ISSA-Corrective-Exercise-Specialist-Certification-Course-Quizzes.pdf

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Unformatted text preview: Corrective Exercise Course Quizzes Take it easy. Take it online! Skip the hassle of photocopies, staples, and registered mail. Take your quizzes at ​ISSAtrainer.com​. Not only will you save on a trip to the post office, you’ll get immediate feedback! Contents Quiz One: Introduction — Unit 2 Quiz Two: Units 3 — Unit 4 Quiz Three: Unit 5 Quiz Four: Unit 6 Quiz Five: Unit 7 Quiz Six: Unit 8 — Unit 9 Quiz Seven: Unit 10 — Unit 11 Quiz Eight: Unit 12 Quiz Nine: Unit 13 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes Course Requirements: • Submission of all course quizzes • A score of 75% or better on all sections of the final examination • Proof of current Adult CPR/AED/First Aid • All fees paid in full Directions for submitting your Corrective Exercise course quizzes and accessing your final examination Complete your quizzes online at ​ISSAtrainer.com​. There are nine quizzes to help you proceed through your studies. Though you must submit all of your quizzes as part of your course completion requirements, your quiz scores will not factor into your final score. You may complete the quizzes at your own pace, but you must submit the quizzes in order. You may submit any number of quizzes at a time (a single quiz or a group of quizzes). Once you have submitted all unit quizzes, you will be able to access your final examination. If you prefer to submit your quizzes by mail, make a copy of your completed answer sheet(s) for your records and mail to: ISSA | Attn: Quiz Processing | 1015 Mark Avenue | Carpinteria, CA 93013 sce_cq_170601 Page 2 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes Quiz One: ​Introduction – Unit 2 Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section. Or, take it easy! Take it online for immediate feedback. 1. How many bones are in the human body? A) 287 B) 147 C) 206 D) 306 2. The ribcage is part of which skeleton? A) Trunk skeleton B) Axial skeleton C) Appendicular skeleton D) Both B and C 3. How many vertebrae within the vertebral (spinal) column can move independently? A) 24 B) 27 C) 33 D) 31 4. Movement between two adjacent vertebrae is made possible by what? A) Facet joints B) Vertebral discs C) Spinous processes D) Transverse processes 5. Wolff’s Law describes what? A) The way bones break under pressure B) The way bones can grow or shrink C) The way bones can lengthen D) The way bones remain unchanged 6. New bone material is formed by what? A) Osteoclasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoblasts D) None of the above 7. The strong connective tissue on the bottom of each foot is the: A) Plantaris B) Plantar aponeurosis C) Plantar fasciitis D) Achilles tendon 8. During the lowering phase of a biceps curl, the elbow flexors are performing which type of muscle action? A) Eccentric action B) Concentric action C) Isometric action D) Force-coupling 9. According to Thomas Myers, how many categories of fascial lines are in the human body? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 5 10. What are two types of sensory feedback that fascia can provide? A) Proprioception and pain B) Proprioception and temperature C) Pain and temperature D) Proprioception and reflexes sce_cq_170601 Page 3 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 11. Which of the following is ​not​ a function of skeletal muscle? A) Synergistic actions B) Agonist actions C) Recruitment actions D) Antagonist actions 12. An eccentric muscle action occurs when: A) The pulling force of a muscle is greater than the resistance force B) The pulling force of a muscle is less than the resistance force C) The pulling force of a muscle is equal to the resistance force D) The pulling force of a muscle is greater than the force of gravity 13. The primary roles of skeletal muscle are to: A) Contract and apply force to bones B) Develop tension and move joints C) Contract and move joints D) Develop tension and apply force to bones 14. From the anatomical position, a muscle’s origin is the position: A) Closest to the head B) Closest to the feet C) Furthest from the trunk D) Closest to the hands 15. What is the largest muscle in the human body? A) Latissimus dorsi B) Vastus intermedius C) Gluteus maximus D) Pectoralis major 16. Which of the following is closest to the estimated number of muscles in the human body? A) 550 B) 480 C) 650 D) 905 17. Skeletal muscle is a contractile tissue responsible for: A) Voluntary actions B) Reflex actions C) Cardiac muscle actions D) Both A and B 18. Skeletal muscle attaches to bone through a: A) Tendon B) Ligament C) Joint capsule D) Both A and B 19. What is the primary connective tissue that forms a tendon? A) Type I collagen B) Type III collagen C) Type II collagen D) Type X collagen 20. Each bundle of skeletal muscle fibers, covered by a perimysium, is called a: A) Myofibrils B) Fascicle C) Sarcomere D) Tendon 21. During a biceps curl, the biceps brachii and brachialis muscle act as: A) Agonists B) Antagonists C) Synergists D) None of the above sce_cq_170601 Page 4 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes Quiz Two: ​Unit 3 — Unit 4 Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section. Or, take it easy! Take it online for immediate feedback. 1. What is the primary function of a Golgi Tendon Organ? A) Provide the brain with temperature information B) Detect changes in muscle stretch C) Provide the brain with pain information D) Detect changes in muscle tension 2. Which of the following is ​not​ a function required for the coordination of movement? A) Planning the movement B) Motivation C) Initiation of the movement D) Motor control 3. What two types of cells make up the nervous system? A) Nerves and glia B) Glia and axons C) Neurons and glia D) Neurons and nerves 4. What is the “transmitter” portion of a neuron that relays a signal? A) Dendrites B) Axon C) Cell body D) Soma 5. What is the “integrator” part of a neuron that determines if there’s enough information to create an action potential? A) Axon B) Dendrites C) Cell body D) None of the above 6. What is the name of the area, typically between two neurons or a neuron and gland, where electrical or chemical signals are transmitted? A) Nucleus B) Synapse C) Receptor D) Cell body 7. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for producing voluntary movements? A) Autonomic nervous system B) Somatic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system 8. What structural component of white matter gives it a whitish appearance? A) Myelin B) Axon C) Cell body D) Synapse sce_cq_170601 Page 5 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 9. Where does the spinal cordend? A) Around thoracic vertebrae 10 or 11 (T10 or T11) B) Around lumbar vertebrae 1 or 2 (L1 or L2) C) At lumbar vertebra 5 (L5) D) At the pelvis 10. Which type of nerve ​only​ carries information away from the spinal cord to innervate muscle? A) Reflex nerve B) Sensory nerve C) Mixed nerve D) Motor nerve 11. How many pairs of spinal nerves connect to the spinal cord? A) 31 B) 12 C) 25 D) 18 12. What is the name of the cluster of cell bodies, from lower motor neurons, that are contained within the spinal cord? A) Circuit B) Upper motor neuron pool C) Motor neuron pool D) Pectoralis major 13. Sensory information is carried within: A) Descending tracts B) Ascending tracts C) Pyramidal tracts D) Both A and B 14. What is a primary function of interneurons during movement? A) Integrate upper motor neuron activity B) Block lower motor neuron activity C) Provide a direct link between the brain and muscle D) Integrate lower motor neuron activity 15. Descending tracts originate from what two areas of the brain? A) Brainstem and cerebellum B) Motor cortex and brainstem C) Brainstem and sensory cortex D) Motor cortex and cerebellum 16. When a muscle is quickly stretched, which of the following receptors is activated? A) Golgi tendon organ B) Muscle spindle C) Both A and B D) None of the above 17. The brain’s ability to change its structure and function is known as: A) Alpha-gamma co-activation B) Neuro-activation C) Upper motor neuron integration D) Neuroplasticity sce_cq_170601 Page 6 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 18. Which of the following is ​not​ a function of the basal ganglia? A) Inhibit lower motor neurons B) Help select the proper movement C) Regulate smoothness/speed of a movement D) Help initiate the proper movement 19. An important component of sleep is to: A) Allow cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) to build new synapses B) Block CSF from entering the brain C) Allow CSF to flush out waste products D) Form new plaques in the brain 20. Which of the following is ​not​ a function of the cerebellum? A) Fine-tune movement while it’s occurring B) Make better movement predictions in the future C) Directly control lower motor neurons D) Compare an actual movement to what it predicted 21. The reference point for all locations within the human body is known as the: A) Postural reference B) Anatomical posture C) Ideal posture D) Anatomical position 22. Which term describes a position that’s toward the top of the head? A) Cranial B) Lateral C) Dorsal D) Ventral 23. Which term describes a position that’s close to the trunk? A) Distal B) Dorsal C) Proximal D) Caudal 24. Which plane divides the body into left and right segments and is associated with flexion and extension movements? A) Anterior B) Frontal C) Sagittal D) Transverse 25. Abduction and adduction occur in which plane? A) Sagittal B) Frontal C) Transverse D) Axial 26. Throwing a baseball is which type of motion? A) Multiplanar B) Uniplanar C) Biplanar D) None of the above 27. Movement of a limb in a specific direction is referred to as its: A) Direction of mass B) Direction of rotation C) Rotational mass D) Direction of resistance sce_cq_170601 Page 7 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 28. When lifting free weights, the direction of resistance is always: A) Straight down to the earth B) Straight up from the earth C) Changing depending on where the weight is held D) In the cranial direction 29. When using a cable or exercise band, the direction of resistance is always: A) Straight up from the earth B) In the opposite direction the cable of band is pulling C) In the direction the cable or band is pulling D) Straight down to the earth 30. Which of the following movements is ​not​ associated with the cervical spine? A) Flexion B) Horizontal adduction C) Rotation D) Lateral flexion 31. How many different movements can the shoulder girdle perform? A) 8 B) 6 C) 14 D) 10 32. What is the primary disadvantage of the bony structures that form the glenohumeral joint? A) It is inherently unstable B) It reduces the joint’s possible range of motion C) It has too much stability D) The head of the humerus should be larger 33. Which of the following is ​not​ an external rotator of the glenohumeral joint? A) Teres minor B) Infraspinatus C) Posterior deltoid D) Latissimus dorsi 34. How many primary movements can the scapulothoracic region perform? A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 3 35. Which of the following muscles does not​ elevate the scapula? A) Upper trapezius B) Latissimus dorsi C) Levator scapulae D) Serratus anterior (superior portion) 36. Which action(s) can the gluteus maximus perform? A) Hip extension B) Hip abduction C) Hip external rotation D) All of the above 37. Which is the largest joint in the human body? A) Knee B) Hip C) Shoulder D) Elbow 38. Which of the following muscles does ​not​ extend the knee? A) Vastus intermedius B) Semitendinosus C) Rectus femoris D) Vastus lateralis sce_cq_170601 Page 8 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 39. How many joint(s) form the elbow region? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 40. What type of motion is foot pronation? A) Biplanar B) Uniplanar C) Triplanar D) None of the above sce_cq_170601 Page 9 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes Quiz Three: ​Unit 5 Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section. Or, take it easy! Take it online for immediate feedback. 1. What is required for the human body to maintain balance? A) The base of support remains over the center of mass B) The base of support remains wide C) The center of mass remains over the base of support D) Both A and B 2. Which of the following is not a way the body maintains its sense of balance? A) Sensory feedback from the visual system B) Sensory feedback from the vestibular system C) Sensory feedback from the somatosensory system D) Sensory feedback from the auditory system 3. The vestibular system, from the inner ear, sends its information to what region of the brain in order to maintain the body’s sense of balance? A) Brainstem B) Cortex C) Cerebellum D) Motor cortex 4. During closed-loop motor control, sensory feedback is first sent to which brain structures? A) Brainstem and sensory cortex B) Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs C) Motor cortex and cerebellum D) Cerebellum and sensory cortex 5. The ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken based on the activity they receive is known as: A) Synaptic control B) Synaptic plasticity C) Closed-loop motor control D) Synaptic formation 6. What are the primary functions of the cerebellum for maintaining a person’s sense of balance? A) Coordination of eye/head movements B) Body orientation and self-motion C) Control of posture and gait D) Direct control of muscle tension and stretch sce_cq_170601 Page 10 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 7. The brain receives sensory information from which of the following two structures that are contained within muscles and tendons? A) Golgi tendon organs and lower motor neurons B) Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs C) Golgi tendon organs and upper motor neurons D) Muscle spindles and lower motor neurons 8. Why does closed-loop motor control take longer to produce a movement than open-loop motor control? A) Closed-loop motor control requires sensory feedback B) Open-loop motor control requires sensory feedback C) Closed-loop motor control does not require sensory feedback D) Open-loop motor control is learned first 9. How is synaptic strength at the neuromuscular junction enhanced? A) The motor neuron releases more acetylcholine B) More receptors are added to the neuromuscular junction C) Receptors are removed from the neuromuscular junction D) Both A and B 10. What is the nervous system component that directly activates skeletal muscle? A) Lower motor neurons B) Cerebellum C) Upper motor neurons D) Sensory cortex 11. What is open-loop motor control? A) The creation of a motor program B) The first step for learning a new movement C) The execution of a motor program D) Antagonist actions 12. Which of the following is not a function of the sensory cortex during movement? A) Interprets joint position B) Directly increases muscle tension C) Interprets muscle stretch D) Interprets muscle tension 13. Motor learning is a process that: A) Changes areas of the motor cortex and strengthens synapses B) Relies strictly on open-loop motor control C) Changes areas of the motor cortex and weakens synapses D) Is best achieved by moving quickly at first sce_cq_170601 Page 11 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 14. Which of the following is not a function of the cerebellum? A) Correct movement as it’s occurring B) Compares two copies of a motor program from the motor cortex C) Interprets information directly from the motor cortex D) Interprets information directly from the sensory cortex 15. Which term describes a long lasting increase in synaptic strength? A) Short-term potentiation B) Synaptic plasticity C) Long-term potentiation D) Long-term plasticity 16. Center of mass is also known as what? A) Base of control B) Base of support C) Center of gravity D) Center of movement 17. Which area of the brain receives input from the visual system? A) Basal ganglia B) Cerebellum C) Brainstem D) Cortex 18. Which term describes how a movement is automatically produced by the brain? A) Motor program B) Long-term potentiation C) Lower motor program D) Closed-loop motor control 19. Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Acetylcholine D) None of the above 20. Which of the following best describes the neuromuscular junction? A) The space between an upper motor neuron and muscle B) The space between a lower motor neuron and muscle C) The distance between the spinal cord and muscle D) The space between an upper and lower motor neuron 21. The feeling of being stable is known as: A) Balance B) Center of mass C) Sense of balance D) Sensory enhancement 22. The sense of body orientation and self-motion is controlled by which system? A) Vestibular system B) Visual system C) Somatosensory system D) Feedback system 23. How many systems work together to maintain a person’s sense of balance? A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 5 sce_cq_170601 Page 12 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 24. The movement pattern developed through practice is known as a: A) Motor file B) Motor reflex C) Motor blueprint D) Motor program 25. Which of the following best describes how motor learning is possible? A) The brain and synapses can adapt to the input they receive B) Neuroplasticity occurs quickly C) The brain and synapses are unchangeable during adulthood D) The motor cortex directly controls all movements 26. What is the primary function of Golgi tendon organs? A) Sense changes in muscle length B) Sense changes in muscle speed C) Sense changes in muscle tension D) Sense changes in muscle recruitment 27. During closed-loop motor control, which structure does not send information to the cerebellum? A) Muscles B) Brainstem C) Motor cortex D) Joints 28. What is the primary function of muscle spindles? A) Sense changes in muscle length B) Detect slow muscle activation C) Sense changes in muscle tension D) Sense changes in muscle recruitment 29. When a person frequently practices a movement, the area of the motor cortex devoted to that movement will: A) Shrink B) Enlarge C) Remain unchanged D) None of the above 30. A meaningful movement is known as: A) A movement that’s only essential to a person’s sport B) An automatic movement C) A movement that’s essential to a person’s life or sport D) A movement a person avoids sce_cq_170601 Page 13 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes Quiz Four: ​Unit 6 Read each question carefully and mark your answer on the answer form provided for this section. Or, take it easy! Take it online for immediate feedback. 1. What is the maximum number of weeks that a client should be cleared for exercise by a physician before working with you? A) 8 B) 2 C) 16 D) 4 2. Your client recently had a fever, night sweats, and feels more fatigued than normal. What should you do? A) Tell the client to wait until the symptoms stop before training with you B) Instruct the client to get more rest C) Nothing, since those are normal symptoms D) Tell the client to see his/her physician before your next training session 3. Which client should fill out the 2015 PAR-Q+ before training with you? A) An elite athlete with no movement pain B) A middle-aged guy with shoulder discomfort during exercise C) A young female with poor cardiovascular conditioning D) All of the above 4. Which of the following professionals is ​not​ trained to work with people that have medical pain? A) Athletic trainer B) Physician C) Certified personal trainer D) Chiropractor 5. What is the type of pain that’s caused by a lack of strength, mobility or motor control? A) Medical pain B) Movement pain C) Muscular pain D) Joint pain 6. What are the two benefits of referring a client that has a potential medical problem? A) You’ll build trust with the client and build your professional reputation B) You’ll appear more like a doctor and will generate more income C) You’ll impress doctors and get future referrals from them D) There are no benefits since you’ll lose a potential client sce_cq_170601 Page 14 Corrective Exercise​ Course Quizzes 7. If a client experiences new pain during a workout, but you’re pretty certain it’s not a medical problem, what should you do if you’re a person...
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