IAS BABA D1 TO 28 M60 - SUR IAS ACEDAMY GUJARAT IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days[DAY 1 Q.1 Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of

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Unformatted text preview: SUR IAS ACEDAMY , GUJARAT IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of India and select the incorrect statement/s from the codes given below: 1. Constitution authorises the Parliament to alter the areas or boundaries of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union territory. 2. Constitution does not guarantee any state of its territorial integrity or continued existence 3. Constitution declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states can be passed by a simple majority Choose the appropriate code a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) None Q.1) Solution (d) Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union territory. In other words, Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process. Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.2) Which among the following are the features of Government of India Act of 1935? 1. It introduced responsible governments in provinces Page 1 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] 2. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India 3. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India 4. It provided for the establishment of Supreme Court, which was set up in 1937 Choose the correct code a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 1 and 3 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) Solution (b) GoI Act, 1935 introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. It was GoI Act, 1858 which created a new office, Secretary of State for India, who was vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country. GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of Federal Court (not Supreme Court), which was set up in 1937. It was Regulating Act of 1773 which provided for the establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.3) According to Dr B R Ambedkar, which among the following is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution? a) b) c) d) Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Rights Preamble Judicial Review Page 2 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.3) Solution (a) According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. Dr. Ambedkar said “The directive principles are like instruments of instructions which were issued to the Governor in General and Governors of colonies and to those of India by the British Government under the 1935 Act under the Draft Constitution. It is proposed to issue such instructions to the president and governors. The text of these instruments of the instructions shall be found in scheduled IV to the Constitution of India. What are called directive principles is that they are instructions to the Legislature and the Executive. Such a thing is, to my mind, to be welcomed.” The Directive Principles commit the State to promote the welfare of the people by affirming social, economic and political justice, as well as to fight economic inequality. Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.4) In which of the following points is the Indian Constitution similar to that of Canadian Constitution? 1. 2. 3. 4. Federation with a strong Centre Office of Governor Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre Choose the correct codes a) b) c) d) 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 All of the above Q.4) Solution (c) The following are the features borrowed by Indian Constitution from the Canadian Constitution Page 3 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] 1) Federation with a strong Centre 2) Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre 3) Appointment of state governors by the Centre (not Office of Governor) 4) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court Office of Governor was borrowed from Government of India Act of 1935 Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.5) Which one of the following Acts of British India established a system of double government? a) b) c) d) Government of India Act of 1919 Indian Councils Act of 1909 Government of India Act of 1935 Pitt’s India Act of 1784 Q.5) Solution (d) The Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India. Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.6) Consider the following statements with regard to States and Union Territories. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect? Page 4 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] 1. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’. 2. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. 3. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government. Choose the correct codes a) b) c) d) 1 only 3 only 2 and 3 only None Q.6) Solution (a) ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government. Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.7) In which case, the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles’? a) b) c) d) Kesavananda Bharati case Berubari case Golaknath case Minerva Mills case Page 5 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.7) Solution (d) It was in the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles’. Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.8) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system? a) b) c) d) Schedule Eight Schedule Nine Schedule Eleventh Schedule Twelfth Q.8) Solution (b) Ninth Schedule deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review. Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.9) Which one of the following Acts of British India introduced for the first time – bicameralism and direct elections in the country? a) Indian Council Act of 1892 Page 6 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] b) Government of India Act of 1919 c) Government of India Act of 1935 d) Indian Independence Act of 1947 Q.9) Solution (b) Government of India Act of 1919 which is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms introduced for the first time – bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election. Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.10) Match the following Type of Writ 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Certiorari 3. Mandamus 4. Quo-Warranto Meaning A. we command B. to be certified C. you may have the body D. what is your authority Select the correct code a) b) c) d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A Page 7 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.10) Solution (c) Types of Writs There are five types of writs in the Indian Constitution - Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, QuoWarranto, Mandamus and Prohibition. 1. Writ of Habeas Corpus This writ literally means ‘you may have the body’. This writ is issued to produce a person physically before the court who has been imprisoned or detained by the law and to set him free if there is no legal justification of his detention. 2. Writ of Certiorari – This writ literally means 'to be certified’. This writ is issued by the higher court to the lower court for quashing the order already passed by the lower court or removing a suit from the lower court to higher court for speedy disposal. 3. Writ of Quo- Warranto – This writ literally means ‘by what warrants?’ or ‘what is your authority’. It is a writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Court with a view to restrain a person or authority from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person or authority to explain to the Court by what authority he/it holds the office. 4. Writ of Mandamus – This writ literally means ‘we command’. It is a a judicial writ issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court as a command to an interior court or tribunal or a person to perform a public or statutory duty. 5. Writ of Prohibition – Page 8 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] This writ is popularly known as ‘Stay Order’. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to stop proceeding in a case on the ground of over-stepping of jurisdiction or absence of jurisdiction. It is issued before the judgement or order is made in such cases. Source: Refer Chapter 3 and Chapter 7: Salient Features of the Constitution and Fundamental Rights, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.11) Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting ‘Portfolio’ or departmental system for corporate functioning? a) b) c) d) Indian Council Act, 1861 Government of India Act, 1858 Indian Council Act, 1892 Indian Council Act, 1909 Q.11) Solution (a) Indian Council Act, 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s). Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.12) Consider the following statements with regard to the Constitution 1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth but not on the ground of residence. Page 9 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] 2. The Constitution of India has introduced the system of single citizenship and provided uniform rights for the people of India to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian nation. Which among the above statements is/are true? a) b) c) d) 1 only 2only Both 1 and 2 Nether 1 nor 2 Q.12) Solution (c) The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. The Constitution of India, like that of Canada, has introduced the system of single citizenship and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) for the people of India to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian nation. Despite this, India has been witnessing the communal riots, class conflicts, caste wars, linguistic clashes and ethnic disputes. Thus, the cherished goal of the founding fathers and the Constitution-makers to build an united and integrated Indian nation has not been fully realized. Source: Refer Chapter 6: Citizenship, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.13) The detailed provisions regarding acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship are contained in the Citizenship Act which was passed by a) b) c) d) The Indian Parliament in 1955 The Indian Parliament in 1950 The British Parliament in August 1948 The Constituent Assembly in 1949 Page 10 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.13) Solution (a) The Constitution empowered the Parliament to enact a law to provide for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been amended in 1986, 1992, 2003 and 2005. Source: Refer Chapter 6: Citizenship, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth Q.14) Consider the statements regarding loss of citizenship: 1. If a person voluntarily renounces Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses his citizenship. 2. When a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. 3. The citizenship is terminated if the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war. Which of the above statements are correct? a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.14) Solution (d) If a person voluntarily renounces Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses his citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian citizenship. Page 11 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Refer Laxmikanth ‘Loss of citizenship’ Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions of Citizenship: 1. The Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship. 2. Detailed provisions of acquisition and loss of citizenship are mentioned in the Constitution. 3. Any law made regarding citizenship is considered as a Constitutional Amendment. Which of the above statements are incorrect? a) b) c) d) 1 only 2 and 3 3 only None of the above Q.15) Solution (b) The constitution neither contains any permanent nor elaborate provisions regarding citizenship. It empowers the parliament to enact a law to deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship. Laws made by the parliament regarding citizenship are not considered as Constitutional amendment. Q.16) Which of the statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India cardholder are correct? 1. They get a multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa for visiting India. 2. They get parity with NRIs in respect of economic, financial and education fields except acquisition of agricultural lands. Page 12 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] 3. They are required to register with local police authorities once their stay in India exceeds 180 days for the first time. Select the correct code from the following: a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.16) Solution (a) OCIs don’t need to get registered with local police station. Q.17) Consider the following statements with respect to Asiatic Lion 1. The Gir Forest, in Gujarat, is the last natural range wild Asiatic lions. 2. It is critically endangered as per IUCN red list Select the correct answer a) b) c) d) 1 only 2 only Both None Q.17) Solution (a) It is endangered as per IUCN red list Click here Q.18) India successfully test-fires advanced interceptor missile from Abdul kalam Island. Page 13 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Select the correct option with respect to Abdul kalam Island. a) b) c) d) It is the new name of Sri Hari Kota located in Andhra Pradesh. It is located in French Guinea It is an island located off Odisha coast. It is located in Andaman and Nicobar islands. Q.18) Solution (c) Click here Abdul Kalam Island, formerly known as Wheeler Island, is an island off the coast of Odisha, India, approximately 150 kilometres (93 mi) from the state capital Bhubaneswar. The Integrated Test Range maintaining a missile testing facility is located in the island. Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to “Porpoises” 1. 2. 3. 4. Porpoises are group of Marine amphibians Vaquita marina is the world’s smallest porpoise They are critically endangered They are endemic to Gulf of California and Mexico Select the correct option a) b) c) d) 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1,2,3 and 4 only Q.19) Solution (b) Porpoises are a group of fully aquatic marine mammals. Click here Page 14 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.20) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary accounted for a large number of fatalities over the past six months. Chinnar Wild life sanctuary is located in which of the following state/UT of India a) b) c) d) Karnataka Tamil Nadu Puducherry Kerala Q.20) Solution (d) Click here Q.21) Consider the following statements about the Fiscal Policy. 1. Fiscal policy is the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy 2. The most immediate effect of fiscal policy is to change the aggregate demand for goods and services. 3. Fiscal policy is said to be loose or expansionary when revenue is higher than spending. Which of the above statements are correct? a) b) c) d) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All Q.21) Solution (a) Fiscal policy is said to be tight or contractionary when revenue is higher than spending (i.e., the government budget is in surplus). Click here Page 15 IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1] Q.22) The High Court of Rajasthan has declared the practice of ‘Santhara’ as illegal. Which of the statements correctly explains Santhara? a) b) c) d) It is a ritual of sacrificing Bulls in front of Goddess Kali in local annual festival. It is a Jain custom of voluntary death by performing fast until death. It is the name given to the performance of Child marriage in Rajasthan. It is a practice of honour killing of a couple if a girl and a boy of same village gets married to each other. Q.22) Solution (b) Santhara is a Jain custom of embracing voluntary death – it involves practitioners taking an oath to stop eating until they die of starvation. According to Jains, this is a way to purge oneself of bad ‘karma’ and attain ‘moksha’. Every year a question comes from indigenous ancient religions. Since Santhara was in news it becomes important. A related question on Jainism can be asked like- which famou...
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