Exam 3 Key - BIOL 111-532-544 Instructor Dr...

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Unformatted text preview: BIOL 111-532-544 Instructor: Dr. Rizzo (Name) (U.I.N.) Exam III Form B (Wednesday, November 14) INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Sign your name in the space marked “SIGNATURE” at the bottom of this page. NOTE: Enter your name and U.I.N. at the top of this page Because these forms are computer graded, it is extremely important that the following information is correct. Please check your responses. Print your last name, first and middle initials in the appropriate boxes on the scantron. Darken the corresponding spaces under your name. Enter your UIN - Universal Identification Number in the space for Social Security Number on the scantron. Darkeu the corresponding spaces under your U.I.N. Sign the scantron. Bubble and write in under test form on your scantron the letter B. If your scantron does not match your exam, you may receive a failing grade. Please check that you have 40 questions. ALWAYS CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER. B An Aggie dOes not lie, cheat or steal, or tolerate those who do. On my honor, as an Aggie, I have neither given nor received unauthorized aid on this academic work. Your Signature © 2007 Texas A&M University Biology Department. Unauthorized use of this material is a violation of federal law. Dr. Rizzo Fall 2007 Exam III, Form B Read all choices carefully, and choose the BEST answer. All questions are from B111 lecture and should be answered as such. Finally, the correct interpretation of a question is considered as part of choosing the correct answer . 1 Which of the following divide by ”binary fission'? (A) bacterial DNA (B) mitochondrial DNA (C) chloroplast DNA (D) both A and B above (E) A, B and C above 2 In the mitotic division of an animal cell, during which stage does the nuclear envelope first appear to be fragmented? (A) G2 of interphase (B) prophase (C) prometaphase (D) metaphase (E) anaphase 3 During anaphase of mitosis, kinetochore microtubules were shown to : (A) shorten at the spindle pole ends (B) shorten at the kinetochore ends (C) lengthen at the spindle pole ends (D) lengthen at the kinetochore ends (E) both A and B above 4 In the hypothetical sequence for the evolution of mitosis, which of the following organisms have an intact nuclear envelope during mitosis? (A) prokaryotes (B) most eukaryotes (C) dinoflagellates (D) diatoms (E)both C and D above 5 Which of the following statements were provenWby cell fusion experiments, in which cells in different stages of mitosis were fused? (A) DNA synthesis cannot be induced to occur earlier than expected (B) chromosomes cannot be induced to condense earlier than expected (C) there are molecular signals in the cytoplasm that regulate the cell cycle (D) there are molecular signals is the nucleus that regulate the cell cycle (E) both A and B above 6 Which of the following phases of the cell cycle does not have a "checkpoint"? (A) G1 (B) S (C) G2 (D) M (E) they all have checkpoints 7 In regard to the fluctuation of MPF activity and cyclin concentration during the cell cycle, how does the amount of Cdk vary during the various stages of the cell cycle? (A) It peaks during M—phase (B) it is at it’s lowest amount during MLphase (C) it is at it's lowest amount during Gl-phase (D) it's amount remains constant during the cell cycle (E) it peaks during G24phase 8 Give the total number of chromosomes per body cell, for a diploid organism whose gametes contain three chromosomes? (A) three (B) six (C) two (D) 16 (E) 12 9 In regard to the overview of meiosis, and the discussion of how meiosis reduces the chromosome number, which of the following results from the separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I? (A) haploid cells with replicated chromosomes (B) diploid cells with replicated chromosomes (C) haploid cells with unreplicated chromosomes (D) diploid cells with unreplicated chromosomes (E) tetraploid cells with replicated chromosomes 10 which of the following best describes crossing over? (A) homologous chromosomes pair and sister chromatids exchange segments (B) nonhomologous chromosomes pair and nonsister chromatids exchange segments (C) homologous chromosomes pair and nonsister chromatids exchange segments (D) homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate (E) homologous chromosomes switch positions relative to the metaphase plate 1 During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur? (A) prophase l I B) anaphase II (C) prophase II (D) anaphase II metaphase II 12 During which stage of meiosis do sister chromatids separate? (A) prophase I (B) prophase II (C) anaphase I (D) anaphase II (E) both C and D above 13 What is the proper genetic term for “the site of crossing over"? (A) tetrad (B) recombinant (C) synapsis (D) homologue (E) chiasma 14 In a typical "testcross" using flower color in peas, what would the ratio be in the F1 offspring if the dominant phenotype to be tested was heterozygous? (A) all purple (B) all white (C) half purple and half white (D) three purple to one white (E) one purple to three white 15 Which of the following represents the phenotypic ratio (for seed color and seed shape) of the F2 generation cross of two P generation pea plants (YYRR X yyrr), as discussed in class (complete dominance and independent assortment)? (A) all yellow/round (B) half yellow/round, half green/wrinkled (C) all green/wrinkled (D) 9/16 yellow/round: 7/16 green/wrinkled (E) 9/16 yellow/round: 3/16 green/round: 3/16 yellow/wrinkled: 1/16 green/wrinkled 16 Now consider the genetic cross of two black dihybrid mice, each heterozygous for two genes that assort independently, as discussed in class for the example of "epistasis" (Bch X Bch). What is the phenotype of the F2 generation resulting from this cross? (A) all black (B) three black/one brown (C) nine black/three brown/4 white (D) nine brown/six black/one white (E) nine black/six brown/one white 17 Why is blood group "O" referred to as the "universal donor" in regard to blood transfusions? (A) individuals in this blood group have no alleles at the blood group locus (B) individuals in this blood group do not make antibodies to blood group antigens (C) individuals in this blood group have no blood group antigens on the red blood cell surface (D) individuals in this blood group have both antigens on the red blood cell surface (E) individuals in this blood group have only one of the two antigens on the red blood cell surface 18 How many possible genotypes are there for the ABO blood groups? (A) one (B) two (C) four (D) six (E) eight 19 Which of the following does the ABO blood group exemplify? (A) multiple alleles (B) codominance (C) pleiotropy (D) epistasis (E) both A and B above 20 What is the proper genetic term for alternate versions of a given gene? (A) alleles (B) locus (C) hemizygous (D) codominance (E) pleiotropy 21 What is the phenotype of the F2 generation offspring of a cross between a homozygous pea plant with purple flowers and a homozygous pea plant with White flowers? (A) one purple to one white (B) two purple to one White (C) three purple to one white (D) all purple (B) one purple to two light purple to one white 22 What is the phenotype of the F2 generation offspring of a cross between a homozygous snapdragon with red flowers and a homozygous snapdragon with white flowers? (A) one red to one white (B) two red to one white (C) three red to one white (D) all pink (E) one red to two pink to one white 23 Which of the following is the proper genetic term for a situation where yoou get an additive effect of two or more genes on one character? (A) epistasis (B) polygenic inheritance (C) pleiotropy (D) cumulotrophy (E) additive inheritance 24 Which of the following offers a genetic explanation for the "tortiseshell cat"? (A) multiple alleles (B) incomplete dominance (C) sex- linked genes (D) epistasis (E) X chromosome inactivation 25 In our class discussion, what did mean by stating that two genes are "linked"? (A)the genes are on the same chromosome (B) the genes are alleles at the same locus (C) the genes are not at the same locus on the chromosome (D) the genes are on different chromosomes (E) the genes are genetically identical 26 In our class discussion what did we mean by stating that two genes are ”sex—linked"? (A) the genes are on the same chromosome (B) the genes are on different chromosomes (C) the genes are on sex chromosomes (D) the locus for an allele is missing on one of the homologous sex chromosomes (E) the genes are masked by the sex of the individual 27 Which of the following is seen if nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II? (A) all.of the gametes are normal (B) all of the gametes are abnormal (C) the gametes are half normal and half abnormal (D) one of the gametes is abnormal and three are normal (B) one of the gametes is normal and three are abnormal 28 What is the proper term for an alteration of chromosome structure in which a segment from one chromosome is moved to another nonhomologous one? (A)deletion (B) duplication (C) inversion (D) translocation (E) nondisjunction 29 Choose from the following, the correct statement in regard to proper base-pairing in a double—stranded DNA molecule. (A) A/T with two hydrogen bonds (B) G/C with three hydrogen bonds (C) A/C with two hydrogen bonds (D) A/C with three hydrogen bonds (E) both A and B above 30 Choose from the following "word—pairs", the one that best describes the DNA double helix. (A) parallel strands/conservative replication (B) antiparallel strands/conservative replication (C) antiparallel strands/semiconservative replication (D) parallel strands/dispersive replication (E) antiparallel strands/dispersive replication 31 What is meant by the term semiconservative in regard to DNA replication? (A) the parental double helix remains intact and a second, all~ new copy is made (B) each strand of both daughter molecules contains a mixture of old and newly synthesized parts (C) only half of the DNA molecule length is replicated (D) the two strands of the parental molecule separate, and each functions as a template for synthesis of a new complimentary strand (E) only one of the two DNA strands is replicated 32 One strand of a DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence, ATCG. What is the corresponding nucleotide sequence of the other strand of the double helix? (A) TUGC (B) CGTA (C) TAGC (D) UAGC (E) CGAT 33 How many "origins of replication" are present on a eukaryctiC- chromosome, in regard to DNA replication? (A) one (B) two (C) none (D) many (E) three 34 What is the direction of DNA synthesis in a "bubble" during DNA replication? (A) from left to right (B) from right to left (C) to the left of the origin of replication (D) to the right of the origin of replication (E) both C and D above 35 0f the various types of cell communication discussed in class, which of the following was used as an example of “local signaling"? (A) paracrine signaling (B) synaptic signaling (C) gap junctions (D) endocrine signaling (E) both A and B above 36 In the case of steroid hormone action, where in the cell is the receptor located, before it binds the steroid? (A) plasma membrane (B) cytoplasm (C) nuclear membrane (D) RER (E) chromatin 37 In the case of G-protein—linked receptors, where in the cell is the ‘receptor located, before it binds the hormone? (A) plasma membrane (B) cytoplasm (C) nuclear membrane (D) RER (E) nuclear DNA 38 Which of the following destroys cyclic AMP, thus inactivating it as a second messenger? (A) protein kinase (B) protein phosphatase (C) cyclic AMPase (D) phosphorylase (E) phosphodiesterase 39 From the discussion of CAMP as a second messenger in a G—protein— signaling pathway, which of the following does CAMP activate? (A) receptor (B) G-protein (C) protein kinase (D) adenylyl cyclase (E) phosphorylase kinase 40 In regard to the stimulation of glycogen breakdown by epinephrine, which of the following enzymes actually cleaves the glucose monomers from glycogen? (A) protein kinase (B) adenylyl cyclase (C) phosphorylase kinase (D) glycogen phosphorylase (E) glycogen cleavease E4220 553+ E) KEY , FORM B \om-qauinc-mmg-I WWUU’OHWOM I ...
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