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1. Different borrowers have different risks of bankruptcy, and bankruptcy is costly to lenders. Therefore, lenders charge higher rates to borrowers judged to be more at risk of going bankrupt.
A) True
B) False
2. A firm's business risk is largely determined by the financial characteristics of its industry, especially by the amount of debt the average firm in the industry uses.
A) True
B) False
3. Financial risk refers to the extra risk stockholders bear as a result of using debt as compared with the risk they would bear if no debt were used.
A) True
B) False
4. As the text indicates, a firm's financial risk has identifiable market risk and diversifiable risk components.
A) True
B) False
5. If debt financing is used, which of the following is CORRECT?
A) The percentage change in net operating income will be greater than a given percentage change in net income.
B) The percentage change in net operating income will be equal to a given percentage change in net income.
C) The percentage change in net income relative to the percentage change in net operating income will depend on the interest rate charged on debt.
D) The percentage change in net income will be greater than the percentage change in net operating income.
E) The percentage change in sales will be greater than the percentage change in EBIT, which, in turn, will be greater than the percentage change in net income.
6. Which of the following statements is CORRECT, holding other things constant?
A) Firms whose assets are relatively liquid tend to have relatively low bankruptcy costs, hence they tend to use relatively little debt.
B) An increase in the personal tax rate is likely to increase the debt ratio of the average corporation.
C) If changes in the bankruptcy code make bankruptcy less costly to corporations, then this would likely reduce the debt ratio of the average corporation.
D) An increase in the company’s degree of operating leverage is likely to encourage a company to use more debt in its capital structure.
E) An increase in the corporate tax rate is likely to encourage a company to use more debt in its capital structure.
7. In a world with no taxes, MM show that a firm’s capital structure does not affect the firm’s value. However, when taxes are considered, MM show a positive relationship between debt and value, i.e., its value rises as its debt is increased.
A) True
B) False
8. According to MM, in a world without taxes the optimal capital structure for a firm is approximately 100% debt financing.
A) True
B) False
9. MM showed that in a world with taxes, a firm’s optimal capital structure would be almost 100% debt.
A) True
B) False
10. MM showed that in a world without taxes, a firm’s value is not affected by its capital structure.
A) True
B) False
11. The major contribution of the Miller model is that it demonstrates that:
A) personal taxes increase the value of using corporate debt.
B) personal taxes decrease the value of using corporate debt.
C) financial distress and agency costs reduce the value of using corporate debt.
D) equity costs increase with financial leverage.
E) debt costs increase with financial leverage.
12. Which of the following statements concerning capital structure theory is NOT CORRECT?
A) The major contribution of Miller's theory is that it demonstrates that personal taxes decrease the value of using corporate debt.
B) Under MM with zero taxes, financial leverage has no effect on a firm’s value.
C) Under MM with corporate taxes, the value of a levered firm exceeds the value of the unlevered firm by the product of the tax rate times the market value dollar amount of debt.
D) Under MM with corporate taxes, rs increases with leverage, and this increase exactly offsets the tax benefits of debt financing.
E) Under MM with corporate taxes, the effect of business risk is automatically incorporated because rsL is a function of rsU.
13. Brammer Corp.'s projected capital budget is $1,000,000, its target capital structure is 60% debt and 40% equity, and its forecasted net income is $550,000. If the company follows a residual dividend policy, what total dividends, if any, will it pay out?
A) $122,176
B) $128,606
C) $135,375
D) $142,500
E) $150,000
14. Blease Inc. has a capital budget of $625,000, and it wants to maintain a target capital structure of 60% debt and 40% equity. The company forecasts a net income of $475,000. If it follows the residual dividend policy, what is its forecasted dividend payout ratio?
A) 40.61%
B) 42.75%
C) 45.00%
D) 47.37%
E) 49.74%
15. P&D Co. has a capital budget of $1,000,000. The company wants to maintain a target capital structure which is 30% debt and 70% equity. The company forecasts that its net income this year will be $800,000. If the company follows a residual dividend policy, what will be its total dividend payment?
A) $100,000
B) $200,000
C) $300,000
D) $400,000
E) $500,000
16. D&P Co. has a capital budget of $2,000,000. The company wants to maintain a target capital structure that is 35% debt and 65% equity. The company forecasts that its net income this year will be $1,800,000. If the company follows a residual dividend policy, what will be its total dividend payment?
A) $100,000
B) $200,000
C) $300,000
D) $400,000
E) $500,000
17. Underlying the dividend irrelevance theory proposed by Miller and Modigliani is their argument that the value of the firm is determined only by its basic earning power and its business risk.
A) True
B) False
18. One implication of the bird-in-the-hand theory of dividends is that a given reduction in dividend yield must be offset by a more than proportionate increase in growth in order to keep a firm's required return constant, other things held constant.
A) True
B) False
19. The cost of meeting SEC and possibly additional state reporting requirements regarding disclosure of financial information, the danger of losing control, and the possibility of an inactive market and an attendant low stock price are potential disadvantages of going public.
A) True
B) False
20. The term “leaving money on the table” refers to the situation where an investment banking house makes a very low bid for the right to underwrite a firm’s new stock offering. The banker is, in effect, “buying the job” with the low bid and thus not getting all the money his firm would normally earn on the job.
A) True
B) False
21. The term “equity carve-out” refers to the situation where a firm’s managers give themselves the right to purchase new stock at a price far below the going market price. Since this dilutes the value of the public stockholders, it “carves out” some of their value.
A) True
B) False
22. Suppose a company issued 30-year bonds 4 years ago, when the yield curve was inverted. Since then long-term rates (10 years or longer) have remained constant, but the yield curve has resumed its normal upward slope. Under such conditions, a bond refunding would almost certainly be profitable.
A) True
B) False
23. Which of the following is generally NOT true and an advantage of going public?
A) Facilitates stockholder diversification.
B) Increases the liquidity of the firm's stock.
C) Makes it easier to obtain new equity capital.
D) Establishes a market value for the firm.
E) Makes it easier for owner-managers to engage in profitable self-dealings.
24. Which of the following statements about listing on a stock exchange is most CORRECT?
A) Listing is a decision of more significance to a firm than going public.
B) Any firm can be listed on the NYSE as long as it pays the listing fee.
C) Listing provides a company with some "free" advertising, and it may enhance the firm's prestige and help it do more business.
D) Listing reduces the reporting requirements for firms, because listed firms file reports with the exchange rather than with the SEC.
E) The OTC is the second largest market for listed stock, and it is exceeded only by the NYSE.
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1. Different borrowers have different risks of bankruptcy, and bankruptcy is
costly to lenders. Therefore, lenders charge higher rates to borrowers judged
to be more at risk of going bankrupt.
A)...