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Reproduction of this booklet, in part or in whole, through any means, is prohibited. PTETSL , Narayan Kothi, Race Course Road, Indore. (MP) 452003
Ph: 7315002855, 5002866 Fax : 7315003844
Email: pinnacle@ptindia.com Web : www.ptindia.com J IIFT Entrance Test
January 11, 2004
We are pleased to present a detailed analysis of the IIFT entrance test that was held on January 11, 2004. The questions has
been recalled with the help of PT faculty and PT students from across the nation. A bird’s eye view :
Total Number of Questions : 196 Total Time : 120 minutes The Marking Scheme : 3/4 mark for each correct answer of section I.
1/2 mark for each correct answer of section II.
2/5 mark for each correct answer of section III.
2/5 mark for each correct answer of section IV.
There was negative marking 1/5 of each question’s weight. Total Marks : Sections/Sectional Time Limit : 100
There were four sections and there was no sectional time constraint. Sectional Breakup :
Section No. Topic Number of Questions Total Marks I Mathematical Aptitude 48 48 × 3/4 = 36 II Data Interpretation + Data Sufficiency +
Logical Reasoning + Critical Reasoning 48 48 × 1/2 = 24 III Reading Comprehension + English Usage 50 50 × 2/5 = 20 IV General Knowledge 50 50 × 2/5 = 20 Expected Cut off :
IIFT, Delhi : 53 + marks Disclaimer: All these questions have been memorised by PT students. We are merely reproducing a few of them here in fragments to ensure
that the huge community of students eagerly waiting to see an objective comparison of their performance gets the right picture.
(1) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 SECTION I Mathematical Aptitude
(48 Questions)
Directions for questions 1 to 48 : F or the following questions five options are given. Choose the correct option.
1. The sum of first two consecutive odd numbers in a set of there consecutive odd number is five more than the third number. What
is the second of these three consecutive odd numbers?
(A) 11 (E) None of the above (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5 Sol: Let consecutive odd numbers are x, x + 2, x + 4. Then by the condition given in question :
x + x + 2 = x + 4 + 5 ⇒ x = 7 . So second odd number is 7 + 2 = 9. A ns.(B)
2. If the sum of digits of a two digit number is 9 less than the number, which of the following digit is at the unit place of that
number?
(A) 4 (E) Data are inadequate (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1 Sol. Let the two digit number is xy. Then by the condition given in question :
x + y = 10x + y – 9 ⇒ 9 x = 9 ⇒ x = 1 but we cannot find the exact value of y i.e., unit digit of the number. So data is inadequate.
Ans.(E)
3. If r – 6 = 11 and 2q – 12 = 8, what is minimum possible value of r/q?
(A) – 0.5 (E) (B) – 2.5 (C) 2.5 (D) 1.7 None of the above Sol. r – 6 = 11 i.e., r – 6 = 11 or – r + 6 = 11. Either r = 17 or r = – 5.
2a – 12 = 8 i.e., 2a – 12 = 8 or – 2a + 12 = 8. Either a = 10 or a = 2.
So, minimum possible value of r/q = – 5/10 = – 0.5. A ns.(A)
4. If f (x, y) = x + y, G (f (x, y) ) = – f (x, y) and A (f (x, y)) = – G (f (x, y) ), then find out the value of
– G ( f ( x , x ) ) ×A ( f ( x , x ) ) .
(A) 4x (E) (B) –4x 2 + 2 (C) 4x 2 (D) 2x None of the above Sol. – G ( f ( x , x ) ) × A ( f ( x , x ) )
⇒ – { – f (x, x)} × – G(f(x, x))
⇒ f (x, x) × f(x, x) = 2x.2x = 4x 2. A ns. (C)
5. The number of positive integer valued pairs (x, y) satisfying 4x – 17y = 1 and x ≤ 1 000 is :
(A) 58 (E) (B) None of the above Sol. Given 4x – 17y = 1. Therefore, y = 59 (C) 55 (D) 51 4x − 1
4 × 1000 − 1
3 999
≈ 235 and minimum possible
. So maximum possible value of y =
=
17
17
17 4 × 5 −1
17 y + 1
16y + y + 1
≈ 1 . Now x =
⇒
. So, y must be 3, 7, 11, 15, ........235. Hence total 235/4 = 58
17
4
4
values are possible. A ns.(A)
value of y = I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (2) of (14) 6. The horizontal distance between two towers is 50 3 m. The angle of depression of the first tower when seen from top of the
second tower is 30°. If the height of the second tower is 160 m, then find the height of the first tower.
(A) 100 m (E) None of the above Sol. In ∆ ABE tan30° = (B) X
50 3 130 m (C) 120 m (D) ⇒ X = 5 0 m. So, height of the first tower = 160 + 50 = 210 m. E 1 936 = 44, then 19.36 + 01936 + 0.001936 + 0.00001936 is :
. (A) Sol.
8. 4.78 (E) 50 √3 X
B 160
D If A
30 ° Ans.(E) 7. 110 m (B) 7.81 (C) 4.89 (D) 50
50√ 3 C None of the above 4.92 19.36 + 01936 + 0.001936 + 0.00001936 = 4.4 + 0.44 + 0.044 + 0.0044 = 4.89. A ns.(C)
.
If the sum of the n terms of an AP is cn(n – 1) where c ≠ 0 , the sum of the squares of these terms is :
(A) c 2n 2(n + 1) 2 (E) None of the above (B) 2/3 {c 2n(n – 1)} (C) 2/3 c 2n (n + 1) (2n + 1) (D) c 2n (n – 1) (2n –1) Sol. Given Sn = cn(n–1), S1 = 0, S2 = 2c, S3 = 6c.
Therefore, T2 = S2 – S1 = 2c, T3 = S3 – S2 = 4C. Now sum of the squares of these terms is z = 0 + (2C) 2 + ( 4C) 2 . . . . .
⇒z= 9. 4c 2
n.(n + 1)( 2n + 1) . A ns.(C)
6 If tan θ + sec θ = x , then the value of tan θ is :
(A) 2x/(x 2 – 1 ) (E) None of the above (B) 2x/x 2 + 1 (C) x 2 + 1 /2x (D) x 2 – 1/2x (D) tan 2θ +cot 2θ ≥ 1 Sol. Given tan θ + s ec θ = x ⇒ (tan θ + sec θ ) 2 = x 2 ⇒ t an 2θ + sec 2θ + 2tan θ .sec θ = x 2 . ....(1)
but tan 2θ – sec 2θ = 1 .....(2) Adding (1) and (2), we get
2 tan 2θ + 2 tan θ . sec θ = x 2+1
2tan θ (tan θ + sec θ )/(tan θ + sec θ) = (x 2 + 1 )/x ⇒ t an θ = (x 2 + 1 )/2x. A ns.(C)
10. If 0 ≤ θ ≤ π /2, then which of the following is true ?
(A) (tan 2θ + cot 2θ ) ≤ 2 (E) None of the above (B) (tan 2θ +cot 2θ ) ≥ 2 (C) tan 2θ +cot 2θ ≤ 1 Sol. Ans.(A)
11. Two boats approach a light house in mid sea from opposite directions. The angles of elevation of the top of the light house from
the two boats are 30° and 45° respectively. If the distance between the two boats is 100 m, the height of the light house is :
(A) 36.6 m (E) None of the above (B) 73.2 m (C) 136.6 m (D) 68.3 m
A Sol. Let the distance between B1 and B is x m and the height of tower is h m. Then by the conditions given in question tan 30° = h
h
a nd tan 45° =
.
100 − x
x h
B1
⇒ 0 .577 =
⇒ 5 7.7 – 0.577h = h ⇒ 5 7.7 = 1.577h ⇒ h = 5 7.7/1.577 = 36.6 m. A ns.(A)
100 − h (3) of (14) 30 ° B
100m 45° B2 I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 12. A balloon of radius x makes an angle y at the eye of an observer and the angle of elevation of its centre is z. The height of its
center from the level of observation is given by :
(A) x . cos (z/2) . sec y (B) x . cos z . sec (y/2) (C) x . sin (z/2) . cosec y (D) x . sin z . cosec (y/2) (E) None of the above A Sol. From ∆ OPB sin(y/2) = x/OP ⇒ O P = x. cosec (y/2) ⇒ s inz = OQ/OP X O X Y/2
Y/2 ⇒ O Q = OP. sinz = x. cosec(y/2).sinz
P Ans.(D) Z Q 13. For what values of n does the equation (20y)(y–1) = n posses real and positive roots ?
(A) n>2 (E) None of the above (B) 2<n<9/4 (C) n<9/4 (D) –9/4<n<2 Sol. Ans.(B)
14. A rectangular tin sheet of size 26 cm × 16 cm can be formed into curved surface of a right circular cylinder in two ways.
Determine the ratio of the volumes of the two cylinders so formed.
(A) 3:5 (E) None of the above (B) 8 : 15 (C) 13 : 8 (D) 4:7 Sol. 2 π r 1×h 1 = 26 × 16 ⇒ 2 π r 1×16 = 26 × 16 ⇒ r 1 = 13/ π .
2 π r 2×h 2 = 2 6× 16 ⇒ 2 π r 2×26 = 26× 16 ⇒ r 2 = 8/ π. S o, required ratio = 13 : 8. A ns.(C)
15. If x, y, z denote the areas of the three adjacent faces of a rectangular solid and A is volume then :
(A) A 2 = 2 xyz (E) None of the above (B) A 2 = x yz (C) A 2 = 8 xyz (D) A 2 = ( xyz) 2 Sol. Ans.(B)
The breakup of rest 23 questions are as follows : Topic Number of Questions Numbers 5 Geometry 2 3D Mensuration 1 2D Mensuration 2 Ratio and Proportion 2 Percentage 1 Mixture 1 Probability 2 Permutation and Combination 1 Work and time 1 Coordinate Geometry 4 Imaginary numbers 1
tututu I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (4) of (14) SECTION II Data Interpretation + Logical Reasoning + Critical
Reasoning + Data Sufficiency
(48 Questions)
Directions for questions 49 to 54 : T here were 5 questions from Q. 49 to 54 were on Critical Reasoning.
Directions for questions 55 to 57 : T here were 3 questions from Q. 55 to 57 were on 5 option Data Sufficiency.
Directions for questions 58 to 62 : T here were 5 questions from Q. 58 to 62 were on StatementAssumption.
Directions for questions 63 to 69 : T here were 7 questions from Q. 63 to 69 were on Logical Reasoning.
Directions for questions 70 to 74 : T here were 5 questions from Q. 70 to 74 were based on identify the degree of truth of
inferences taken from given passage. The directions given was :
Mark your answer as
(A) if inference is definitely true.
(B) if inference is probably true.
(C) (D) if inference is probably false.
(E) if inference is definitely false .
Directions for questions 75 : T here was 1 questions Q.75 was on Statement Assumption.
Directions for questions 76 to 80 : T here were 5 questions from Q. 76 to 80 were on Data Interpretation.
Directions for questions 81 to 85 : T here were 5 questions from Q. 81 to 85 were on Logical Reasoning.
Directions for questions 86 to 87 : T here were 2 questions from Q. 86 to 87 were on Logical Reasoning.
86. P/Q means P is father of Q
P+Q means P is mother of Q
P–Q means P is Brother of Q
P* Q means P is sister of Q.
Which of the following represents that “ A is the aunt of E” ?
(A) A–B+C/D*E (E) (B) A*B/C*D–E (C) A/B*C+D–E (D) A+B–C*D/E None of the above Sol. Ans.(B) (5) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 Directions for questions 88 to 90 : A nswer the questions based on the information given below :
The selling price has the following components :
Profit 10%, Quality cost 20%, Other cost 70%
Quality cost is broken as :
Failure cost 50%, Error cost 20%, Appraisal cost 30%
The appraisal cost has the following components :
Product testing cost 50%, Material testing cost 25%, Trials cost 25%
88. What percent of total cost is material testing cost?
(A) 1.5 (B) (E) 6 (C) 1.66 (D) 10 None of the above Sol. Let selling price = 100. Then total cost = 70 + 20 = 90. Material testing cost = 20 × 0.3 × 0.25 = 1.5. So material testing cost
is 1.5 × 100
= 1.66 % of total cost. A ns.(C)
90 89. If failure cost were to be Rs.10 million, product testing cost would be :
(A) Rs.3.0 million (E) None of the above (B) Rs.4.5 million (C) Rs.5.0 million (D) Rs.6.0 million Sol. Given Failure cost = Rs. 10 million ⇒ Q uality cost = Rs. 20 million Þ Product testing cost = 20× 0.3 × 0.5 = Rs.3 million. A ns.(A)
90. What percent is the cost of errors in the total cost structure?
(A) 20.00(B) 4.00 (C) (E) 22.22(D) 4.44 None of the above Sol. Let selling price = 100. Then total cost = 70 + 20 = 90. Error cost = 20 × 0.2 = 4. So Error cost is 4 × 100
= 4.44 % of total cost.
90 Ans.(D)
e 91. In a cube, a, b, c and d are written on the adjacent faces in a clockwise order and e and f are at the
top and bottom of the cube. When c is at the top, what will be at the bottom?
(A) c (B) (E) a (C) e a (D) b (D) d None of the above 57159139550 Sol. Ans.(B)
92. If ‘MOBILITY’ is coded as ‘46293927’, then EXAMINATION’ is coded as :
(A) 57250623076 (E) None of the above Sol. A B C D E F G H I (B) 56149512965 JKLMNOPQR 12345 67 89 12345678 9 I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (C) 45038401854 STUVWXYZ
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8. So, EXAMINATION will be 56149512965. A ns.(B) (6) of (14) 93. The map shows all the roads connecting five towns. A How many different ways are there to go from A to E under conditions:
(i) a person will not return to a town after leaving it; (ii) the person will not go through both C and D together? (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 24 (E) None of the above C
D B E Sol. ACE(1 way), ABE(1 way), ADE(6 ways), ABCE(2 ways), ACBE (2 ways). Hence 12 ways. A ns.(B)
Direction for questions 94 to 96 : S tudy the table given below and answer the questions. Price Movement of Selected Shares (Rs)
Day Shares 1 2 3 4 5 6 Finolex 315 335 340 365 350 335 Bajaj Auto 495 515 520 480 470 465 L&T 82 86 87 89 92 90 DCW 48 60 62 66 55 60 Food Specialities 135 138 132 130 130 132 Tata Steel 665 670 655 650 645 625 HLL 70 71 78 72 71 72 Colgate 200 201 202 205 215 200 Genelec 45 46 75 72 60 65 Gentury Enka 1200 1230 1180 1160 1020 1080 94. Finolex can only be purchases in lots of 50 shares. If a person had Rs.79,000 on day 1, Rs.50,650 on day 2, Rs.51,300 on day
3 and Rs.19,250 on day 4 and if he had purchased the maximum possible number of Finolex shares on each day using the day’s
money only, on which day would he have been left with the least cash balance?
(A) Day 1(B) (E) None of the above Day 2(C) Day 3(D) Day 4 Sol. Cash balance on Day 1 = Rs. 250. Cash balance on Day 2 = Rs. 400. Cash balance on Day 3 = Rs. 300. Cash balance on Day
4 = Rs. 1000. A ns.(A)
95. Which share has had the second highest appreciation, in percentage terms, in the six day period?
(A) Genelec (E) None of the above (B) DCW (C) Finolex (D) HLL Sol. Ans.(B)
96. After the data was published, the stock exchange released a ‘correction’ stating that the rates for DCW and Genelec had been
interchanged due to oversight for Days 3 and 4. Based on this revised information, what is the difference between the average
price of DCW and that of Genelec?
(A) 13/3 (E) None of the above (B) 26/3 (C) 10/6 (D) 10/3 Sol. Ans.(5)
tututu (7) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 SECTION III Reading Comprehension + English Usage
(50 Questions)
Direction for questions 97 to 99 : I n each of the following, sentences are left blank. Beneath each sentence, five different ways
of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the five.
In Q.97 and 98 there were two blanks were left whereas in Q.99 one blank was left.
Direction for questions 100 to 104 : G iven below is a small para with one or two of the middle sentences suppressed. Select the
most appropriate option which may fill the gap.
Direction for questions 105 to 110 : F or each question, select the alternative that exhibits a similar relationship as shown by the
capitalised question pair.
105. DIPSOMANIAC : TEETOTALLER
106. MONORAIL : TRANSPORTATION
107. INCISION : SCALPEL
108. DIGRESSES : MENDEL
109. WANDERLUST : TREND
110. QUISLING : TREASON
Direction for questions 111 to 114 : F or each question, five options are given choose the correct option.
111. POLLYANNA : OPTIMISM
(A) DIEHARD : RESISTANCE (B) MALIGENER : ILLNESS (C) REACTIONARY : CHANGE (D) INSURGENT : ESTABLISHMENT (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(A)
112. NON SEQUITUR : LOGIC
(A) HOSTILITY : SILENCE (B) DELUGE : WATER (C) INDIFFERENCE : CONCERN (D) EVIDENCE : TRUTH (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(E)
113. What is ANOREXIA?
(A) An exception to the rule (B) A weakening of smell (C) The absence of organs (D) A loss of appetite (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(D) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (8) of (14) 114. What is SINECURE ?
(A) A Chinese room (B) A treatment for sinusitis (C) A noeffort situation (D) A thermal spa for cinema fans (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(C)
115. Ingenuity is genius in trifles. Greatness is genius in undertakings of much pith and moment the statement. The statement this
best elucidates the above is :
(A) While with cleverness one may tackle the daytoday problems, it requires greatness to deal effectively with situation of
great importance. (B) Cleverness and greatness can be equated. (C)  (D) None of the above 116. Fear of destination is not a motive out of which a free creative life can grow, yet it is the chief motive which inspires the daily
work of most wageearners. The statement implies that :
(A) A man cannot live by bread alone. (B) No creative work can be motivated by lucre. (C) The fear of being deprived of the basic needs cannot motivate a society to a creative life although this is sufficient reason
for the majority of people. (D) While the majority of men are only concerned with the basic needs of human beings, a few are involved in higher pursuits. (E) None of the above. Sol. A ns.(C)
117. The test of greatness is the page of history. The assumption made in the above statement is that :
(A) History is a faithful chronicle of events. (B) All great people are recognized as such in their lifetime. (C) Perpetuity is the reward of greatness. (D) To be mentioned in history is the greatest achievement for anyone. (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(D)
Directions for questions 118 to 121 : I n each of the questions, there are four words. Choose the word that may have been
wrongly spelt.
118. (A)
(E) Capiliary (B) Pretension (C) Stethoscope (D) Tripartite (B) Paleolithic (C) Hazard (D) Honorarium (B) Penicilin (C) Scandalize (D) Sufficiency (B) Encumbrance (C) Habeas corpus (D) Fenugreek None of the above Sol. A ns.(A)
119. (A)
(E) Troposphere
None of the above Sol. A ns.(E)
120. (A)
(E) Aquarium
None of the above Sol. A ns.(B)
121. (A)
(E) Connossieur
None of the above Sol. A ns.(A) (9) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 Directions for questions 122 to 124 : T he passage below is followed by questions based upon its contents. Choose the best
answer to each question.
Instead of casting aside traditional values, the Meiji Restoration of 1868 dismantled feudalism and modernized the country while
preserving certain traditions as the Foundations for a modern Japan. The oldest tradition and basis of the entire Japanese value
system was respect for and even worship of the Emperor. During the early centuries of Japanese history, the Shinto cult in
which the imperial family traced its ancestry to the Sun Goddess became the people’s sustaining faith. Although later subordinated
to imported Buddhism and Confucianism, Shintoism was perpetuated in Ise and Izumo until the Meiji modernizers established it
as a quasistate religion.
Another enduring tradition was the hierarchical system or social relations based on feudalism and reenforced by NeoConfucianism
which had been the official ideology of the premodern world. Confucianism prescribed a pattern of ethical conduct between
groups of people within a fixed hierarchy. Four of the five Confucian relationships were vertical, requiring loyalty and obedience
from the junior toward the superior. Only the relationship between friend and friend was horizontal, and even there, the
emphasis was on reciprocal duties.
122. The author is primarily concerned with :
(A) providing a history of the rise of feudalism in Japan (B) identifying the influences of Confucianism on Japanese society (C) speculating on the probable development of Japanese society (D) describing some important features of the Meiji restoration (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(D)
123. The passage mentions all of the following EXCEPT :
(A) obedience to authority (B) sense of duty (C) respect for the Emperor (D) loyalty to one’s superior (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(E)
124. It can be inferred from the passage that those who led Japan into the modern age were concerned primarily with :
(A) creating a new middle class (B) gunning new adherents of Confucianism (C) maintaining a stable society (D) expanding the nation’s territory (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(B)
Directions for questions 125 to 130 : T he sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to
construct a coherent paragraph.
Q.125 to 129 were questions of para jumble like Q.130.
130. 1. What we would like to judge P. in this comprehension exercise Q. the difficult words, phrases and sentence fragments R. and also the meaning of S. is your grasp of the content 6. that constitute the paragraph. (A) QPSR (E) None of the above (B) RQPS (C) SPQR (D) SRQP Sol. A ns.(E) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (10) of (14) Directions for questions 131 to 137 : N umbered blank spaces are given in the passage below. For each blank space, words or
phrases are suggested in the answer choices. Select the most appropriate word that can fill the blank in each case.
The .....131..... of education has also been a .....132..... instrument in emphasising and shaping the underlying unity of
mankind. The best .....133..... perhaps in which we can describe the present .....134..... is to call it a ‘decade of promise’. The
marvels of science, the immense .....135..... of harnessing nuclear energy for peaceful purposes and the urge to .....136.....
resources to their optimum level have all of them significantly contributed in tackling problems on a .....137..... scale rather
than attempting to solve these baffling issues of ignorance, poverty and disease separately by individuals and nations.
131. (A)
(E) need (B) mode (C) spread (D) development (B) defective (C) latest (D) potent (B) method (C) format (D) manner (B) decay (C) decade (D) age (B) labour (C) possibilities (D) capability (B) select (C) synthesise (D) pressures (B) globe (C) world (D) universal None of the above Sol. A ns.(C)
132. (A)
(E) effective
None of the above Sol. A ns.(D)
133. (A)
(E) way
None of the above Sol. A ns.(D)
134. (A)
(E) period
None of the above Sol. A ns.(C)
135. (A)
(E) effects
None of the above Sol. A ns.(B)
136. (A)
(E) materialise
None of the above Sol. A ns.(C)
137. (A)
(E) global
None of the above Sol. A ns.(A)
Directions for questions 138 to 150 : F or the following questions mark the appropriate word from the options that represents
the phrase containd in each of the question.
138. Living life of pleasure :
(A) Hedonistic (E) None of the above (B) Hermetic (C) Intrepid (D) Cerebration (C) Jocose (D) Sententious (C) Percussion (D) Nihilism Sol. A ns.(A)
139. Not willing to yield or comply with what is required :
(A) Forward (E) None of the above (B) Eclectic Sol. A ns.(E)
140. The quality of having the inherent power of motion :
(A) Motility (E) (B) Prolix None of the above Sol. A ns.(A) (11) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 141. Travelling from one country to another or wandering :
(A) Peregrination (E) None of the above (B) Lugubrious (C) Mendicant (D) Carver Sol. A ns.(A)
142. The quality of being extremely generous :
(A) Munificence (E) None of the above (B) Panegyric (C) Raffish (D) Mnemonic (B) Sedulous (C) Recondite (D) Vapid Sol. A ns.(A)
143. Extremely offensive :
(A) Noisome (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(E)
144. The person who carries out any kind of order without questioneering :
(A) Myrmidon (E) None of the above (B) Moppet (C) Maudlin (D) Marplot Subvention (C) Prurience (D) Minatory (C) Indigenous (D) Predatory Sol. A ns.(A)
145. Making conflicting statements :
(A) Tergiversation (E) None of the above (B) Sol. A ns.(A)
146. The characteristic of being fierce or savage :
(A) Truculence (E) None of the above (B) Palindrome Sol. A ns.(D)
tututu I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (12) of (14) SECTION IV General knowledge
(50 Questions)
147. Who completed the work of Qutab Minar?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (E) (B) Iltutmish (C) Mohammad Bin Tuglak (D) Shanjahan None of the above Guru Ramdas (D) Guru Gobind Singh (C) Little Devil (D) Little Buddha (C) Patroit (D) National Herald Sol. A ns.(B)
148. Who was associated with the construction of Golden Temple?
(A) Guru Nanak (E) None of the above (B) Guru Teg Bahadur (C) Sol. A ns.(E)
149. What is the name of the Atom Bomb dropped by USA on Japan?
(A) Little Boy (E) None of the above (B) Little Fly Sol. A ns.(E)
150. Jawahar Lal Nehru started, which newspaper?
(A) Pioneer (E) (B) Times of India None of the above Sol. A ns.(D)
151. The Parliament of state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member is absent without permission for :
(A) 30 days (5) None of the above (B) 60 days (C) 90 days (D) 120 days Sol. A ns.(D)
152. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the Prime Minister after :
(A) a simple majority resolution of both houses of Parliament (B) a simple majority resolution of Lok Sabha (C) a special majority resolution of both houses of parliament (D) a special majority resolution of Rajya Sabha (E) None of the above Sol. A ns.(E)
153. President of Nasscom is :
(A) Arun Pandit (E) None of the above (B) N. R. Narayanmurthy (C) B. R. L. Raju (D) Kiran Kartik (C) VI (D) II A&D (D) L&T Sol. A ns.(D)
154. Which AfroAsian games were held at Hyderabad in 2003?
(A) IV (5) VII (B) V Sol. A ns.(B)
155. Arthur Anderson was the auditor of which of these companies?
(A) WorldCom (E) None of the above (B) Enron (C) Sol. A ns.(B)
(13) of (14) I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 156. Who is the Chairman of Britania Industries?  Nusli N Wadia
158. The Chief Economist and Director Research at the IMF is : K en Rogoff
tututu I tem Code : PT–Pin– γ I I F T 2 0 0 4 (14) of (14) ...
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