CHESSON Practice Questions with correct answer starred

CHESSON Practice Questions with correct answer starred -...

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Unformatted text preview: Nonseed plants The embryophytes form a clade in which 1 mt3 1 (A) the sporophyte is nutritionally dependent on the gametophyte (B) water is not required for fertilization *(C) a zygote develops into an embryo protected by gametophytic tissue (D) the gametophyte is diploid The embryophytes are 2 1q *(A) evolutionarily derived from green algae (B) paraphyletic (C) composed of two clades, gymnospermae and angiospermae (D) composed of vascular plants and bryophytes Vascular plants are 3 2q (A) the only plants with conducting tissues (B) mosses, ferns and their allies (C) plants that produce pollen *(D) plants with cells called tracheids Nonvascular plants are 4 mt3 2 *(A) mosses, hornworts and liverworts (B) plants with the gametophyte dependent on the sporophyte (C) plants wholly without any form of conducting tissues (D) an extinct group with no modern representatives All plants that live on land require 5 3q (A) water for fertilization *(B) a waxy cuticle to inhibit water loss (C) roots to absorb water from the soil (D) lignified cells for support Gametangia 6 4q *(A) protect gametes from dessication (B) grow into gametophytes (C) have been evolutionarily lost in gymnosperms (D) are another name for archegonia Spores 7 mt3 (A) *(B) (C) (D) are the diploid regenerative cells are the products of meiosis are sperms if male and eggs if female grow into sporophytes In liverworts, the sporophyte 8 (A) grows underground (B) contains rhizoids for absorption of water *(C) is dependent on the gametophyte (D) contains tracheids The coal deposits of the Carboniferous period 9 5q (A) were laid down by incomplete decomposition of Angiosperms (B) are mostly decomposed Gymnosperms *(C) are predominantly the remains of Lycophytes and Pteridophytes (D) could not possibly contain the remains of any seed plants Leaves 10 6q *(A) come in two forms, megaphylls and microphylls (B) were one of the first evolutionary innovations for life on land (C) first evolved in gynmosperms (D) develop from the protonema in mosses Ferns 11 mt (A) are characterized by having a large independent gametophyte, and small independent sporophyte (B) the absence of archegonia *(C) are mostly homosporous, but some are heterosporous (D) evolved from wisk ferns in the Devonian In most vascular plants 12 7q (A) phloem is absent *(B) the sporophyte is the more conspicuous phase in the life cycle (C) the gametophyte is found below ground (D) asexual reproduction occurs through dispersal of gemmae With a heterosporous life cycle 13 mt *(A) Megaspores give rise the megagametophyte (B) The megagametophyte produces megaspores (C) (D) Megaspores give rise to the megasporangium The megasporangium is part of the haploid phase of the life cycle The microgametophyte produces 14 8q (A) eggs by mitotic division (B) sperm by meiotic division (C) eggs by meiotic division *(D) sperm by mitotic division With a homosporous life cycle 15 9q (A) the gametophyte produces sperms or eggs, but not both (B) the gametangia take only one form *(C) the gametophyte has both archegonia and antheridia (D) the gametophyte has either archegonia or antheridia but not both Megaphylls 16 (A) are believed to have evolved from reduced gametangia *(B) are believed to have evolved from overtopped branches (C) are only found in seed plants (D) evolved during the Cretaceous period Roots 17 (A) (B) *(C) (D) 10q are modified rhizoids are modified hydroids are believed to have evolved from rhizomes form the tubers that we call potatoes in the potato plant 8 mt Which statement about alternation of generations in land plants is not true (A) The sporophyte is the conspicuous stage in vascular plants, while the gametophyte is often the conspicuous generation stage in nonvascular plants (B)* Gametes are always produced by meiosis (C) The zygote is the beginning of the sporophyte generation (D) Meiosis occurs in sporangia 9 mt The sori of ferns (A) produce pollen (B)* are clusters of sporangia (C) are the achegonia of ferns (D) are the antheridia of ferns 10 mt Horsed tails (A) do not have leaves (B) consist of two modern genera, Psilotum and Tmesipteris (C)* have stem segments that grow from their bases (D) have a small sporophyte, nutritionally dependent on the gametophyte Seed plants 18 1q (A) consist of four modern groups, cycads, ginkgos, conifers, and gnetophytes *(B) consist of the angiosperms and gymnosperms (C) are the only modern group containing tracheids (D) have seeds with a triploid endosperm seed plants 19 (A) do not have sperm *(B) do not require external water for fertilization (C) have microspores called pollen (D) evolved during the Cretaceous Period Seeds and pollen are similar in that they are both 20 2q (A) haploid (B) able to remain dormant for long periods of time *(C) dispersed from the parent plant (D) unique to angiosperms The Gnetophyta 21 3q (A) are a group of leptosporangiate ferns (B) are primitive angiosperms (C) contain the single genus Ephedra *(D) are a group within the gymnosperms Seed plants 22 (A) do not have alternation of generations *(B) have alternation of generations with a greatly reduced gametophyte stage (C) contain both homosporous and heterosporous groups (D) develop seeds inside fruits Angiosperms 23 (A) (B) *(C) (D) Fruits 24 *(A) (B) (C) (D) Are the nonflowering seed plants have flowers for decoration coevolved with animal pollinators have pollen exclusively dispersed by wind 4q Are a unique feature of flowering plants are sometimes present in gymnosperms serve to nourish the seed are always brightly colored to attract animals Stamens 25 5q (A) are found exerted from the strobili of gymnosperms *(B) are believed to have evolved from sporangiate leaves (C) first appeared in the Devonian (D) contain megaspores, which then form pollen The ovary of Angiosperms 26 6q *(A) is believed to have evolved from the progressive curling and fusion of sporangiate leaves (B) is a structure containing the microsporangium (C) evolved first in the Eudicots (D) evolved from fleshy cones of gymnosperms Vessels are 27 (A) the transport cells in gymnosperms (B) part of the phloem of angiosperms (C) the living companion cells of the xylem in angiosperms *(D) unique water transporting cells in angiosperms Monocots 28 7q *(A) are a clade within the angiosperms (B) contain cycads, palms, grasses, lilies and similar plants with a single cotyledon (C) are flowering plants with wind dispersed pollen (D) first appeared in the Devonian period Over the course of plant evolution 29 8q *(A) new structures have appeared by progressive modification of existing structures (B) the gametophyte generation has become dominant (C) only the most complex plants have survived (D) tracheids have been replaced by vessel elements in living plant groups The Coniferophyta 32 9q (A) have fruits called cones (B) were the first plant group to have vessel elements (C) are a sister group to the conifers *(D) have naked seeds Seeds of gymnosperms 33 10q (A) contain triploid endosperm *(B) consist of tissue layers from three generations (C) are destroyed in forest fires (D) evolved from the megasporangium 15 Conifers (A) produce ovules in strobili and pollen in cones (B) depend on liquid water for fertilization (C) have vessel elements *(D) have pollen tubes that release sperm 16 Which of the following statements is not true of angiosperm pollen *(A) It is the male gamete (B) It is haploid (C) It germinates on part of a carpel (D) It is formed in microsporangia 17 Magnolias are (A) Gynkophytes (B) Eudicots (C) Monocots *(D) None of the above 18 Maiden hair trees are (A) conifers (B) cycads (C) gnetophytes *(D) dioecious 19 Seeds (A) first appeared in the Cretaceous (B) first appeared in progymnosperms *(C) may contain tissues from three generations (D) have a seed coat formed from the carpel 20 In conifers and angiosperms *(A) three of the four megaspores formed from the megasporocyte degenerate (B) xylem consists of vessel elements and tracheids (C) carpels evolved from modified leaves (D) pollen germinates on contact with the stigma Plant structure and function (33) The plant shoot system consists of (A)* stems, leaves, and reproductive structures (B) stems, leaves and roots (C) lateral buds and the root cap (D) nodes and internodes (34) Eudicots and monocots are distinguished by (A) the presence of two cotyledons in the monocot seed, and one cotyledon in eudicot seeds (B) primary vascular bundles of the stem that are scattered in eudicots, but in a ring in monocots (C) net like leaf venation in monocots, and parallel venation in eudicots (D)* flower parts in multiples of three in monocots, and fours or fives in eudicots (35) The taproot system (A) is adapted to maximize water uptake in the surface layers of the soil (B) consists of large central root, with smaller side branches (C) is only found in monocots (D) is the only root system found in eudicots (36)q Taproots (A) sometimes sprout accessory roots, called adventitious roots under conditions of stress (B) grow exclusively in response to the presence of calcrete layers in the soil (C) form potatoes in the potato plant (D)* sometimes have a storage function (37) Fibrous roots (A) Are commonly used to make rattan mats (B) are never found in monocots (C)* are the primary root system in monocots, and are sometimes found in eudicots (D) are present exclusively in eudicots (38)q Buds on the plant stem (A) are found exclusively at internodes (B) are termed apical buds (C) are part of the cambial system (D)* are present as the “eyes” on potatoes (39) Examples of plant stems as storage organs do not include (A)* carrots (B) potatoes (C) the trunk of a saguaro (D) the rhizome of ginger (40) Which of the following is not a leaf, leaf part, or leaf derivative (A) petiole (B) tendril (C) cactus spine (D)* prickly pear disk (41)q Plant cells all (A) contain chloroplasts (B)* have cellulose containing cell walls (C) have both primary and secondary cell walls (D) have lignin to maintain flexibility (42) plasmodesmata (A) pass through holes in the secondary cell wall (B) contain ligin for strength (C)* connect the endoplasmic reticulum in adjacent cells (D) are not found in phloem (43)q pits (A) (B)* (C) (D) are not found in cells of the xylem are associated with holes in the secondary cell wall are never associated with plasmodesmata are holes in the primary cell wall (44) sclerenchyma cells (A)* (B) (C) (D) gain strength from lignin provide flexible support to the plant body are the main photosynthetic cells in plant leaves are waterproofed with suberin (45)q vessel elements (A)* form a major component of the xylem in angiosperms (B) form the phloem in flowering plants (C) obtain nutrition from companion cells (D) have a sieve plate at each end (46) phloem sap (A) consists of water and mineral nutrients (B)* passes through holes in sieve plates (C) consists of water and sugars only (D) is the cytoplasm of phloem cells (47) Dermal tissue (A)* is the outer covering of the plant (B) is the major photosynthetic tissue in plant leaves (C) if found on stems but not roots (D) is present in monocots, but not eudicots (48)q Plants grow by (A)* division of cells in specialized tissues called meristems (B) proliferation and subsequent differentiation of ground tissues (C) mitotic divisions of cambium in the apical and lateral buds (D) the differentiation of stem cells (49) Secondary growth refers to the (A) growth of new shoots from lateral buds (B) the sprouting of shoots from adventitious roots (C) any growth that occurs after production of fruit at the end of the season (D)* thickening of the vascular tissue by the vascular cambium (50)q Stomata (A)* are openings in the leaf cuticle and epidermis that allow gas exchange (B) are always closed at night because photosynthesis never occurs then (C) are a new innovation of the Tracheophyta (D) are the primary site of photosythesis in plant leaves (51) Which of the following best describes transport in plants? (A) water and dissolved minerals move from the soil through the xylem to all parts of the plant (B)* xylem transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves; phloem redistributes dissolved minerals and water together with carbohydrates along potential gradients (C) relying on root pressure, xylem transports water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves, and phloem redistributes dissolved minerals and water along with carbohydrates (D) a proton pump creates potential gradients permitting xylem to transport water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the stems, where it is redistributed by phloem to all parts of the plant (52)q Solute potential (A) normally has a positive sign inside plant cells (B)* has the same sign as pressure potential in the xylem of a tall plant (C) is maintained positive as a consequence of the proton pump (D) must be positive to oppose turgor pressure of plants cells and prevent cell collapse (53) Aquaporins (A)* are membrane channel proteins that allow water to move across cell membranes (B) are special transport proteins that work interactively with the proton pump to move mineral ions into cells (C) are necessary to allow electrically charged ions to move into cells (D) are the constituent proteins of the proton pump (54)q The proton pump (A) uses active transport to move protons into the cell (B) is a another name for the symport protein (C) drives flagellae that entrain chloride ions by advection into the cell interior (D)* is powered by ATP to move hydrogen ions from the cell interior to the other side of the plasma membrane (55) The symplast (A) is the continuous cytoplasm connected by plasmodesmata of xylem (B)* is a path for water and ions through the cytoplasm of living cells from root hairs to the apoplast of the stele in plant roots (C) is the contracted cytoplasm of phloem cells, allowing a central passage for the phloem sap (D) is the cell walls and intracellular spaces of plant roots (56)q Water is pulled up the xylem (A) by an osmotic gradient (B)* under tension (C) by dark energy (D) using the proton pump and hydroxyl pump working in concert (57) Stomata (A) are a unique feature of vascular plants (B)* normally open in the daytime, but may open at night in some desert plants (C) are only found on the top sides of leaves (D) have guard cells to trap CO2 and to allow water to evaporate (58)q Under the pressure flow model (A)* source cells load sucrose into phloem, reducing the water potential (B) internal pressure differences drive water from the phloem, into the xylem, leaving sugars behind (C) sucrose is moved from sink cells into the phloem (D) root pressure leads to emergence of water from stomata of leaves under high humidity plant nutrition and growth (59) The fundamental needs for plant growth are (A) Macronutrients such as nitrogen in mineral form, and micronutrients also in mineral form (B) proteins, nucleic acids, coenzymes and carbohydrates (C) macronutrients for all conditions, and micronutrients under conditions of environmental stress (D)* Light, water, CO2, and mineral nutrients (60)q Major macronutrients are (A) sulphur and zinc (B) nitrogen and copper (C)* nitrogen and phosphorus (D) potassium and nickel (61)q Decomposition of soil organic matter (A)* releases nitrogen in plant usable forms (B) requires Rhizobium bacteria to produce nitrate (C) cannot occur in the absence of water (D) occurs next to pockets of air in soil (62) The layered structure of soil (A) consists of four horizons, A consisting of bedrock, B rubble, C sand, and D where plant roots are found (B)* consists of three horizons, A from which mineral ions are leached, B the subsoil, and C the weathering parent rock (C) consists of three horizons, A containing organic matter plant roots and mineral ion accumulation, B decomposed rock, and C the parent rock (D) is essential to provide both structural support and nutrition to plants (63)q Clay in soil (A) facilitates uptake of water by plants due to its low water potential (B)* binds cations in the soil, which can then be taken up by plants (C) absorbs nitrate and ammonia, which is then used by plants (D) makes it difficult for plant roots to grow (64) Plants obtain nitrogen (A) directly from the atmosphere, where it is abundant (B) from the bacterium Nitrobacter found in root nodules (C)* in the form of ammonium ions and nitrate ions (D) from mineral fertilizers, but not organic fertilizers, which provide carbohydrates (65)q The bacterium Rhizobium (A)* is found in root nodules of legumes, where it feeds on carbohydrates provided by the plant (B) converts nitrite to nitrate in the soil (C) helps plants reduce ammonia to nitrate for efficient uptake (D) are found in the mychorrhizae in plant roots where they facilitate phosphorus uptake (66) Under the nitrogen cycle (A) decomposition of organic matter produces ammonia, which is toxic to plants, and must be converted to nitrate for uptake (B)* some ammonia is taken up by plants as ammonium ions, and some is converted to nitrate by soil bacteria (C) Rhizobium bacteria fix nitrogen as nitrate, which is converted to ammonium ions by soil bacteria, allowing its uptake by plants (D) Nitrogen is fixed in the soil by the bacterium Nitrobacter, and returned to the atmosphere when plants decompose Regulation of plant growth (67)1q Major stages in plant development are (A) sensing and responding to environmental cues (B)* (C) (D) breaking dormancy, germination, shoot and root development, flowering, fruiting, and senescing growth of new tissues from meristems located in buds and cambial tissue development of advanced vascular tissue by vascular plants (68) Seed germination (A)* requires breaking of dormancy (B) cannot occur in the dark (C) requires auxins to reduce oxygen tension by increasing permeability of the seed coat (D) cannot occur in seeds exposed to fire (69)2q Which of the following is not a mechanism of dormancy? (A) impermeable seed coat (B) tough seed coat (C) chemical inhibition (D)* low potassium content of the embryo (70) Germination begins (A)* with the uptake of water (B) on expansion of cells of the embryo (C) mobilization of reserves in the endosperm (D) with the secretion of auxins (71)3q In cereal grasses, gibberelins (A) cause the plant to bend away from light (B)* are secreted by the embryo in the process of germination (C) are important photoreceptive pigments (D) relieve nitrogen deficiency symptoms (72) Most plant hormones (A) have very specific effects on the development of the plant body (B) respond to light by activating photoreceptors (C)* often have multiple effects (D) function also as photoreceptive pigments (73)4q Auxins (A)* have roles in both phototropism and gravitropism (B) travel from cell to cell by passive diffusion (C) cause gravitropism but not phototropism (D) are moved in the phloem, and actively transported to adjacent cells by aquaporins (74) Plant hormones (A) are either auxins or gibberelins (B) are etiher phytochromes or cryptochromes (C) are lacking in gymnosperms (D)* include ethylene and abscisic acid (75)5q Photoreceptors (A) individually respond to the full range of photosynthetically active radiation that plants need (B) are special polysaccharide molecules for absorbing light (C)* have a role in seed germination in some plants (D) as a general rule distinguish between blue and red wavelengths of light (76) Pollen (A) (B)* (C) (D) is produced by meiosis from the microsporocyte is the microgametophyte of seed plants is found in gymnosperms, and angiosperms and leptosporangiate ferns consists of a single sperm cell, tube cell, and a tough protective covering (77)6q Under an S-allele incompatibility system, which stigma genotype would accept S3 pollen? (A) S3S3 (B) S1S3 (C) S2S3 (D)* S1S2 (78)q Synergids (A)* form part of the megagametophyte of angiosperms (B) unite with sperm cells to form a zygote (C are binucleate central cells of the microgametophyte (D) degenerate after the pollen tube is accepted by the stigma (79)7q The endosperm in angiosperms (A) is formed by tissue from the sporophyte (B) is the triploid product of two sperm cells and one egg cell (C)* develops inside the embryo sac (D) is absorbed by the cotyledon in monocots (80)q Which of the following most closely exemplifies the meaning of “semelparity”: (A) (B)* (C) (D) polycarpic perennials that flower many times century plants biennials that flower once each year of their lives Saguaros (81)8q Photoperiodic plants (A) time their flowering by the length of the day (B) flower in the day time (C) flower at night and are pollinated by bats or moths (D)* time their flowering by the length of the night (82) CO protein in Arabadopsis (A)* builds up at night allowing night length to be determined by its concentration at dawn and dusk (B) functions in its biological clock allowing the time of year to be determined independently of phytochrome (C) is a pigment molecular that absorbs blue light, allowing the night to be detected (D) is a pigment molecule that changes form under the action of red and far red light (82a)q Phytochrome response to red and far red light is (A)* switch like (B) quantitative where the response over 24 hours depends on the average light quality (C) deactivitated by CO (D) associated with germination but not flowering (83)10q The hypersensitive response in plants (A) leads to sealing off stomata to prevent pathogen attack (B) is an excessively severe reaction to an invading organism that can lead to wilting (C)* leads to the development of lesions isolating the microbial invasion (D) refers to extreme sensitivity of phytoalexins to certain bacterial and fungal infections scope for more quns here (84) q Which of the following best summarizes the effects of grazing on plants (A) Grazing removes plant biomass and therefore has a detrimental effect on plant growth (B) Although grazing removes biomass, it is also beneficial to plants as a form of pruning (C)* Grazing is beneficial to some plants because they have coevolved with it and do not develop the most efficient plant morphology in the absence of grazing (D) Grazing has led to the evolution of resistance of its effects through rapid growth genes, and tolerance by the release of defensive chemicals (84a)q Grazing (by insects) sometimes leads to (A) (B)* (C) (D) gene for gene resistance production of the hormone systemin PR protein production export of photosynthate to repair the damaged area (85)9q Which of the following is not an example of drought tolerance (A)* adopting an annual life cycle, and germinating only when rain occurs (B) development of a fibrous root system allowing rapid uptake of rain (C) losing leaves during drought (D) having high solute concentration in the leaves chapter above was pretty light on with questions (86)q Which of the following is not the province of ecology (A) Where organisms are found, how abundant they are, and how their populations change over time (B) How species interact with each other, and the consequences of these interactions for their distributions, abundances, variation over time, and evolution (C) The role of organisms in the energy and materials flows on Earth (D)* How evolution shapes behavior, physiology, and life-histories of domestic species (87)q Population dynamics refers to (A)* how population size changes over time (B) the dynamic habitats that support populations (C) the dynamic interactions among individuals within a population (D) the dynamic balance between immigration and emigration (88)q Per capita rates (A) are the quantities B, D, E, and I (B)* reflect the quality of the environment experienced by individuals (C) are proportional to population size (D) decrease with population size (89)q Exponential growth (A)* occurs when per capita birth rates and death rates do not change with time (B) occurs when per capita birth rates and death rates increase with time (C) occurs only when food is unlimited (D) is the same as density-dependent population growth (90)q The finite rate of increase (8) is equal 3, and the initial population size is 15 the population (A)* will be three times as large the next year (B) 45 in two years time (C) six times as large in two years (D) eight times as large in two years time (91)q If the finite rate of increase (8) takes the values 1, 2 and 0.5 in three successive years (A) the population will stay constant over time (B)* will not increase in the first year, and will return to its initial size at the end of the third year (C) will increase equivalent to a constant rate of 3.5/3 (D) the age structure of the population must have changed (92)q Exponential growth can be detected by plotting on a log scale revealing (A) an accelerating upward trend with time (B) a hump-shaped curve peaking at half carrying capacity (C)* a straight line against time (D) an s-shaped curve converging on carrying capacity (93)q Density-dependent population growth occurs when (A) 8 changes over time (B)* food consumption leads to food shortage (C) changes in age structure affect changes in the density of the population (D) Population density increases with time (94)q Density-dependent population growth in a real population means that the population may (A) stop changing after carrying capacity is reached (B)* fluctuate about carrying capacity (C) go extinct if its density gets too high (D) increase indefinitely (95) Mechanisms of density dependence do not include (A) competition (B) predation (C) cannibalism (D)* weather (96) Under logistic population growth (A) the population plots as a straight line against time on a log scale (B) (C) (D)* growth is negative for populations below carrying capacity growth is positive for populations above K the population at first increases exponentially from low density, but then slows (97)q In ecology, a community is (A) the same as the ecosystem (B) people who are concerned about the environment (C) the physical environment, plus all the organisms present on a defined area (D)* the organisms present in a defined area (98)q A guild is defined as (A)* a group of species with similar way of life (B) a community in which there are several groups of species having complementary ecology (C) the community plus the physical environment (D) a group of animals belonging to the same community with body sizes correlated to the sizes of preferred food items (99)q Darwin’s finches on Isla Pinta (A) have interspecific competition stronger than intraspecific competition (B)* have food size correlated with body size (C) do not compete because there is no overlap in resources used (D) provide an example of ecological succession (100)q British Mustelids form a competitive guild because (A)* they have similar ecology and compete for resources (B) they take prey of different sizes depending on their body size (C) they overlap in their use of resources (D) they have a graded series of body sizes (101)q Coral reef fishes often show highly variable recruitment over time (A) because predators fluctuate in abundance (B) due to variation in the availability of settling sites on reefs (C) with different species having similar patterns of recruitment (D)* with different species having different patterns of recruitment (102)q Desert annual plants fluctuate in abundance over time (A) because their rodent seed predators periodically die off due to epidemic disease (B)* due to environmental fluctuations coupled with weather sensitive germination (C) because pollution has caused N deposition (D) because of intense competition (103)q Which of the following best describes ecological succession? (A)* A change in community composition over time in which certain species tend to be present early in the process and other particular species tend to be present later (B) A directional change in community composition in which the best colonizer is present first, and the best competitor survives at the end (C) The process by which predators cause prey populations to fluctuate in a cyclic manner (D) The process by which predators cause prey populations to go extinct and be replaced by predator resistant species (104)q A factor in the displacement of one house gecko by another is (A) A value of D near zero (B) Electric light causing the original house gecko to hide in the shadows and miss out on food (C)* almost complete diet overlap (D) the cryptic coloration pattern of the invading house gecko that allows it to avoid notice by humans with electric light (105)q Competitive exclusion means that (A) one species has food resources that it uses exclusively (B) competition occurs exclusively between species with high resource overlap (C)* one species drives another extinct (D) the overlap measure D is equal to one (106)q Competitive coexistence requires that (A) competition between species is stronger than competition within species (B) the ratio of food harvesting rates is greater than 1 (C)* competititon within species is stronger than competition between species (D) the ratio of food harvesting rates is less than 1 (107)q The logistic population growth model (A) predicts exponential population growth against time (B) represents interspecific competition (C)* is a special case of the Lotka-Volterra model with only one species (D) predicts convergence a carry capacity at the value N = " (108) If "12/"22 = 0.5 (A) resource overlap must be low (B) the resource harvesting ability of species 2 is twice that of species 1 (C)* individuals of species 2 have twice the competitive effect on species 2 that they have on species 1. (D) the species coexist (109)q If D = 0.5 and k1/k2 = 1.5 (A) species 1 excludes species 2 (B) species 1 has a higher resource maintenance requirement than species 2 (C)* species 1 and 2 coexist (D) interspecific competition exceeds intraspecific competition (110)q For which of the following combinations of parameters will species coexistence occur? (A) D = 0.8 and k1/k2 = 1.5 (B) D = 0.75 and k1/k2 = 0.5 (C)* D = 0.25 and k1/k2 = 3 (D) D = 0.5 and k1/k2 = 0.25 (111)q In which of the following situations would you expect competitive exclusion of species 1 by species 2? (A) "12/"22 = 0.5, "11/"21 = 3 (B) D = 0.5; k1/k2 = 3 D = 0.9; k1/k2 = 1 (C) (D)* D = 0.25; k1/k2 = 0.2 (112)q Red fox, red squirrel and pine trees represent (A) A trophic cascade (B) key stone species (C)* species from three distinct trophic levels (D) a predatory guild (113)q Mussels on rocky shores of the Pacific Northwest (A)* are reduced in abundance by starfish (B) are competitively excluded by barnacles (C) are dominant in locations where wave action is strongest (D) are not affected by disturbance due to strong bissal threads (114)q Which of the following would not prevent competition from occurring between two species present in the same trophic level of a food web? (A) predators control population growth rates of these two species preventing them from responding to resources (B) the species do not share resources, and are active at different times of the day (C)* resource levels are not driven down by resource consumption (D) the species are plants growing on different soil types, and do not share pollinators (115)q Selective predation can enable species coexistence by (A) reducing the intensity of competition (B)* reducing the k value of a dominant species (C) reducing resource use overlap (D) recycling nutrients and so preventing nutrient competition (116)q The abundances of primary producers might be reduced by (A) nitrogen deposition (B) resource use overlap between herbivores (C) increased resource maintenance requirements among herbivores (D)* removal of carnivores from the ecosystem end of penultimate quiz (117)q Which of the following best describes the mechanism of predator-prey cycles? (A) Predators consume the sick and old prey in the fall, reducing competition between prey and allowing population recovery from reproduction in the spring (B) Predators cause prey extinction, followed by recolonization of prey from other habitat areas (C) Predators consume males in the late fall after mating, reducing competition between males and females, allowing prey recovery from births in the winter and spring (D)* Predators over exploit their prey, driving them to levels that cause predator density to drop low enough for prey recovery (118) Biological control is (A) the exploitation of one species by another in such a way that the species’ density comes to equilibrium (B)* the use of predators or other natural enemies to control pest species (C) the application of pesticides to control pest species (D) the exploitation of one species by another in such a way that the exploited species goes extinct (119)q An example of a mutualism is (A)* rhizobial bacteria infection of legumes (B) cattle egrets and Cape Buffalo (C) Robber bees and flowers (D) barnacles and starfish (120) The distribution of an organism within a geographic region (A) is not affected by dispersal because by definition, there are no dispersal barriers within geographic regions (B)* (C) (D) is affected by dispersal because some habitat patches are too small to sustain populations without connections to other patches is not affected by the physical environment, because by definition, the physical environment is homogeneous within geographic regions is not affected by interactions with other species because the physical environment determines where species are found, and interactions with other species determine population densities only (121)q In European intertidal barnacles (A) sea stars prevent the barnacle Chthamalus from excluding the barnacle Balanus (B) poor dispersal prevents Balanus from settling in the high intertidal (C)* interspecific competition has a major influence on the vertical distribution on the seashore (D) poor dispersal prevents Chthamalus from settling in the high intertidal (122) Dragonfly nymphs (A) are short-lived detritivores, with important functions in aquatic food webs (B) are not limited by dispersal because the flying adults oviposit in all ponds where suitable food sources are found (C)* are predators capable of limiting the successful breeding of frogs (D) have their distributions limited by competition with tadpoles (123)q The mammals of North and South America mostly owe their similarities and differences to (A) generally similar geography, but the absence of tropical areas in North America (B) generally similar geography, but the absence of large regions at high latitude in South America (C)* long isolation and recent connection in the last few million years (D) the inability of south American species, such as Llamas, tapirs, and peccaries, to cross southwest deserts, but free migration of many other species (124) Adaptive radiation (A)* has led to similar diversities of ecological roles to be filled in different biogeographic regions by groups of species with different evolutionary origins (B) is the process by which a species becomes adapted to the same ecological role as a different species in a different geographic region (C) is the process by which different diversities of ecological roles are filled in different biogeographic regions by groups of species with the same evolutionary origin (D) is the process by which a species becomes adapted to different ecological roles in different geographic regions (125)q New Guinea has similar fauna and flora to Australia because (A) (B) (C)* (D) New Guinea is very similar in climate to tropical Australia New Guinea is close enough to Australia for many species to swim across or be carried on vegetation rafts following landslides into the sea New Guinea is connected to Australia in glacial times Seafaring Polynesians brought many invasive species from New Guinea to tropical Australia (126)q Biomes are defined primarily by (A) shared evolutionary history of the component species (B)* vegetation type (C) climate and geology (D) biogeographic region and climate (127) Which of the following is not a biome (A) hot desert (B) boreal forest (C)* fynbos (D) tundra (128)q Species diversity (A)* has a generally positive relationship with area, and the slope of the relationship, on a log scale, is greater for isolated areas than for areas within the same continent (B) has a generally positive relationship with area, and the slope of the relationship, on a log scale, is flatter for isolated areas than for areas within the same continent (C) has no consistent relationship with area because climate differences between areas rule out the possibility of any strong relationship (D) of chaparral in California is greater than that in the fynbos of South Africa because Californian chaparral has a larger area (129)q As the result of human activities (A) speciation rates have declined (B) extinction rates for some taxa, such as Hawaiian birds, have increased, but are unchanged for most terrestrial taxa (C)* extinction rates greatly exceed speciation rates (D) habitat diversity has increased, and a consequence, speciation rates exceed extinction rates. (130)q The most immediate causes of species extinctions from recent human activities are (A) Climate change, introduction of invasive species and hunting (B)* Habitat loss, habitat degradation and loss of connections between habitat areas (C) Changing patterns of disturbance, fire and climate change (D) Invasive species, hunting, and pollution (131) 98.Which of the following remedies is least useful in the conservation of endangered species? a.* Captive breeding programs b. Preserving the remaining habitat c. Removing hazards such as hunting, chemical pollutants and invasive species that negatively impact the endangered species d. Maintaining foodweb structure and natural patterns of environmental variation such as fire (132)q Which of the following best describes the aims of reconciliation ecology? (A) Restoration of degraded habitat to near its original condition (B) Reconciliation of extractive industries with conservation (C) Modifying farming practices so that they permit wild species to live in agricultural landscapes (D)* Engineering of human dominated environments so that they also serve as habitat for wild species Some more questions, to see if you got the others 6.5 If the finite rate of increase (8) is equal 4, and the initial population size is 15 the population (A) 19 the next year (B) 60 in two years time (C) eight times as large in two years (D)* four times as large the next year If the finite rate of increase (8) takes the values 0.5, 2 and 1.5 in three successive years, the population will (A) equal 1.5 individuals per unit area at the end of third year (B) not change for the first two years, but then increase in the final year (C)* be 50% larger at the end of the third year (D) have changing age structure 6.7 Under exponential growth, population size will show (A)* an accelerating upward trend with time, for positive r, and a decelerating trend for negative r (B) a hump-shaped curve peaking at half carrying capacity (C) a straight line when plotted against time (D) an s-shaped curve converging on carrying capacity as time progresses 7.12 If "11/"21 = 0.5 Dk1/k2 = 0.5 (A) (B) (C) (D)* the resource harvesting ability of species 1 is half that of species 2 individuals of species 2 have twice the competitive effect on species 1 that species 1 has on itself. individuals of species 1 have half the competitive effect on species 1 that they have on species 2 7.14 a. b. c.* d. A: intraspecific competition stronger then interspecific competition; B: intraspecific competition equal to interspecific competition: and C: interspecific competition stronger than intraspecific competition A: "12/"22 >1; B: both "12/"22 and "21/"11 > 1; and C: "21/"11 > 1 A: exclusion of species 2 by species 1; B: coexistence; and C: exclusion of species 1 by species 2 A: exclusion of species 1 by species 2; B: coexistence; and C: exclusion of species 2 by species 1 7.15 The essential requirement of competitive coexistence is that (A) the species should not compete with each other two strongly (B)* a species has a stronger negative effect on its own population growth than it has on the population growth of other species (C) high overlap in resource use is compensated by a low resource dependence (D) predation should be heavier on the dominant species 7.7 A factor in the displacement of one house gecko by another is (A) a value of D greater than 1, and a k ratio near 1 (B) conspicuousness of the original house gecko under electric light (C) change in the type of insects present under electric light (D)* superior foraging ability of one species under electric light 7.8 The quantity D measures (A) similarity between species in their use of resources (B) the growth rate of resource species (C) the relative foraging ability of two species (D) the relative growth rates of two competing species 8.1 Mussels on rocky shores of the Pacific Northwest (A) coexist with barnacles in the absence of starfish (B) are competitively excluded by barnacles in the absence of starfish (C)* have a lower k value in the presence of starfish (D) have D less than 1 jointly with barnacles 9.5 Which of the following is a biome (A)* hot desert (B) Patagonia (C) Nearctic (D) fynbox 8.3 Which of the following best describes the possible effects of predation (A) prey species coexistence (B) prey species are excluded from an area (C)* A, B and D (D) prey resources increase in abundance 9.9 Which of the following best describes the aims of restoration ecology? (A)* Return of degraded habitat to near its original condition (B) Limiting the kinds of activities allowed for extractive industries (C) Modifying farming practices so that they permit wild species to live in agricultural landscapes (D) Engineering of human dominated environments so that they also serve as habitat for wild species 5.8 Aerenchyma is a special tissue whose role is (A) providing air space in leaves for gas exchange (B) provision of a light central structure in plants that do not have secondary thickening (C)* to facilitate supply of oxygen to cells in the stems of water lillies (D) to form the central pith in Eudicots 5.65 If species are not greatly resistant to grazing, they may a. release signaling molecules to elucit a response in cells that have not been attacked b. release signaling molecules to predators of the attacking herbivore c.* be tolerant of grazing d. wall off damaged areas with scar tissue ...
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This note was uploaded on 01/31/2009 for the course BIO 182 taught by Professor Chaux during the Spring '08 term at University of Arizona- Tucson.

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