ch19 - Exam N ame 1 Plasma is closest in composition to A interstitial fluid B CSF C sterile water D isotonic saline solution E urine 1 2 The percent

ch19 - Exam N ame 1 Plasma is closest in composition to A...

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Unformatted text preview: Exam N ame___________________________________ 1) Plasma is closest in composition to A) interstitial fluid. B) CSF. C) sterile water. D) isotonic saline solution. E) urine. 1) 2) The percent fraction of formed elements relati ve to w hole blood is the A) packed volu me. B) differential cell count. C) hematocrit. D) viscosity. E) specific gravity. 2) 3) Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of gases C) transport of body heat D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 3) 4) Which of the follow ing statements about blood is A) Blood is more v iscous than water. B) The normal p H of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. D) Blood contains buffers that control p H. E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. ? 5) Formed elements make u p about w hat percentage of blood? A) 45 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent 4) 5) D) 60 percent E) 55 percent 6) T he combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) w hole blood. B) serum. C) extracellular fluid. D) packed blood. E) lymph. 6) 7) W hole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) a capillary. B) an arteriole. C) the heart. D) a superficial artery. E) a superficial vein. 7) 1 8) W hen checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to dra w a blood sample from A) the lungs. B) capillaries. C) the heart. D) an artery. E) a vein. 8) 9) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? A) RBCs–5.2 million/µl B) leukocytes–8600/µl C) hematocrit–44 percent D) hemoglobin–10.7 g/100 ml E) platelets–280,000/µ l 9) 10) Each of the follow ing is a characteristic of w hole blood, A) p H of 7.4. B) deep red color from hemoglobin. C) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. D) viscosity about the same as water. E) built - in system for clotting. a 10) 11) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76- kg man is approximately ________ liters. A) 4.4 B) 5.3 C) 3.8 D) 10 E) 6 to 8 11) 12) The most abundant component of plasma is A) water. B) ions. C) gases. 12) D) nutrients. E) proteins. 13) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be A) isovolemic. B) normovolemic. C) hy pervolemic. D) antivolemic. E) hypovolemic. 13) 14) T he chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the A) concentration of nitrogen wastes. B) concentration of electrolytes. C) concentration of proteins. D) concentration of glucose. E) concentration of water. 14) 15) A ty pical adult hematocrit is A) 65. B) 75. 15) 16) W hich of these is A) lymphocytes B) antibodies C) basophils D) RBCs E) platelets C) 85. D) 25. one of the formed elements of blood? 2 E) 45. 16) 17) Plasma composes about ________ percent of w hole blood and w ater composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 45; 55 B) 92; 55 C) 92; 7 D) 55; 92 E) 50; 50 17) 18) A hematocrit provides information on A) sedimentation rate. B) blood type. C) clotting factors. D) plasma composition. E) formed elements abundance. 18) 19) You are caring for an adult patient w ho weighs 48 kg. W hat would her approximate blood volume be? A) 5.6 L B) 3.8 L C) 4.8 L D) 6.6 L E) 6.0 L 19) 20) T hyroid - binding globulin is an example of w hich kind of plasma protein? A) apolipoprotein B) metalloprotein C) hormone- bin ding D) transport albumin E) steroid - bin ding 20) 21) Transferrin is an example of w hich kind of plasma protein? A) apolipoprotein B) steroid - binding protein C) transport albumin D) metalloprotein E) hormone- binding protein 21) 22) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? A) gamma globulin B) hormone- binding protein C) albumin D) translipin E) steroid - binding protein 22) 23) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) kidney B) heart C) pancreas 24) T he most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) lipoproteins. B) globulins. C) fibrinogens. D) transport proteins. E) albumins. 23) D) liver E) brain 24) 3 25) Plasma proteins essential in bod y defense are the A) metalloproteins. B) immunoglobulins. C) fibrinogens. D) lipoproteins. E) albumins. 25) 26) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) lipoprotein C. B) fibrinogen. C) albumin alpha. D) metalloprotein D. E) immunoglobulin A . 26) 27) A ll the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) red bone marrow. B) spleen. C) lymph tissue. D) thy mus. E) heart. 27) 28) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) renin. B) thymosin. C) erythropoietin. D) angiotensin. E) M - CSF. 28) 29) Which of the follow ing statements concerning red blood cells is A) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. B) Red cells are about 18 µ m in diameter. C) Red cells are biconcave discs. D) Red cells lack mitochondria. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. 29) 30) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) ferritin B) hemosiderin C) hemoglobin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin 30) 31) T he disease sickle cell anemia is an example of w hat can hap pen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. C) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. D) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. E) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. 31) 4 32) W hen a person w ho lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) the release of erythropoietin. B) an increase in red blood cell production. C) a drop in oxygen levels. D) a rise in hematocrit. E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 32) 33) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) thrombocytopenia. B) hemophilia. C) jaundice. D) pernicious anemia. E) leukocytosis. 33) 34) M ary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) her hemoglobin level is normal. B) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. E) she is suffering from anemia. 34) 35) A n obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. B) increased erythropoiesis. C) renal anemia. D) pernicious anemia. E) decreased erythropoiesis. 35) 36) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the follow ing, A) during periods of fasting. B) w hen blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) during anemia. E) at high altitudes. 36) 37) The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 1 month. B) many years. C) 24 hours. D) 4 months. E) about 1 year. 37) 38) The fu nction of red blood cells is to A) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. B) defend the body against infectious organisms. C) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. D) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. E) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. 38) 5 39) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. W hich of the follow ing is the likeliest candidate? A) lack of intrinsic factor B) v itamin B6 deficiency C) iron deficiency D) v itamin B12 deficiency E) vitamin K deficiency 39) 40) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) yellow bone marrow. B) thy mus. C) spleen. D) liver. E) red bone marrow. 40) 41) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) calcium. B) sodium. C) copper. D) magnesium. E) iron. 41) 42) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) hemoglobin. B) hemosiderin. C) ferritin. D) transferrin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin. 42) 43) In w hich of the follow ing situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) an alcoholic with a damaged liver B) low blood volume C) iron - deficient diet D) low hematocrit E) during coagulation 43) 44) If bile d ucts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) more white blood cells are produced. C) more red blood cells are produced. D) bilirubin appears in the saliva. E) more hemolysis takes place. 44) 45) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) fibrinogen. B) albumin. C) hemoglobin. D) imm unoglobulin. E) porphyrin. 45) 6 46) T he function of hemoglobin is to A) aid in the process of blood clotting. B) produce antibodies. C) carry dissol ved blood gases. D) stimulate erythropoiesis. E) carry bicarbonate ion. 46) 47) ________ is a condition in w hich the oxygen - carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukopenia C) A nemia D) Leukemia E) T hrombocytopenia 47) 48) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) injections of iron. B) oral doses of iron. C) blood transfusion. D) oral doses of vitamin B12. E) injections of vitamin B12. 48) 49) Which of the follow ing would you expect to see in after donating a unit of blood? A) neutrophils B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) erythrocytes E) lymphocytes 49) numbers in a peripheral blood sample 50) A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called A) hypochromic. B) h yperchromic. C) normocytic. D) normochromic. E) macrocytic. 50) 51) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) dead w hite blood cells accum ulate at the site of injury. B) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. C) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has built - up in the bruise. D) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken dow n into biliverdin. E) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. 51) 52) A ged and damaged erythrocytes are broken do wn by macrophages in the A) digestive tract. B) spleen. C) liver. D) bone marrow. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow. 52) 7 53) T he waste product bilirubin is produced from A) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. B) globin chains of hemoglobin. C) heme molecules plus iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) heme molecules lacking iron. 53) 54) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) recycled to the red bone marrow. B) excreted by the kidneys. C) stored in yellow bone marrow. D) excreted by the intestines. E) excreted by the liver. 54) 55) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) red bone marrow. B) the liver. C) yellow bone marrow. D) lymphoid tissue. E) the spleen. 55) 56) In adults, red bone marrow is located in the A) body of vertebrae. B) sternum and ribs. C) iliac crest. D) proximal epiphyses of long bones. E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 56) 57) T he process of red blood cell production is called A) hematopenia. B) erythropoiesis. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropenia. E) erythrocytosis. 57) 58) T he developmental stage at w hich erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) proerythrocytes. B) hemocytoblasts. C) reticulocytes. D) myeloid cells. E) band forms. 58) 59) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) M yeloblasts B) Erythroblasts C) Reticulocytes D) Band cells E) N ormoblasts 59) 8 60) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) blood pressure increases. B) oxygen levels in the blood increase. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. E) coagulation begins. 60) 61) Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) one alpha and one beta chain. B) one heme group. C) four alpha chains. D) four iron atoms. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide. 61) 62) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from A) destruction of hemoglobin. B) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. C) the recycling of hemoglobin. D) extensive breakdown of RBCs. E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 62) 63) W hich of the follow ing blood count values would be a sign of anemia? A) 10,000 W BC B) 5.5 million RBC C) 3.5 million RBC D) 400,000 platelets E) A and D taken together 63) 64) A fter donating 0.5 liters of blood, one would expect A) increased levels of clotting factors. B) an increased neutrophil count. C) an increased reticulocyte count. D) an increased erythrocyte count. E) an increased platelet count. 64) 65) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture woun d in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. H is blood cells agglutinate w hen mixed with the anti - A sera but not w ith the anti - B or anti - D sera. This means A) Bill is Rh positive. B) Bill could receive type B - negative blood in a transfusion. C) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. D) Bill could donate blood to an individual w ith type O blood. E) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen. 65) 66) A person's blood type is determined largely by the A) shape of the RBCs. B) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) volume of the RBCs. E) size of the RBCs. 66) 9 67) People w ith type A B blood are considered the "u ni versal recipient" for transfusions because A) they are usually Rh negative. B) they usually have very strong immune systems. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. E) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. 67) 68) Blood type is identified primarily by A) the A BO blood group. B) both the A BO and Rh blood groups. C) the H B blood system. D) the Kahn blood group. E) the Rh blood group. 68) 69) Type A B blood has w hich of the follow ing characteristics: A) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no A BO plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti- A and anti - B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have the A an d the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti - A and anti- B antibodies. D) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti- D plasma antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti - B antibod y. 69) 70) A nti - D antibodies are present in the blood of A) Rh negative individuals w ho have been exposed to the D surface antigen. B) all individuals w ith type A B blood. C) Rh positive individuals w ho have been exposed to the D surface antigen. D) all Rh positi ve individuals. E) all Rh negative individuals. 70) 71) A ntigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) serum; plasma B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) erythrogens; antibiotics D) T - cells; B - cells E) agglutinins; agglutinogens 71) 72) Which of the follow ing combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn: A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother ty pe A +, baby type O+ D) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive E) N one of the answers are correct. 72) 73) The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the follow ing organs, A) the lymph nodes. B) the spleen. C) the kidney. D) the red bone marrow. E) the thymus. 73) 10 74) Granulocytes form in A) yellow bone marrow. B) the thymus. C) red bone marrow. D) the intestines. E) the spleen. 74) 75) A ll of the following are true of neutrophils, that they are A) active in fighting bacterial infections. B) gran ular leukocytes. C) important in coagulation. D) also know n as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. E) phagocytic. 75) 76) T he most numerous w hite blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) eosinophils. B) lymphocytes. C) basophils. D) neutrophils. E) monocytes. 76) 77) W hite blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) basophils. B) eosinophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) neutrophils. 77) 78) ________ are large phagocytic w hite cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Eosinophils B) N eutrophils C) L ymphocytes D) M onocytes E) Basophils 78) 79) Which of these descriptions best matches the term A) often elevated in allergic individuals B) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation D) helper cells are one type E) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide 79) ? 80) W hite blood cells that are increased in allergic in dividuals are the A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) eosinophils. E) neutrophils. 11 80) 81) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) thymosin. B) multi - CSF. C) G M - CSF. D) G - CSF. E) M - CSF. 81) 82) A genetically engineered hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is A) G M - CSF. B) thymosin. C) M - CSF. D) multi - CSF. E) G - CSF ( ). 82) 83) T he most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) monocytes. B) leukocytes. C) lymphocytes. D) basophils. E) neutrophils. 83) 84) W hich of the follow ing is true of neutrophils? A) attracted to complement- coated bacteria B) less abundant than lymphocytes C) can exit capillaries D) can make hy drogen peroxide E) can destroy bacteria 84) 85) Which of these descriptions best matches the term A) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) often elevated in allergic individuals D) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium E) helper cells are one type ? 86) Which of the follow ing is true of basophils? A) granules contain histamine B) attract other defense cells C) granules contain heparin D) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 85) 86) 87) Which of these descriptions best matches the term A) are invol ved in cell mediated immunity B) often elevated in allergic individuals C) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) produce antibodies in response to antigens ? 12 87) 88) A n infected wound contains typically contains A) tissue fluids. B) cellular debris. C) pus. D) dead neutrophils. E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 88) 89) W hich of the follow ing is true of monocytes? A) can phagocytize bacteria B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) about same size as basophils E) are long lived 89) 90) Eosinophils function in: A) production of heparin B) antibody production C) destroying antibody - labeled antigens D) blood coagulation E) production of surface antigens for red blood cells 90) 91) D uring a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) basophils. B) thrombocytes. C) reticulocytes. D) eosinophils. E) neutrophils. 91) 92) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: A) basophils B) erythrocytes C) monocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils 92) 93) Non - specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of w hich blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) platelets C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes E) lymphocytes 93) 94) Which of the follow ing is true of eosinophils? A) allergic patients have many B) have bilobed nucleus C) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs D) granules stain w ith eosin dyes E) A ll of the answ ers are correct. 94) 13 95) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. W hich type of w hite blood cell w ould you expect to be elevated in a differential w hite cell count? A) lymphocytes B) basophils C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) monocytes 95) - - : 96) Identify the cell labeled "5." A) erythrocyte B) monocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) lymphocyte 96) 97) Identify the cell labeled "6." A) lymphocyte B) monocyte C) basophil D) erythrocyte E) eosinophil 97) 98) Identify the cell labeled "4." A) basophil B) monocyte C) platelet D) neutrophil E) lymphocyte 98) 99) Identify the cell labeled "3." A) eosinophil B) erythrocyte C) monocyte D) basophil E) lymphocyte 99) 14 100) Identify the cell labeled "2." A) eosinophil B) basophil C) neutrophil D) lymphocyte E) monocyte 100) 101) The function of platelets is to assist in the A) immune response during an infection. B) process called hemost...
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