PS4_Solution

PS4_Solution - PS4_Solution (1) Vps = $50; Dps = $3.80; F =...

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(1) V ps = $50; D ps = $3.80; F = 5%; r ps = ? r ps = ) F 1 ( V D ps ps - = ) 05 . 0 1 ( 50 $ 80 . 3 $ - = 50 . 47 $ 80 . 3 $ = 8%. (2) Enter these values: N = 60, PV = -515.16, PMT = 30, and FV = 1000, to get I = 6% = periodic rate. The nominal rate is 6%*(2) = 12%, and the after-tax component cost of debt is 12%(0.6) = 7.2%. (3) a. r s = 0 1 P D + g = 23 $ 14 . 2 $ + 7% = 9.3% + 7% = 16.3%. b. r s = r RF + (r M - r RF )b = 9% + (13% - 9%)1.6 = 9% + (4%)1.6 = 9% + 6.4% = 15.4%. c. r s = Bond rate + Risk premium = 12% + 4% = 16%. d. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach and the CAPM method both resulted in lower cost of equity values than the DCF method. The firm's cost of equity should be estimated to be about 15.9 percent, which is the average of the three methods. (4) a. $6.50 = $4.42(1+g) 5 (1+g) 5 = 6.50/4.42 = 1.471 (1+g) = 1.471 (1/5) = 1.080 g = 8%. Alternatively, with a financial calculator, input N = 5, PV = -4.42, PMT = 0, FV = 6.50, and then solve for I = 8.02% 8%.
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This homework help was uploaded on 04/18/2008 for the course FIN 332 taught by Professor Dasilva during the Spring '08 term at CSU Fullerton.

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PS4_Solution - PS4_Solution (1) Vps = $50; Dps = $3.80; F =...

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