Exam 2 - BIOL 111-532-544 Instructor: Dr. Rizzo (Name)...

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Unformatted text preview: BIOL 111-532-544 Instructor: Dr. Rizzo (Name) (U.I.N.) Exam II Form A (Wednesday, October 17) INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Sign your name in the space marked “SIGNATURE” at the bottom of this page. NOTE: Enter your name and U.I.N. at the top of this page Because these forms are computer graded, it is extremely important that the following information is correct. Please check your responses. Print your last name, first and middle initials in the appropriate boxes on the scantron. Darken the corresponding spaces under your name. Enter your UIN — Universal Identification Number in the space for Social Security Number on the scantron. Darken the corresponding spaces under your U.I.N. Sign the scantron. Bubble and write in under test form on your scantron the letter A. If your scantron does not match your exam, you may receive a failing grade. Please check that you have 40 questions. ALWAYS CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER. A An Aggie does not lie, cheat or steal, or tolerate those who do. On my honor, as an Aggie, I have neither given nor received unauthorized aid on this academic work. Your Signature © 2007 Texas A&M University Biology Department. Unauthorized use of this material is a violation of federal law. Introductory Biology, B1 1 1 Fall 2007, Dr. Rizzo Exam IIA Read all choices carefully, and choose the BEST answer. All questions are from Bill lecture and should be answered as such. Finally, correct interpretation of the question is considered as part of choosing an answer. 1 In regard to the fluidity of membranes, which of the following would tend to make the membrane more viscous? (A) increase the amount of phospholipids in the membrane (B) increase the amount of double bonds in the phospholipids (C) increase the amount of saturation in the phospholipids (D) increase the amount of cholesterol in the membrane (E) both A and B above 2 In regard to protein mobility in membranes, which of the following methods were used in the experiment which proved that proteins are mobile? (A) cell fusion (B) fluorescence microscopy (C) antigen/antibody reactions (D) electron microscopy (E) A, B and C above 3 What happens to a plant cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution? (A) it becomes turgid (B) it becomes plasmolyzed (C) it becomes shriveled (D) it becomes flaccid (E) both A and B above 4 Which of the following is the correct definition of osmosis? (A) facilitated diffusion of water across a membrane (B) facilitated diffusion of a solute across a membrane (C) facilitated diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane (D) diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane (B) diffusion of water across a membrane 5 Which of the following were discussed in class as examples of passive transport? (A) diffusion through the lipid bilayer (B) diffusion through a channel protein (C) diffusion through a carrier protein (D) both B and C above (E) A, B and C above 6 Which of the following is the correct definition of cotransport? (A) active transport driven by a concentration gradient (B) diffusion of two solutes across a membrane (C) facilitated diffusion against a concentration gradient (D) facilitated diffusion of two solutes across a membrane (E) active transport of a solute in either direction across a membrane 7 Choose from the following, any statements that do not occur during a spontaneous change. (A) the free energy of the system increases (B) the system becomes more stable (C) the released free energy can be harnessed to do work (D) both A and B above (E) A, B and C above 8 Which of the following best describes the free energy during an exergonic reaction? (A) free energy is required (B) free energy is released (C) free energy does not change (D) free energy is not involved in exergonic reactions (E) free energy is first required and then released 9 The chemical reaction : glutamic acid + ammonia = glutamine, is not spontaneous, and requires energy input. How can we get this reaction to proceed, as discussed in class? (A) increase the temperature (B) decrease the temperature (C) increase the amount of glutamic acid (D) increase the amount of ammonia (E) couple the reaction with an ATP hydrolysis reaction 10_For the discussion of the energy profile of an exergonic reaction, how was the “energy of activation” defined? (A) the difference of free energy between the reactants and the products (B) the difference in free energy between the transition state and the products (C) the difference in free energy between the reactants and the transition state (D) the total amount of energy in the reactants (E) the total amount of energy in the products 11 What is the effect of an enzyme on the reaction rate of an exergonic reaction? (A) the energy of activation is increased (B) the energy of activation is decreased (C) the delta G is increased (D) the delta G is decreased (E) the progress of the reaction is shortened 12 How does the pH of a solution affect the rate of an enzymatic reaction? (A) the reaction rate always increases as the pH increases (B) the reaction rate always increases as the pH decreases (C) the pH changes the substrate concentration (D) the pH changes the conformation of the active site on the enzyme (E) the pH changes the conformation of the substrate 13 How does a competitive inhibitor inhibit enzyme activity? (A) by binding to the active site on the enzyme (B) by binding to the substrate (C) by binding to a site away from the active site of the enzyme (D) by allosteric interactions (E) by cooperativity 14 What is the difference between allosteric activators and cooperativity, in regard to stabilizing the active form of a tetrameric enzyme? (A) allosteric activators bind to a site other than the active site of the enzyme, while the substrate binds to the active site in cooperativity (B) allosteric activators bind to the active site of the enzyme, while different allosteric activators bind to the active site in cooperativity (C) allosteric activators work at low pH, while cooperativity works at high pH (D) both A and B above (E) A, B and C above 15 Which of the following is the correct definition of feedback inhibition? (A) each of the intermediate products of a biochemical pathway inhibit the first enzyme in the pathway (B) the final product of a biochemical pathway inhibits all of the enzymes in the pathway (C) the final product of a biochemical pathway inhibits the first enzyme in the pathway by binding to an allosteric site (D) the first product of a biochemical pathway inhibits the last enzyme in the pathway (E) the final product of a biochemical pathway inhibits the first enzyme in the pathway by binding to the active site 16 How many ATP per glucose are made by substrate-level phosphorylation, in cellular respiration? (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four (E) 34 17 Where in the cell does glycolysis occur? A) cytoplasm (B) cytosol (C) mitochondria (D) mitochondrial matrix (E) inner mitochondrial membrane 18 Where in the cell does the citric acid cycle occur? A) cytoplasm (B) cytosol (C) mitochondria (D) mitochondrial matrix (B) inner mitochondrial membrane 19 Which of the following compounds are produced by the citric acid cycle? (A) NADH (B) FADH2 (C) ATP (D) both A and B above (E) A, B and C above. 20 What is the endproduct of glycolysis? (A) glucose (B) pyruvate (C) acetate (D) acetyl CoA (E) NADH 21 In the multi—enzyme complex called ATP synthase, which part contains the catalytic sites that join inorganic phosphate to ADP to make ATP? (A) rotor (B) stator =(C) rod (D) knob (B) base 22 Which component of ATP synthase is caused to rotate when H+ flows past it down the H+ gradient? (A) rotor (B) stator (C) rod (D) knob (E) base 23 Which of the following components of oxidative phosphorylation is responsible for creating the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane? (A) ATP synthase (B) electron transport chain (C) NADH (D) cytochrome c (E) FADH2 24 Which of the following best represents the amount of ATP made per glucose, for the oxidative phosphorylation part of cellular respiration? (A) two (B) four (C) 34 (D) 40 (E) 20 25 Which of the following are products of fermentation? (A) ethanol (B) methanol (C) lactic acid (D) both A and B above (E) both A and C above 26 In the catabolism of various molecules derivedfrom food, breakdown products of fatty acids enter at which: of the following points? (A) glycolysis (B) acetyl CoA (C) citric acid cycle (D) both A and B above (E) A, B and C above 27 What is the proper term for the structure that allows for gas exchange in a plant - leaf? (A) mesophyll cell (B) stomata (C) vein (D) cuticle (E) plasmodesma 28 Which of the following is produced in the light reactions of photosynthesis, and is used to drive the Calvin cycle? (A) NADPH (B) ATP (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+ (E) both A and B above 29 Which of the electromagnetic spectrum components listed below has the shortest wavelength? (A) gamma rays (B) X—rays (C) UV (D) microwaves (E) visible light 30 Which of the following becomes reduced in the overall process of photosynthesis? (A) water (B) oxygen (C) carbon dioxide (D) glucose (E) methane 31 In regard to the discussion of chlorophyll fluorescence, what is the characteristic of the fluorescence photon, as compared to the original photon? (A) same wavelength and energy content (B) higher energy/shorter wavelength (C) higher energy/ longer wavelength (D) lower energy/ shorter wavelength (E) lower energy/longer wavelength 32 In regard to how a photosystem harvests light, which of the following components contains the two “special” chlorophyll molecules as discussed in class? (A) primary electron acceptor (B) reaction center (C) light—harvesting complex (D) special electron acceptor (E) photosynthetic harvester system 33 In regard to noncyclic electron flow during the light reactions of photosynthesis, what is the source of electrons for photosystem II? (ie, if A passes electrons to B, then A is the source of electrons for B). (A) water (B) plastoquinone (pq) (C) cytochrome complex (D) plastocyanin (pc) (E) NADP reductase 34 From the same diagram, what is the final electron acceptor? (A) water (B) photosystem I (C) cytochrome complex (D) NADP+ (E) NADP reductase 35 In regard to cyclic electron flow, which of the following is produced in lesser amounts than in noncyclic electron flow? (A) ATP (B) ADP (C) oxygen (D) NADPH (E) NADH 36 In the comparison of chemiosmosis in mitochondria and chloroplasts, what is the chloroplast component that is analogous to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion (where H+ accumulate)? (A) matrix (B) stroma (C) thylakoid space (D) ATP synthase (E) thylakoid membrane 37 In the Calvin cycle, what is referred to as the “C02 (carbon dioxide) acceptor”? (A) Rubisco (B) 3-phosphoglycerate (C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) (D) glucose (E) ribulose bisphOSphate (RuBP) 38 Also in the Calvin cycle, what is considered to be the first product of carbon fixation? (A) glucose (B) 3-phosphoglycerate (C) 1,3-bisphophoglycerate (D) glyceraldehyde-3 -phosphate (E) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) 39 How many ATP are used in the Calvin cycle to get one molecule of glucose? (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 18 (E) 30 40 Which of the following Calvin cycle components functions to regenerate the C02 acceptor, and also leaves the cycle to form glucose and other organic compounds? (A) carbon dioxide (B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP (C) glyceraldehyde-3 -phosphate (G3P) (D) 3—phosphoglycerate iz-w Jr A KEY, Form A I-C 2-E 3-B 4-D S-E 6—A 7-A 8—B 9-E lO-C 1 l-B 12-D 13-A 14-A 1 5-C 16-D 1 7-3 1 8-D 1 9—E 20-B 2 1—D 22—A 23—B 24-C 25-E 26-B 27-B 28-E 29-A 30-C 3 1-13 32-B 33-A 34-D 35-A 36-C 37-E 3 8-B 39~D 40-C ...
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Exam 2 - BIOL 111-532-544 Instructor: Dr. Rizzo (Name)...

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