sample exam 2 - Immunobiology Bio 3312/5310 Exam 2 Name:...

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Unformatted text preview: Immunobiology Bio 3312/5310 Exam 2 Name: SS#: 1. When IL-2 is secreted by antigen-specific T cells activated due to presentation of antigen by APCs, what happens to naive antigen-nonspecific T cells in the vicinity? E a) They proliferate due to their exposure to IL-2. b) They often undergo apoptosis. c) They begin to express IL-2 receptors. d) They secrete cytokines associated with their T H phenotype. e) Nothing happens. 2. Which of the following is incorrect concerning immune tolerance? a) Tolerance induction is antigen—specific. b) Tolerance results from inactivation and/or elimination of B and/or T cells. (D c) Tolerance can be induced in both young and old individuals. d) Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature neutrophils. e) The breakdown of tolerance can result in autoimmunity. 3. A region within lymph nodes and the spleen where B-cell activation, proliferation, and differentiation occurs? a) Lumen. E b) RER. c) TAP. :1) Bone marrow. e) Germinal center. 4. Occurs when the combined action of two different cytokines is greater than the sum of their actions alone? a) Autocrine. % b) Synergism. c) Endocrine. d) Lymphokine. e) Panacrine. 5. The following activate(s) the alternative pathway of complement? a) lipopolysaccharides. E b) some viruses and virus-infected cells. c) fungal and yeast cell walls (zymosin). d) many strains of gram-positive bacteria. e) all of the above. P509. 1 6. Which of the following is incorrect concerning the processing of an antigen, such as a bacterial protein, in the acid compartments of the cell? a) It results in production of potentially immunogenic peptides that associate with MHC class II molecules. ‘ D b) Predominantly exogenous antigens are processed by this pathway. c) It may lead to activation of CD4+ T cells. d) It may lead to the activation of CD8+ T cells. e) Bacterially derived peptides displace a fragment of the invariant chain from the MHC class II binding groove. 7. The role of the antigen-presenting cell in the immune response is all of the following except? a) the limited catabolism of polypeptide antigens. b) to allow selective association of MHC gene products and peptides. (D c) to supply second signals required to fully activate T cells. d) to present non-self peptides associated with MHC class II molecules to B cells. e) to present peptide-MHC complexes to T cells with the appropriate receptor. 8. Which of the following is incorrect regarding mature T cells that use 043 as their antigen-specific receptor? a) They coexpress CD3 on the cell surface. b) They may be either CD4 + or CD8 +~ c) They interact with peptides derived fi'om nonself antigens. d) They can further rearrange their TCR genes to express 16 as their receptor. e) They circulate through blood and lymph and migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. 9. Referring to regulatory secretions such as hormones or cytokines that pass from producer cell to target cell by the blood stream? a) Autocrine. FD b) Chemokine. c) Lymphokine. d) Endocrine. e) Synergism. 10. A proliferating germinal center B cell found in the dark zone? a) Centromere. b) Centrosorne. c) Blastomere. d) Centroblast. e) Phagosome. P4: 04:. 7 11. The development of self-tolerance in the T—cell compartment is important for the prevention of autoimmunity, Which of the following results in T-cell self-tolerance? a) allelic exclusion. b) somatic hyperrnutation. c) thymocyte proliferation. d) positive selection. e) negative selection . 12. T cells, like B cells, undergo receptor editing during development. (3‘ a) True b) False 13. Which of the following statements regarding the functional properties of cytokines is false? a) They typically have pleiotropic properties. b) They often exhibit functional redundancy. C c) They often display antigen specificity. d) They exhibit synergistic or antagonistic properties. e) They assist in the regulation and development of immune effector cells. 14. Amino acid sequence in the intracellular portion of signal-transducing cell—surface molecules that interacts with and activates intracellular kinases alter ligand binding by the surface molecule? ( a) TAM-l. b) 11,-2. c) lmmunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM). d) IL—4. e) FAS-L. 15. Products of TAP-1 and -2 genes? a) bind BZ-microglobulin. “D b) prevent peptide binding to MHC molecules. c) are part of the proteasome. d) transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I. e) transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class II. 16. Complement is required for? a) lysis of erythrocytes by lecithinase. b) NK—mediated lysis of tumor cells. c) phagocytosis. d) bacteriolysis by specific antibodies. c) All of the above. Pam: '4 17. IL-1, IL-6, and TNF—oc are proinflammatory cytokines that are known to? a) cause increased vascular permeability. b) act in concert with chemokines to promote migration of inflammatory cells to sites of infection. a c) initiate acute-phase responses. d) have endogenous pyrogen properties. c) All of the above 18. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Interaction of Fas and FasL can lead to apoptosis. b) Both Fas and Fas L can be expressed on activated T cells. ( c) Both Fas and Fas L can be expressed on B cells. d) Cells in immunologically privileged sites can express FasL. c) Fas-—FasL-mediated apoptosis prevents uncontrolled T-cell clone growth. 19. Infection with vaccinia virus results in the priming of virus-specific CD8+ T cells. If these vaccinia Virus-specific CD8”r T cells are subsequently removed from the individual, which of the following cells will they kill in vitro? D a) vaccinia—infected cells expressing MHC class II molecules from any individual. b) influenza-infected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual, c) uninfected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual. (I) vaccinia-infected cells expressing the same MHC class I molecules as the individual. e) vaccinia-infected cells expressing the same MHC class H molecules as the individual. 20. Complex comprising a membrane-bound immuniglobulin molecule and two associated sugnal- transducing Ig—alpha/lg-beta molecules? a) The T cell receptor. /% b) The B cell receptor. c) FAS. d) FAS-L e) None of the above is correct 21. Which of the following statements about the activation of CD4 + cells is incorrect? a) Binding of peptide + MHC to the TCR results in rapid phosphorylation of tyrosine residues in proteins associated with the TCR. C b) Intracellular calcium levels rise rapidly following activation. c) Only peptide bound in the groove of MHC class II activates the CD4 + T cells. d) Interaction of B7 and CD28 stabilizes IL-2 mRNA so effective lL-2 translation occurs. e) The activated cell synthesizes IL-2 and a receptor for IL-2. 22. The alternative pathway of complement activation is characterized by the functions listed below, except? a) activation of complement components beyond C3 in the cascade. PD b) participation of properdin. c) generation of anaphylatoxin. d) use of Cl. e) None of the above is correct. Pam: d. 23. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the immune response to antigens? :1) Reactivity is influenced by extremes of age. b) Greater immune responses are produced when antigen is given with adj uvant. c) Impaired nutrition depresses immunity. 1!) The presence of preexisting antibody does not affect the subsequent response to antigen. e) Different protein antigens stimulate different levels of antibody production. ‘D 24. Which of the following statements‘is correct? a) The TCR (xii chains transduce a signal into a T cell. b) A cell depleted of its CD4 molecule would be unable to recognize antigen, c) T cells with fully rearranged (1B chains are not found in the thymus. d) T cells expressing the 76 receptor are found only in the thymus. e) Immature CD4+ CD8+ T cells form the majority of T cells in the thymus. Z 25. An individual does not make an immune response to a self-protein because? a) self-proteins cannot be processed into peptides. b) peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class I. c) peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class 11. d) lymphocytes that express a receptor reactive to a self-protein are inactivated by deletion or anergy. e) developing lymphocytes cannot rearrange V genes required to produce a receptor for self- proteins. D 26. WET cells are part of innate immunity. a) True b) False (E: 27. A patient is admitted with multiple bacterial infections and is found to have a complete absence of C3. Which complement-mediated function would remain intact in such a patient? a) lysis of bacteria. b) opsonization of bacteria. c) generation of anaphylatoxins. d) generation of neutrophil chemotactic factors. e) None of the above. E 28. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning anti gen-specific receptors on both E and T cells? a) They are clonally distributed transmembrane molecules. b) They have extensive cytoplasmic domains that interact with intracellular molecules. c) They consist of polypeptides with variable and constant regions. d) They are associated with signal transduction molecules at the cell surface. e) They can interact with peptides derived from nonself antigens. “:15 Pace 5 29. Antigen binding to the Bee“ receptor? a) transduces a signal through the antigen-binding chains. b) invariably leads to B-cell activation. ( c) transduces a signal through the Igor and IgB molecules. d) results in macrophage activation e) leads to cytokine synthesis, which activates T cells. 30. CD4 and CD8 bind the constant domains of MHC Class H and Class I, respectively. a) True i; b) False 31. Which of the following statements about interleukin 2 (IL-2) is incorrect? a) It is produced primarily by activated macrophages b) It is produced by CD4+ T cells. c) It can induce the proliferation of CD4+ T cells. d) It binds to a specific receptor on CD4+ T cells. e) It can activate CD8+ T cells in the presence of antigen. 32. The term "MHC restriction" refers to the? in) ability of MHC genes to regulate TCR rearrangement. b) inheritance of MHC antigens. \ ) c) problems associated with allografi rejection. d) requirement for antigen to be recognized in association with MHC molecules. e) requirement for MHC molecules in order to reject grafts. 33. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning TCR and 1g genes? 2) In both B- and T-cell precursors, multiple V-, D-, 1-, and C-region genes exist in an unrearranged configuration. 0 b) Rearrangement of both TCR and Ig genes involves specific recombinase enzymes that bind to specific regions of the genome. c) Both Ig and TCR are able to switch C-region usage. d) Both Ig and TCR exhibit allelic exclusion. e) Both lg and the TCR use combinatorial association of V, D, and J genes and junctional imprecision to generate diversity. 34. A cell with extensive dendritic extensions that is found in the follicles of lymph nodes? :1) B cell. b) Follicular dendritic cells. c) T cell. d) Centrocyte. e) Plasmablast P909. 6 35. Regulatory secretions, such as cytokines, that arrive by diffusion from a nearby cellular source? a) Chemokine. b) Autocrine. R c) Endocrine; d) Lymphokine. e) Paracrine. 36. The earliest stages of B—cell differentiation? a) occur in the embryonic thymus b) require the presence of antigen; 8 c) involve rearrangement of K—chain gene segments. d) involve rearrangement of surrogate light-chain gene segments. e) involve rearrangement of heavy-chain gene segments. 37. A condition in which the cell acted upon by a cytokine is the source of the cytokine? a) Chemokine. D b) Lymphokine. c) Panacrine. d) Autocrine. e) Synergism. 38. CD3 serves the same function for TCR as 1g» and 1g Bdo for BCR, a) True b) False 39. Helper T cell CD4 binding to the Class II MHC presenting antigen improves antigen-TCR Kg binding affinity. a) True b) False 40. A physiological state in which cells are unable to be activated by antigen? 2) Synergism. b) Autocrine. ( c) Clonal anergy. d) Endocrine. e) Apoptosis. 41. Which of the following screening tests would be most useful for confirming a presumptive diagnosis of a congenital absence of a complement component? a) quantitation of serum opsonic activity. (3 b) quantitation of serum hemolytic activity c) quantitation of C3 content of serum. d) quantitation of C1 content of serum e) electrophoretic analysis of patient's serum. Pam: 7 P: 42. Immature B lymphocytes? 3) produce only a chains. b) are progenitors of T as well as B lymphocytes. c) express both lgM and IgD on their surface. d) are at a stage of development where contact with antigen may lead to unresponsiveness. e) must go through the thymus to mature. 43. Which of the following is incorrect concerning MHC class II molecules? a) B cells may express different MHC class H molecules on their surface. b) MHC class II molecules are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum of many cell types. c) Genetically different individuals express different MHC class H alleles. d) MHC class II molecules are associated with BZ-microglobulin on the cell surface. e) A peptide that does not bind to an MHC class II molecule will not trigger a CD4+ T cell response. 44. Which of the following statements concerning T-cell development is correct? a) Progenitor T cells that enter the thymus from the bone marrow have already rearranged their T cell receptor genes. b) Interaction with thymic non-lymphoid cells is critical. c) Maturation in the thymus requires the presence of foreign antigen. d) MHC class II molecules are not involved in positive selection. e) Mature, fully differentiated T cells are found in the cortex of the thymus. 45. The induction of death in lymphocytes bearing receptors that react too strongly with self antigens? a) Negative selection. b) Positive selection. c) Apoptosis. d) Memory cell. e) Plasmablast. 46. Additional signal that is required to induce proliferation of anti gen-primed T cells? a) Co-stimulatory signal. b) Autocrine. c) Endocrine. d) Paracrine. e) Lymphokine. 47. CD8+ T cells are positively and negatively selected by their ability to bind Class I MHC. a) True b) False Pace R 48. CD40 Ligand (CD154) is expressed by which of the following? a) B cells. 1)) dendritic cells. lch) resting T cells. d) activated T cells. e) all leukocytes. 49. Which of the following is expressed on the surface of the mature B lymphocyte? :1) CD40. b) MHC class II molecules. E c) CD32. d) IgM and IgD. c) All of the above. so. Superantigens cause a burst of cytokine production by T cells due to their ability to? a) crosslink the VB segments of T cell receptors with class H MHC molecules on APCs. P? b) crosslink the Vet segments of T cell receptors with class II MHC molecules on APCs. c) crosslink T cell receptors and CD4. d) crosslink multiple cytokine receptors on a large population of T cells. It) crosslink CD4. Page 9 ...
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This note was uploaded on 09/26/2008 for the course BIOL 3312 taught by Professor Roner during the Spring '08 term at UT Arlington.

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sample exam 2 - Immunobiology Bio 3312/5310 Exam 2 Name:...

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