Complete List of Terms and Definitions for Pharmacology 6

Terms Definitions
-cycline antibiotic
Diphenhydramine anti=cholinergic
diazepram Valium
Carisoprodol
Cyclobenzapine
Methocarbamol
Metaxalone Baclofen
PAROXETINE (blank)
timoptic timolol
lorazepam ativan
lioresal baclofen
-trophin pituitary hormone
garlic CVD Hypetenstion
Hydralizine pg 315
Adenosine Antiarrhythmic

unclassified ("Group V"); parenteral only. Hyperpolarizes AV nodal tissue, blocks conduction for 10−15 sec. Used for nodal reentry arrhythmias
Sympathomimeticssalmeterol Serevent Diskus
theobromine Methylxanthine, asthma
absorb to take into
dipivefrin alpha2 selective agonist
rituximab non hodkin lymphoma
methotrexate antiarthritic, antifolate agent
inhibits adenosine degradation, inhibiting cytokine production
teratogenic
MOA atropine muscarinic antagonist
Ephedrine Indirectly acting sympathomimetic

like amphetamine but less CNS stimulation, more smooth muscle effects
CNS-->Adrenal Medulla-->E-->blood-->E at Adrenergic receptor Adrenal Sympathetic
detrol, detrol la tolterodine
Monobactam -Monocyclic beta-lactam ring
-G- rods
-NOT active against G+ and anaerobes
Tamoxifen Class: Antineoplastic, Estrogen antagonist/blocker.Action: Hinders function of breast cancer cells.Side Effects: Stroke, N/V/D, endometrial cancer, uterine sarcoma, leukopenia, thromboytopenia, hepatic necrosis, pulmonary embolism.Contraindications: allergy, women receiving coumarin-type anticoagulants, Hx of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary emboli.Nursing considerations: Assess prior, monitor lipid levels, CBC, calcium, hydration, and GI.
Timolol Nervous SystemAdrenergic BlockingBeta Blocker - "Timoptic"Glaucoma
for trauma patients 16 gauge
where is lead stored bone
neuromuscular blocking drugs p. 304
What drug causes:
Hepatitis
Isoniazid (INH)
Acetaminophen Antipyretic analgesic

very weak cyclooxygenase inhibitor

not anti−inflammatory. Less toxic than aspirin but more dangerous in overdose (causes hepatic necrosis−antidote: acetylcysteine)
oxybutynin ditropan (xl), oxytral patch
thiopentone thiobarbituiate, IV general anaestethic
vitamins Organic substance found in food.
Nateglinide Endocrine (Meglitinides)MOA: Bind SUR receptors associated w/ ATP-sensitive K+ channels (diff. sitefrom sulfonylureas) → ↓K+ current → ↑insulin secretion MET: Metabolized by liver Half-life: even shorter & rapider (than SUR and Repaglinide)SE: Hypoglycemia Weight gainOTH: Used for post-pran hyperglycemiaTX: Type 2 diabetes
hyperosmotic laxatives polyethylene glycol-electrolyte soln (GoLYTELY)
 hypertonic drugs that draw water from surrounding tissue into the intestine, thereby creating an increased osmotic pressure in the bowel; the fluid moves from extracellular compartments through intestinal mucosa into the bowel; additional fluid changes the stool consistency to liquid, distends the bowel, stimulates stretch receptors & peristalsis
oral hyperosmotic laxatives should not be given within 1hr of other oral meds b/c the increased transit time of the laxatives will interfere w/ the absorption of other drugs
Mania (Drug mechanism)
opposite of depression

enthusiasm


rapid thought


rapid speech pattern


extreme self confidence


impaired judgement
Important is ethnicity/culture client, age, educational level
Dyskinesia movement with pain or difficulty
What does chelate mean? bind to
echinacea GI distress, dizziness, and headache
Type of drug?
Urokinase
Fibrinolytic- Systemic agent
3rd generation ceftrixone single dose gonnerhea
Procainamide Group IA antiarrhythmic drug

short half−life; similar to quinidine but may cause lupus erythematosus
acipimox inhibit TAG production VLDL sec
2 eicosanoid bronchoconstrictors TXA2 and PGF2-alpha
Acyclovir and valacyclovir
-Uses
-Mechanism
-SEs
-HSV1and2, VZV
-Guanosine antagonist; must be phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase--> non-toxic to human cells
-Rare SEs
-SAFE IN PREGNANCY
Calcipotriene PsoriasisMOA: Synthetic vitamin D3 SE: Skin dryness ItchingTX: Psoriasis
Mechanism of action: chlorpromazine D2 R antagonist
Cimetidine GI SystemGI Ulcers - H2 Receptors"Tagamet"Blocks histamine receptors which decreases HCl secretions
lidocain class 1b antarrythemia work on inactivated na channal
Beta 2 Stimulation Lung: Bronchial dilation, vasodilation, glycogenolysis (increases blood sugar)
Potent serotonin inhibitor and weak norepi inhibitor
	- Can cause hypertension, dose dependent Lithium
2 Posterior pituitary hormones are Oxytocinand antidiuretic
Polymyxins can lead to: nephro and neurotoxicity
what cholinesterase inhibitor is used to reverse phase II of succinylcholine neuromuscular blockade? neostigmine
MOA chloramphenicol
cidal/static?
binds 50S, inhibiting peptidyl transferase
static
Type of drug?
Fibrates
Lipid lowering agent
PPAR-alpha agonist- leads to increased beta-oxidation transcription of LPL
Amoxicillin Penicillin

wider spectrum than pen G with activity similar to ampicillin but greater oral bioavailability; less adverse effects on GI tract than ampicillin. Susceptible to penicillinases unless used with clavulanic acid.

Tox:
penicillin allergy
AE for anesthetics respiratory depression, malignant hypothermia (rare but fatal), myocardial depression, hepatotoxicity, N, V, confusion
What are the contraindications for Ketoprofen? f
Atenolol Beta-1 blocker. Treats hypertension in elderly with systolic hypertension. Cardioselective; half-life: 6-7 h (beta-1 selectivity, little CNS, long half-life) have made atenolol a popular agent to treat hypertension without bronchoconstriction.
Clonazepam Anti-convulsant benzo that can treat acute mania. Must consider benzo side effects.
Fluvoxamine is an SSRI, used to treat MDD.
Can we measure drug concentrations at the sites of action? no
What short acting barbituate can be used for anesthesia thiopental
CLASSIFICATION OF EPILEPSY
 
Partial (one hemisphere of brain) 

Simpleno loss of consciousness
diverse symptoms
limited motor involvement
sensory or psychic symptoms
responsive during attack
usually less than 1 min


Complex: psychomotor-temporal lobe seizuresusually preceeded  by aura
loss of impaired consciousness
symptoms may be similar to "simple"
coordinated involuntary movements (drooling, wandering, laughing)
usually 1-2min in duration
Phase 1 biotransformation incules oxidative, hydrolytic, and reductive reactions. Oxidative rxns are the most common type. They're catalyzed by enzymes isolated in the microsomal fraction of liver homogenates & by cytoplasmic enzymes.
This route of drug administration is the application of gaseous and volatile drugs for absorption from the respiratory tract. Inhalation
Schedule IV Drugs *low potential for abuse*limited psychological and physcial dependence*accepted medicinal useex: darvon, valium, ativan, halcion
Increased extrapyramidal (motor) side effects, strong affinity for CNS dopamine receptors and are effective at low doses Traditional antipsychotic class
Potentiation One grug that enhance effect of another (i.e Phergan enahnce effects to morphine)
What drug acts as a dopamine agonist? L-Dopa
Drug reaction causing agranulocytosis? (3 C's) clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine
questions from diagram at top of page
Uses for tetracyclines VACUUM THe BedRoom
V. cholera
Acne
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma
Urealyticum
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Tularemia
H. Pylori
Borrelia Burgodorferi
Rickettsia
actions of PGE? increased uterine tone
decreased bronchial tone
decreased vascular tone
Amphotericin B Antifungal

polyene drug of choice for most systemic mycoses; binds to ergosterol to disrupt fungal cell membrane permeability.

Tox:
chills and fever, hypokalemia, hypotension, nephrotoxicity (dose−limiting, possibly less with liposomal forms)
Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? gabapentin (Neurontin)
Drug Absorption Methods Enteral "GI": Oral, Sublingual, Rectal
Parental: IV, IM, SubQ, Body Cavity
Topical: Skin, Mucous membrane (nose & Lungs), Ears, Eyes
PGI2 and PGE1 inhibit Platelet aggregation (especially PGI2)
Hydrochlorothiazide Blocks Na+/Cl- cotrans. in DCT. (thus may increase calcium reabsorption also via basolateral Na/Ca antiporter...can treat renal hypercalcemia)
Ganglionic Blocking Agents Competitive agonist at the nicotinic recptors in the autonomic ganglia
Block acetylcholine
__ cups = 1 pt. 2 cups= 1 pt.
contraindications of cephalosporins caution in hypersensitivity to PCN; however, b/c this is not always the case, can be administered but w/ caution (5-10% cross-sensitivity)
caution in pts w/ history of GI or renal disease, especially those receiving diuretics
Components of the circulatory system Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
which alpha agonists are used to treat glaucoma epinephrine, brimonidine
What is potentation A particular type of synergist interaction in which the effect of only one of two drugs is increased. In other words a drug that has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug
Sources of Vit B6 chicken, fish, eggs, whole grains
Steady state The rate of administration equals the excretion rate. Usually after 5 - 6 doses.
Increased effectiveness when a drug is given in several doses is know as: Cumulative effect
Benzo with lowest incidence of CV side effects lorazepam
what catecholamines are used to treat hypotension EPI, NE
which is the only loop diuretic without a sulfa group? ethacrynic acid
Name two drugs used as contragestation/medical abortion: Mifepristone
RU486
(progesterone and glucocorticoid receptor antagonist)
Action of Antacids neutralizes acid at the chemical level
Type III (toxic complex/immune complex) precipitation of antigen-antibody complex

examples: serum sickness, Arthus (vasculitis)
Brimonidine An analog of clonidine and thus an alpha -2A agonist. It treats glaucoma by decreasing humor production and increasing uveoscleral outflow.
Buprenorphine is an opioid analgesic, it is used to treat severe pain.
When should you use z-track? Use z-track when administering medications that will irritate and discolor the tissue (i.e. iron)
 
This IM method prevents leaking/ tracking of medication into the SC tissue.
 
Use 2 20 gauge needles- at least 2 in.
 
Use large muscle mass- gluteal
pharmacokinetics of osmotic diuretics not absorbed orally; can be administered only IV
 
excreted unchanged in the urine
What should be used in drug treatment for most patients with uncomplicated hypertension, either alone or combined with drugs from other classes? Thiazide diuretics
These are agents used to cause muscle paralysis during surgical procedures. Neuromuscular blockers
1.Name an abortifacient is a competitite inhibitor of preogestins at progesterone recpetor and may lead to heavy menstrual-like bleeding?2.Name another drug used in cancer that could be used for abortions and ectopic pregnancy? 1.Mifepristone (RU486) 2. Methotraxate (S-phase specific antimetabolite)
ASA Preparations (ASA Aminosalicylates) Used for ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease.
MOA: 5-ASA (mesalamine) diminish inflammation by blocking cyclooxygenase & inhibiting prostaglandin production. Local effect in bowel.
S/E: Mild, headache
NI: 5-ASA preps similar to structure of aspirin. Some preps have sulfa products.
When a drug is swallowed and absorbed from the stomach or small intestine oral route
What does the abbreviation stand for: tsp teaspoon (4-5 mL)
What is the antidote for methanol toxicity/overdose Ethanol, dialusis, fomepizole
Most pharmacogenomics deal with differences in metabolic enzymes ---> Polymorphic P450

ex:
one patient may have a different 3A4 than another
H2 antagonists---Therapeutic acations leads to reduction in gastric acid secretion and pepsin production. Used mainly for short term use to treat duodenal ulcer. Prophylaxis of stress induced ulcer. Treatment of gastroexophageal reflux. Promotes healing and decreases pain. Relief of hear
Warfarin prevents reduction of Vit K - req for cofactor gamma-carboxylation of glutamic acid for clotting factors, ORALLY ACTIVE
Lidocaine antiarrythmia clincal indications 2nd line treatment for sustained ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation but ONLY AFTER AMIODARONE.
What does the kidneys have a hard time excreting? Lipid-soluble drugs
Nursing Considerations w/ glucocorticosteroids: teach pt. to correctly use MDI/nasal inhaler
 
teach pt to use a spacer w/ MDIs so med doesn't end up in the lungs 
what are 3 advantages to inhaled asthma drugs? therapeutic effects are enhanced
systemic effects are minimized
relief of acute attack is rapid
These drugs bind directly with ACh receptors. Direct acting Cholinergic drugs
Benzocaine (Solarcaine and others) Drugs for sunburn and other minor burns: Local anesthetics Benzocaine (Solarcaine) is a local anesthetic used to treat sunburn and other minor burns.
Which route is most frequently used? Enteral route for oral drugs.
What does the abbreviation stand for: PO per os, by mouth/orally
why are beta blockers used to treat MI decrease MI mortality
Effects Nitrates have on:
EDV
BP
Contractility
HR
Ejection time
MV O2
down
down
up (reflex)
up (reflex)
down
down
During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? stages III and IV
Why is acetominophen not technically an NSAID? (2) Doesnt have anti-inflammatory or anti-coagulant feautures.
3 types of partial seizures Simple partial (no loss of consciousness...30-60 sec.), complex partial (impairment of consciousness 30sec - 2min), and partial seizure 2narily generalized (proceeds to gen. ton-clon).
What two nerve membrane channels does morphine affect? What second mesenger signaling molecule? potassium (increased opening) and calcium (reduced opening) -> decreased nerve transmission; Adenylate cyclase is inhibited
Nitrious oxide Nurtibix/Analegsic Gas Dosage: Self admin til pain ceases or pt drops mask inhalationcomposed of 50% o2 50%nitrious oxide Its effects only last 2 to 5 mins after administration ceasesInd:Musculoskeletal ischemic chest pain and severe anxiety including hyperventalation Contra:Possible bowel obstruction,pneumothorax tension pnuemothrax copd head injury impaired mental status drug intoxiationPre:nausea vomiting use in well ventilated area
Edrophonium is and exp of these drugs and is used in differential diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Indirect acting Cholinergic Drugs
What concurrent conditions are likely to lead to kidney damage when an animal is treated with NSAIDs DehydrationUse of other drugs that are potentially harmful to the kidney (aminoglycosides)
Seratonin syndrome is characterized by what? A triad of autonomic instability, hypertension, and tachycardia. Mental status changes = agitation to coma, neuromuscular hyperactivity: clonus and hyperreflexia, lower extremity much greater than uper extremity.
what is the mechanism of phenytoin action use-dependent blockade of Na+ channels
MC side effect of radioactive iodine? Hypothyroidism. So patient would need to take levothyroxine
Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid)
3 main brain areas for ecstasy Neocortex, limbic system, and spinal cord.
How does this drug tx opiate abuse: buprenorphine a u-receptor partial agonist antagonizes high potency agonists but keeps opiate receptors somewhat stimulated
What is the order of nerve blockade for size and myelination? Which factor predominates? small diameter> large diameter. Myelinated fibers> unmyelinated fibers. Size factor predominates
partial mu agonists and mixed k agonist/mu antagonist -large doses can cause withdrawal symptoms in persons with physical dependency-low tendency of respiratory depression-low to moderate chance of psychological dependence-low risk of physical dependence
Lead poisoning si/sx = 1) x-ray --> lead lines on gums and epiphyses of long bones
2) encephalopathy, erythrocyte basophilic stippling
3) abdominal pain, sideroblastic anemia
4) wrist & foot drop
When do you use Growth Hormone? For patients with GH deficiency and Turner's syndrome? XO
What are the manifestations of open angle glaucoma? asymptomatic until late stages then visual field loss
Two things that happens to ischemic heart tissue Heart rate increases and resting membrane potential becomes more positive
What is the term drug derived from? the dutch word "droog" which means "dry". This refers to the dried herbs and plants as the first medicines.
What is it called when there is less fluid outside a vessel and more inside? What are the symptoms? vasodilation, skin flushing experience during injection
Absorption : drug enters through fluid and tissue Absorption : drug enters through fluid and tissue
Give an example of a drug acting on an unintended target? Terfenadine (an antihistamine), which also inhibits a cardiac potassium channel (hERG), which lead to fatal arrhythmias and thus withdrew
When does sodium bicarbonate become unstable? Until expired or if not kept at temps ranging from 15-30 degrees celsius
How does the pH of the urine help accelerate the excretion of drugs? Weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urine; weak bases are excreated faster in acidic urine
Ganirelix Endocrine (GnRH antag)MOA: Competitive antagonists binding GnRH receptor → ↓LH > ↓FSH ADMIN: subQNo transient rise in gonadotropin secretion as with continuous GnRH administrationTX: Inhibit premature LH surgein ovary stim.
Cardizem diltiazem
Fluvastatin Lescol
Mevacor Ezetimebe/simvastatin
IMIPRAMINE (blank)
tab tablet
xylocaine lidocaine
aricept donepezil
somatrem GH derivative
-azepam benzodiazepine (diazepam)
class imipramine tca
tr, tinct tincture
omeprazole Losec (PPI)
-prazole proton pump inhibitor
labetolol alpha1 selective antagonist
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitorsending -statin
Desogen Norgestrel/ ethinyl estradiol
-tidine H2 antagonist. Cimetidine
Amphetamine Indirectly acting sympathomimetic

displaces stored catecholamines in nerve endings. Marked CNS stimulant actions; high abuse liability.

Tox:
psychosis, HTN, MI, seizures
Procaine (E)
short-acting
PABA metabolite
slow onset, low potency
Hemicholinium Inhibits choline uptake
Calcitonin Endocrine (Calcium Homeostasis)Binds calcitonin receptors → ↑cAMP → ↓osteoclast-mediated Ca2+ mobilization & ↑ excretionSE: Nausea, facial flushing, hand swelling, urticaria, resistanceOTH: Salmon CT is ↑potent and ↑t1/2 20% develop resistanceTX: Hypercalcemia HyperPTH, ↑VitD, Bone metsOsteoporosis, Paget's Dz
Prednisone GI SystemDiarrhea - Anti-inflammatoryUsed with Inflammatory Bowel Dz., immunosuppressive
S/E of tolcapone ? hepatotoxicity
Viscosupplementation/Hyaluronan “oil for your joints”

restores lubricating properties of synovial fluid
Can reduce pain w/in days, can last for months to years
Possibly delay necessary surgery
Symptoms of Interferon toxicity. Neutropenia.
Type of drug?
Doxepin
Tricyclic antidepressant
Carbamazepine Anticonvulsant

tricyclic derivative used for tonic−clonic and partial seizures; blocks Na+ channels in neuronal membranes. Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia; back−up drug in mania.

Tox:
CNS depression, hematotoxic, induces liver drug−metabolizing enzymes
Antihistamines and Decongestantsdiphenydramine Diphenhist
Benadryl Allergy
Benadryl
ipratropium bromide M antagonist, asthma
Thalidomide
-Mech
-Uses
-SEs
-TNF alpha suppression
-Prevention of graft-versus host reaction
 
-TERATOGENIC
Danazol Endocrine (steroid syn inhibitors) MOA: partial agonist at PR, AR, and Glucocorticoid receptor; induces a hyperandrogenic state which induces atrophy of ectopic endometrial tissue and reduces pain (offset by androgenic SE) SE: Weight gain; Edema; Acne; ↓HDL TX: endometriosis
bacteria single-celled microorganisms that have no true nucleus & reproduce by cell division
 
pathogenic bacteria contain cell-damaging proteins that cause infection; these proteins come in two forms:
 
exotoxins
endotoxins 
Propofol Nervous SystemShort Acting Hypnotic Agent2-5min, rapid/smooth induction/recovery, only in dogs, safe, very short anesthesia
FACTMetabolic effects of epinephrine* Carbohydrate- increased glyco-genolysis leading to hyperglyemia* Fat - lipolysis leading to an increase in free fatty acids .
inhibit b-amyloid formation to prevent alzheimers: increase a-secretase flurbiprofen
methadone aliphatic class of synthetic narcotics
acts on mu receptors
name a depolarising neurmuscular blocking drug succinylcholine
adverse reaction to methicillin interstitial nephritis
Type of drug?
Corticorelin
Synthetic Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Bethanechol Muscarinic agonist

choline ester with good resistance to cholinesterase; used for atonic bowel or bladder
Anesthetics Drugs that depress the CNS
-
ciprofibrate fibrate, lipoprotein lipase, VLDL prod, LDL uptake
Abacavir Inhibits reverse transcripase and terminates DNA chain elongation. Used in HIV patients in the form of trizivir.
1st generation cephalosporins? cefadroxil, cefazolin, cephalexin, cephadrin
What does this abbreviation mean?
 
oz
oz.= ounce
pathophysiology of depression genetic factors
personality and environmental factors
biochemical abnormalities
Maprotiline a heterocylic for anti-depression, can cause seizures
T/F: Rates of transfer across barriers are directly related to the partition coefficient. TRUE
dementia: epidemiology -age dependent-unusual in people <65-is not 3% unti l75 years old but then rapidly increases-20% of persons between 75 and 84 have dementia, 50% over 85. -10% of persons 65 and over have dementia
Iatrogenic reaction Unexpected response; mimics a pathological disease.
Induction agent that causes coronary artery vasoconstriction dexmedetomidine
which GABA receptors are facilitated by barbiturates and bezodiazepines GABA-A
MOA colchicine depolymerizes MT, impairing WBC chemotaxis and degranuation
Type of drug?
Erythromycin
Macrolide
50S protein synthesis inhibitor
Drugs ending with:
-cycline
Antibiotic (protein synthesis inhibitor)
Ex-Tetracycline
How effective must male contraception be to be useful? 100%
Autonomic Pathway SNS Preganglionic neurons are short
Postganglionic neurons are long
Tolerance A physiological response that requires that a drug dosage be increased to produce the same effect formerly produced by a smaller dose
Metyrosine- sympathetic antagonist (Alpha-methyl-para-tyrosine). An analog of tyrosine and inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase for catechol. synthesis. Treats pheochromocytoma.
Reason for dosage modification in cephalosporin treated pts -Renal impairement
Which cytokines act as the master cytokines, which activate all the others during inflammation? TNF-alphaIL-1
One compartment model Which pharmacokinetics model assumes that the distribution of drug is uniform and rapid compared with absorption and elimination?
examples of sulfonamids sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) - frequent use in autoimmune conditions
 
mafenide (Sulfamylon) 
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers therapeutic uses Hypertension
Heart failure
Diabetic nephropathy
Myocardial infarction
Stroke prevention
Migraine headache
which anti-epileptic drugs can cause diplopia carbamazepine, phenytoin
MAJOR PROBLEMS - A COMMON COMPLICATION OF I.V. therapy, infiltration occurs when an I.V. needle or catheter becomes dislodged or the vein wall is disrupted. Nonvesicant I.V. fluid then leaks into the tissue surrounding the insertion site. (When a vesicant leaks into tissue, extravasation occurs.) Watch for signs - Fluid leaking from an I.V. needle or catheter into the tissue can lead to tissue damage and other serious problems (such as nerve damage), so closely monitor your patient's I.V. site for telltale signs. Here's what to watch for: - swelling around the I.V. site. As fluid accumulates, tissue around the site swells. - blanching and cooling of skin. The infusing fluid pooling in the tissue is cooler than body temperature. This cools the skin and causes it to lighten in color. - slowed infusion rate. When accumulated fluid creates pressure on the catheter (which inhibits fluid from infusing quickly) or the tissue reaches its saturation point, the flow rate slows down and may stop. Confirm infiltration - If a patient shows any of these signs, assess for infiltration. First, palpate the site to confirm swelling. Then, palpate the area above the catheter tip and rapidly flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride. (Stop flushing if you meet resistance-the line may be occluded). If fluid is infiltrating, you'll feel bubbling under the skin.
vigabatrin (Sabil) increase GABA levels by blocking Gaba-T
Fluoroquinolones (Tequin) MOA Synthetic broad spectrum antibiotic against both + and – bacteria (anaerobic and aerobic).
MOA: Inhibition of DNA gyrase thereby interfering with replication, transmission, and repair of bacterial DNA.
Uses: Acute and chronic bronchitis, sinusitis, UTI, pyelonephritis, STDs.
Usual dosage: 200 – 400 mg/day (over age 18)
Liquid drug forms -Solutions: Preparations that contain the drug dissolved in a solvent, usually water.
-Tinctures: Drug preparations whereby the drug was extracted chemically with alcohol.
-Suspensions: Drugs that do not remain dissolved and will separate. They must be shaken before admin.
-Spirits: Contains volatile chemicals dissolved in alcohol.
-Emulsions: Preparations in which an oily substance is mixed with a solvent into which it does not dissolve.
-Elixirs: Preparations that contain the drug in an alcohol solvent, with a flavor added.
-Syrups: Drugs that are suspended in sugar and water to improve the taste.
What system is affected by lyme disease? Blood
Clinical use? pain, cough supression (dex), diarrhea (loperamide), acute pulmonary edema, methadone maintenance programs
What do you use for TB prophylaxis? INH
how is the respiratory depression from midazolam treated? flumezanil
Type of drug?
Exenatide
Oral hypoglycemia
Sythetic similar to glucagon-like peptide-1; stimulates insulin secretion
what is the duration of isoetharine? 1-3 hr
Which glaucoma drugs are an adrenergic agonist? brimonidine
apraclonidine
Agonists Drugs that combine with receptors and initiate the expected response
Side-effects of TCAs Orthostatic hypotension and associated cardiovascular effects (most troublesome effects: tachycardia, arrhythmia, decreased efficiency, angina, fibrillation, infarct, death), atropine-like effects, anti-histamine/sedation effects, transition from depressi
Theophylline is used to treat chronic asthma and other chronic lung disease. Theophylline is a PHosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor, which increases tissue concentrations of cAMP and subsequently iduces release of adrenaline.
NADPH & molecular O2 The mixed-function-oxidase reaction is dependent on what molecules?
Types of Angina:
Stable (classic): pain associated w/ exercise, physical exertion, stress, or eating large meals

Unstable: occurs in resting heart; greater freq. and duration of attacks, signal impending MI

Variant (prinzmetal): due to vasospasm in coronary vessel (not blockage) at rest or during exercise (more common in young people)
antiemetic drugs:
 phenothiazines/dopamine receptor antagonists
block dopamine receptors in the CTZ; dopamine is required for the conduction of impulses from excited afferent nerves to stimulate the medullar-vomiting center
blocking dopamine receptors inhibits the stimulation of hte vomiting center & an antiemetic effect results
used to manage nausea & emesis due to either ratdiation therapy or chemo, or do to the effects of toxins
contraindicated in depression, severe liver & CV disease, pregnancy, and kids < 2y.o.
may drug interactions: check before admin; additive hypotensive effects w/ ETOH, antihypertensives, CNS depressants
myclophenal add to cyclosporine as adjuvent by work on ? inhibit purine synthesis
Orphenadrine: Class of drug, use. Centrally-acting skeletal muscle relaxant - anti-anxiety, to relax emotions *The CENTER for RELAXATION is handing out DIAZEPAM, putting on a show at the ORPHEUM, and CHARISmatically selling motorCYCLES by Mercedes-BENZ
decrease Nt in cleft -facilitate uptake into presynaptic or perisynaptic cells-facilitate destruction in cleft
Antacids MOA: React w/ gastric acid to create neutral salts. Neutralize gastric acid, raise pH (decreases the action of pepsin and damage to gut wall). Greater than 4 decreases pepsin, 2-4 increases pepsin.
NI: Watch Na and K levels.
A state of hyperactivity of either a section of the brain or all of the brain Seizure
COHORT STUDIES A GROUP OF INDIVIDUALS WITH EXPOSURE TO A CHEMICAL AND A GROUP WITHOUT EXPOSURE ARE FOLLOWED OVER TIME TO COMPARE DISEASE OCCURANCES
absorption process occurs from the time the drug enters the body to the time it enters the bloodstream

rate determines onset of action
what are the side effects of L-dopa.carbidopa treatment arrhythmias, dyskinesias
MOA mannitol creates an osmotic diuresis because it can't leave the tubule
inhibits Na and Cl reabsorption in PC and ascendin loop
filling out prescription hand written no cursive dea #
What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient? endogenous
Which class 1 antiarrhythmics also have antimuscarinic effects? disopyramide and quinidine
Physostigmine and neostigmine Carbamyl ester linkage compounds which are hydrolyzed like ACh but more slowly, thus tying up the enzyme and allowing increased amounts of ACh to become available. Their effects last for 3-4 hours. Neostigmine is a quaternary agent, and does not cross the
Symptoms following ingestion of spoiled fish are mediated by... Histamine produced by bacteria.
specific gene/enzyme What does the last number in CYP3A4 stand for?
Pharmacodynamics/Action of Digitalis Glycosides increase the force of myocardial contraction (pos. inotropic effect)by inhibiting ATPase which normally decrases move't of Na out of cell after contraction
slow HR due to both direct & indirect actions on the SA node (neg. chrono. effect)
cause decreased conductivity through AV node, whichcan lead to varying degree of heart block (neg dromo. effect)
pharmacodynamics of antiflatulents changes the surface tension of gas bubbles in the stomach & intestine
changed surface tension allows gas bubbles to stick together to form larger bubbles
larger bubbles are easier than smaller ones to pass via peristaltic movement & motility in the GI tract through the mouth by belching or through the anus as flatus
used in tx of flatulenceand of postoperative pts w/ gaseous distention
B1 WORK on wich gene? Gs which stimulate adenyl cyclase
What to do with an error? Notify supervisor immediately, complete incident reportSafety of patient comes first: monitor for adverse effects (VS etc)Do not report on nurses notes, fill out separate report
enhancing cholinergic transmission in alzheimers: AChE inhibitiors: galantamine (reminyl) -no liver damage-less SE-enhances cholinergic activation of pre and post nicotinic receptors to increase effect but this causes no change in therapeutic effect
How does Alpha 1 antagonist work Prevents peripheral vasoconstriction of alpha stimulation, therefore decreases the B/P
2 induction drugs that can decrease reperfusion injury by eliminating free radicals propofol and pentothol
local anesthetics: determinants of absorption from site of administration dosage
site of injection: absorbed more quickly in highly vascular area
extent of tissue binding: keeps drug at site of admin --&gt; inc. duration of action
concurrent admin of vasoconstricting substances: locals are vasodilators &amp; usually sold w/ vasoconstrictor (ex. epi); vasoconstriction --&gt; inc. efficacy b/c systemic absorption is decreased d/t low blood flow
which drugs used to treat glaucoma increase outflow of aqueous humor cholinomimetics, prostaglandin, epinephrine
which drugs --&gt; torsades de pointes Ia and III aniarrhytmics
cisapride
Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic? to prevent cross-contamination
Two types of General Anesthetics Inhaled-vaporized in O2 and inhaled
Injectable-administered IV
Aminoglycosides are synergistic with... other antibiotics (most often with cell wall active agents)
4.    (50/8m) DIFFERENTIATE THE MECHANISM OF ACTION, INDICATION FOR USE, METHODS OF ADMINISTRATION, COMMON ADVERSE EFFECTS OF, KEY POINTS TO PT. EDUCATION & NURSING IMPLICATIONS FOR DESMOPRESSIN (DDAVP) -Synthetic analogue of human ADH; for treatment neurogenic diabetes insipidus. -Major contraindications: presence of hemophilia A with factor VIII levels 5% or less -Most common adverse effects: localized erythema with intranasal administration; burning pain with parenteral injection. -Maximizing therapeutic effects: Keep solutions (nasal, parenteral) refrigerated. - Minimizing adverse effects: Monitor urine volume/osmolarity, plasma osmolarity; patients with conditions associated with fluid/ electrolyte imbalances are prone to hyponatremia. -Most important patient education: Inform patients that medication bottle accurately delivers 25 to 50 doses and any solution remaining should be discarded because the amount delivered thereafter may be substantially less than prescribed.  
Name the 3 types of digitalis effects on the heart. Inotropic, Chronotropic, Dromotropic
regulation of gastric acid secretion gastric acid secretion by parietal cells of the gastric mucosa is controlled by acetylcholine, histamine, prostoglandins E2 & I2 & gastrin
receptor-mediated binding of Ach, histamine, or gastrin results in activation of a H/K-APTase proton pump that secretes HCl into the lumen of the stomach
in contrast, receptor binding of prostaglandins E2 & I2, diminishes HCl production
what are the side effects of phenytoin nystagmus, diplopia, ataxia, sedation, ginigival hyperplasia, hirsutism, anemias, teratogenic
What is isotonic A fluid with the same mineral ratio as the body: prevents dehydration
synaptic effects from anesthetics that are most likely involved are: -more GABA and glycine inhibition -inhibition of ACh, 5HT, and glutamate-opening VG K Channels (hyperpolarize), block ca and Na
What are examples of substances that cause sympathomimetic toxidrome? Cocaine, amphetamines, pseudophedrine, also seen in kids who abuse ADHD medications
Proton pump inhibitors are indicated for peptic ulcer, ________, _______, and _________ syndrome peptic ulcer, gastritis, esophageal reflux, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What are 2 uses for androgens as drugs? -hormone replacement
-male contraception
Which glaucoma drugs cause a decrease in production of aqueous humor? Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
beta blockers
4 locals for long duration of action Tetracaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine, and ropivacaine
First order kinetics
(aka Exponential Kinetics)
 
 
*measured as the rate constant
What type of kinetics is characterized by a constant fractional change per unit time?
types of depressive disorders:
 
Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) (Major Depression) 
lasts at least 2 weeks, marked by depressed mood, anhedonia (no pleasure in anything); symptoms include loss of appetite, weight loss, psychomotor agitation, insomnia, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, diminished ability to think or concentrate recurrent thoughts of death or suicide
high co-morbidity w/ anxiety disorders (58%), substance abuse disorder (38.6%)
what is the clinical application of olanzapine schizophrenia positive and negative symptoms, OCD, anxiety disorder, depression
What are analgesics? What are the three main categories? Drugs that relieve painacetaminophen *tylenol, aspirin, and NSAIDS
Antidysrythmics are classified in Vaughn-Williams and Singh Classification System What are the Class: I- Sodium Channel Blockers II- Beta Blockers
III- Potassium Blockers IV- Misc.
mechanism of action of local anesthetics block initiation &amp; propagation of AP by preventing voltage-dep. inc. in Na permeability that accompanies a small inc. in mem depolarization
What are the two major toxicities? Nephrotoxicity (esp. when used with cephalosporins) and Ototoxicity (esp. when used with loop diuretics). amiNOglycosides
What ingredient is in cold nasal spray? oxymetazoline - stimulates adrenergic receptors to cause vasocontriction
Probenecid (1 name and function) An uricosuric drug, primarily used in treating gout or hyperuricemia, that increases uric acid removal in the urine. One of its trade names is 'Benuryl.'

Probenecid also decreases the renal excretion of some drugs.
What do the other 9 families of the P450 system metabolize? endogenous compounds...such as steroids and fatty acids
What is the BP of a normal heart?
 
When is the follow up?
Less than 120/80
 
Every 2 years
What is pharmacokinetics and what are the four steps? The study of drug concentrations during processes of: 1. absorption 2. distribution 3. metabolism and 4. excretion
What is the MOA of DDT? Delays closing of Na channels and prevents opening of K channels. This leads to repeated action potentials, temors, and exaggerated startle reflexes.
what are the side effects of carbamazepine diplopia, ataxia, CYP induction, blood dyscrasias, liver toxicity
What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.
how dopamine or norepinephrine increase heart rate Act through D1 or B1 G protein receptor to simulate cAMP production increasing all 3 ionic currents in phase 4 (SA/AV node) that increases its slope.
common long-acting beta 2 agonist:
 
formeterol (Foradil) 
onset of action 15 min; peak 1-3 hrs; duration 12 hrs

aerolizer inhaler: easy to use delivery system that allows pts to "see, hear, feel" that they have correctly taken their meds (dry powder)
1 dose BID
newly approved in US; comparable to salmeterol
approved for adults and kids 5 yrs + w/ reversible obstructive airway disease including those w/ nocturnal asthma
also indicated for the prevention of EIA in adults/kids 12 yrs +
not a "rescue med"
well tolerated
3 basic mechanisms of action for anticonvulsants 1. Decrease Na influx
2. Decrease Ca influx
3. Increase GABA
What is so special about insulin glargine? It has rapid onset of action, relatively constant rate of release (no troughs or peaks), and long duration of action!
3 factors affecting rate of anesthesia induction Speed of induction is directly related to concentration, rate of induction is varies directly with respiratory minute volume, speed of induction inversely related to Ostwald coefficient, rate of entry into blood varies inversely with rate of pulmonary blo
Since it is cheaper why is coumarin not used as an anticoagulant in tubes of blood? Coumarins reduce the presence of Vit Kdependent factors, works in vivo
Local anesth. block neurons the best that have what kind of firing frequency? High (fast) because of the open sodium channels (pain fibers are the example)
What is hormesis? Give 2 examples. When high and low doses of a drug have varying effects.
e.g. Vitamins, antibacterials
d day
sol solution
H hypodermic
R rectal
dil dilute
enuls emulsion
Fosamax Alendronate
Plavix Clopidogrel
Evista Raloxifene
Congentin Benztropine
Keflex Cephalexin
Diovan Valsartan
Bentyl Dicyclomine
Slo-bid theophylline
Ranitidine Zantac
Haldol Haloperidol
Lexapro SSRI
Zyrtec cetirizine
Humira adalimumab
Zyprexa olanzapine
Biaxin clarithromycin
Tri-Sprintec Hormone
(Antiemetic)
Methylphenidate Concerta
Sustiva efavirenz
Desyrel Trazodone
APAP acetaminophen (Tylenol)
disc,DC, dc discontinue
ss one half
Niaspan Niacin (ER)
bisacodyl Stimulant Laxatives
Symmetrel Amantadine (Anti-Parkinson)
Azulfidine Sulfasalazine (Antibiotic)
Depakote divalproex sodium
levothyroxine Sodium Hormone
Augmentin amoxicillin clavulanate
Trimox Pencillin Antibiotic
Rabeprazole sodium Aciphex
Donepezil HCl Aricept
bid twice a day
PM, p.m., P afternoon
1ml 20gtts or 100units
Diovan-HCT Valsartan + Hydrochlorothiazide
Black & white ?
Librium Chlordiazepoxide (Antianxiety, C-IV)
tamsulosin Alpha 1 Blocker
Irbesartan Angiotensin II Antagonist
Rosiglitazone maleate Avandia (Antidiabetic)
FDA Food and Drug Administration
 
 
 
Cephalexin
trade: Keflex
prototype of cephalosporin
stimulates cellular metabolism thyroid hormone
Is mefloquine orally bio-available? YES
Fentanyl Morphine. Short half life
Norethindrone & Ethinyl Estradiol Hormone
antidoe substance to neutralize a poison
 
 
Griseofulvin
antifungal

used to treat infection caused by
trichophyton
microsporm
epidermophyton
The Big Four of Pharmacokinetics A-D-M-EAbsorptionDistributionMetabolismExcretion
- Thiazolinediones
- PPAR agonists, increases trans of insulin responsive genes, enhances uptake in SKM (not pancreas)
- Tx: DM, w/metformin
- S/E: elevated LFTs, edema, fluid retention (CHF)
Rosiglitazone
Pioglitazone
Haldol deconoate IM every 4 weeks
Can isoniazid be admin'd IM? YES
Name a solution containing alcohol: elixirs
Opioid Analgesics Codeine, Darvocet-N 100 (propoxyphene/acetaminophen), Demerol (meperidine), Dilaudid (hydromorphone), Fentanyl, Morphine, Vicodin
Parental Invasive method of administering drugs - requires skin to be punctured by needle, Needle with syringe attached is introduced: under skin - subcutaneous and intradermal, into muscle: intramuscular, into vein: intravenous, and into body cavity - intracavitary
Most commonly used loop diuretic? furosemide (Lasix)
Diazepam / Valium Class: Benzodiazepine / Anticonvulsive
Indications: Seizures,anxiety
Contraindications: Hypersensitivity
Side Effects: Hypotension,amnesia,Respiratory depression
Dosage: 2-10mg
Route: IV,IM
Extraction the effect of first-pass hepatic elimination on bioavailability is expressed as the extraction ratioER=CLliver/Q, where Q=hepatic blood flow
Generic name Offical, nonproprietary name used after patent loss
- intermediate acting insulin (1-2h onset, 18-24h dur)
- mix of insulin &amp; zinc
Lente
types of schizophrenia paranoid, disorganized, catatonic, residual
Jaundice - a sign of hyperbilirubinemia may occur in pts. taking what PI? atazanavir
QID- Routine Drugs 0900, 1300, 1700, 2100
Aqueous suspensions of insoluble drugs in hydrated form. Aluminum hydroxide gel, USP, is an example gels
Morphine AE RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION, ELEVATIONS OF INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE, NEUROTOXICITY, constipation, withdrawal
Oxycodone HCL (immediate release) OxyIR and Roxicodone
toxicity degree to which a substance is poisonous
Key point for antidysrhythmics... The key point: Any abnormality in cardiac automaticity or impulse conduction will result in some type of _________. Then, an __________ agent will be prescribed! dysrhythmia, antidysrhythmic
Diphenhydramine / Benadryl Class: Antihistamine (blocks H receptor site)
Indications: Allergic reactions
Contraindications: NONE
Side Effects: NONE
Dosage: 25-50mg
Route: IV,IM
Competitive antagonism requires that agonist can be overcome
inhibits the secretion of acid by cells of the lining of the stomach. antiulcer
- sedation, relaxation, alt to EtoH
- GABA-R interaction
- S/E: yellow skin/nails, hepatotoxic, don't mix with EtoH
Kava
- Synthetic TRH, stimulates release of TSH
- Dx of hypothalmic (TSH, T3/T4 normalize), pituitary gland (TSH, T3/T4 no change), or thyroid gland (TSH increase, T3/t4 no change) problem
Protirelin
All oral medication prescribed must be equal to the same number of milligrams in the tablet. True
Of which nucleoside is stavudine an analog? T
How is quinine excreted? Rapidly by the kidneys
Scabies A contagious disease caused by S. scabiei, the itch mite, characterized by intense itching of the skin and injury to the skin (excoriation) resulting from scratching.
What modulates stroke volume? 1. Increased contractility
2. Increased venous return
The highest incidence of this infection occurs one to two years after exposure tuberculosis (TB)
Atomexetine Strattera; BBW for liver injury and suicide ideation
Agonist drugs that bind to receptors and mimic the body's own regulatory molecules
When a patient has experienced infiltration of a peripheral infusion of dopamine, the nurse knows that injecting the alpha-blocker phentolamine (Regitine) will result in: a) local vasoconstriction b) local vasodilation c) local analgesia d) local hypot B) local vasodilation
losartan - Cozaar ARB - angiotensin II receptor antagonists
movement of a drug across a cell membrane into body cells. transport
- Rapid onset analog (inversion at AA 28/29 keeps a monomer)
- fast absorption, duration 2-5h
- exists as monomer mostly
- insulin pumps
Lispro
A pharmacy in a hospital or institutional setting Inpatient setting
Parasympathetic nervous system Slowing the heart, contricting the pupils, and relaxing the bowels during normal conditions.
Which of the azoles may be formulated as troches for the treatment of oral candidiasis? clotrimazole
PSNS GI tract increased tone and motility, increased secretions, increased salvation
What are the endogenous anticoagulants? Prostacyclin, NO, Heparin, Antithrombin, Protein C and Protein S
The proper amount of a medicine or agent prescribed for a given patient or condition dosage
carbidopa (Lodosyn) PO; decreases peripheral breakdown of levodopa so given w/levodopa.
Tegretol decreased the effectiveness of what drugs? estrogen contraceptives, theophylline, Dilantin
Amiodarone (Cordarone) is aviailable in what drug routes? Oral, injectable & IV routes
regular insulin - Regular Short-acting insulin - Type 1-2 diabetes mellitus
Misoprostol (Cytotec) (Action and contraindication) Protect gastric mucosa from ulcerating, and for cervical ripening. not if allergic to protaglandins and for pregnant women.
- coats ulcer craters, increases mucous and bicarb, inhibits pepsin &amp; is ANTIBac to Hpylori
- S/E: darken stool and mouth
* Used to tx traveler's diarrhea (antiinflammatory and antiobiotic)
Colloid Bismuth subcitrate
Bismuth subsalicylate*
National board for the certification of pharmacy technicians Pharmacy Technician Certification Board
Continuing griseofulvin therapy will (worsen or decrease) AEs associated with its use. With continued use, AEs decrease
Is flagyl more effective in dividing or non-dividing cells? equal in both
What is a side effect of ALL antihypertensive drugs? Orthostatic hypotension
State relations between Kg and # 1 Kg = 2.2#
elidel + protopic not for <2 years due to cancer
How long do normal seizures usually last? 30 seconds-2 mins
c (should have a bar over the top of the c) with
losartan (Cozaar) is an _______what?________________ receptor blocker, antihypertensive drug. Angiotensin II receptor blocker = Cozaar
celecoxib - Celebrex selective COX 1 inhibitor - s/s OA, RA, dysmenorrhea
- depot prep, 1 every 3 mons
- inhibits ovulation, suppresses LH surge
- causes atropy, delays fertility recoverys
- weight gainm insomnia, osteoporosis
DMPA
(Medroxyprogesterone acetate)
Which of the following should n ot be sent in the pneumatic systems? Glass containers
Which of the azoles may be given PO or IV? voriconazole
What are the adverse effects of Warfarin? Bleeding, cross-placental barrier, drug interactions
Beta blockers are used to treat hypertension, angina, arrythmias, and migraine
What are some causes of seizures? congenital abnormalies, hypoxia (lack of O2) at birth, alcohol or benzondiazepine withdrawal, uremia, hypo/hyperglycemia,head trauma, cancer/brain tumor vascular disease, stroke, alzheimers, infectious diseases, febrile seizures in children
Instructions to Pharmacist Rx - name and size of medication, Sig - instructions for label (Amount to take per dose-1 tablet, When to take - at bedtime, How to take - with food, Disp - Number to dispense, Number of time be refilled, and May or may not substitute generic.
legend drug (Prescription) What type of drug does the federal law prohibit dispensing without a prescription?
- equal parts partially degraded FSH &amp; LH
- women: promotes follicular growth and maturation
- men: promotes spermatogenesis, tx cryptorchidism
- given IM
Human Menopausal Gonadotropins (hMG)
[menotropins]
What AEs are associated with pyrantel pamoate? mild GI, HA, dizziness, rash
How does nitroglycerin treat angina? Nitrates are denitrated in VSM cells to NO which activates guanylyl cyclase which converts GTP to cGMP. cGMP dephosphorylates MLC and prevents interaction of mysoin and actin, relaxing vessels (smooth muscle), esp. veins
Which AED is in injection form and is not water soluble, irritating to veins Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)
How does atrovastatin (Lipitor) work? It blocks an enzyme that is necessary for the production of cholesterol. In a nutshell, it stops the production of cholesterol.
Of the three different sites on the nephron listed below, which is generally the safest area to use a drug to modulate kid activity? a.Loop of Henle/Loop Diuretics, b.Proximal Tubule/Carbonic Anhydrase Drugs, c.Distal Tubule/Collecting Duct/Thiazides c.Distal Tubule/Collecting Duct - Thiazide Drugs
As a result of its AEs, in what patients should itraconazole therapy be avoided? Pts. with ventricular dysfunction
What are the side effects of adrenaline? Large increase in blood pressure (A-1), increased heart rate and contractility (B-1), increased calcium concentration inside heart cells triggering arrhythmia
Because 2/3 of patients with Epilepsy will be treatment responsive and remain on medication for several years, what must the prescriber base his AED selection on? Most tolerable, lowest potential for harm and least negative impact of quality of life
Because of the potent dilating effect on arteries, what should you check as a nurse before giving nitroglycerins (Nitro-Bid or Nitrostat perhaps)? you have gotta check their BLOOD PRESSURE. If it is low already, you are going to bottom them out. When the dilation occurs, the blood pressure drops.
How would you develop the MAR and the dose that was given, beyond signing your initials? Time, route and site (intramuscular)
Why would ARB be used in treatment of CHF over ACE Inhibitors? To avoid cough side effect
What kinds of drugs are considered deliriants? PCP and PCP like drugs (Ketamine, Detromethorphan & Nitrous Oxide)
Recall that for 1st-order kinetics the rate of elimination was exponential but what is it for zero-order? Linear (However NB that CL is not constant as it is in 1st-order, in this case it varies with conc of drug: CL = Vmax/ (Km + C), thus as C increases the CL decreases)
In what patients would Nifedipine be used to treat angina? Those with high blood pressure and a failing heart
What is the key drug in the osmotic diuretics class? Mannitol : the osmotic diuretic of choice. Used commmonly in the early stages of renal failure.
What should you do if a person has a seizure for over 2-5 minutes, does not awaken or behave normally after, or another seizure begins soon after the first? What is this called? CALL 9-1-1!!! These things indicate Status epilepticus, a neurological emergency that can cause brain damage/death
What types of drugs are used to treat hyperlipidemia? 1. Statins; 2. Niacins; 3. Bile Acid Binding Resins; 4. Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors; 5. Fibrates