gain access to data. a. elevation of rights c. elevation of access b. elevation of service d. elevation of privilege ____ 55. Microsofts ____ technology uses Internet Explorer as the verification client. a. code wrapping c. DigiSign b. VeriSign d. Authenticode ____ 56. Patches can be supplied as complete files or as ____ code segments. a. partial-line c. in-line b. entire d. partial ____ 57. Among the steps you can take to avoid security problems is ____. a. use freeware b. be selective of the patches you choose to apply c. keep your firewall deployed d. all of the above ____ 58. STRIDE and DREAD are _____________________. a. visual development environments c. debugging tools b. object-oriented programming d. threat modeling tools languages ____ 59. ______________ is a procedural language that was modified to incorporate object-oriented features and is now popular for U.S. government programming projects. a. Ada c. Fortran b. COBOL d. Prolog ____ 60. Suppose you're reading through a Java program and you see getArea(). What is it? a. a predicate c. a method b. a numeric variable d. a text variable ____ 61. Suppose you're creating a program for the Windows platform. You want your program to display standard menus and dialog boxes for printing. You can access these functions using ____________________. a. an agile methodology c. Windows APIs b. a debugger d. none of the above ____ 62. When computer programmers see IDE, SDK, and API, they think of ________. a. declarative languages c. variables b. assembly language commands d. programming tools ____ 63. During what part of the programming process would programmers use predictive or agile methodologies? a. Planning, executing, and testing c. Scheduling and editing b. Encapsulating and patching d. None of the above ____ 64. Commands such as PRINT and INPUT can be expected in______________. a. Pascal c. third-generation languages b. high-level languages d. all of the above ____ 65. If a programmer is writing a program with commands, such as LDA, STA, and ADD, the program is most likely ____________________. a. written in a low-level language c. loaded into a debugger b. Prolog d. being written in a VDE ____ 66. You can use pico to write a short batch program for your Mac computer; then you can run the program from the _________________. a. Command Prompt window c. iWeb prompt b. browser d. Terminal ____ 67. You can use _________________ to write a short batch program for your Windows computer; then you can run the program from the Command Prompt. a. Bat c. Notepad b. All Programs d. Structured English ____ 68. End users can write short programs that execute from the _______________ on a Windows computer or from the Terminal on a Mac. a. editor c. flowchart b. Command Prompt d. Bash ____ 69. In a Pascal program to convert feet and inches into centimeters, a programmer might set up _______________ to hold the values for feet and inches that are to be converted. a. arguments c. predicates b. variables d. buffers ____ 70. The instructions that make up a program are sometimes referred to as __________. a. Pascal c. code b. bugs d. binary objects ____ 71. A software engineer is responsible for __________. a. software design c. programming b. testing d. all of the above ____ 72. On average, how many lines of code can one person write, test, and document in one day? a. 20 c. 100 b. 2000 d. 5 ____ 73. A(n) _________ translates each line of program code into machine language. a. interpreter c. compiler b. syntax d. A and C ____ 74. Which of the following language categories use easy-to-remember command words, such as PRINT and INPUT? a. Third-generation c. Second-generation b. First-generation d. All of the above ____ 75. Which of the following is not a third-generation language? a. COBOL c. SQL b. Pascal d. C ____ 76. _________ is a high-level C++ derivative developed by Sun Microsystems and used extensively for Web-based programming. a. Smalltalk c. Visual Basic b. Java d. C# ____ 77. Which of the following terms refer to the way a computer programmer conceptualizes and structures the tasks that a computer performs? a. Algorithm development c. Logical architecture b. Object-oriented design d. A programming paradigm ____ 78. Which of the following is NOT a programming paradigm? a. Procedural c. Object-oriented b. Prolog d. Event-driven ____ 79. In a problem statement, which of the following terms refers to the information that you supply to the computer to help it solve a problem? a. An algorithm c. A paradigm b. An assumption d. Known information ____ 80. Which of the following provides tools to create programs by pointing and clicking? a. GUI c. Program editor b. Control editor d. VDE ____ 81. Which of the following types of program errors is the easiest to correct? a. Global error c. Logic error b. Syntax error d. Runtime error ____ 82. Using the wrong formula to calculate the area of a cube is an example of which type of program error? a. Mathematical c. Logic b. Syntax d. Runtime ____ 83. A(n) ___________ is a set of application program or operating system functions that programmers can access from within the programs they create. a. DRM c. API b. IDE d. SDK ____ 84. A program written in a(n) __________ language typically consists of self-contained instructions in a sequence that indicates how a task is to be performed or a problem is to be solved. a. functional c. procedural b. event-driven d. object-oriented ____ 85. Which of the following is NOT a way to express an algorithm? a. Flowchart c. Structured English b. Pseudocode d. Assumptions ____ 86. Which of the following are program instructions that specify the sequence in which a program is executed? a. Walkthroughs c. Syntax statements b. Control structures d. Algorithms ____ 87. Most programming languages include control structures known as __________ controls. a. selection c. sequence b. repetition d. all of the above ____ 88. Which of the following is NOT an example of a repetition command? a. FOR...NEXT c. IF...THEN b. WHILE...WEND d. DO...UNTIL ____ 89. Which of the following is an example of a popular procedural programming language? a. C c. FORTRAN b. BASIC d. All of the above ____ 90. The OO paradigm defines a(n) __________ as a unit of data that represents an abstract or realworld entity. a. class c. object b. method d. attribute ____ 91. Which type of diagrams are often used to plan the OO classes for a program? a. HTML c. Flowchart b. UML d. XML ____ 92. __________ allows programmers to create a single, generic name for a procedure that behaves in unique ways for different classes. a. Inheritance c. Iterative b. Polymorphism d. Paradigm ____ 93. Which of the following items is NOT a typical feature of an object-oriented language? a. Polymorphism c. Inheritance b. Relationships d. Classes ____ 94. The process of hiding internal details of objects and their methods is called __________. a. encapsulation c. polymorphism b. object oriented d. inheritance ____ 95. Which of the following programming paradigms attempts to describe a problem without specifying exactly how to arrive at a solution? a. Declarative c. Procedural b. Functional d. Object-oriented ____ 96. A Prolog statement defining a fact includes __________. a. a predicate c. both A and B b. arguments d. a decision table ____ 97. In Prolog, the process for finding a value for a variable is called __________. a. instantiation c. inheritance b. goalfinding d. polymorphism ____ 98. A Prolog rule consists of a(n) __________. a. head c. connecting symbol b. body d. all of the above ____ 99. The _________________ programming language provides very little protection against buffer overflows. a. C c. C++ b. Java d. A and C ____100. In threat modeling, categories such as ___________ are used. a. DREAD b. STRIDE c. BOMB d. A and B

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Nassau CC - EECS - 11
function emptyBankAccount (){echo “Call CFO and ask to transfer funds to Swiss bank account.”;}}h. You can have 2 different classes that use the same implementation, but thefunction in each class may be differentl) Implementing Multiple
ITT Tech Owings Mills - IT - tb 133
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Princeton - ECON - 508
on. More sensitivities are developed to the missingaspects of competencies. For example, one organization has been found to neglecthuman relations competencies of their staff, resulting in a large number of humanProblems leading to wastage of ti
Central Texas College - COMPUTER S - 1
STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 7Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question._1. A podcast is an audio file that is distributed through downloads or the use of a feed, such as _.a. XMLc. Ajaxb. RSSd. DHTML_2.
Central Texas College - COMPUTER S - 1
STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 6Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question._1. The Internet began with a project called _.a. WWWc. AOLb. NSFd. ARPANET_2. There are estimated to be more than _ users of the I
Central Texas College - COMPUTER S - 1
STUDY GUIDE CHAPTER 8Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question._1. The audio CDs you buy at your favorite music store are recorded at a sampling rate of _.a. 44.1 kHzc. 440 kHzb. 44.1 MHzd. 440 MH
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
Third person limited omniscient: (omniscient= all-knowing)An omniscient narrator: their perception is an overall view.Sometimes a narrator may have limited omniscience; that is, focused on only one characterspoint of view and consciousness.In the shor
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
Literary definitionsRound character: A character with complex, multifaceted characteristics. Round charactersbehave as real people.An example of a round character would be Sammy from the short story A&amp;P because he actsas a real person with multifacete
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 02/25/20132. Act 3 of Hamlet, Prince of Denmark by William Shakespeare3. Hamlet is the Prince of Denmark and behaves hastily and unwarily. Polonius, the DanishLord, is the counselor to King Claudius.4. The King and Polonius listen to a conversa
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 02/27/20132. Act 4 of Hamlet, Prince of Denmark by William Shakespeare3. The Queen is the mother of Prince Hamlet, the widow of old King Hamlet, and the wifeof King Claudius. Laertes is the son of the murdered Polonius and the brother of Ophelia
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 02/13/20132. Acts 1 &amp; 2 of Hamlet, Prince of Denmark by William Shakespeare3. Horatio is the smart and very trustworthy friend of Hamlet. Claudius, the king ofDenmark, is both the uncle and stepfather of Hamlet and is responsible for poisoningH
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 1/28/20132. An Astrologers Day By R. K. Narayan3. The astrologer is an intelligent man, but does not know anything about astrology. GuruNayak is an aggressive client who once was the victim of an attempted murder by theastrologer.4. The astrol
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 01/16/20132. The Story of an Hour by Kate Chopin3. Mrs. Mallard is a young, weak lady who is trapped in an unfulfilling marriage, full oflonging for freedom, and diagnosed with heart problems. Josephine is Mrs. Mallards sisterwho is very caring
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 01/23/20132. Two Kinds by Amy Tan3. The protagonist Jing-mei is a rebellious child who struggles with the high expectations ofher mother, to become a prodigy. The antagonist Jing-meis mother is a Chineseimmigrant who pushes her daughter in all
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 1/30/20132. Because I could not stop for Death by Emily Dickinson3. The poem does not really have a rhyme scheme. The first two stanzas have some rhymeto them with a rhyme scheme of abcb defb.4. Death came and took the speaker on a ride in his
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 02/04/20132. The Road Not Taken by Robert Frost3. The rhyme scheme of the poem is ABAAB4. A traveler walks through the yellow wood and comes to a fork. He is unsure which wayto go. The traveler believes he takes the better path, even though bot
Central Texas College - ENGLISH - 1302
1. Due 02/06/20132. Those Winter Sundays by Robert Hayden3. I could not find a rhyme scheme in this poem.4. The narrators father would get up early every morning, including Sundays, to start a fireand warm up the house. He is a very hardworking man wh
Central Texas College - GOVERNMENT - 2302
Government 2302, TM01008 April 2012Chapter ThirteenThe Courts1. Affirm: To declare that a court ruling is valid and must stand.2. Amicus Curiae Brief: A brief (a document containing a legal argument supporting adesired outcome in a particular case)
Central Texas College - GOVERNMENT - 2302
Government 2302, TM0122 April 2012Chapter FourteenDomestic and Economic Policy1. Budget Deficit: Government expenditures that exceed receipts.2. Domestic Policy: All of the laws, government planning, and government actions thatconcern internal issue
Central Texas College - GOVERNMENT - 2302
Government 2302, TM01024 April 2012Chapter FifteenForeign Policy1. Cold War: The ideological, political, and economic confrontation between the UnitedStates and the Soviet Union following World War II.2. Containment: A U.S. diplomatic policy adopted
Central Texas College - GOVERNMENT - 2302
Government 2302, TM01022 April 2012Chapter Twenty-FourTexas Public Policy1. Accountability: Responsibility for a programs resultfor example, using measurablestandards to hold public schools responsible for their students performance.2. Appropriation
Central Texas College - GOVERNMENT - 2302
Government 2302, TM01008 April 2012Chapter Twenty-threeThe Texas Judiciary, Law, and Due Process1. Acquitted: Found not guilty2. Adversary System: A legal system in which parties to a legal action are opponent and areresponsible for bringing the fac
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
Every Web page has a unique address called a Uniform ResourceLocator. True2.Web 3.0 refers to innovations like cloud computing and other newtechnologies likely to further change the way we use the Web. True3.The current version of HTML, HTML 4.01, w
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
WMF files contain instructions for creating the pitch, volume, andduration of notes that sound like various musical instruments. False2.Speech recognition refers to the ability of machines to understand thespoken word. True3.The color of each dot in
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
1.A tool used for making calculations what was considered essential for engineeringand science students through the 1960s is an abacus. False2.The Difference engine was a calculator that operated using steam power. True3.In 1947, it was estimated th
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
123456789101112131415161718192021222324Nonprofit organizations are formed to accomplish social, political, or charitablegoals that do not include amassing profit. TrueTactical planning emphasizes long-range and future goals. Fals
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728In a flat file, each row in the table is a field. FalseIn database jargon, a relationship is an association between data that is stored indifferent record types. TrueIn a relati
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728In a flat file, each row in the table is a field. FalseIn database jargon, a relationship is an association between data that is stored indifferent record types. TrueIn a relati
Central Texas College - COSC - 103
Chapter 7/112345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334C is a high-level language. TrueMachine languages are second-generation languages. FalseIn the context of programming, a program statement defines c
Kwame Nkrumah Uni. - CHE - Chem 271
A VELOCITY CONSTANT BY TITRATION METHODAims and Objectives:1. To determine the velocity constant (rate constant) of a reaction by the method of titration.2. To determine the rates at which the reactions occur.3. To be able to determine the orders of r
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
BA 302: Assignment 2-Solution: Chapters: 5, 6, and 7: Total 75 pointsDue by Midnight (11:59 pm), Monday, October 7th, 2013: Drop Box of Week 2TRUE/FALSE (1 POINT EACH)Chapter 51. Mutually exclusive events are also independent. False Occurrence of one
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important topics Ch 3.Sales variable costs VC = contribution margin CM fixed cost FC = operating incomeOI.andSales/unit S/U variable cost/unit VC/U = contribution margin/unit CM/UThe importance of contribution margin is that it contributes to coverin
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
BA 302: Assignment 1-solutions: Chapters: 1, 2, and 3: Total 75 pointsDue by Midnight (11:59 pm), Monday, September 16th, 2013: dropbox 1True/False Questions carry 1 point each, Multiple Choices carry 2 points eachand the Essay type questions carry 6 p
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important points of chapter 4Cost pool a collection of indirect costs associated with a cost object.Cost driver an activity associated with a cost object that affects the amount of indirectcost of the cost object.Job costing a method of determining th
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Chapter-1 Instructions: Introduction &amp; DefinitionsBy Dr. Kishor Guru-GharanaWhy Statistics? Like mathematics the tools of Statistics can be universally applied to any fieldwhich involves numbers and values which depend on chance or have associated prob
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Chapter-2 Instructionsby Dr. Kishor Guru-GharanaGrouped data: The raw data can be very large. Looking at the raw data it may be difficult to seeor understand any pattern. Therefore it helps in our understanding if the data is organized bygrouping into
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important Topics Ch. 11This chapter deals with how types of information should or should not beused in decision-making.The information that should be considered in decision-making is relevantinformation. What is relevant information? Relevant informat
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Instructions for Chapter 3Prepared by Dr. Guru-GharanaTerminology and ConventionsValues related to Population are called Population parameters (which are generally notknown), and a value estimated from the observed sample is called a Sample Statistic.
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important points Ch 7:A variance is the difference between actual and a budgeted or standard amount.Variance analysis is used to control operations by the use of management by exception.A static budget in an estimate of what revenues and costs will be
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
1Instructions for Chapter 5prepared by Dr. Guru-Gharana(Note that we are skipping Chapter 4 in this course. Moreover skip Principles of Countingand Tree Diagrams in Chapter 5)Experiments, Sample Space and ProbabilityAn Experiment is a process that l
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important Topics Ch.17Process costing is used in a manufacturing environment where theproducts produced are virtually identical. Examples are bags ofcement, gallons of gasoline or gallons of paint. Process costing isWIP inventory. The costs included i
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
1Instructions for Chapter 6-The Binomial distributionby Dr. Kishor Guru-Gharana(skip Hypergeometric and Poisson Distributions in the book)Random Variable: Any variable whose numerical values depend on chance, or haveprobabilities associated.Example:
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
1Instructions for Chapter 7: Continuous Probability Distributionsby Dr. Kishor Guru-Gharana(skip Uniform distribution)In this Chapter let us focus on Normal Distribution only, because it is the universally appliedContinuous Probability Distribution (
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important topics Ch 1Chapter 1 is an introduction to what managerial accounting is and its purpose in anorganization. Important topics:1) Difference between managerial accounting and financial accounting.2) Key success factor for the value chain and t
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
1Instructions for Chapter 8:Sampling Methods and Central Limit Theoremby Dr. Guru-GharanaWhy Sample?In any study our goal is always to learn about the population through knowledge ofits parameters such as its mean, variance, skewness, etc. If so, wh
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
The standard cost for variable overhead (VOH) and fixed overhead (FOH) is thepredetermined overhead rate divided between its variable and fixed portions.Spending variance is a subset of the flexible budget variance for variable overhead cost(VOH). The
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Chapter 9 Instructions: Estimation and Confidence Intervalsby Dr. Guru-GharanaIntroductionWe have already discussed that the sample mean and the sample proportion p arethe estimators of the population mean and the population proportion . Any valuecal
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important topics Ch. 21Capital budgeting techniques are used to choose between competing long-terminvestments. Some techniques use discounted cash flows to determine the present valueof an earning stream created by an investment. A discount rate (inter
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Chapter 7Confidence IntervalsTrue/False1. The t distribution always has n degrees of freedom.Answer: False Difficulty: Easy2. Assuming the same level of significance , as the sample size increases, the value of t/2approaches the value of z/2.Answer
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
ImportanttopicsforChapter2:Allofthecostterminologyinthefirstseveralpagesofthechapterarevery important.Thesetermsareusedallthroughthecourseespeciallythefollowing:Costobjectanythingsomeonewishestodeterminethecostof.Costassignmentincludesbothtracingandal
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
CONFIRMING PAGESContinuousProbabilityDistributionsC HAPTER7CHAPTER CONTENTS7.1Describing a Continuous Distribution7.2Uniform Continuous Distribution7.3Normal Distribution7.4Standard Normal Distribution7.5Normal Approximations7.6Exponenti
TAMU Commerce - BA - 302
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Important topics for Ch 10This chapter deals with using cost behavior to predict future costs.The main tool we will use to predict future costs is the equation of a straight line:Y=A+BXY= cost object or total cost or dependent variableA= fix cost or
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
CourseOffering:CommunicatingintheBusEnvirSection03SpringSemester2013 COFrom:&quot;HeatherHaney&quot;&lt;hhaney@gsw.view.usg.edu&gt;To:&quot;JanisAldridge&quot;&lt;jpickle@gsw.view.usg.edu&gt;Subject:Assignment3HeatherHaneyHi Professor Aldridge,I chose to comment on the third v
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Dear Professor LaDuke,I am writing to ask whether it would be possible for you to provide a reference for me.If you were able to attest to the skills I attained during my tenure at Georgia PerimeterCollege, I would sincerely appreciate it.I am in the
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
To: All GM employeesFrom: Heather Haney, GM vice president of public relationsSubject: Vehicle RecallsDear all GM employees,General Motors is voluntarily conducting a safety recall for 2009-2010 models of the ChevroletTraverse, Buick Enclave, GMC Aca
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
To: All GM employeesFrom: Heather Haney, GM vice president of public relationsSubject: Vehicle RecallsDear all GM employees,General Motors is voluntarily conducting a safety recall for 2009-2010 models of the ChevroletTraverse, Buick Enclave, GMC Aca
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
http:/atlanta.craigslist.org/nat/ofc/3718200417.htmlHeather Haney6869 Vic-Ar RoadAtlanta, Georgia 30360April 2, 2013Renita MooreABC Accounting123 Smith StreetNorcross, Georgia 30092Dear Ms. Moore:For a few years now, I have been looking for an o
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
Heather HaneyBusa 2105Assignment 2January 26, 201315) Analyze how well a company adapts to international audiences.Choose a large, global company and explore their website. Do you find multiple versions of thecompanys site for different countries? I
Georgia Perimeter - ENG. - 3
1NeedRecognitionWhatmotivatedyoutoattendcollegeinthefirstplace? Iwasmotivatedtoattendcollegeatfirstbecauseofmyself.IhadjustgottenmarriedandIknewthatI wantedtobeabletoprovideformyfuturechildren.NowthatIamamom,obtainingmybachelors hasbecomeevenmoreimport