c) Explain why the difference in the two definitions is really just a matter of "focus."
In other words, explain the relationship between a change in phenotype and the
gene pool/allele frequencies.
Phenotype is the morphological part to form. Since genotype is sometimes
directly associated with phenotype, a change in genotype will result in a change
in phenotype, or form. Vice versa, when there is a change in phenotype, that
means that there has been a change in genotype; also a change in the gene
2. What is the basic "message" of the Hardy-Weinberg Theorem?
(Don't memorize, explain it in your own words).
Random mating/meiosis/sexual reproduction does not change freq of alleles.
It tells us that as long as there is no migration and mutation, and there is natural
selection, a large population, random mating and the population is in equilibrium,
then the frequencies of the different genotypes in the population can be
3. What do population geneticists mean when they say that a population is in a
for the alleles of a particular gene (see overheads)?
example, say you had a population of mountain laurel bushes and, for a particular gene
in this laurel population, there were four alleles: q1, q2, q3, q4.
Say that the current
allele frequencies were 34%, 42%, 20% and 4% for q1, q2, q3, q4, respectively.
population is in "equilibrium" for these four alleles, what would that mean?
The allele frequencies will remain the same generation after generation.