PracticeExam4Geology1

PracticeExam4Geology1 - m; Tcs'l 4 F06 . pol F Test 4...

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Unformatted text preview: m; Tcs'l 4 F06 . pol F Test 4 Geology 101 Fall 2006 Instructor: Dr. Andrew Hajash Mark answers on test first, transfer answers to scantron after finishing test Name I RETURN TEST and SCANTRON (with UIN) DO NOT put UIN on this test 1) Approximately how much more energy is released in a 9 Richter magnitude earthquake than 1) in one with magnitude 6? A) 1000 times B) 500 times C) 96 times D) 10,000 times E) 33.000 times 2) The mountains and valleys of the Basin and Range Province of western United States formed 2) in response to . A) reverse faults and large displacement, thrust faulting B) strike-slip faulting and hanging wall block uplifts C) normal faulting and horizontal extension D) normal faulting and horizontal compression 3) Which one of the following accurately lists low—velocity zones (zones having lower velocity 3) than materials immediately above them) in the earth? A) crust and inner core B) mantle at the crust—mantle boundary C) lithosphere and mesosphere D) outer core and top of asthenosphere 4) In a fault, the hanging wall block moves up with respect to the footwall block. 4) A) strike slip B) reverse C) abnormal D) normal E) inverse 5) The P—wave shadow zone is largely the result of . 5) A) reflection of P waves at the boundary between the inner and outer cores B) lower P—wave velocities in the mantle than in the crust C) reflection of P waves from the inner core—outer core boundary D) refraction of P waves crossing the mantle—outer core boundary 6) Which one of the following best describes an overturned fold? 6) A) A fold with one limb tilted more than 90 degrees B) A fold with one limb tilted more than 180 degrees C) A fold that plunges more than 45 degrees D) A fold with both limbs tilted more than 90 degrees 7) In general, the velocity of seismic body waves and density increase with increasing depth. 7) This means that, with increasing depth, the rigidity of rocks must increase more rapidly than density, A) True B) False 8) Normal and reverse faults are characterized mainly by . 8) A) strike slip B) dip slip C) horizontal slip D) basal slip 9) A transform fault is . 9) A) a strike—slip fault that forms the boundary between tectonic plates B) a dip—slip fault connecting an anticline with a syncline C) the rift bounding faults on a mid—ocean ridge D) a reverse fault that steepens into a thrust fault 10) In a normal fault 10) A) the hanging wall block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block B) the footwall block above an inclined fault plane moves upward relative to the other block C) the hanging wall block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block D) the footwall block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block 11) in layered sedimentary rocks are evidence for horizontal compression and 11) shortening. —— A) Strike—slip faults B) Normal faults C) Horsts and grabens D) Tight folds 12) A fault plane strikes N 45B and dips steeply to the NW. Visual evidence indicates that most of 12) the fault movement was vertical (dip—slip) and that Permian rocks occur northwest of the fault while Mississippian rocks lie to the southeast. The fault is most likely a A) normal fault B) right—lateral strike slip fault C) left-lateral strike—slip fault D) reverse fault E) low—angle thrust fault 13) How is a large thrust fault (e.g., Lewis overthrust in Glacier National Park) usually recognized 13) in the field? — A) a region having a great deal of horizontal extension B) blueschist grade metamorphism is associated with these large faults C) younger rocks overlying older rocks D) a series of half—grabens with horsts in between. E) older rocks overlying younger rocks 14) Which one of the following best describes the orientation of 01 for the Basin and Range 14) Province in western U. S. and the East African Rift system? A) N55W, horizontal B) N65W, horizontal C) NSSE, horizontal D) vertical E) N 65E, horizontal 15) A monocline is 15) A) a fold in which the strata dip away from the axis B) a fold in which the strata dip toward the axis C) a fold with only one limb D) a fold characterized by recumbent limbs 16) Which one of the following is true for anticlines but not for synclines? 16) A) Some may be asymmetric and some may have plunging axes. B) The deeper strata are buckled upward along the fold axis. C) The limbs dip or are inclined towards the fold axis. D) After erosion, the younger strata are exposed along the axial region of the fold. 17) A horst is . 17) A) an uplifted block bounded by We reverse faults B) an uplifted block bounded by two normal faults C) a downdropped block bounded by two normal faults D) a dOWndropped block bounded by two reverse faults 18) A reverse fault is one in which . 18) A) the block above the fault plane has moved backwards with respect to the other block B) one block has moved downward and the other moved horizontally along a vertical fault C) the hanging wall block has moved up relative to the footwall block along an inclined fault D) both blocks have moved horizontally in opposite directions along an inclined fault 19) Which one of the following would not be a characteristic of the San Andreas fault zone? 19) A) laterally offset stream channels B) steep, near verticaI, dip—slip, fault scarps C) sag ponds D) deformed, broken, and pulverized bedrock 20) Which one of the following statementsbest describes elastic deformation? 20) A) means that significant permanent deformation occurs B) only occurs in liquids C) can only occur under hydrostatic conditions D) always results in ductile flow of the material E) means that all of deformation is totally recoverable when the stress is removed 21) How are low—velocity zones or layers generally located by seismic methods? 21) A) by the presence of shadow zones. B) by the areas of mass wasting and thrust faulting. C) by difference in arrival times of Love and Rayleigh waves. D) by waves that result from the catastrophic vaporization of convoluted fragiscarps. E) by the difference in arrival times of p and s waves. 22) P waves 22) A) are faster than S waves and surface waves B) propagate only in solids C) have higher amplitudes than do 8 waves D) produce the strongest ground shaking 23) The is a direct measure of the distance from a seismic receiving station to the focus 23) of a distant earthquake. —— A) magnitude of the ground acceleration of surface wave passing a receiving station B) time elapsed between the first P—wave arrivals from the first and last aftershocks C) time interval between the first P—wave and the last surface wave D) time interval between the first P and 8— wave arrivals 24) On a typical seismogram, will show the highest amplitudes. 24) A) P waves B) body waves C) S waves D) Rayleigh waves 25) Which one of the following statements concerning foci and epicenters is correct? 25) A) The fault first cracks at the epicenter and breaks through to the surface at the focus. B) The focus is the faulted point on the surface directly above the epicenter. C) The earthquake starts at the focus and the rupture extends down to the epicenter. ) D The epicenter is at the surface directly above the focus where the earthquake initiates. 26) The of the Earth has the smallest volume. 26) A) crust B) inner core C) mantle D) outer core 27) The is the seismic discontinuity that forms the boundary between the crust and 27) mantle. —— A) Mogo B) Moto C) Mojo D) Moho 28) Which of the following is NOT true ? 28) A) Oceanic crust is essentially the same composition as the mantle B) The mesosphere is essentially the same composition as the asthenosphere C) The geomagnetic field is produced by fluid motions in the earth's outer core. D) When a P wave enters the outer core from the mantle, it slows down. E) When an elastic wave travels from a low velocity layer to a high velocity layer, the ray is refracted away from the perpendicular to the interface. 29) The Earth's magnetic field is caused by . 29) A) hot, rising, mantle plumes —— B) magnetization of oxygen and nitrogen atoms in the atmospheric ozone layer by solar radiation C) fluid motions in the outer core D) magnetic mineral grains in the inner core E) solid state convection in the mantle 30) Which one of the following best characterizes the mesosphere? 30) A) zone in the mantle at depths greater that 700 km E) a zone of the upper mantle consisting of mainly peridotite that may contain a small percentage of melt C) a layer of soft, solid, magnesium silicates and molten iron droplets at the base of the mantle D) a zone of hardened, silicate rock at the base of the oceanic crust E) the zone in the mantle that has abundant earthquake activity 31) Which of the following best characterizes how the diameter of Earth‘s core and the nature of 31) the outer core were discovered? A) By analysis of the P-wave and S—wave shadow zones. B) Because P—wave speeds are higher in the outer core than in the lower mantle. C) Crystalline iron was found in lavas erupted from the deepest known hot spots. D) By using the ratio of iron meteorites to stony meteorites to deduce the relative diameters of the core and mantle. 32) Which one of the following statements regarding rock deformation and strength is correct? 32) A) Rocks undergo plastic deformation less readily as temperatures and pressures increase. B) Elastic deformation is accomplished through internal flow of material. C) When rocks are subjected to stress for long time periods, very small, plastic deformations accumulate to produce large, permanent, elastic deformations. D) Rupture and plastic deformation occur when stresses exceed the elastic limit of a material. 33) A deeply eroded, structural basin would exhibit . 33) A) outcrops of the oldest strata in the center of the basin B) older strata at the edges of a basin dip away from a central, horizontal, fold axis C) strata dipping outward away from the center of the basin D) strata oriented in roughly circular, outcrop patterns with outcrops of the youngest strata in the center 34) A is a defined, recognizable, mappable, rock unit with a known age. 34) A) lithologic sequence B) formation C) stratigraphic section D) strata set 35) Which one of the following is true regarding tsunamis? 35) A) They travel as deep—water waves at speeds greater than surface seismic waves but slower than S waves. B) They occur in the open ocean, wavelengths are many miles or kilometers and wave heights are only a few feet. C) They are started by fault-induced, horizontal shifts in the sea floor that suddenly propel great masses of water in opposite directions. D) Their wave heights decrease and wavelengths increase as they move into shallower water. 36) refers to the tendency of unconsolidatedmaterial satuated with water to behave 36) like a fluid during earthquake shaking. A) Seismoflowage B) Protocolation C) Motion slip D) Discombobulation E) Liquefaction 37) The Michigan geologic map shows older, Paleozoic strata (in roughly circular patterns) 37) surrounding a core area of Pennsylvanian rocks. What is this structure? A) dome B) basin C) anticline D) recumbent horst 38) In thrust faulting, . A) grabens develop on the footwall block B) the hanging wall block slips downward along the thrust fault C) horizontal, tensional stresses drive the deformation D) the crust is shortened in the horizontal direction and thickened in the vertical direction 39) The is the point of origination for an earthquake. A) epizone B) fault point C) seismic centroid D) focus 40) A p wave is travelling down through the lithosphere and hits the lithosphere / asthenosphere boundary with an incident angle of 45 degrees. Which one of the following best describes the refracted angle of the wave as it enters the top of the asthenosphere? A) 35 degrees B) 55 degrees C) 45 degrees 41) Dr. Hajash demonstrated in class that it is very easy to spin a hard—boiled egg on it's end but .very difficult (near impossible) to spin a raw egg on it's end. The point was to demonstrate A) that liquids cannot transmit a shear stress, thus 5 waves cannot travel through liquids B) that he might be very helpful in the kitchen. C) that his eggs were brown and he knows how to boil Water. D) that an increase in density causes seismic body waves to slow down E) that p waves were faster than s waves 42) What type of faulting is associated with oceanic and continental rift systems? A) low—angle thrust B) abnormal C) reverse D) normal E) strike-slip 43) Energy is stored in rocks adjacent to the site of a future earthquake as A) thermal energy B) plastic strain C) elastic strain D) plastic flow energy 44) How many of the following strikes and clips for rock layers are possible? Measurements listered in the following order: Strike, dip, dip direction. NSOE, 75 SW ; N6OW, 30 NE: NBOE, 30 NW; B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 N45E, 80 SW A) 1 E)0 45) Which one of the following statements best describes the definition of the strike of a bed? A) when a bed dips to the east, the strike is East—West B) angular deviation of the magnetic vector from the horizontal C) angle between a horizontal plane and the bed D) bearing of a line formed by the intersection of the bed with a horizontal plane. E) bearing of a line that is parallel to the dip of the bed 38) 39) 40) 41) 43) 44) 45) 46) Which one of the following best describes the change in p wave velocity as the wave goes across the Moho from the crust to the mantle? A) velocity does not change as the Moho is crossed because the crust and the mantle are the same composition. B) velocity increases from the crust tothe mantle C) velocity decreases slightly because it enters a low velocity zone D) velocity goes to zero because the mantle in this region is a liquid 47) Which one of the following best characterizes the lithosphere? A) zone in the mantle at depths greater that 700 km B) the layer above the Moho C) the outermost layer of the earth that is mostly mantle but also contains crust and is the "plate" in Plate Tectonics D) a zone of the upper mantle consisting of mainly peridotite that may contain a small percentage of melt E) a layer of soft, solid, magnesium silicates and molten iron droplets at the base of the mantle 48) For a normal fault that strikes N-S and dips 60 degrees to the East, which one of the following best describes the state of stress at the time of faulting? A) 0'1 would have been vertical and 03 would have been oriented at N —S and horizontal at the time of faulting. B) aaah! (hint) 01 would have been vertical, (:2 would have been oriented at N—S and horizontal, and (33 would have been oriented E—W and horizontal at the time of faulting. C) 01 would have been vertical and 02 would have been oriented at NSOE and horizontal at the time of faulting. D) 01 would have been horizontal and oriented at N30E at the time of faulting. E) 49) For a reverse fault that strikes N 60W and clips 30 to the southwest, which one of the following best describes the state of stress at the time of faulting? A) 01 would have been vertical and 02 would have been oriented at N60W and horizontal at the time of faulting. B) 01 would have been horizontal and oriented at N30E at the time of faulting. C) 03 would have been vertical, 02 would have been oriented at N60W and horizontal, and 01 would have been oriented N30E and horizontal at the time of faulting. D) 03 would have been vertical, 02 would have been oriented at NSOE and horizontal, and 01 would have been oriented N60W and horizontal at the time of faulting. E) 02 would have been vertical 47) 48) 49) 50) For a vertical, right lateral strike slip fault that strikes NSSE, which one of the following best describes the state of stress at the time of faulting? A) 01 would have been vertical and 03 would have been oriented at N—E and horizontal at the time of faulting. B) 02 would have been vertical and 01 would have been oriented at N25E and horizontal at the time of faulting. C) 01 would have been horizontal and oriented at NBOE at the time of faulting. D) 01 would have been vertical and (32 would have been oriented at NSOE and horizontal at the time of faulting. E) 02 would have been vertical, 01 would have been oriented at N85E and horizontal at the time of faulting. 50) Answer Key Tesmamez 101TEST4F06 1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) E 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) C 553%"— ...
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This note was uploaded on 04/09/2008 for the course GEOL 101 taught by Professor Olinsky during the Spring '08 term at Texas A&M.

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PracticeExam4Geology1 - m; Tcs'l 4 F06 . pol F Test 4...

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