Fall 2006 Exam 3

Fall 2006 Exam 3 - Exam 3 V: AWE Kakezi FALL 2006 FORM 01...

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Unformatted text preview: Exam 3 V: AWE Kakezi FALL 2006 FORM 01 BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 The exam consists of 70 multiple-choice questions, plus 10 bonus questions. Each question is worth two points. BE SURE TO DO THE FOLLOWING: - Use a Number 2 pencil for marking your answers and be sure to completely erase if you change an answer. - Check to see that you have put your name, SU lD, and section number on the machine-scored answer sheet and "bubble in" before you hand it in. - in the area "Additional Coded Data" you should include your recitation section number in 2 digits (e.g., 09) in columns A and B. » 0 This is form 01. Code in "01" in columns C and D of "Additional Coded Data." Be sure to do this now or your test scoring will be delayed. - Answer each question by filling in the appropriate space on your machine-scored answer sheet. Choose the BEST answer to each question. There is only QM; BEST answer for each question. - At the end of the exam, hand in your machine-scored answer sheet to your own TA or the person designated for your section. You may keep the question booklet. - Answer keys will be thrown out of the second floor window of Lyman Hall at 7:00 pm. THERE ARE MULTIPLE FORMS OF THIS EXAM 1. Formation of an ester bond thatjoins one fatty acid to a site on a glycerol molecule involves: A) addition of an NH2 group B) removal of a water molecule C) removal of three water molecules D) addition of a water molecule E) removal of an ester bond 2. Which of the following is the molecular formula for a carbohydrate? A) CZHGO B) CH5N C) CStHQSOG D) C’ISH33016 E) C230232HAB‘I6(3872N78088Fe4 3. How many amino acids are present in the structural formula shown here? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 0 CH3 H H \CH CH é cn H CH CH éOOH ““ 2““ — "l‘l—“CHg—C 2—— g— g-j / I | 4 . . l CH3 NHz H ' NHZ BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 4. in transcription, a strand of DNA with the base sequence AATCGTT will result in a strand of messenger RNA with the base sequence: A) UUAGCAA B) AATCGTT C) TTAGCAA D) TTUGCUU E) AAUCGUU 5. [The role of messenger RNA in protein synthesis is to: A) carry transfer RNA to ribosomes B) carry amino acids to ribosomes C) carry genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes D) stimulate RNA to self—replicate E) synthesize amino acids that are linked together on ribosomes 6. Which of the following is considered to be mtg? A) formation of a peptide bond involves a reaction between the COOH group of one amino acid and the COOH group of another amino acid B) all proteins have a quaternary structure C) the double helix is part of the secondary structure of proteins D) all enzymes are proteins E) all proteins contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen 7. in the diagram of paper chromatography below, what is the Rf value for substance #1? — ‘_ solvent front A) 2.0 5cm B) 10.0 C) 5.0 D) 8.0 <— #1 E) 0.5 5cm sample applied — PT“ 8. Sanger’s classical analysis of the structure of the insulin molecule involved: A) combining insulin with glucose molecules B) labeling the peptide bonds with DNFB C) using autoradiography and x—ray analysis D) hydrolysis and identifying the N-terminal amino acid E) synthesizing insulin one amino acid at a time on ribosomes 9. Sickle cell anemia is caused by: A) changing the pH within a red blood cell B) adding a heme group to hemoglobin C) substituting valine for glutamic acid in hemoglobin D) a change in six codons in DNA E) adding alanine, leucine and glycine to hemoglobin 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. BlOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 Which of the following is considered to be true? A) ribonuclease is a structural protein in muscle B) enzymes have low turnover numbers C) some RNA molecules are catalytic D) all human enzymes work best at a pH of 7.0 - E) hemoglobin and myoglobin both contain zinc atoms Which of the following is considered to be Egg? A) vitamins serve as co—enzymes that enable enzymes to function effectively B) enzymes raise the amount of activation energy needed to start chemical reactions C) enzymes influence the direction in which reversible chemical reactions go D) lipase will only work on one specific fat E) enzymes are generally smaller than their substrate Koshland’s “induced fit” theory of enzyme action maintains that: A) enzymes have several active sites that interact with each other B) enzymes induce changes in the shape of their substrate C) the substrate influences the geometric shape of the active site D) competitive inhibition may be decreased by decreasing the concentration of the normal substrate E) the tertiary structure of an enzyme can withstand freezing in lab you did an analysis of the enzyme catalase‘ This involved measuring a product of the breakdown of: A) myoglobin B) fibrous proteins C) hydrogen peroxide D) a tripeptide E) hemoglobin Gel electrophoresis separates molecules according to: A) color and water content D) solubility of molecules in a B) shape and weight solvent C) electrical charge and size E) electrical charge and enzymatic properties Which of the following was formed in Stanley Miller’s classical experiment concerning the origin of life? A) proteinoid microspheres B) simple amino acids C) coacervates D) methane and carbon dioxide E) ATP and carbohydrates Breaking a peptide bond between two amino acids involves: A) removal of water D) removal of NH2 B) addition of water E) addition of ribonuclease C) addition of NH2 Stromatolites are: A) proteinoids that contain peptide bonds B) heterotrophic coacervates C) deposits of fossilized prokaryotes D) volcanic rocks near hydrothermal vents E) fossilized eukaryotic autotrophs BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 18. Which of the following is considered to be M? A) the earliest heterotrophs on earth obtained energy through aerobic respiration B) organic molecules with an asymmetric carbon lack optical activity C) oxygen (02) was absent from the atmosphere when life first formed on earth D) formation of coacervate droplets is not related to pH E) ribozymes are RNA molecules that contain thymine 19. A starting ingredient in Stanley Miller’s classical experiment on the origin of life was: A) oxygen (02) C) ethyl alcohol E) glucose B) carbon dioxide D) methane 20. A similarity between anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration is that a product of both processes is: A) ammonia C) glucose E) oxygen (02) B) ethyl alcohol D) carbon dioxide 21. Which of the following occurs during telophase of mitosis in animal cells? A) a cell plate forms B) a spindle forms C) crossing—over occurs D) a cleavage furrow forms E) the nuclear membrane disappears 22. Which of the following is considered to be tr_ue_a? A) living organisms use only levorotatory amino acids B) living organisms use only a racemic mixture of organic substances C) a compound with an asymmetric carbon cannot rotate polarized light D) neobiogenesis claims that life formed only once on the earth E) a racemic mixture only rotates polarized light to the left 23. A similarity between mitosis in animal cells and mitosis in higher plant cells is that in both processes: A) sister chromatids move apart during metaphase B) kinetochores are needed for proper movement of sister chromatids to opposite sides of the cell C) a cell plate forms during metaphase D) nucleoli divide during anaphase and new nucleoli move to opposite sides of the cell E) sister chromatids of a chromosome are genetically different 24. The stage in the life cycle of a cell that occurs immediater after the G1 phase is: A) prophase C) Gg E) spindle B) metaphase D) DNA replication formation 25. The result of cyclin and kinase combining is: A) absence of spindle formation B) contact inhibition C) mitotic division D) loss of kinetochores E) inhibition of DNA replication BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 26. One difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis is that in oogenesis: A) crossing over does not occur B) all gametes are genetically different C) a spindle forms D) three polar bodies form E) four equal-sized eggs form 27. Many different symptoms can identify cancer. The American Cancer Society designates seven warning signals as being most important. Which of the following is one of these major warning signals for cancer? A) change in a wart or mole B) a sudden pain in the chest C) insomnia D) high blood pressure E) nausea and vomiting 28. Suppose a primary spermatocyte has a diploid number of six chromosomes. Which of the following diagrams represents the chromosomal composition of the secondary spermatocyte? A) 29. How many tetrads will form in a primary oocyte with a diploid number of 10 chromosomes? A) 10 C) 15 E) 20 B) 5 D) 25 30. The effect of the normal P53 gene is to: A) stimulate cell division B) inhibit cell division C) cause proto-oncogenes to degenerate D) stimulate production of cyclin E) pump sodium out of cells 31. Of the following, which occurs latest in frog development? A) blastocoel D) yolk plug B) archenteron E) 32-cell stage C) grey crescent 32. Of the following, which occurs earliest in chick development? A) coelom D) ectoderm B) neural groove 4 E) blastocyst C) primitive streak, 33. How many mature sperm will result from meiotic divisions of 4 primary spermatocytes? A) 4 C) 12 E) 24 B) 8 D) 16 BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 34. A usual feature of a person with Klinefelter’s syndrome is: A) short limbs D) sterility B) violent behavior E) deep base voice C) superior intelligence 35. According to the Lyon hypothesis, a person whose cells have XX should contain: . A) two active X chromosomes and no Barr bodies B) four Barr bodies C) two active X chromosomes and two Barr bodies D) one active X chromosome and one Barr body E) two active X chromosomes and one Barr body 36. An event that occurs during prophase of mitosis is: A) DNA unwinds D) cleavage furrow forms B) nucleolus disappears E) centromeres disappear C) nuclear membrane forms 37. The feature in frog development that corresponds to the primitive streak in chick development is the: A) grey crescent D) chordamesoderm B) blastocoel E) blastopore C) archenterons 38. Study the events in frog development listed below and chose the answer that places the items in order from earliest to latest: 1. formation of archenteron 2. neural plate 3. blastocoel 4. yolk plug 5. brain 39. In frog development, the archenteron replaces the: A) blastocoel D) grey crescent B) blastopore E) chordamesoderm C) coelom 40. A difference between frog development and human development is that in human development: A) a cloaca is formed D) endoderm is formed B) an allantois is formed E) a coelom is formed C) a bastodisc is formed 41. A feature found in starfish fl frog and chick _a_n_c_l human development is the: A) amnion C) umbilical cord E) chorion B) blastodisc D) endoderm BIOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 42. A difference between the transmission electron microscope and the scanning electron microscope is that with the scanning electron microscope: A) resolving power is less B) specimens can be viewed in color C) less preparation of the specimen is needed D) a vacuum is needed E) electromagnets are needed Thenext tyyg questions refer to the karyotype shown below: 43. The karyotype represents: 1 I A) a normal female 2‘ B) a normal male _ C) Klinefeiter’s syndrome 2 3 5 l 4 D) Down’ssyndrome 3 E) Turner’s syndrome 6 - 12 x 44. Which of the following is a characteristic a,“ m“, 5 a I‘ its in feature of the person with this karyotype? 13 __ 15 '6 _ 18 A) male—like B) webbing of the neck C) superior intelligence 19 20 21 22 D) fertile E) tall limbs " ‘1 A8 A: 45. What is the approximate length of the line shown here? A) 15,000 nanometers B) 20,000 micrometers C) 0.005 Angstrom D) 30 millimeters E) 0.3 centimeters 46. The presence of three #21 chromosomes is the cause of: A) Turner’s syndrome D) Triplo—X syndrome B) Down’s syndrome E) Nivram Regurd syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome The next two questions refer to the diagram here: 47. The structure labeled X is the: A) primitive streak B) endoderm ) chonon ) amnion ) ectoderm 48. The structure labeled Y is the: ' A) archenteron B) yolk sac D) chorion C) allantois g E) placenta BIOLOGY 121 — EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 49. in human development, the trophoblast fuses with the uterine wall to form the: A) chorion C) allantois E) yolk sac B) morula D) placenta 50. In human development, the inner cell mass develops into the: A) human embryo C) allantois E) bladder B) yolk sac D) umbilical cord 51. What are the most conspicuous birth defects caused by thalidomide? A) rubella D) deafness B) achondroplasia E) mental impairment C) deformed limbs 52. Which of the following is n_ot a method for detecting abnormalities in the unborn fetus? A) ultrasonography B) amniocentesis C) hydrocephalization D) chorionic villi biopsy E) all of the above are methods for fetal defects The next tw_o questions refer to the diagram of the stage in frog development shown here: 53. The stage of development shown here is the: A) blastula B) gastrula C) morula D) neurula E) primitive streak 4’ r / X 54. If tissue indicated as X is explanted, it will form: A) heart tissue B) epidermis C) neural tissue D) mesoderm E) muscle tissue 55. The stage of cell division shown here is: A) metaphase of mitosis B) anaphase of mitosis C) telophase l meiosis D) telophase ll of meiosis E) metaphase I of meiosis 56. Which of the following is considered to be trLe? A) Down’s syndrome is found only in females B) older mothers have greater risk of having a Down’s syndrome child C) mental development is not affected by Down’s syndrome ,D) Down’s syndrome due to non—disjunction is inherited E) a person with Down’s syndrome has 48 chromosomes per cell BlOLOGY 121 - EXAM 3 TUESDAY, DECEMBER 12, 2006 57. The rate of beat of the contractile vacuole will be decreased in the amoeba by: A) deactivating the trichocysts B) pinching the cellulose cell wall C) transferring the amoeba from a hypotonic to a hypertonic solution D) transferring the amoeba from a hypertonic to a hypotonic solution E) transferring the amoeba from a warm to a cold solution 58. Of the following wavelengths, which will give the best resolving power in an optical system? A) red C) green E) blue B) yellow D) orange 59. DNA is found in: A) centrioles D) plasmodesmata B) ribosomes E) lysosomes C) mitochondria 60. Which of the following is a feature ofggth plant and animal cells? A) Golgi complex D) flagellae B) thylakoids E) plasmodesmata C) cellulose cell wall 61. The glycosidic bond that links together two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide is an atom of: A) nitrogen D) phosphorous B) sulfur E) oxygen (02) C) carbon 62. Powerful digestive enzymes are stored in: A) basal bodies D) ribosomes B) cristae E) lysosomes C) nucleoli 63. The Singer—Nicolson model of the cell membrane indicates that the membrane basically consists of: A) four layers enclosing two layers of different proteins B) different proteins embedded in two layers of lipids C) different proteins embedded in fours layers of lipids D) two layers of different proteins enclosing three layers of lipids E) two layers of protein enclosing one layer of lipids 64. Isotopes of the same element have: A) the same number of neutrons D) the same physical properties B) the same chemical properties E) the same atomic mass C) a different number of protons 65. A statement that is considered to be w about DDT is: A) DDT accumulates in bone tissue B) DDT has been banned worldwide C) DDT enhances reproduction in birds and fish D) DDT persists in the environment E) DDT kills only insects that are considered pests 10 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. Which of the following is considered to be Egg? A) land fossils are more abundant than fossils in ocean sediments B) each sexually-reproducing organism is unique C) Charles Darwin correctly knew how heredity worked D) prokaryotes and eukaryotes both have a nuclear membrane E) Charles Darwin and Mendel lived at different times in history The function of the fertilization membrane is to: A) attract sperm cells to the egg B) activate the sperm that reaches the egg C) block the entry of additional sperm into the egg D) inhibit mitotic cleavage of the egg E) assure that only sperm of the same species will fertilize the egg Non—disjunction of X chromosomes in the first meiotic division of oogenesis results in an egg containing: A) XYY B) XXX C) XY D) XX E) X Storage of excretory wastes in the developing chick is a function of the: A) allantois C) blastocoel B) yolk sac D) archenteron» E) blastdisc Chorionic villus biopsy enables doctors to: A) cure Down’s syndrome B) make the fetus immune to polio C) inhibit mitosis in the developing embryo D) detect abnormalities in the unborn child E) clone organisms Which of the following occurs earliest in human development? A) blastocoel B) morula C) primitive streak D) blastocyst E) placenta Suppose you switch from using the 40X objective lens to using the 4X objective lens when viewing a specimen under the compound microscope. Which of the following occurs as a result of switching lenses? A) the wavelength being used is increased B) more of the specimen becomes visible C) the amount of light in the field decreases D) the parfocal feature of the microscope is disrupted E) the image becomes inverted The time in the cell’s life cycle when most protein synthesis occurs» is: A) metaphase C) telophase E) anaphase B) prophase D) interphase 11 74. The half-life of strontium—90 is 28 days. Suppose a specimen contains 1/4 the initial amount. How many days old is the specimen? A) 7 C) 56 E) 84 B) 112 D) 16 75. Which of the following is an incorrect match? A) myxomatosis - rabbit disease caused by a virus B) contractile vacuole in paramecium — regulation of water balance C) pheromone - sex attractant D) proglottid - reproductive structures in tapeworm E) Mullerian mimicry — tasty species evolve to look like distasteful ones Textbook Questions 76. Which of the following is considered to be falfi? A) molecular chaperones help proteins fold B) the amino acid sequence of a protein determines its conformation C) each domain of a protein may have different functions D) hemoglobin has a quaternary structure E) there are about 50 amino acids that make up proteins in our body 77. The “rungs” of the DNA ladder-type structure are composed of: A) five-carbon sugar linked to phosphate B) purine base linked to pyrimidine base C) purine base linked to purine base D) pyrimidine base linked to pyrimidine base E) six—carbon sugar linked to pyrimidine base 78. The endosymbiotic theory maintains that: A) eukaryotic cells evolved before prokaryotic cells B) mitochondria and chloroplasts lack DNA C) aerobes evolved before anaerobes D) mitochondria evolved from aerobic bacteria E) chloroplasts lack DNA and could not evolve by symbiosis 79. The Cenozoic era is known as the Age of: A) Mammals D) Reptiles B) Amphibians E) Invertebrates C) Fishes 80. Apoptosis refers to: A) rapid cleavage divisions of the frog fertilized egg B) regeneration of brain cells in mammals C) programmed death of certain cells during development D) rapid development of limbs in mammalian development E) conversion of stem cells into neurons 12 Bio 121 Exam 3 Answer Key FALL 2006 FORM 01 IIIIIJIIIIIQHIIJIIII El II E- E- mm , "‘ V I" A v," E - cl: '1'! Lu , W I l- . m g3|? IV «- - - C 10/23/07 ...
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This note was uploaded on 05/11/2008 for the course BIO 123 taught by Professor Druger during the Spring '08 term at Syracuse.

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Fall 2006 Exam 3 - Exam 3 V: AWE Kakezi FALL 2006 FORM 01...

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