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Unformatted text preview: Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior? MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Successful managers and entrepreneurs recognize that: a. technical knowledge is all that is needed for success. b. interpersonal skills are not important. c. technical skills are necessary, but insufficient, for succeeding in management. d. an understanding of human behavior does not impact effectiveness (c; Challenging; pp. 2-3) What Managers Do Which one of the following is not considered an organization? a. church b. university c. a military unit d. all 45-year-old adults in a community (d; Easy; p. 4) 2. 3. A(n) _____ is a consciously coordinated social unit, composed of two or more people, that functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals. a. organization b. unit c. team d. ethnic group (a; Moderate; p. 4) The four management functions include all of the following except: a. controlling. b. planning. c. staffing. d. organizing. (c; Moderate; p. 4) 5. _____ includes defining an organization’s goals and establishing an overall strategy for achieving these goals and developing a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities. a. Controlling b. Planning c. Leading d. Coordinating (b; Moderate; p. 4) 4. 1 The determination of how tasks are to be grouped is part of which management function? a. planning b. leading c. controlling d. organizing (d; Easy; p. 4) 7. The organizing function includes a determination of which of the following? a. what tasks are to be done b. who is to do these tasks c. who reports to whom d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 4) 8. 6. Every organization contains people, and it is management’s job to direct and coordinate these people. This is the ______ function. a. planning b. leading c. controlling d. organizing (b; Moderate; p.4) According to Henry Mintzberg, the ten managerial roles can be grouped into three categories. Which of the following is not one of these groups? a. concern with the interpersonal relationships b. the transfer of information c. decision making d. liaison roles (d; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6. ) 10. An example of Mintzberg’s interpersonal management role is: a. spokesperson. b. leader. c. negotiator. d. monitor. (b; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) When a manager searches the organization and its environment for opportunities and initiates projects to bring about change, the manager is acting in which role? a. negotiator b. entrepreneur c. disturbance handler d. resource allocator (b; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) 11. 9. 12. Which of the following is not an essential management skill identified by Robert Katz? 2 a. technical b. computer c. human d. conceptual (b; Moderate; p. 5) When managers have the mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations, they possess: a. technical skills. b. computer skills. c. human skills. d. conceptual skills. (d; Challenging; pp. 6-7 ) 14. Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill? a. completing accounting reports b. communicating c. resolving conflicts d. working as part of a team (a; Moderate; pp 5-6) 15. According to Luthans and his associates, which of the following is not considered a part of traditional management? a. interacting with outsiders b. decision making c. controlling d. planning (a; Moderate; p. 7) 16. Which of Luthan’s managerial activities involves socializing, politicking, and interacting with outsiders? a. traditional management b. communication c. human resource management d. networking (d; Challenging; p. 7 ) 17. According to Luthans, successful managers spent more of their time on _____ than on any other activity. a. traditional management b. human resource management c. networking d. communicating (c; Challenging; p. 8) 13. 18. A common thread running through the functions, roles, skills, and activities approaches to management recognizes the importance of: 3 a. managing technology. b. managing people. c. politicking. d. being efficient. (b; Moderate; p. 8) Enter Organizational Behavior 19. Organizational behavior is all of the following except: a. a field of study. b. an applied field. c. an intuitive analysis of human behavior. d. studying what people do in an organization. (c; Moderate; p. 8) 20. ______ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization’s effectiveness. a. Organizational development b. Management c. Organizational behavior d. People management (c; Easy; p. 8) 21. Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior? a. motivation b. attitude development c. conflict d. computers (d; Easy; p. 8 ) 22. According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior is a. the common sense approach. b. an observational approach. c. a systematic approach. d. a theoretical approach. (c; Easy; p. 10) A major theme in your textbook is that behavior is not: a. caused. b. random. c. consistent. d. predictable. (b; Easy; p. 9) 23. 24. If we know how a person perceives a situation and what is important to him/her, then behavior is generally a. predictable. 4 b. predetermined. c. uncontrollable. d. controllable. (a; Moderate; p. 9) 25. Fundamental consistencies allow _____ of behavior. a. observation b. systematizing c. research d. predictability (d; Moderate; pp. 9-10) 26. Behavior is generally _____ and the _____ of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions. a. predetermined; observation b. predictable; systematic study c. controllable; theoretical application d. uncontrollable; systematic study (b; Moderate; p. 10) 27. _____ includes analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. a. Organizational behavior b. The observational approach to understanding organizational behavior c. A theoretical approach to organizational behavior d. A systematic study of organizational behavior (d; Moderate; p. 10) 28. In the study of OB, intuition is replaced by: a. systematic study. b. generalization. c. listening. d. prediction. (a; Easy; p. 10) Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 29. Organizational behavior is built upon contributions from all of the following disciplines except: a. humanities. b. psychology. c. anthropology. d. political science. (a; Moderate; p. 11) 30. The science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals is: a. psychiatry. b. psychology. 5 c. sociology. d. political science. (b; Moderate; p. 12) 31. Which behavioral science discipline has made the most significant contribution to understanding individual behavior? a. sociology b. social psychology c. psychology d. anthropology (c; Moderate; p. 12) 32. The OB topic of motivation has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? a. psychology b. social psychology c. sociology d. political science (a; Moderate; p. 12) 33. The most significant contribution to OB in the area of formal organization theory and structure has been made by: a. psychology. b. sociology. c. anthropology. d. political science. (b; Moderate; p. 12) 34. _____ studies people in relation to their fellow human beings. a. Psychology b. Sociology c. Anthropology d. Political science (b; Moderate; p. 12) 35. The science that focuses on the influence of people on one another is: a. psychology. b. anthropology. c. political science. d. social psychology. (d; Moderate; p. 12) 36. One of the major areas receiving considerable investigation from social psychologists has been: a. change. b. motivation. c. job satisfaction. d. job stress. 6 (a; Challenging; p. 12 ) The OB subject of “organizational culture” has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? a. anthropology b. psychology c. social psychology d. political science (a; Moderate; p. 12) 37. 38. _____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries. a. Anthropology b. Psychology c. Social psychology d. Political science (a; Challenging; p. 12) 39. Topics of study in political science include all of the following except: a. structuring of conflict. b. the social system in which individuals fill their roles. c. allocation of power. d. how people manipulate power for individual self interest. (b; Challenging; p. 12) There are Few Absolutes in OB Which of the following is the best description of OB’s current state? a. It is based on universal truths. b. It is based on contingencies. c. There is little disagreement among OB researchers and scholars. d. Cause-effect principles have been isolated which tend to apply to all situations. (b; Moderate; p. 13) 40. Challenges and Opportunities for OB 41. Whereas _____ focuses on differences between people from different countries, _____ addresses differences among people within given countries. a. workforce diversity; globalization b. globalization; workforce diversity c. culture; diversity d. culturization; workforce diversity (b; Challenging; pp. 14-15) 42. ______ means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. a. Globalization b. Workforce diversity c. Affirmative action d. Organizational culture 7 (b; Easy; p. 15) 43. The ________ assumption is being replaced by one that recognizes and values _____. a. melting pot; differences b. melting pot; similarities c. diversity; differences d. heterogeneous; similarities (a; Moderate; p. 15) 44. Which of the following is not true? a. Currently, 46 percent of the U.S. labor force are women. b. Minorities and immigrants make up 23 percent of the workforce. c. The male Caucasian working full time to support a non-employed wife and school-aged children is a minority. d. The proportion of minorities and women is shrinking. (d; Challenging; p. 15) 45. The implications of workforce diversity include all of the following except: a. managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike to recognizing differences. b. diversity training should be provided. c. revamping benefit programs is needed to accommodate the different needs of different employees. d. the same perceptions are used in decision making. (d; Challenging; p. 15) 46. _____ is a philosophy of management that is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes. a. MBO b. Quality management c. Reengineering d. Organizational behavior (b; Easy; p. 16) 47. Quality management requires _____ employee involvement. a. very little b. occasional c. extensive d. no (c; Moderate; p. 16) 48. _____ asks managers to reconsider how work would be done and their organization structured if they were starting over. a. Process reengineering b. MBO c. TQM d. Diversity training (a; Easy; p. 16) 8 49. Predictions suggest there will be a labor shortage for at least another: a. 1-2 years. b. 4-5 years. c. 10-15 years. d. 20-25 years. (c; Moderate; p.17) 50. The U.S. labor shortage is a function of: a. birth rates and labor participation rates. b. birth rates and mobility. c. brain drain. d. poor wages and benefits. (a; Moderate; p. 17) 51. Many employees have been led to retire early as a result of: a. expanded Social Security benefits. b. a healthy stock market. c. improved pension plans. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 17) 52. The majority of employees today in developed countries work in: a. manufacturing jobs. b. service jobs. c. MNCs. d. government agencies. (b; Moderate; p. 18) 53. When managers put employees in charge of what they do, they are _____ the employees. a. reengineering b. empowering c. diversifying d. dehiring (b; Moderate; p. 19) 54. Managing today can be described as long periods of ongoing _____ interrupted occasionally by short periods of _____. a. change; stability b. stability; change c. flexibility; rigidity d. rigidity; flexibility (a; Moderate; p. 19) 9 Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees’ work life and personal life? a. the creation of global organizations b. communications technology allowing employees to work any time and from any place c. organizations asking employees to put in longer hours d. fewer dual-income couples (d; Easy; p. 20) 55. 56. Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong conduct are termed: a. diversity issues. b. human resource problems. c. ethical dilemmas. d. loyalty oaths. (c; Easy; p. 21) Coming Attractions: Developing an OB Model 57. A model is a(an): a. abstraction of reality. b. response that is affected by an independent variable. c. independent variable. d. real-world scenario. (a; Easy; p. 22) 58. Primary dependent variables in OB include: a. productivity. b. absenteeism. c. job satisfaction. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 23) 59. _____ is achievement of goals. a. Efficiency b. Effectiveness c. Productivity d. Motivation (b; Easy; p. 23) 60. Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company or employee? a. operating a hospital at the lowest possible cost but still yielding a high profit b. being the most pleasant real estate broker in the southeast c. as a telemarketer, making the required number of calls at the end of the day d. a sales person who acquires the most clients of anyone in the company (a; Challenging; p. 23) 61. Sears trained employees to improve the employee-customer interaction to ultimately: a. generate additional revenue. 10 b. decrease returns. c. improve repeat customer business. d. none of the above (a; Moderate; p. 23) 62. _____ is discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job requirement, but that promotes the effective functioning of the organization. a. Productivity b. Motivation c. Organizational citizenship d. Organizational behavior (c; Moderate; p. 25) 63. Individual-level independent variables include: a. technology. b. organizational culture. c. perception. d. human resource policy. (c; Moderate; pp. 25-26) 64. ________ is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. a. Absenteeism b. Turnover c. Downsizing d. Exit (b; Easy; p. 24) TRUE/FALSE 65. The single biggest reason for the failure of managers is poor interpersonal skills. (True; Easy; p. 3) 66. While managers must be technically competent, technical knowledge is not enough for success. (True; Moderate; p. 3) What Managers Do 67. Managers get things done through other people. (True; Easy; p. 4) 68. The term organization, as used in your textbook, is meant to include business firms but exclude government agencies. (False; Easy; p. 4) 69. Managers may be referred to as administrators in not-for-profit organizations. (True; Moderate; p. 4) 70. Henri Fayol listed five management functions: planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling. 11 (True; Moderate; p. 4) 71. Modern theorists have condensed Fayol’s five management functions down to four: planning, organizing, commanding, and controlling. (False; Moderate; p. 4) 72. The controlling function includes the determination of what tasks are to be done. (False; Moderate; p. 4) 73. Monitoring, comparing, and potential correcting is what is meant by the controlling process. (True; Moderate; p. 4) 74. Mintzberg concluded that managers perform ten different highly-interrelated roles, or sets of behaviors, attributable to their jobs. (True; Challenging; p. 5) 75. The role of spokesperson is an example of an informational role. (True; Easy; p. 5) 76. As resource allocators, managers are responsible for allocating human, physical, and monetary resources. (True; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) 77. When managers initiate and oversee new projects that will improve their organization’s performance, they are acting in the capacity of an entrepreneur, an example of an informational role. (False; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) 78. Robert Katz has identified three essential management skills: technical, human, and conceptual. (True; Moderate; pp. 5-6) 79. According to Katz, human skills encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge or expertise. (False; Moderate; pp. 5-6) The ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations is referred to as an individual’s conceptual skills. (True; Easy; pp. 6-7) 81. According to Luthans and his associates, those managers who are most “successful” will spend more time networking than those managers who are considered most “effective.” (True; Challenging; Exh. 1-2; p. 7) 82. Research conducted by Luthans supports the theory that promotions are based on performance. (False; Moderate; p. 7) Luthans’ research indicates that among effective managers, communication made the largest relative contribution and networking the least. (True; Challenging; Exh. 1-2; pp. 7-8) 84. Managers need to develop their people skills if they are going to be effective and successful. 12 83. 80. (True; Moderate; p. 8) Enter Organizational Behavior Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization’s effectiveness. (True; Moderate; p. 8) 86. Organizational behavior is concerned with the study of what people do in an organization and how that behavior affects the performance of the organization. (True; Moderate; p. 8) Behavior is generally predictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions. (True; Moderate; p. 10) 88. Many people’s views on human behavior are based on intuition. (True; Easy; pp. 9-10) 89. It is the consistencies in behavior that make prediction possible. (True; Moderate; p. 9) 90. Regardless of appearances, people usually intend their behavior to be rational. (True; Moderate; p. 9) 91. Anything you learn in an unsystematic way is incorrect. (False; Moderate; p. 10) 92. Intuition is gut feelings about “why I do what I do.” (True; Easy; p. 10) Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 93. OB is an applied behavioral science that is built upon contributions from a number of behavioral disciplines. (True; Easy; p. 11) 94. Learning, perception, and personality have been OB topics whose contributions have generally come from psychology. (True; Moderate; Exh. 1-3; p. 11) 95. What psychology is to the individual, sociology is to the group. (True; Moderate; p. 12) Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both psychology and political science. (False; Moderate; p.12) 96. 87. 85. 13 Anthropology has helped us understand differences in values and attitudes between people in different countries. (True; Moderate; p. 12) 98. Conflict and power have been major topics of concern to political scientists. (True; Easy; Exh. 1-3; p. 12) There are Few Absolutes in OB 99. There are many simple and universal principles that explain organizational behavior. (False; Easy; p. 13) OB researchers cannot offers reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior since people act very differently in the same situation. (False; Moderate; p. 13) Challenges and Opportunities for OB 101. As the world has become a global village, managers have to become capable of working with people from different cultures. (True; Moderate; p. 14) 102. Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more homogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. (False; Moderate; p. 15) 103. People must set aside their cultural values when they come to work. (False; Moderate; p. 15) 104. 46 percent of the U.S. labor force are women. (True; Challenging; p. 15) 105. Diversity, if positively managed, can increase creativity and innovation in organizations. (True; Easy; p. 15) 106. A philosophy of management that is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes is termed “reengineering.” (False; Moderate; p. 16) 107. Quality management has an intense focus on the customer and a goal of employee empowerment. (True; Easy; p. 16) 108. Putting employees in charge of what they do is termed “reengineering.” (False; Easy; p. 16) 109. Process reengineering asks, “How would we do things around here if we were starting over from scratch?” (True; Easy; p. 16) 110. In tight labor markets, those managers who don’t understand human behavior risk having no one to manage. 14 100. 97. (True; Moderate; p. 17) 111. An employee who is empowered is given greater opportunity to determine how she does her job. (True; Moderate; p. 19) 112. There’s a blurring between the roles of managers and workers. (True; Moderate; p. 20) 113. Managing today is described as long periods of ongoing change, interrupted occasionally by short periods of stability. (True; Moderate; p. 21) 114. Today’s managers and employees must learn to cope with temporariness – learning to live with flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability. (True; Moderate; p. 19) 115. OB has little to offer in stimulating employee creativity and tolerance for change. (False; Challenging; p. 20) Your firm is experiencing lower than normal profits. You realize that you should write off some questionable accounts, but your supervisor suggests that you wait until next year. This is a modern example of an ethical dilemma. (True; Easy; p. 21) Coming Attractions: Developing an OB Model There are three levels of analysis in OB, and, as we move from the individual level to the group level to the organization systems level, we add systematically to our understanding of behavior in organizations. (True; Challenging; p.22) 118. The key factors you want to explain or predict in a model are termed independent variables. (False; Moderate; p. 23) 119. Typical dependent variables in organizational behavior are productivity, absenteeism, and job satisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 23) 120. Organizational behavior models generally assume job satisfaction to be an independent variable. (False; Moderate; p. 23) An organization is productive if it achieves its goals and does so by transferring inputs to outputs at the lowest cost. (True; Moderate; p. 23) 122. The annual cost of absenteeism in the U.S. is estimated at over $40 billion. (True; Challenging; p. 24) 123. A conservative estimate of the cost of recruiting, selecting, and training an employee is about 15 121. 117. 116. $25,000. (False; Challenging; p. 24) Reasonable levels of employee-initiated turnover facilitate organizational flexibility and employee independence. (True; Challenging; p. 24) 125. The difference between the amount of rewards workers receive and the amount they believe they should receive is termed job satisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 25) 126. Job satisfaction represents an attitude rather than a behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 25) 127. Independent group level variables studied in organizational behavior include perception, learning, and motivation. (False; Moderate; p. 25) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of What Managers Do Joseph Wood is a manager at the XYZ Company. He performs all the management functions as condensed from Henri Fayol’s work. When Mr. Wood estimates an overall strategy for achieving his department’s goals, he is performing the _____ function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (a; Moderate; p. 4) 128. 124. When Mr. Wood determines what tasks are to be performed by his employees and how they are to be grouped, he is performing the ____ function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (b; Moderate; p. 4) 130. When Mr. Wood motivates his employees and attempts to resolve conflicts among department members, he is performing the _____ function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading 16 129. d. controlling (c; Moderate; p. 4) 131. When Mr. Wood compares projected sales to actual sales in his department, he is performing the _____ function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (d; Moderate; p. 4) Application of Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. You have faculty from the fields of psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, and political science. 132. You should expect that the faculty member from _____ will probably contribute information about intergroup behavior. a. sociology b. psychology c. social psychology d. anthropology (a; Challenging; p. 12) 133. Information on which of the following would probably not be a contribution from the faculty member from political science? a. conflict b. power c. organizational change d. intraorganizational politics (c; Challenging; p. 12) 134. To whom would you expect to address issues of communication? a. the psychologist b. the anthropologist c. the political scientist d. the social psychologist (d; Challenging; p. 12) You would expect the faculty member from _____ to furnish information about personality, learning, and motivation. a. sociology b. psychology c. anthropology d. political science (b; Moderate; p. 12) 17 135. Application of Quality Management You are an employee of Acme, Inc. who has just been approached by your manager with a new philosophy that management wishes to institute. Your manager is stressing that he wants your involvement and that the emphasis is going to be on the customer and continual improvement. 136. You would probably believe that management is trying to implement: a. quality management. b. MBO. c. process reengineering. d. organizational behavior. (a; Moderate; p. 16) 137. As part of the program, you should expect to see all of the following except: a. improvement in quality. b. empowerment of employees. c. emphasis on individual achievement. d. accurate measurement. (c; Moderate; p. 16) 138. You should expect your job to change in which of the following ways? a. more imposed rules from management b. more measurement of performance variables c. more free time d. less real employee power (b; Moderate; p. 16) Application of Developing an OB Model Allison and Gail both are studying for a final exam. Both students have a goal of making a grade of 91 or better. Gail studied 6 hours and made a grade of 92. Allison studied for 9 hours and also made a grade of 92. 139. Which of the students was effective? a. only Gail b. only Allison c. neither Gail nor Allison d. both Gail and Allison (d; Moderate; p. 23) 140. Which of the following statements is true? a. Gail is more efficient than Allison. b. Allison is more efficient than Gail. c. Gail is more effective than Allison. d. Allison is more effective than Gail. (a; Moderate; p. 23) 141. Which of the students was more productive? 18 a. Gail b. Allison c. Neither Gail nor Allison was productive. d. It is impossible to tell from the information given. (a; Moderate; p. 23) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 142. Discuss the four management functions described by your text. (Page 4) The four management functions as condensed from Henri Fayol are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. The planning function encompasses defining an organization’s goals, establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals, and developing a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities. Organizing includes the determination of what tasks are to be done, who is to do them, how the tasks are to be grouped, who reports to whom, and where decisions are to be made. The leading function involves motivating employees, directing activities of others, selecting the most effective communication channels, and resolving conflicts among members. Controlling involves monitoring, comparing, and potential correcting to get the organization back on track. 143. Why is it important to replace intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations? (Pages 8-10) It is important to replace intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations to help uncover important facts and relationships. This will provide a base from which more accurate predictions of behavior can be made. That is, we can improve our predictive ability by replacing intuitive opinions with a more systematic approach. Systematic study looks at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. This helps to explain and predict behavior. How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior? (Page 12) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and change the behavior of humans. Contributions have been made by learning theorists, personality theorists, counseling psychologists, and industrial and organizational psychologists. Contributions have been made in learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, motivation, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology studies people in relation to their fellow human beings. The greatest contributions by sociologists have been in the study of group behavior in organizations, group dynamics, design of work teams, organizational culture, formal organization theory, organizational structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict. 145. How does globalization affect a manager’s people skills? 19 144. (Page 14) Globalization affects a manager’s people skills in at least two ways. First, managers are increasingly likely to find themselves in a foreign assignment. Once there, it will be necessary to manage a work force that is likely to be very different in needs, aspirations, and attitudes from the ones managed back home. Second, managers are going to find themselves working with bosses, peers, and other employees who were born and raised in different cultures. To work effectively with these people, managers will need to understand their culture, how it has shaped them, and how to adapt the management style to their differences. 146. Explain the term “workforce diversity.” (Page 15) Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. It also includes the physically disabled, gays and lesbians, and the elderly. 147. What is the difference between effectiveness and efficiency? (Page 25) Productivity implies a concern for both effectiveness and efficiency. A business firm is effective when it attains its sales or market share goals, but its productivity also depends on achieving those goals efficiently. Popular measures of organizational efficiency include return on investment, profit per dollar of sales, and output per hour. 148. Discuss the U.S. labor shortage. (Page 17) The U.S. labor shortage is a function of two factors – birth rates and labor participation rates. The problem becomes severe around 2006, when the major exodus of Boomers from the workplace begins. New entrants to the workforce from foreign countries will not do much to correct the supply shortage. While women provided a new supply of talented and skilled workers, this source has now been tapped. The combination of the smaller Gen-X population, the already high participation rate of women in the work force, and early retirements will lead to a significantly smaller future labor pool from which employers can hire. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 149. Briefly discuss three of the challenges facing contemporary managers. (Pages 14-16) Three challenges that managers are facing today are globalization, managing workforce diversity, and improving quality and productivity. Organizations are no longer constrained by national borders. Globalization affects a manager’s people skills in at least two ways. First, you are likely to find yourself in a foreign assignment managing people from different cultures. Second, you are likely to work with bosses, peers, and other employees who were born and raised in different cultures. One of the biggest challenges is adapting to people who are different. This is workforce diversity. Whereas globalization focuses on differences between people from different countries, workforce diversity 20 addresses differences among people within given countries. More managers are having to improve their organization’s productivity and the quality of the products and services they offer. Toward quality and productivity, they are implementing programs such as quality management ad process reengineering – programs that require extensive employee involvement. 150. Explain quality management and process reengineering. (Pages 16-17) Quality management and process reengineering help improve quality and productivity in organizations. Quality management is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes. It has implications for OB because it requires employees to rethink what they do and become more involved in workplace decisions. Process reengineering asks managers to reconsider how work would be done and their organization structured if they were starting over. 151. What independent and dependent variables are usually identified for construction of an OB model? (Pages 23-26) Dependent variables are the key factors that you want to explain or predict and that are affected by some other factor. Scholars have historically emphasized productivity, absenteeism, turnover, and job satisfaction. Today, organizational citizenship has been added to this list. The independent variables are divided into individual-level, group-level, and organization systems level variables. The individual-level variables include biographical characteristics, ability, values, attitudes, personality, emotions, perception, individual decision making, learning, and motivation. Group-level variables include communication, leadership, power, and politics. Organization systems level variables include structure, work processes, human resource policies, and practices. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 152. Discuss Mintzberg’s ten different roles. Group them as being primarily concerned with interpersonal relationships, the transfer of information, and decision making. (Exh. 1-1; Pages 4-5) Mintzberg identified ten managerial roles. The interpersonal roles include figurehead, leadership, and liaison roles. Performing ceremonial and symbolic duties is the figurehead role. The leadership role includes hiring, training, motivating, and disciplining employees. The liaison role involves contacting outsiders who provide the manager with information. The information roles include monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson. Collecting information from organizations and institutions outside their own is the monitor role. The disseminator role involves acting as a conduit to transmit information to organizational members. The spokesperson role occurs when managers represent their organization to outsiders. Decisional roles include entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator. In the entrepreneur role, managers initiate and oversee new projects that will improve their organization’s performance. As disturbance handlers, managers take corrective action in response to unforeseen problems. As resource allocators, managers are responsible for allocating human, physical, and monetary resources. Managers perform a negotiator role, in which they discuss issues and bargain with other units to gain advantages for their own unit. 153. Organizational behavior is an applied behavioral science built upon contributions from a number of 21 different disciplines. What are these disciplines and what are the contributions of each discipline? Be complete in your response and include five different behavioral science disciplines. (Exh. 1-3; Pages 11-12) Organizational behavior has been built upon the contributions of psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, and political science. Psychology has contributed to learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology has contributed through the study of formal and complex organizations – including group dynamics, design of work teams, organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict. Social psychology has contributed in the areas of measuring, understanding, and changing attitudes; communication patterns; building trust; the ways in which group activities can satisfy needs; and group decision-making processes. Anthropology has contributed to an understanding of organizational culture, organizational environments, and differences between national cultures. Political science has contributed to an understanding of structuring of conflict, allocation of power, and how people manipulate power for individual self-interest. 154. How have the roles of managers and workers been blurred? (Pages 20-21) The roles of managers and workers have been blurred as the relationship between the two has been reshaped. Managers are being called coaches, advisers, sponsors, or facilitators in some organizations. Employees are now called associates. Decision making is being pushed down to the operating level, where workers are being given the freedom to make choices about schedules and procedures and to solve work-related problems. Managers are going considerably further by allowing employees full control of their work. More self-managed teams are being used where workers operate largely without bosses and managers are empowering employees. 155. What is an ethical dilemma? How are organizations responding to these dilemmas? (Pages 21-22) An ethical dilemma is a situation in which employees are required to define right and wrong conduct. Dilemmas include whether to blow the whistle, whether they should follow orders with which they don’t personally agree, whether they should give an inflated performance evaluation to an employee whom they like, knowing that such an evaluation could save that employee’s job, or whether they should allow themselves to play politics in the organization if it will help their career advancement. These ethical dilemmas result from the blurring of the line differentiating right from wrong. Managers and their organizations are responding to this problem from a number of directions. They are writing and distributing codes of ethics to guide employees through ethical dilemmas. They are offering seminars, workshops, and training programs to try to improve ethical behaviors. They are also using in-house advisors to provide assistance and they are creating protection mechanisms for employees who reveal internal unethical practices. 156. Define turnover. Why is it of concern to organizations? 22 (Page 24) Turnover is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. A high turnover rate results in increased recruiting, selection, and training costs – which are quite significant. A high rate of turnover can also disrupt the efficient running of an organization when knowledgeable and experienced personnel leave and replacements must be found and prepared to assume positions of responsibility. However, reasonable levels of employee-initiated turnover facilitate organization flexibility and employee independence, and they can lessen the need for management-initiated layoffs. Unfortunately, turnover often involves the loss of people the organization doesn’t want to lose. 23 Chapter 2 Foundations of Individual Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE Biographical Characteristics 1. The biographical characteristic that will grow in importance during the next decade is: a. sex. b. marital status. c. age. d. length of service. (c; Moderate; p. 37) All of the following are examples of biographical characteristics except: a. sexual orientation. b. age. c. sex. d. marital status. (a; Moderate; p. 37) 2. 3. The age of a worker seems to have a direct relationship to: a. productivity. b. turnover. c. absenteeism. d. vacation taken. (b; Challenging; p. 38) 4. Which of the following statements is not true? a. In general, older employees have lower rates of avoidable absence than do younger employees. b. Older employees have higher rates of unavoidable absence than younger workers probably due to their poorer health. c. The older you get, the more likely you are to quit your job. d. Older workers are perceived as lacking flexibility. (c; Moderate, p. 38) 5. Which of the following is true concerning the relationship between age and job satisfaction? a. Most studies found a negative association between age and satisfaction. b. There is a U-shaped relationship. c. Satisfaction decreases among professionals as they age. d. Satisfaction increases among nonprofessionals during middle age. (b; Challenging; p. 39) 6. Studies have found that all of the following are true except: a. women are more willing to conform to authority than men. b. men are more aggressive than women. c. women tend to be more productive at work than men. d. men are more likely to have expectations of success. (c; Moderate; p. 39) 24 7. In comparing men and women in the workplace, it was found that: a. men are more productive. b. women are more productive. c. women have more absences. d. men are more prone to resign. (c; Moderate; p. 39) 8. According to your text, a likely explanation for the higher absentee rate for women is that: a. women tend to have more illnesses that keep them from work than do men. b. traditionally, women have had the responsibility of caring for home and family. c. women tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than men and are consequently absent more often. d. women generally have jobs for which a temporary replacement can be hired so absences are more permissible. (b; Challenging; p. 39) 9. All of the following are true about married employees except: a. they are more productive than single employees. b. they have fewer absences than single employees. c. they undergo less turnover than single employees. d. they are more satisfied with their jobs than single employees. (a; Moderate; pp. 39-40) 10. Which of the following statements concerning tenure is not true? a. The most recent evidence demonstrates a positive relationship between seniority and job productivity. b. Tenure does not appear to be a good predictor of employee productivity. c. Tenure is a potent variable in explaining turnover. d. Tenure and satisfaction are positively related. (b; Moderate; p. 40) 11. Studies indicate that employees with more tenure: a. are generally less satisfied than newer employees. b. are generally less productive than newer employees. c. are generally absent less than newer employees. d. are generally absent more than newer employees. (c; Moderate; p. 40) Ability 12. As used in the text, the term “ability:” a. refers to an individual’s willingness to perform the various tasks in a job. b. is a current assessment of what one can do. c. is made up of only intellectual skills. d. is made up of people skills. (b; Moderate; p. 40) 13. Which one of the following is the best synonym for “ability?” 25 a. motivation b. capacity c. experience d. intellect (b; Moderate; p. 40) 14. Which of the following is not a dimension of intellectual ability as discussed in your text? a. number aptitude b. perceptual speed c. spatial visualization d. dynamic strength (d; Moderate; Exh. 2-1; p. 41) 15. Tests that measure specific dimensions of intelligence have been found to be strong predictors of: a. job satisfaction. b. turnover. c. job performance. d. ability to work with others. (c; Moderate; p. 41) 16. A major problem resulting from the use of ability tests for selection and promotion of personnel is: a. the low reliability of the tests. b. the tests fail to take into account the personality of the individual. c. the adverse impact the tests have on racial and ethnic groups. d. some individuals with high intelligence are poor test takers. (c; Moderate; p. 41) Recent evidence suggests that intelligence can be better understood by breaking it down into four sub-parts. Which one of the following is not one of those sub-parts? a. cognitive b. social c. emotional d. physical strength (d; Moderate; pp. 41-42) 18. ______ encompasses the aptitudes that have long been tapped by traditional intelligence tests. a. Cognitive intelligence b. Social intelligence c. Emotional intelligence d. Physical strength (a; Easy; p. 42) 19. 17. _______ intelligence is a persons ability to relate effectively to others. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (b; Easy; p. 42) 26 20. _______ intelligence is awareness of cross-cultural differences and the ability to successfully function in cross-cultural situations. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (d; Easy; p. 42) 21. ______ intelligence is the ability to identify, understand, and manage emotions. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (c; Easy; p. 42) 22. Multiple intelligences may help explain why so-called “smart people” don’t: a. necessarily adapt well to everyday life. b. work well with others. c. succeed when placed in leadership roles. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 42) 23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of physical ability? a. stamina b. strength c. looks d. dexterity (c; Moderate; p. 42) 24. Research indicates that there are nine basic abilities involved in the performance of physical tests. Which of the following is not a correct description of the ability listed? a. dynamic strength–ability to exert muscular force repeatedly b. dynamic flexibility–ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible c. balance–ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance d. stamina–ability to continue maximum effort requiring prolonged effort over time (b; Challenging; Exh. 2-2; p. 42) Learning 25. According to a psychologist’s definition, _____ indicates that learning has taken place. a. ability to perform well on exams b. change in attitude c. change in behavior d. a high IQ score (c; Easy; p. 43) 26. Any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience is termed: a. learning. b. classical conditioning. 27 c. operant conditioning. d. social learning theory. (a; Moderate; p. 43) All of the following are true about learning except: a. it involves change. b. the change can be permanent or temporary. c. it requires a change in actions of behavior. d. it requires some form of experience. (b; Moderate; p. 44) 27. 28. Experience may be acquired: a. directly through observation or practice. b. directly through reading. c. but is not necessary for learning. d. but is meaningless. (a; Moderate; p. 44) 29. The classical conditioning theory of learning grew out of: a. experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov. b. the need for better managers. c. experiments performed by B. F. Skinner. d. advances in technology. (a; Moderate; p. 44) 30. In Pavlov’s experiment, the meat was: a. an unconditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned response. c. a conditioned stimulus. d. a conditioned response. (a; Easy; p. 44) 31. Which of the following is not a conditioned response? a. wincing when you stub your toe b. driving on the right side of the road c. feeling hunger around noon time d. looking for shelter when the sky turns gray (a; Moderate; p. 44) 32. In Pavlov’s experiment, the bell was: a. an unconditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned response. c. a conditioned stimulus. d. a conditioned response. (c; Easy; p. 44) 33. Which of the following is not true of classical conditioning? a. Classical conditioning is passive. b. Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors. c. Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned 28 stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. d. The neutral stimulus takes on the properties of the conditioned stimulus. (d; Moderate; pp. 44-45) 34. A smell that brings back memories of a certain time and place is an example of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. sensory conditioning. d. association conditioning. (a; Easy; p. 44) 35. Most behavior of individuals in organizations is: a elicited. b. emitted. c. reflexive. d. uncontrollable. (b; Moderate; p. 45) 36. Operant conditioning argues that: a. behavior is reflexive. b. behavior is unlearned. c. behavior is a function of its consequences. d. the tendency to repeat a behavior is very strong. (c; Moderate; p. 45) 37. Reinforcement is the major tenet of: a. Pavlov. b. Fayol. c. Skinner. d. Deming. (c; Challenging; p. 46) 38. What _____ did for classical conditioning, _____ did for operant conditioning. a. Pavlov; Skinner b. Herzberg; Deming c. Fayol; Mintzberg d. McGregor; Maslow (a; Challenging; p. 46) 39. Your boss does not follow through on his/her promise to pay you double for overtime hours worked. When asked again to work overtime, you decline. This is an application of a. employer/employee relations. b. operant conditioning. c. lack of commitment. 29 d. social learning. (b; Moderate; p. 46) 40. According to operant conditioning, if a behavior fails to be positively reinforced, the probability that behavior will be repeated: a. increases. b. declines. c. remains unchanged. d. is not impacted. (b; Moderate; p. 46) 41. The view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience is called: a. situational learning theory. b. classical learning. c. social learning theory. d. hands-on learning experience. (c; Easy; p. 46) 42. Social learning theory is an extension of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. shaping. d. extinction. (b; Challenging; p. 46) 43. Four processes have been found to determine the influence that a model will have on an individual. Which of the following is not one of the processes? a. shaping processes b. attentional processes c. motor reproduction processes d. reinforcement processes (a; Challenging; pp. 46-47) 44. Using ____ processes in creating employee training programs recognizes that models’ influence will depend on how well the individual remembers the model’s action after the model is no longer readily available. a. attentional b. retention c. motor reproduction d. reinforcement (b; Moderate; pp. 46-47) 45. The learning concept of reinforcing closer and closer approximations to the desired new behavior is called: a. modeling. b. shaping. c. classical conditioning. d. social learning. 30 (b; Easy; p. 47) Individual-difference factors found to significantly influence learning and training actions include all of the following except: a. ability. b. motivational level. c. personality. d. age. (d; Moderate; p. 47) 47. All of the following are ways in which to shape learning except: a. positive reinforcement. b. punishment. c. extinction. d. manipulation. (d; Moderate; pp. 47-48) 48. When a response is followed by the termination or withdrawal of something unpleasant, it is called: a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. manipulation. d. elimination. (a; Easy; p. 47) 49. Suspending an employee who shows up for work drunk is an example of: a. extinction. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. poor planning. (c; Moderate; p. 48) 50. An example of _____ is when an employee receives a one-week suspension from work and is fined $200 for stealing company property. a. penalization b. punishment c. extinction d. negative reinforcement (b; Easy; p. 48) 46. 51. Eliminating any reinforcement that is maintaining an unwanted behavior is called: a. extinction. b. punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. (a; Easy; p. 48) 31 52. All of the following are true about both positive and negative reinforcement except: a. both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning. b. both positive and negative reinforcement strengthen a response and increase the probability of repetition. c. both positive and negative reinforcement tend to weaken behavior and decrease its subsequent frequency. d. both positive and negative reinforcement are effective shaping tools. (c; Challenging; pp. 48-49) 53. In a case where an employee is frequently late for work and every time he/she is not tardy the manager compliments him/her for being on time, the manager is using: a. continuous schedule reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. an intermittent schedule of reinforcement. d. a repetitious schedule of reinforcement. (a; Moderate; p. 49) 54. According to research, the _____ form of reinforcement tends to promote more resistance to extinction than does the _____ form. a. varied; repetitious b. repetitious; intermittent c. intermittent; continuous d. continuous; varied (c; Moderate; p. 49) 55. In a ____ reinforcement schedule, after a constant number of responses are given, a reward is initiated. a. variable-ratio b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. fixed-interval (b; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 56. In general, _____ reinforcement schedules tend to lead to higher performance than _____ reinforcement schedules. a. variable; fixed b. fixed; intermittent c. fixed; variable d. variable; occasional (a; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 57. A series of randomly timed, unannounced visits to a company office by the corporate audit staff is an example of: a. surprise tactic. b. variable-interval reinforcement schedule. c. continuous reinforcement schedule. d. fixed reinforcement schedule. (b; Moderate; p. 50) 32 58. The now-classic study at Emery Air Freight illustrates the use of: a. classical conditioning. b. self-management. c. reengineering. d. behavior modification. (d; Moderate; p. 51) 59. The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to as: a. classical conditioning. b. self-management. c. reengineering. d. OB Mod. (d; Moderate; p. 51) Which of the following is not one of the steps of the problem-solving model followed by the typical OB Mod program? a. identifying critical behaviors b. avoiding evaluation and performance c. developing baseline data d. developing and implementing an intervention strategy (b; Challenging; p. 52) 60. 61. Examples of how managers can use learning theory include all the following except: a. using lotteries to reduce absenteeism. b. disciplining employees. c. developing training programs. d. using radio advertisements for recruiting. (d; Moderate; pp. 53-54) 62. Which of the following does not describe the effect of discipline on employees? a. It tells employees what not to do. b. It tells employees what to do in the future. c. It produces fast results in the short run. d. It leads to employee frustration, fear of the manager, and increases in absenteeism and turnover. (b; Moderate; p. 53) 63. Learning techniques that allow individuals to manage their own behavior so that less external management control is necessary are termed: a. self-management. b. MBO. c. reengineering. d. mentor programs. (a; Easy; p. 54) 33 TRUE/FALSE Biographical Characteristics 64. Biographical data is easier to acquire than information on employee motivation levels. (True; Easy; p. 37) 65. Personal characteristics that are objective and easily obtained from personnel records (such as age, sex, and marital status) are termed biographical characteristics. (True; Easy; p. 37) 66. The relationship between age and job performance is likely to be an issue of increasing importance during the next decade. (True; Moderate; p. 38) 67. Recent American legislation makes it easier for a company to enforce mandatory retirement. (False; Moderate; p. 38) 68. Age and turnover rates are directly related. (False; Moderate; p. 38) 69. Age and avoidable absences are positively related. (False; Moderate; p. 38) 70. Productivity declines with age. (False; Challenging; p. 38) 71. Age and job satisfaction are related for professional workers. (True; Challenging; p. 39) It is best to assume that there are not significant differences as to job productivity between males and females. (True; Easy; p. 39) 73. Men have a higher rate of absenteeism than women. (False; Easy; p. 39) 74. Working mothers are more likely to prefer part-time work, flexible work schedules, and telecommuting. (True; Easy; p. 39) 75. Women have higher absenteeism rates than men do. (True; Easy; p. 39) 76. Married employees tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than single employees. (True; Easy; pp. 39-40) 77. Married employees tend to have higher turnover rates than single employees. (False; Moderate; pp. 39-40) 34 72. 78. People who have been on a job longer are more productive than those with less seniority. (True; Moderate; p. 40) 79. Seniority is negatively related to absenteeism. (True; Moderate; p. 40) 80. Seniority is negatively related to turnover and is one of the single best predictors of turnover. (True; Challenging; p. 40) 81. Tenure and satisfaction are negatively related. (False; Moderate; p. 40) Ability Everyone has strengths and weaknesses in terms of ability that make them relatively superior or inferior to others in performing certain tasks or activities. (True; Moderate; p. 40) 83. Ability is the assessment of what one will do. (False; Easy; p. 40) 84. An individual’s overall abilities are essentially made up of two sets of factors: intellectual and physical abilities. (True; Moderate; p. 40) 85. It is now illegal for employers to use IQ tests for employment selection. (False; Moderate; p. 40) 86. A high IQ is a prerequisite for all jobs. (False; Easy; p. 41) Tests that measure specific dimensions of intelligence have been found to be strong predictors of future job performance. (True; Moderate; p. 41) Mental ability tests used for selection, promotion, training, and similar personnel decisions may have a negative impact on racial and ethnic groups. (True; Challenging; p. 41) 89. Stamina, dexterity, and strength are dimensions of intellectual ability. (False; Easy; Exh. 2-2; p. 42) 90. Emotional intelligence is the ability to identify, understand, and manage emotions. (True; Moderate; p. 42) 91. The multiple intelligence line of inquiry holds little promise. (False; Easy; p. 42) 88. 87. 82. 35 92. Employee performance is enhanced when there is a high ability-job fit. (True; Easy; p. 42) 93. Individuals who have a high score on one dimension of physical ability will almost always score high on the other dimensions. (False; Moderate; p. 42) Learning 94. Learning consists of any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience. (True; Easy; p. 43) 95. One can easily observe others learning. (False; Easy; p. 43) 96. Classical conditioning grew out of the work of B.F. Skinner. (False; Moderate; p. 44) 97. Pavlov taught dogs to salivate in response to the ringing of a bell. (True; Easy; p. 44) 98. The meat in Pavlov’s experiment was an unconditioned stimulus. (True; Moderate; p. 44) 99. Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. (True; Challenging; p. 44) 100. Operant conditioning can be used to explain why Christmas carols often bring back pleasant memories of childhood. (False; Challenging; p. 44) 101. Classical conditioning is passive. (True; Moderate; p. 45) 102. Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors. (True; Moderate; p. 45) 103. What Pavlov did for operant conditioning, Skinner did for classical conditioning. (False; Challenging; p. 46) 104. Operant behavior means voluntary or learned behavior in contrast to reflexive or unlearned behavior. (True; Challenging; p. 45) 105. According to operant conditioning, behavior is assumed to be determined from without. (True; Moderate; p. 46) 106. Your supervisor has explained that he will positively reward those who take extra effort to see that 36 their jobs are done well. You should suspect he has read the work of B.F. Skinner. (True; Easy; p. 46) 107. Rewards are most effective if they are delayed following the desired response. (False; Moderate; p. 46) 108. Learning through observation and direct experience has been called classical conditioning. (False; Easy; p. 46) 109. The old adage “you can’t teach an old dog new tricks” is definitely true. (False; Easy; p. 47) 110. Older workers are not as capable of learning as other employee groups. (False; Moderate; p. 47) One method of shaping behavior is called positive reinforcement and refers to a response being followed with something pleasant. (True; Moderate; p. 47) 112. Eliminating any reinforcement that is maintaining a behavior is called punishment. (False; Moderate; pp. 47-48) 113. Both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning. (True; Easy; p. 48) 114. Both punishment and extinction weaken behavior and tend to decrease its subsequent frequency. (True; Challenging; p. 48) 115. Some type of reinforcement is necessary to produce a change in behavior. (True; Easy; p. 49) 116. A continuous reinforcement schedule reinforces the desired behavior each and every time it is demonstrated. (True; Easy; p. 49) 111. 117. A piece-rate incentive plan is an example of a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement. (False; Moderate; p. 49) 118. Salespeople on commission are examples of individuals on a variable-ratio schedule. (True; Moderate; p. 50) 119. Evidence indicates that the variable form of reinforcement leads to early satiation. (False; Challenging; p. 50) 120. In the typical OB Mod program, everything an employee does on his or her job is equally important in terms of performance outcomes. (False; Moderate; p. 51) The first step in OB Mod is to identify critical behaviors impacting the employee’s performance. 37 121. (True; Moderate; p. 52) 122. Organizations with paid sick leave programs experience approximately one-half the absenteeism of organizations without such programs. (False; Moderate; p. 53) 123. Discipline is very effective in producing long-term change in employee behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 53) 124. Discipline tends to be popular because of its ability to produce fast results in the short run. (True; Easy; p. 53) 125. Organizations can use social-learning theory to design training programs. (True; Easy; pp. 53-54) Self-management requires an individual to deliberately manipulate stimuli, internal processes, and responses to achieve personal behavioral outcomes. (True; Moderate; p. 54) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Biographical Characteristics Your division is made up of four people with very different biological characteristics. Gina is 27 years old, single and female. She has been with the company only six months. Robert is 33 years old and married and has been with the firm since he graduated from college. Jonathan is 63 years old and a widower. Jonathan has been with the company for thirty years. Sally is a single mother with four children who has been working here for five years. 127. You would expect that the lowest rate of avoidable absence will be: a. Robert’s. b. Sally’s. c. Gina’s. d. Jonathan’s. (d; Moderate; pp. 37-40) 126. 128. You would expect _____ to be the first employee to choose telecommuting or a flexible work schedule. a. Jonathan b. Sally c. Gina d. Robert (b; Moderate; pp. 37-40) 129. You would expect Robert, because he is _____, will be more satisfied with his job than his coworkers. 38 a. married b. middle aged c. college educated d. a father (a; Challenging; pp. 37-40) 130. You would believe that _____ is the least likely to quit his or her job. a. Gina b. Robert c. Jonathan d. Sally (c; Moderate; pp. 37-40) Application of Ability-Job Fit Martin has just been appointed as Director of Career Services for a small community college. He has decided to consider the particular dimensions of intellectual ability that each student has to try to place him or her in an appropriate position. Gary is a marketing major and has decided that he wants to be a Market Researcher. The ability that he will need most is: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (c; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) Martha is interested in a career in interior decorating. The intellectual ability that she will need most is: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. spatial visualization. d. deductive reasoning. (c; Moderate; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) 132. 131. 133. You have just met Ted. Ted has returned to college after a successful career as a fire investigator. Ted probably has the intellectual ability that is termed: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (b; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) 134. Martin’s own supervisor cannot seem to make a choice when two different suggestions are offered by her employees. Martin suspects that his supervisor is not strong in the ability termed: a. number aptitude. 39 b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (d; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) Application of Learning Theory—Shaping Behavior You are the first-line supervisor for a group of employees who make green widgets. Their job is not terribly interesting or challenging and you have noticed that they are frequently tardy returning from their breaks. You have studied the concept of shaping behavior and decide that you will try to apply it to this situation. 135. You praise Allen for returning on time from break. This is an example of: a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. extinction. d. social learning. (b; Moderate; pp. 47-49) 136. You want Allison to take an accounting course so that she can help with the bookkeeping. Allison does not want to go to night school to take the course and has been resisting. You know that her least favorite duty is preparing payroll. You tell her that she will be doing payroll until she takes the accounting course. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. (b; Challenging; pp. 47-49) Sam is late coming back to work again and you reduce his pay by a half hour’s wages. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. (c; Moderate; pp. 47-49) 137. Application of Different Schedules of Reinforcement You have decided to experiment with the relationship between reinforcement schedules and maintaining desired employee behavior. You are interested in observing the differences between continuous and intermittent reinforcement and between the various types of intermittent reinforcement schedules. 138. Veronica is paid $10.00 per dozen widgets that she produces. This is an example of: a. intermittent, fixed-interval reinforcement. b. continuous reinforcement. c. intermittent, variable-interval reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. (a; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 40 Gerald is a staff accountant who is visited several times a year by the corporate auditor. These visits are unannounced. This is an example of: a. intermittent, fixed-interval reinforcement. b. continuous reinforcement. c. intermittent, variable-interval reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. (c; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 140. John’s attendance has historically been unreliable and you have decided to use reinforcement to compliment him when his attendance record shows improvement. The most effective schedule of reinforcement will probably be: a. variable-interval intermittent. b. fixed-interval intermittent. c. continuous. d. punishment-based. (a; Challenging; pp. 49-50) 141. You know that the reinforcement schedule that your firm chooses for compensation will have an impact on the behavior of the employees. Which of the following is not true based on available research? a. Continuous reinforcement schedules can lead to early satiation. b. Continuous reinforcement schedules are appropriate for newly emitted, unstable, or lowfrequency responses. c. Variable schedules do not clearly link performance and rewards. d. Fixed schedules tend to lead to higher performance than variable schedules. (d; Challenging; pp. 49-50) Application of Behavior Modification Your manager has read about the now-classic study of Emery’s use of OB Mod. He was impressed by the savings to the company of $2 million over a three-year period. He has announced that he is implementing an OB Mod program. 139. You can expect to see the application of________ in the work setting. a. reinforcement concepts to individuals b. open book management c. additional stock option plans d. a cafeteria benefit plan (a; Challenging; p. 51) The first step that your manager is likely to take is: a. identifying behavioral consequences. b. identifying critical behaviors. c. evaluating performance improvement. d. developing baseline data. (b; Challenging; pp.51-52) 41 143. 142. 144. In the first step of the OB Mod program, your manager will most likely be attempting to identify those five to ten percent of behaviors that may account for up to ______ percent of each employee’s performance. a. 20-25 b. 40-50 c. 60-70 d. 70-80 (d; Challenging; pp. 51-52) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 145. Briefly discuss whether women perform as well in the workplace as men. (Page 39) There is no evidence indicating that an employee’s gender affects job productivity. 146. Why is the relationship between age and job performance likely to be an issue of increasing importance during the next decade? (Pages 37-38) First, there is a widespread belief that job performance declines with increasing age. Regardless of whether it’s true or not, a lot of people believe it and act on it. Second is the reality that the workforce is aging. Workers age 55 and older are currently the fastest-growing sector of the labor force. The third reason is U.S. legislation that, for all intents and purposes, outlaws mandatory retirement. What is the relationship between job satisfaction and the following biological characteristics: age, gender, marital status, and tenure? (Pages 37-40) The evidence is mixed with regard to the relationship between age and job satisfaction. Most studies indicate a positive association between age and satisfaction, at least up to age 60. Others studies, however, have found a U-shaped relationship. Satisfaction tends to continually increase among professionals as they age, whereas it fails among nonprofessionals during middle age and then rises again in the later years. There is no evidence indicating that an employee’s gender affects job satisfaction. Married people are more satisfied with their jobs than are their unmarried coworkers. Causation is not clear, however. It may very well be that conscientious and satisfied employees are more likely to be married. The evidence indicates that tenure and satisfaction are positively related. When age and tenure are treated separately, tenure appears to be a more consistent and stable predictor of job satisfaction than is chronological age. 148. What are the four sub-parts of intelligence? (Pages 40-42) The four parts of intelligence are cognitive, social, emotional, and cultural. Cognitive intelligence encompasses the aptitudes that have long been tapped by traditional intelligence tests. Social intelligence is a person’s ability to relate effectively to others. Emotional intelligence is the ability to 42 147. identify, understand, and manage emotions. And cultural intelligence is awareness of cross-cultural differences and the ability to successfully function in cross-cultural situations. 149. What prediction can you make when the ability-job fit is poor? (Page 43) If employees lack the required abilities, they are likely to fail in their job performance. Abilities significantly above those required can also reduce the employee’s job satisfaction when the employee’s desire to use his or her abilities is particularly strong and is frustrated by the limitations of the job. 150. How can managers shape employee behavior? (Pages 47-48) Managers can shape employee behavior by systematically reinforcing each successive step that moves the individual closer to the desired response. Managers can mold individuals by guiding their learning in graduated steps. Reinforcement increases as responses more closely approximate the desired behavior. Managers may use positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction. 151. Give an example of a fixed-ratio schedule for paying employees and an example of a variable-ratio schedule for payment. (Page 50) A fixed-ratio schedule rewards are initiated after a fixed or constant number of responses. For example, a worker is rewarded with a piece rate system paying $10 for every 12 widgets produced. Each dozen earns the worker another $10. A variable-ratio schedule provides variable reward relative to the behavior of the individual. For example, a car salesman on commission is on a variable-ratio schedule. Each potential customer does not necessarily result in a sale – and ultimately a commission. 152. How might a lottery be used to reduce absenteeism? (Page 53) A lottery could be used to reduce absenteeism. Every month that an employee has perfect attendance at work could result in their inclusion in a monetary lottery at the end of the year. If the employee had perfect attendance, at the end of the year, they could have twelve chances to win the lottery. Another employee who used sick days each month would have no chance. This could also operate on a monthly basis. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 153. What is the relationship between age and productivity, turnover and satisfaction? (Pages 37-39) The older you get, the less likely you are to quit your job. Older workers are less likely to resign than are younger workers because their long tenure tends to provide them with higher wage rates, longer paid vacations, and more attractive pension benefits. In general, older employees have lower rates of 43 avoidable absence than do younger employees. However, they have higher rates of unavoidable absence, probably due to the poorer heath associated with aging and the longer recovery that older workers need when injured. The demands of most jobs, even those with heavy manual labor requirements, are not extreme enough for any declines in physical skills due to age to have an impact on productivity; or if there is some decay due to age, it is offset by gains due to experience. The evidence is mixed when examining the relationship between age and job satisfaction. Most studies indicate a positive association between age and satisfaction, at least up to age 60. Other studies, however, have found a U-shaped relationship. Satisfaction tends to continually increase among professionals as they age, whereas it falls among nonprofessionals during middle age and then rises again in the later years. 154. What is ability? What are the two sets of factors comprising ability? (Pages 40-43) Ability refers to an individual’s capacity to perform the various tasks in a job. It is a current assessment of what one can do. An individual’s overall abilities are essentially made up of two sets of factors: intellectual and physical abilities. Intellectual abilities are those needed to perform mental activities. Physical abilities are important for successfully performing less-skilled and morestandardized jobs. 155. Identify the five steps of a typical OB Mod program. (Page 52) The typical OB Mod program follows a five-step problem-solving model: identifying critical behaviors, developing baseline data, identifying behavioral consequences, developing and implementing an intervention strategy, and evaluating performance improvement. The first step is to identify the critical behaviors that make a significant impact on the employee’s job performance. The second step requires the manager to develop some baseline performance data. This is obtained by determining the number of times the identified behavior is occurring under present conditions. The third step is to perform a functional analysis to identify the behavioral contingencies or consequences of performance. This tells the manager the antecedent cues that emit the behavior and the consequences that are currently maintaining it. In the fourth step, the manager develops and implements an intervention strategy to strengthen desirable performance behaviors and weaken undesirable behaviors. The final step is to evaluate performance improvement. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 156. Discuss classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and social learning. (Pages 44-47) Classical conditioning was researched by Pavlov. Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. When the stimuli, one compelling and the other one neutral, are paired, the neutral one becomes a conditioned stimulus and, hence, takes on the properties of the unconditioned stimulus. Operant conditioning according to Skinner, argues that behavior is a function of its consequences. People learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don’t want. Operant behavior means voluntary or 44 learned behavior in contrast to reflexive or unlearned behavior. The tendency to repeat such behavior is influenced by the reinforcement or lack of reinforcement brought about by the consequences of the behavior. Reinforcement, therefore, strengthens a behavior and increases the likelihood that it will be repeated. Social learning is the view that we can learn through both observation and direct experience. While social learning theory is an extension of operant conditioning – that is, it assumes that behavior is a function of consequences – it also acknowledges the existence of observational learning and the importance of perception to learning. People respond to how they perceive and define consequences, not to the objective consequences themselves. 157. Discuss the four processes management should include when creating employee training programs. (Pages 52-54) The likelihood that training programs will be successful can be improved with the inclusion of attentional, retention, motor reproduction, and reinforcement processes. People learn from a model only when they recognize and pay attention to its critical features. We tend to be most influenced by models that are attractive, repeatedly available, important to us, or similar to us in our estimation. A model’s influence will depend on how well the individual remembers the model’s action after the model is no longer readily available. After a person has seen a new behavior by observing the model, the watching must be converted to doing. This motor reproduction process demonstrates that the individuals can perform the modeled activities. Individuals will be motivated to exhibit the modeled behavior if positive incentives or rewards are provided. Behaviors that are positively reinforced will be given more attention, learned better, and performed more often. 45 Chapter 3 Values, Attitudes, and Job Satisfaction MULTIPLE CHOICE Values 1. ____ represent basic convictions that “a specific mode of conduct or end state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct.” a. Values b. Attitudes c. Convictions d. Preferences (a; Moderate; p. 63) 2. The content attribute states a value is: a. complete. b. important. c. a basic conviction. d. related to behavior. (b; Moderate; p. 63) 3. When we rank an individual’s values in terms of his/her _____, we obtain the person’s value system. a. intensity b. content c. context d. social acceptance (a; Moderate; p. 63) 4. Values are best described as: a. flexible. b. synonymous with attitudes. c. consistent among occupational groups. d. fairly stable over time. (d; Moderate; p. 64) 5. Rokeach studied instrumental values and: a. terminal values. b. attitudes. c. ethical decision making. d. speed of decision making. (a; Moderate; p. 64) 6. Rokeach found that the instrumental value of ambitious (hardworking and aspiring) people was related to the terminal value of: a. a comfortable life. b. freedom. c. happiness. d. self-respect. 46 (a; Challenging; Exh. 3-1; p. 65) 7. According to Rokeach, _____ values refer to desirable end-states of existence. a. instrumental b. aesthetic c. theoretical d. terminal (d; Moderate; p. 64) 8. Which of the following was ranked as the highest terminal value by executives? a. family security b. self-respect c. equality d. freedom (b; Challenging; Exh. 3-2; p. 65) 9. Frederick and Weber compiled a list of values that are held by different organizational groups. Which of the following groups ranked “honest” as the highest instrumental value? a. union members and activists b. executives and union members c. executives and activists d. existentials (c; Challenging; Exh. 3-2; p. 65) 10. Which category of dominant work values is likely to characterize a 60-year-old employee? a. pragmatism b. egalitarianism c. existentialism d. Protestant work ethic (c; Challenging; Exh. 3-3; p. 65) 11. At which age is an employee most likely to be characterized by values that place high loyalty on career? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 (b; Challenging; p. 66) 12. Those individuals whose lives have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers; who value flexibility, life options and the achievement of job satisfaction, are referred to as the: a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (d; Easy; p. 66) 13. Throughout the mid-1970s, the managerial ranks were dominated by Veterans, whose loyalties were 47 to their employer. When faced with ethical dilemmas, their decisions were made in terms of: a. what was best for their organization. b. what was best for their family. c. what was best for society. d. what was best for them on an individual basis. (a; Moderate; p. 68) 14. _____ tended to be loyal to their employer. a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; p. 66) 15. _____ entered the work force from the mid-1960s through the mid-1980s. a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (c; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; p. 66) 16. The most recent entrants to the workforce are: a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (c; Moderate; p. 67) 17. The loyalty of _____ is to their careers. a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (b; Moderate; p. 68) 18. A comprehensive analysis of cultural diversity has been done by: a. Maslow. b. Hofstede. c. McGregor. d. Follett. (b; Moderate; p. 68) 19. Which of the following is not one of Hofstede’s five dimensions of national culture? a. power distance b. language proficiency c. quantity of life vs. quality of life d. long-term orientation (b; Challenging; pp. 68-69) 48 The measure of the extent to which people in a country accept the fact that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally is called: a. institutional distribution theory. b. collectivism. c. power distance. d. quantity of life. (c; Moderate; p. 68) Cultures that emphasize _____ value relationships and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. a. quantity of life b. quality of life c. power distance d. collectivism (b; Challenging; p. 68) 22. Capitalism, which values aggressiveness and acquisition of material goods, is consistent with Hofstede’s _____ characteristics. a. collectivism b. quality of life c. quantity of life d. hierarchical (c; Challenging; p. 68) 23. 21. 20. If Hofstede’s study on national culture were to be updated, which of the following would most likely be true? a. China would now rank low on power distance. b. Mexico would have a stronger emphasis on collectivism. c. The United States would have a higher power distance. d. The United States would have shifted from an emphasis on quantity of life to an emphasis on quality of life. (d; Challenging; p. 68) 24. _____ is the equivalent of low individualism. a. Collectivism b. Power distance c. Long-term orientation d. Uncertainty avoidance (a; Easy; p. 69) 25. _____ is the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations. a. Collectivism b. Power distance c. Long-term orientation d. Uncertainty avoidance (d; Easy; p. 69) 26. Which of the following is not one of the cultural dimensions identified by the GLOBE team? a. assertiveness b. future orientation 49 c. humane orientation d. societal institutions (d; Moderate; pp. 69-70) 27. Which of the following cultural dimensions was identified by GLOBE, but not Hofstede? a. uncertainty avoidance b. power distance c. performance orientation d. individualism/collectivism (c; Moderate; pp 69-70) 28. According to the GLOBE team, _____ encompasses the extent to which members of a society take pride in membership in small groups. a. in-group collectivism b. individualism/collectivism c. performance orientation d. human orientation (a; Challenging; p. 69) Attitudes 29. In contrasting values and attitudes, which one of the following is true? a. They come from different sources. b. There is no significant correlation between the two. c. Attitudes are more stable than values. d. Values are more stable than attitudes. (d; Challenging; p. 71) 30. The belief that “discrimination is wrong” is a value statement. Such an opinion is the _____ component of an attitude. a. cognitive b. affective c. reactive d. behavioral (a; Challenging; p. 71) 31. The _____ component is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. a. affective b. cognitive c. behavioral d. evaluative (a; Moderate; p. 71) 32. The _____ component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something. a. affective b. cognitive 50 c. behavioral d. evaluative (c; Moderate; p. 71) 33. Which one of the following is not an attitude? a. job productivity b. job satisfaction c. job involvement d. organizational commitment (a; Easy; p. 71) 34. The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance important to self-worth is: a. job satisfaction. b. job involvement. c. job stability. d. organizational commitment. (b; Moderate; p. 72) 35. _____ refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job. a. Job satisfaction b. Job involvement c. Job stability d. Organizational commitment (a; Moderate; p. 72) 36. Job involvement is best defined as a worker’s: a. general attitude toward his or her job. b. loyalty to the organization. c. identification with the job. d. need to participate in organizational social activities. (c; Moderate; p. 72) 37. If an employee’s attitude is negative toward her job, she does not have: a. organizational commitment. b. values. c. job satisfaction. d. job involvement. (c; Moderate; p. 72) 38. Organizational commitment is: a. an attitude. b. negatively related to turnover. c. negatively related to absenteeism. d. all of the above 51 (d; Easy; p. 72) The best predictor of turnover is: a. job satisfaction. b. personality. c. organizational commitment. d. values. (c; Challenging; p. 72) 39. The text suggested that in today’s workplace, organizational commitment may be replaced with: a. family commitment. b. occupational commitment. c. boss commitment. d. department commitment. (b; Moderate; p. 72) 41. If attitudes and behavior are inconsistent, individuals will most likely: a. change their behavior. b. change their attitudes. c. change either their attitudes and/or behavior. d. do nothing. (c; Easy; p. 73) 42. Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes is termed: a. self-perception. b. cognitive dissonance. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. rational decision making. (b; Easy; p. 73) 43. The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by: a. Abraham Maslow. b. Leon Festinger. c. G. G. Shaw. d. John Holland. (b; Moderate; p. 74) Festinger would propose that the desire to reduce dissonance would be determined by: a. the importance of the elements creating the dissonance. b. the degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements. c. the rewards that may be involved in dissonance. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 74) 45. Which of the following is not a moderating variable? a. the importance of the attitude b. fundamental values c. its specificity d. its accessibility (b; Challenging; p. 76) 52 44. 40. 46. The A-B relationship is likely to be much stronger if: a. an attitude refers to something with which the individual has direct personal experience. b. the attitude is not considered important. c. the attitude is not specific. d. the attitude is not easily remembered. (a; Moderate; p. 75) 47. _____ is the theory that attitudes are used, after the fact, to make sense out of action that has already occurred. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Escalation of commitment c. Self perception d. Lag delay (c; Challenging; p. 76) 48. In _____, employers elicit responses from employees through questionnaires about how they feel about their jobs, work groups, supervisors, and/or the organization. a. realistic job previews b. attitude surveys c. employee audits d. job descriptions (b; Easy; p. 76) 49. Which of the following is not true concerning diversity programs? a. They almost all include a self-evaluation phase. b. Participants take part in group discussions with representatives from diverse groups. c. People confront their ethnic stereotypes. d. Only large U.S. employers sponsor diversity training. (d; Moderate; p. 78) Job Satisfaction 50. Job satisfaction is best described as: a. behavior. b. a value. c. an attitude. d. causing high performance. (c; Moderate; p. 78) The best measure of job satisfaction is: a. the job involvement scale. b. the commitment scale. c. the summation of job facets. d. a one-question global rating. (d; Challenging; p. 78) 51. 53 52. Independent studies conducted among U.S. workers over the past 30 years generally indicate that: a. workers are satisfied with their jobs. b. these results are generally applicable to other developed countries. c. more people report that they are satisfied than not. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 79) 53. Which of the following is true about the relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism? a. There is a consistent positive relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism. b. There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism. c. No relationship can be established between satisfaction and absenteeism. d. Liberal sick leave policies reduce absence among satisfied employees. (b; Moderate; p. 80) 54. Factors other than satisfaction that impact one’s decision to leave a current job include all of the following except: a. labor market conditions. b. length of tenure with the organization. c. expectations about alternative job opportunities. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 80) 55. Satisfaction is _____ to turnover. a. positively related b. unrelated c. negatively related d. equal in number (c; Moderate; p. 81) 56. There has been a marked decline in job satisfaction since: a. the early 1990s. b. the Industrial Revolution. c. the 1950s. d. the late 1930s. (a; Easy; p. 70) 57. Which of the following statements is true? a. Happy workers are productive workers. b. There is a high positive correlation between happiness and productivity. c. Productive workers are likely to be happy workers. d. Satisfaction leads to productivity. (c; Moderate; p. 80) 58. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is: a. the employee’s level of performance. b. the organization’s culture. c. management. d. happiness in general. (a; Challenging; p. 81) 54 59. Attending union meetings as a response to dissatisfaction would be what type of response? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (b; Moderate; p. 82) 60. Quietly continuing to do your work, even though you’re dissatisfied, is what type of response to dissatisfaction? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (c; Moderate; p. 82) 61. Maria is dissatisfied with the way that her manager treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with another firm. She has expressed her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (a; Easy; p. 82) Steve is unhappy with his job. He takes every possible vacation and sick day and sometimes shows up for work late. He is expressing his dissatisfaction by: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (d; Moderate; p. 82) Not trying very hard as a response to dissatisfaction would be what type of response? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (d; Moderate; p. 82) 63. 62. Henry is dissatisfied with his job but believes that his supervisor is a good man who will do the right thing. Henry has decided that if he just waits, conditions will improve. Henry’s approach to this problem is termed: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (c; Moderate; p. 82) 64. 55 Early studies of organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) assumed that it was closely linked with satisfaction. More recent evidence suggests that satisfaction influences OCB, but through perceptions of: a. fairness. b. consistency. c. productivity. d. leadership ability. (a; Challenging; p. 83) 66. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. b. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee’s job dissatisfaction. c. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. d. Satisfied employees are more prone to turnover. (d; Easy; p. 83) TRUE/FALSE Values 67. Personality has both content and intensity attributes. (False; Moderate; p. 63) 68. The content attribute of a value says that a mode of conduct is important. (True; Easy; p. 63) 69. When we rank an individual’s values in terms of his/her intensity, we obtain that person’s value system. (True; Moderate; p. 63) 70. Most values that people hold about work are acquired on the job. (False; Moderate; p. 63) 71. Values tend to be stable and enduring. (True; Easy; p. 64) 72. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 64) 73. Instrumental values are preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving one’s terminal values. (True; Moderate; p. 64) 74. Milton Rokeach developed a survey that assesses terminal and instrumental values. (True; Challenging; p. 64) 75. RVS values vary among groups. (True; Easy; p. 64) 65. 56 76. Boomers place a great deal of emphasis on achievement and material success. (True; Moderate, p. 66) 77. Veterans tended to be less loyal to their employer. (False; Moderate; p. 66) 78. The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers. (True; Moderate; p. 66) 79. Nexters seem to be on a never-ending search for the ideal job. (True; Moderate; p. 67) Managers consistently report that the action of their bosses is of little importance in influencing ethical and unethical behavior in their organizations. (False; Moderate; p. 67) 81. The loyalty of Boomers is to their careers. (True; Moderate; p. 68) 82. Victor Vroom has done a comprehensive analysis of national culture. (False; Challenging; p. 68) 83. Collectivism refers to a national culture attribute describing a loosely knit social framework in which people tend to their own interests and those of their immediate family. (False; Moderate; p. 68) 84. Organizations in a society high in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more formal rules. (True; Challenging; p. 69) 85. It is consistent for a country with a democratic government to rank below average on power distance. (True; Moderate; p. 69) 86. U.S. culture ranked above average on power distance according to Hofstede. (False; Moderate; p. 69) 87. The GLOBE team identified 62 dimensions on which national cultures differ. (False; Easy; p. 69) 88. GLOBE’s future orientation is essentially equivalent to Hofstede’s long-term/short-term orientation. (True; Moderate; p. 70) 89. The GLOBE dimensions have replaced Hofstede’s dimensions. (False; Easy; pp. 70-71) Attitudes 90. The word “attitude” describes a tendency to feel and behave in a particular way toward some object. (True; Easy; p. 71) 80. 57 91. Attitudes and values are synonymous terms. (False; Easy; p. 71) 92. There are three components of an attitude: cognition, affect, and behavior. (True; Challenging; p. 71) 93. Attitudes are more stable than values. (False; Easy; p. 71) 94. In organizations, attitudes are important because they affect job behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 71) 95. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job. (True; Easy; p. 72) 96. Job involvement refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job. (False; Moderate; p. 72) 97. High levels of job involvement have been found to be related to higher absences. (False; Moderate; p. 72) 98. Organizational commitment is a better indicator of turnover than job satisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 72) 99. Organizational commitment is a more global response to the organization than is job satisfaction. (True; Challenging; p. 72) 100. Organizational commitment is probably less important in predicting job satisfaction today than it was a generation ago. (True; Moderate; pp. 72-73) Research has concluded that people seek consistency among their attitudes but not between their attitudes and behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 73) 102. If there is an inconsistency between an individual’s attitude on a specific issue and his or her behavior, there are only two courses of action available–alter the attitude or alter the behavior. (False; Challenging; p. 73) 103. Cognitive dissonance explains the linkage between attitudes and behavior. (True; Easy; p. 73) 104. The theory of cognitive dissonance seeks to explain the linkage between values and attitudes. (False; Moderate; p. 74) 105. Festinger argued that individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. (True; Easy; p. 74) 106. The desire to reduce dissonance is determined by importance, choice, and reward factors. (False; Challenging; p. 74) 58 101. 107. If the elements creating dissonance are relatively unimportant, the pressure to correct this imbalance will be low. (True; Easy; p. 74) 108. If individuals perceive the dissonance to be an uncontrollable result, they are less likely to be receptive to attitude change. (True, Challenging; p. 74) 109. Rewards can offset dissonance. (True; Moderate; p. 74) 110. The more specific the attitude and the more specific the behavior, the stronger the link between the two. (True; Moderate; p. 75) Self-perception theory uses attitudes after the fact to make sense out of an action that has already occurred. (True; Moderate; p. 76) 112. Attitude surveys can alert management to potential problems. (True; Moderate; p. 76) 113. Results from attitude surveys seldom surprise management. (False; Easy; p. 76) 114. The majority of large U.S. employers and a substantial proportion of medium-sized and smaller ones sponsor some sort of diversity training. (True; Easy; p. 78) Job Satisfaction 115. In measuring job satisfaction, the two most widely used measuring approaches are a single global rating and a summation score made up of a number of job facets. (True; Moderate; p. 78) 111. 116. Single global measures of job satisfaction are as valid as summation scores made up of a number of job facets. (True; Challenging; p. 78) 117. Studies conducted among U.S. workers over the past 30 years generally indicate that the majority of workers are satisfied with their jobs. (True; Moderate; p. 79) 118. At the individual level, satisfaction generally leads to productivity. (False; Moderate; p. 80) 119. The propensity to quit a job tends to be inversely related to job satisfaction. 59 (True; Moderate; p. 81) 120. Actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions is expressing dissatisfaction through loyalty. (False; Moderate; p. 82) 121. Voice is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 82) 122. Loyalty is a passive and constructive response to dissatisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 82) 123. Neglect is an active and destructive response to dissatisfaction in which an employee waits for conditions to improve. (False; Moderate; p. 82) 124. An increase in absenteeism is an example of dissatisfaction expressed through neglect. (True; Moderate; p. 82) 125. The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. (True; Moderate; p. 83) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Contemporary Work Cohorts You have just been promoted to manage a sales group. Your group is made up of ten people who range in age from 27 to 62. You have read that there are certain dominant work values for each age group and think that this may help you understand your group. 126. You can expect that your younger employees, the Nexters, will seek: a. financial success. b. long-term loyalty to the organization. c. loyalty to self. d. loyalty to career. (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 127. Those employees labeled _____ are in search of balance in their lives – trading off salary increases for increased leisure time. a. Veterans b. Boomers c. Xers d. Nexters (c; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 128. You can anticipate that your employees labeled _____ are pragmatists who believe that ends can justify their means. a. Veterans b. Boomers 60 c. Xers d. Nexters (b; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 129. Most of the employees who entered the work force in the 50s and early 60s are called: a. Veterans b. Boomers c. Xers d. Nexters (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) Applications of Hofstede’s Framework Suppose that you are a Human Resource Manager for Prentice Corporation who is in charge of developing a training program for managers coming to the United States from your Prentice subsidiaries around the world. You have decided to use the Hofstede Framework for discussing cultural differences that they might expect to find. Use your knowledge of the work of Hofstede to answer the following questions. 130. Your Indonesian managers will need to be especially aware of the difference that exists between their country and the United States in the degree of _____ of the two cultures. a. quantity of life vs. quality of life b. individualism c. power distance d. uncertainty avoidance (c; Challenging; pp. 68-69) If Hofstede’s work were to be updated, Americans would probably rank more like people from _____ on quantity of life. a. the Netherlands b. Germany c. Japan d. China (a; Challenging; pp. 68-69) 131. 132. You will need to include each of the following as elements of Hofstede’s framework except: a. power distance. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. parochialism. d. individualism vs. collectivism. (c; Moderate; pp. 68-69) 133. Which of the following countries ranks high in long-term orientation? a. United States b. France c. Russia d. China (d; Moderate; pp. 68-69) 61 Application of Cognitive Dissonance Theory Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that everyone has an obligation to protect the environment. Mrs. Jonas works for a hog farm in North Carolina and she has just discovered that hog waste is being released into the river. 134. Mrs. Jonas is experiencing: a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attack of conscience. c. peer pressure. d. evaluative attitude. (a; Challenging; pp. 73-75) 135. Mrs. Jonas comes to you for an explanation of why she is so uncomfortable. You might refer her to the theories of: a. Max Weber. b. Robert House. c. Abraham Maslow. d. Leon Festinger. (d; Challenging; pp. 73-75) 136. Mrs. Jonas can be expected to relieve the discomfort she is experiencing by: a. deciding this issue is unimportant. b. rationalizing that the good to society is more than offset by the small amount of pollution. c. attempting to stop the pollution. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 73-75) Application of How Employees Can Express Dissatisfaction Employees at Acme Express are dissatisfied with working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of management. Mark, Susan, and Toni are good friends who work at Acme, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. 137. Toni has decided that she’ll just get a new job and get away from the problem. Toni is dealing with her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (a; Moderate; p. 82) 138. Susan has composed a list of concerns along with her suggestions for improving conditions. Susan is dealing with her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. 62 (b; Moderate; p. 82) Mark believes that his manager is a good person and will work things out if Mark just gives him time to do so. Mark is dealing with his dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (c; Challenging; p. 82) Application of Job Satisfaction Your supervisor is trying to assess the degree to which those working for her are satisfied with their jobs. You are trying to gather information from your peers that might help her in her aim to improve job satisfaction. You should advise her that a single global rating question such as “Are you satisfied with your job?” will be as good an indicator as a more sophisticated questionnaire. (True; Moderate; pp. 78-83) You should advise your supervisor that there is renewed support for the satisfaction-performance relationship at the organizational level. (True; Challenging; pp. 78-83) 142. She will find that turnover and absenteeism are both negatively related to satisfaction, but the correlation is stronger for absenteeism than for turnover. (False; Challenging; pp. 78-83) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 143. Discuss the three components of an attitude. (Page 71) The three components of an attitude are cognition, affect, and behavior. The cognitive component is a value statement. Affect is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. “The behavioral component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something. 144. Most of the research in OB has been concerned with three attitudes: job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment. Explain the difference between these attitudes. (Pages 72-73) Job satisfaction refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job, while a person who is dissatisfied with his or her job holds negative attitudes about the job. Job involvement measures the degree to which a person identifies psychologically with his or her job and considers his or her perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do. Organizational commitment is defined 63 141. 140. 139. as a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals, and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. So high job involvement means identifying with one’s employing organization. 145. Define and discuss the theory of cognitive dissonance. (Pages 73-75) Cognitive dissonance was proposed in the late 1950s by Leon Festinger. This theory sought to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Dissonance means an inconsistency. Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility that an individual might perceive between the two or more of his or her attitudes, or between his or her behavior and attitudes. Individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. 146. Explain self-perception theory. (Page 76) Self-perception argues that attitudes are used, after the fact, to make sense out of an action that has already occurred rather than as devices that precede and guide action. And contrary to cognitive dissonance theory, attitudes are just casual verbal statements. When people are asked about their attitudes, and they don’t have strong convictions or feelings, self-perception theory says they tend to create plausible answers. 147. Explain the relationship between satisfaction and productivity at the individual and the organizational levels. (Page 80) At the individual level, productivity is likely to lead to satisfaction (rather than the reverse). At the organizational level, research finds that organizations with more satisfied employees tend to be more effective than organizations with less satisfied employees. While we might not be able to say that a happy worker is more productive, it might be true that happy organizations are more productive. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS Discuss the Rokeach Value Survey. Include definitions and discussion of terminal values and instrumental values. (Exh. 3-1; Pages 64-65) Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS). The RVS consists of two sets of values, with each set containing 18 individual value items. One set, called terminal values, refers to desirable end-states of existence. These are goals that a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime. The other set, called instrumental values, refers to preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving the terminal values. People in the same occupations or categories tend to hold similar values. 149. Compare Hofstede’s cultural dimensions with the GLOBE framework. (Pages 68-71) Geert Hofstede’s framework analyzes variations among cultures. He found that managers and 64 148. employees vary on five value dimensions of national culture. They are power distance, individualism/collectivism, quantity of life/quality of life, uncertainty avoidance, and longterm/short-term orientation. Power distance is the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. Individualism is the degree to which people in a county prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups. Collectivism is the equivalent of low individualism. Quantity of life is the degree to which values like assertiveness, the acquisition of money and material goods, and competition prevail. Quality of life is the degree to which people value relationships, and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. The degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations is uncertainty avoidance. People in cultures with long-term orientations look to the future and value thrift and persistence. A short-term orientation values the past and present, and emphasizes respect for tradition and fulfilling social obligations. The Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) research program identified nine dimensions on which national cultures differ. Assertiveness is essentially equivalent to Hofstede’s quantity-of-life dimensions. Future orientation is equivalent to Hofstede’s longterm/short term orientation. Gender differentiation is the extent to which a society maximizes gender role differences. Uncertainty avoidance, power distance, and individualism/collectivism were also identified by Hofstede. In-group collectivism encompasses the extent to which members of a society take pride in membership in small groups. Performance orientation is the degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement and excellence. Humane orientation is defined as the degree to which a society encourages and rewards individuals for being fair, altruistic, generous, caring, and kind to others. This is close to Hofstede’s quality-of-life dimension. 150. Discuss how job satisfaction can impact employee productivity, absenteeism and turnover. (Pages 80-81) At the individual level, the evidence suggests that productivity is likely to lead to satisfaction. There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism, but the correlation is moderate. Satisfaction is also negatively related to turnover, but the correlation is stronger than what was found for absenteeism. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the employee’s level of performance. 151. List and explain the four ways employees can express job dissatisfaction. (Page 82) Employees can express dissatisfaction by using exit, voice, loyalty, and neglect. Behavior directed toward leaving the organization is defined as exit behavior. Voice involves actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and some forms of union activity. Loyalty involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. Neglect is passively allowing conditions to worsen, including chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 152. Discuss the importance of values. 65 (Page 64) Values are important to the study of organizational behavior because they lay the foundation for the understanding of attitudes and motivation and because they influence our perceptions. Individuals enter an organization with preconceived notions of what “ought” and what “ought not” to be. These notions are not value free. They contain interpretations of right and wrong. Values cloud objectivity and rationality. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior. 153. Discuss the five value dimensions of national culture described by Hofstede. Explain where the United States ranks on each of the five dimensions. (Pages 68-69) Geert Hofstede’s framework analyzes variations among cultures. He found that managers and employees vary on five value dimensions of national culture. They are power distance, individualism/collectivism, quantity of life/quality of life, uncertainty avoidance, and longterm/short-term orientation. Power distance is the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. Individualism is the degree to which people in a county prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups. Collectivism is the equivalent of low individualism. Quantity of life is the degree to which values like assertiveness, the acquisition of money and material goods, and competition prevail. Quality of life is the degree to which people value relationships, and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. The degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations is uncertainty avoidance. People in cultures with long-term orientations look to the future and value thrift and persistence. A short-term orientation values the past and present, and emphasizes respect for tradition and fulfilling social obligations. The United States scored low on power distance and uncertainty avoidance. The U.S. also ranks low in long-term orientation. The U.S. is ranked highest on individualism. 154. Discuss cognitive dissonance theory and three ways in which individuals might alleviate dissonance. (Pages 73-75) Cognitive dissonance seeks to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Dissonance means an inconsistency. Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility that an individual might perceive between two or more of his or her attitudes, or between his or her behavior and attitudes. Individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. Individuals may change their behavior, reduce dissonance by concluding that the dissonant behavior is not so important after all, or change their attitude. 155. Discuss whether employee satisfaction is related to positive customer outcomes. (Page 83) The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. Satisfied employees are more likely to be friendly, upbeat, and responsive – which customers appreciate. And because satisfied employees are less prone to turnover, customers are more likely to encounter familiar faces and receive experienced service. These qualities build customer satisfaction and loyalty. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee’s job 66 dissatisfaction. Employees who have regular contact with customers report that rude, thoughtless, or unreasonably demanding customers adversely effect the employees’ job satisfaction. 67 Chapter 4 Personality and Emotions MULTIPLE CHOICE Personality 1. Personality is: a. always stable. b. a part of a person. c. an aggregate whole. d. comprised of traits that cannot be measured. (c; Easy; p. 93) 2. An individual’s personality is determined by: a. heredity. b. environment. c. situational factors. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 94) 3. Which of the following is a personality determinant? a. heredity b. environment c. both a and b d. neither a nor b (c; Easy; pp. 94-95) 4. Which of the following personality shaping forces is not environmental? a. parents’ height b. experience c. Protestant ethic d. culture (a; Moderate; p. 95) 5. Factors that are considered environmental influences on our personality include all the following except: a. birth order. b. heredity. c. culture. d. family norms. (b; Moderate; p. 95) 6. If personality characteristics were completely dictated by ______, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them. a. job satisfaction b. heredity c. environment d. situation (b; Moderate; p. 95) 68 7. “Bob is easy-going at home, but at work he becomes very tense and anxious.” This statement attributes Bob’s personality more to which of the following? a. heredity b. environment c. situation d. locus of control (c; Moderate; p. 95) 8. All of the following are listed as part of the “Sixteen Primary Traits” except: a. communicative. b. practical. c. trusting. d. submissive. (a; Challenging; Exh. 4-2; p. 97) 9. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, ____ are conceptualizers. a. INTJs b. ESTJs c. ENTPs d. MBTIs (c; Moderate; p. 96) 10. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator examines all of the following except: a. extroverted/introverted. b. sensing/intuitive. c. perceiving/judging. d. intelligent/challenged. (d; Easy; p. 96) 11. Choose the word that best describes an ESTJ. a. quiet b. domineering c. reserved d. organizer (d; Challenging; p. 96) 12. A personality attribute that has potential for predicting behavior in organizations is: a. Machiavellianism. b. type A personality. c. locus of control. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 97) 13. Which of the following is not included in the Big Five model? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. gregariousness d. emotional stability (c; Easy; p. 97) 69 14. Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. emotional stability d. openness to experience (b; Moderate; p. 97) 15. Which dimension of the Big Five model is a measure of reliability? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. emotional stability d. openness to experience (c; Moderate; p. 97) People who consistently believe they control their own destinies have a: a. high extroversion. b. high internal locus of control. c. Type A personality. d. high propensity for risk-taking. (b; Easy; p. 97) 17. Individuals who rate high in externality (external locus of control): a. are less satisfied with their jobs. b. have lower absenteeism rates. c. are less alienated from the work setting. d. are more involved on their jobs. (a; Challenging; p. 97) All of the following are characteristic traits of people with a high external locus of control with the exception of which of the following? a. They are less satisfied with their jobs. b. They have higher absenteeism rates. c. They are less alienated from the work setting. d. They are less involved on their jobs. (c; Moderate; p. 98) 19. People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. quit their jobs more often than those with an external locus of control. b. quit their jobs less often than those with an external locus of control. c. perform better on their jobs. d. start their own businesses. (c; Moderate; p. 98) A person who believes that ends can justify means can be said to have the characteristic of: a. authoritarianism. b. Machiavellianism. c. external locus of control. d. risk-taking. (b; Easy; p. 99) 20. 18. 16. 70 An individual high in Machiavellianism is best described as: a. maintaining emotional distance, being highly authoritative, believing in swift discipline. b. being impulsive, emotionally involved, and having strong ethical beliefs. c. being pragmatic, maintaining emotional distance, and believing ends can justify means. d. tending to make a poor manager. (c; Moderate; p. 99) 21. 22. High Machs: a. manipulate more. b. are persuaded less. c. win more. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 99) 23. _____ is the degree to which people like or dislike themselves. a. Self-esteem b. Authoritarianism c. Locus of control d. Machiavellianism (a; Moderate; p. 100) 24. People high in the trait self-esteem: a. are less likely to take unpopular stands than low SEs. b. tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than low SEs. c. tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than low SEs. d. tend to be more concerned with pleasing others than low SEs. (b; Challenging; p. 100) 25. High SEs: a. believe they possess more of the ability they need in order to succeed in work. b. will take more risks in job selection. c. are less susceptible to external influences than low SEs. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 100) 26. How would you describe an individual who is capable of presenting striking contradictions between who they are in public and who they are privately? a. low self-esteem b. high self-esteem c. low self-monitoring d. high self-monitoring (d; Moderate; p. 100) 27. Low self-monitors: a. have a low behavioral consistency between who they are and what they do. b. can disguise themselves well. c. tend to pay less attention to the behavior of others than high self-monitors. d. tend to be more mobile in their careers. (c; Challenging; p. 100) 71 28. Which of the following has the highest risk-taking propensity? a. an accountant performing auditing activities b. a stock trader in a brokerage firm c. a computer technologist d. a marketing representative (b; Moderate; pp. 100-101) 29. An individual who is aggressively involved in a chronic incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time is a(n): a. Type A. b. Type B. c. Type AB. d. extrovert. (a; Easy; p. 101) 30. Which of the following is true of the Type A personality? a. The Type A is more successful than the Type B. b. Type A’s can play for fun and relaxation, rather than to exhibit superiority. c. Type A’s are obsessed with numbers and measure their success in terms of how much of everything they acquire. d. Type A’s feel no need to discuss their achievements. (c; Moderate; p. 101) 31. All of the following are characteristics of Type A personality except which of the following? a. They operate under moderate to high levels of stress. b. They are faster workers. c. They feel impatient with the rate at which most events take place. d. They feel no need to display or discuss either their achievement or accomplishments unless such exposure is demanded by the situation. (d; Moderate; p. 101) 32. A Type A personality would be most likely to: a. be easy going. b. enjoy leisure and quiet time. c. eat his meals quickly. d. concentrate on only one task at a time. (c; Easy; p. 101) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Type B personality? a. never suffers from a sense of time urgency with its accompanying impatience b. plays for fun and relaxation c. strives to think or do two or more things at once d. can relax without guilt (c; Moderate; p. 101 ) 34. Which of the following is a true statement? a. We would expect to find more Type A’s in a capitalistic country. b. It is estimated that about 25% of the North American population is Type A. c. There are common personality types for a given country. d. We should expect that most North Americans would have an external locus of control. 33. 72 (a; Challenging; pp. 101-102) 35. ____ demonstrate their competitiveness by working long hours and not infrequently, making poor decisions because they make them too fast. a. High SEs b. Type As c. Type Bs d. Self-monitors (b; Easy; pp. 101-102) 36. What percentage of North Americans are Type A personality? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% (c; Challenging; p. 102) Holland’s theory of personality-job fit argues that job satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest where: a. personality and occupation are in agreement. b. an individual is highly motivated. c. salary is high. d. employees have an education. (a; Easy; p. 103) 38. People in ____believe that life is essentially preordained. a. America b. Canada c. Middle Eastern countries d. Brazil (c; Moderate; p. 102) 39. Which one of the following statements is true about the six personality types developed in Holland’s personality-job fit theory? a. People basically have similar personalities. b. Diagonally opposite types are most alike. c. Satisfaction is high when one’s personality type is congruent with his or her work environment. d. Organizations can teach a person to have the proper personality type. (c; Moderate; pp. 103-104) 40. 37. The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs? a. painter b. accountant c. mechanic d. lawyer (c; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 73 41. The “enterprising” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would exhibit which of the following personality characteristics? a. imaginative, disorderly, idealistic b. shy, genuine, persistent c. sociable, friendly, cooperative d. self-confident, ambitious, energetic (d; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 42. _______ developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles. a. Maslow b. Holland c. Hofstede d. Herzberg (b; Easy; p. 103) 43. Since the rise of scientific management, organizations have been specifically designed with the objective of trying to control emotions. This is known as: a. the affective component of emotions. b. the myth of rationality. c. cognitive dissonance. d. emotional negation. (b; Moderate; p. 105) 44. _____ is (are) less intense feelings which lack a contextual stimulus. a. Internal stimuli b. Affect c. Emotions d. Moods (d; Moderate; p. 106) ______ theory suggested people in job environments congruent with their personality types should be more satisfied and are less likely to voluntarily resign than should people in incongruent jobs. a. Holland’s person-job fit b. Nunnally’s Big Five c. Hofstede’s d. The GLOBE team’s (a; Easy; p. 1-4) 46. _____ is (are) reactions to an object, not a trait. They are object-specific. a. Internal stimuli b. Affect c. Emotions d. Moods (c; Moderate; p. 106) 45. 74 47. Which of the following is not true concerning emotions? a. Some emotions can reduce employee performance. b. Employees bring an emotional component with them to work every day. c. The role of emotions does not have to be studied in organizational behavior. d. In the past, emotions were rarely viewed as being constructive. (c; Moderate; pp. 105-106) 48. If an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions, _____ is being expended. a. emotional labor b. negative synergy c. dissonance d. emotional intelligence (a; Easy; p. 106) 49. _____ is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. a. Affect b. Emotions c. Moods d. Emotional labor (a; Easy; p. 106) 50. Which of the following is not true with respect to the role that emotions play in the workplace? a. Ability to effectively manage emotions may be critical to success in leadership positions. b. Emotions can hinder performance. c. Emotions can enhance performance. d. Emotional labor recognizes that feelings should be stifled because they are not part of a job’s required behavior. (d; Challenging; p. 106) 51. Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job are termed: a. felt emotions. b. displayed emotions. c. conditional emotions. d. exposed emotions. (b; Moderate; p. 106) 52. _____ are an individual’s actual emotions. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (a; Moderate; p. 106) 75 53. _____ are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (b; Moderate; p. 106) 54. _____ is when an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (d; Moderate; pp. 106-107) 55. Which of the following is not one of the six universal emotions? a. anger b. fear c. hate d. sadness (c; Moderate; p. 107) 56. People who have a lack of emotion suffer from: a. self-awareness. b. alexithymia. c. felt emotions. d. displayed emotions. (b; Moderate; p. 109) Which of the following statements is not true about the difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others? a. Women show greater emotional expression. b. Men express emotions more intensely. c. Men express anger more frequently. d. Women are better at reading nonverbal cues. (b; Moderate; pp. 109-110) 58. Which of the following is not true concerning cultural influences impacting emotions? a. Cultural factors influence what is or isn’t considered as emotionally appropriate. b. What’s acceptable in one culture may seem unusual or even dysfunctional in another. c. All cultures agree on the interpretation they give to emotions. d. There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures. (c; Moderate; pp.110-111) 59. 57. Which of the following is not a dimension of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. self-management c. self-motivation d. self-evaluation (d; Moderate; p. 111) 76 60. _____ refers to an assortment of noncognitive skills, capabilities, and competencies that influence a person’s ability to succeed in coping with environmental demands and pressures. a. Emotional intelligence b. IQ c. Learned intelligence d. Aptitude (a; Easy; p. 111) 61. Leaving early, sabotage, gossiping, and verbal abuse are examples of: a. involuntary actions that violate norms. b. employee deviance. c. emotional labor. d. emotional quotient factors. (b; Moderate; p. 113) TRUE/FALSE Personality 62. All our behavior is somewhat shaped by our personalities. (True; Easy; p. 94) 63. Personality is the sum total of the way in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others. (True; Easy; p. 94) 64. Personality looks at the parts of the person rather than the aggregate whole. (False; Easy; p. 94) An adult’s personality is now generally considered to be made up of both hereditary and environmental factors, moderated by situational conditions. (True; Moderate; pp. 94-95) Researchers have found that genetics accounts for about 50 percent of the personality differences and more than 30 percent of the variation in occupational and leisure interests in studies of identical twins. (True; Challenging; p. 94) 67. If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them. (True; Moderate; p. 95) 68. A trait can be described as a characteristic or behavior that is consistently exhibited in a large number of situations. (True; Moderate; p. 96) 69. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a 100-question personality test that types four characteristics into sixteen personality types. (True; Easy; p. 96) 66. 65. 77 70. Certain situations are more relevant than others in influencing personality. True; Moderate; p. 95) 71. A recent study of contemporary businesspeople who created supersuccessful firms found that all of these individuals were NTs. (True; Challenging; pp. 96-97) 72. INTJs are visionaries. (True; Moderate; p. 96) 73. ESTJs are organizers. (True; Moderate; p. 96) 74. The ENTP type is a conceptualizer. (True; Moderate; p. 96) 75. If you were looking for an employee who was an organizer, you would probably choose one whose type is INTJ. (False; Challenging; p. 96) 76. A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of personality. (False; Easy; p. 97) 77. An impressive body of research supports that five basic personality dimensions underlie all others. (True; Moderate; p. 97) 78. The Big Five Model factor termed “extroversion” is probably a good predictor of job performance in most professions. (False; Challenging; p. 97) 79. Conscientiousness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others. (False; Moderate; p. 97) Individuals with an internal locus of control believe that they are masters of their own fate. (True; Easy; p. 98) 81. Individuals who rate high in external locus of control are more satisfied with their jobs and have lower absenteeism rates. (False; Moderate; pp. 98-99) 82. Individuals who have an internal locus of control tend to have lower absence rates. (True; Challenging; p. 99) 83. Overall evidence is that employees with an internal locus of control tend to perform better on their jobs. (True; Challenging; p. 99) 84. Externals should do well in jobs that are well structured and routine and in which success depends heavily on complying with the direction of others. 80. 78 (True; Challenging; p. 99) 85. An individual low in Machiavellianism is pragmatic and believes that ends can justify means. (False; Moderate; p. 99) 86. Janet keeps emotional distance from her coworkers and believes that the ends can justify the means. Janet would rate high in Machiavellianism. (True; Moderate; pp. 99-100) 87. Self-esteem is directly related to expectations for success. (True; Moderate; p. 100) 88. Individuals with high SE are more likely to choose unconventional jobs. (True; Challenging; p. 100) 89. In managerial positions, low SEs will tend to be concerned with pleasing others. (True; Moderate; p. 100) 90. Low SEs tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than high SEs. (False; Moderate; p. 100) 91. Self-monitoring refers to an individual’s ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors. (True; Easy; p. 100) 92. Self-monitoring is the trait that considers the degree to which a person likes or dislikes himself. (False; Easy; p. 100) 93. Low self-monitors show high behavioral consistency. (True; Moderate; p. 100) 94. Low risk-takers make more rapid decisions. (False; Moderate; pp. 100-101) The evidence demonstrates that decision accuracy is the same for high and low risktaking managers. (True; Moderate; p. 101) 96. Individuals with Type A personalities exhibit those characteristics highly prized by the North American culture. (True; Moderate; p. 101) 97. Zack is always moving and is impatient. He prefers work to leisure and seems obsessed with numbers. Zack is probably a Type B. (False; Easy; p. 101) 98. Type A personalities are never concerned with time. (False; Easy; p. 101) 95. 79 99. Type B personalities feel no need to display or discuss their achievements unless such exposure is demanded by the situation. (True; Moderate; p. 101) 100. Type B’s tend to operate under more stress than Type A’s. (False; Easy; p. 101) 101 Type As tend to be creative. (False; Challenging; p. 102) The five personality factors identified in the Big Five Model appear in almost all crosscultural studies. (True; Challenging; p. 102) 103. Each country has a common personality type. (False; Moderate; p. 102) 104. It is estimated that about 50 percent of the North American population is Type A. (True, Moderate, p. 102) 105. Individuals with Holland’s “investigative” personality are well suited for careers as small business managers. (False; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 106. Holland’s “conventional” personality, placed in the position of a cost accountant, is likely to be dissatisfied and quit. (False; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 107. Moods are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. (False; Moderate; p. 106) 108. The concept of emotional labor originally developed in relation to service jobs. (True; Challenging; p. 106) 109. Displayed emotions are innate. (False; Moderate; p. 106) 110. Felt emotions are an individual’s actual emotions. (True; Easy; p. 106) Research has identified six universal emotions: anger, fear, sadness, happiness, disgust, and surprise. (True; Challenging; pp. 107-108) 112. People who suffer from alexithymia are well suited for managerial positions. (False; Moderate; p. 109) 113. Evidence confirms there is no real difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others. (False; Easy; pp. 109-110) 111. 102. 80 114. There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures, but not between. (True; Moderate; p. 111) 115. People who are good at reading others’ emotions may be more effective in their jobs. (True; Easy; p. 111) 116. Actions called “employee deviance” are voluntary actions. (True; Challenging; p. 113) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, stamina, and farsightedness. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. Use your knowledge of the four basic characteristics of each person to choose people for the following situations. 117. You need to choose a lead person for the team. This person must have great vision and must have an original mind with great drive. You will probably pick: a. ENTP. b. INTJ. c. ENFP. d. ISFP. (b; Challenging; pp. 96-97) 118. You are looking for an organizer, a person on whom you can depend to be practical and realistic. You will probably pick: a. ESTJ. b. ENTP. c. ISFP. d. INTJ. (a; Challenging; pp. 96-97) You need a person who is innovative, individualistic, versatile, and attracted to entrepreneurial ideas. You will probably choose: a. INTJ. b. ISFP. c. ENTP. d. ESFJ. (c; Challenging; pp. 96-97) Application of the Big Five Model You are the manager of a small boutique. You have decided to apply the Big Five Model in order to understand your employees and their work habits because it is generally supported by an impressive body of research. You want to use the five dimensions of personality to match individuals with jobs to which they are well-suited. 119. 81 120. Michelle Jackson, one of your newest employees, is an extrovert. Which of the following statements is not true? a. You should expect Michelle to perform well as a salesperson. b. Michelle will probably have a large number of relationships. c. Michelle will be friendly and outgoing. d. Michelle will be quite comfortable with solitude. (d; Moderate; p. 97) 121. You know that your customers are demanding and sometimes difficult. personality dimension taps a person’s ability to withstand stress? a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. emotional stability (d; Moderate; p. 97) 122. Jane Simpson rates low on conscientiousness. You should expect that she: a. will be easily distracted. b. will find comfort in the familiar. c. will be nervous, depressed, and insecure. d. will be comfortable with solitude. (a; Challenging; p. 97) Which Which of the five factors of personality will probably be most important in predicting organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)? a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. emotional stability (c; Challenging; p. 98) Application of Major Personality Attributes Influencing OB Mary Wood is a new manager. She recognizes that personality attributes can help to explain and predict employee behavior. 124. Mary’s employee, Bob, has a low absenteeism rate. He takes responsibility for his health and has good health habits. He is likely to have: a. an internal locus of control. b. an external locus of control. c. a high Mach score. d. a high emotional stability level. (b; Moderate; pp. 98-101) 125. Mary has an opening for a position requiring a lot of face to face interaction with others. She should identify the employee with ______ for a good fit. a. a high Mach score b. a low Mach score c. an internal locus of control d. an external locus of control (a; Challenging; pp. 98-101) 123. 82 Another position requires an employee who can take unpopular stands. She should identify the employee with ___ for a good fit. a. a high SE b. a low SE c. an internal locus of control d. an external locus of control (a, Challenging; pp. 98-101) Application of Person-Job Fit Theory You have decided to use Holland’s Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends who are college seniors understand for which jobs they would be well-suited. Monica is shy, stable and persistent. Neil is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Jessica is idealistic and impractical but very imaginative. Walter is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Monica is majoring in interior design. Her personality type is “realistic” according to Holland’s Typology. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Monica’s personality type is well-suited to her major. b. Monica is better suited to be a bank teller. c. Someone with an “artistic” personality type would be better suited to a major in interior design. d. Interior design is a congruent occupation with a “social” personality type. (c; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 128. Which of your friends is best suited to being an accountant? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (a; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 129. Which of your friends is most likely to find a successful career as a writer? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (c; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 130. Who might be well-suited to being a lawyer? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (b; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 127. 126. 83 SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 131. List and describe the three determinants of personality. (Pages 94-95) Personality is determined by heredity, environment, and the situation. Heredity refers to those factors that were determined at conception. The heredity approach argues that the ultimate explanation of an individual’s personality is the molecular structure of the genes, located in the chromosomes. Among the factors that exert pressures on our personality formation are the culture in which we are raised; our early conditioning; the norms among our family, friends, and social groups; and other influences that we experience. These environmental factors play a substantial role in shaping our personalities. The situation influences the effects of heredity and environment on personality. An individual’s personality, although generally stable and consistent, does change in different situations. The different demands of different situations call forth different aspects of one’s personality. 132. Identify the five key traits in the Big Five personality model. (Page 97) The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Extroversion captures one’s comfort level with relationships. Agreeableness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others. Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability. Emotional stability taps a person’s ability to withstand stress. Openness to experience addresses one’s range of interests and fascination with novelty. 133. What is locus of control? What is the difference between an internal and external locus of control? (Pages 97-98) A person’s perception of the source of his or her fate is termed locus of control. Those who believe that they control their destinies have been labeled internals. Those who see their lives as being controlled by outside forces have been called externals. 134. Describe the Type A personality and its relationship to success. (Pages 101-102) The Type A personality is always moving, walking, and eating rapidly; feels impatient with the rate at which most events take place; strives to think or do two or more things at once; cannot cope with leisure time; and is obsessed with numbers, measuring their success in terms of how many or how much of everything they acquire. Despite the Type A’s hard work, the Type B’s are the ones who appear to make it to the top. 135. What is the “myth of rationality?” (Page 105) The myth of rationality is one possible explanation for little attention paid to emotions in the field of OB. Emotions such as frustration, fear, anger, love, hate, and joy were the antithesis of rationality. Researchers and managers tried to create organizations that were 84 emotion-free. We learned, however, that this was not possible since emotions are an inseparable part of everyday life. 136. What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions? (Pages 106-107) You can better understand emotions if you separate them into felt versus displayed. Felt emotions are an individual’s actual emotions. In contrast, displayed emotions are those that are organizationally-required and considered appropriate in a given job. The key point here is that felt and displayed emotions are often different. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 137. Discuss the “Big Five” model of personality. (Page 97) The five-factor model of personality is typically called the “Big Five.” In addition to providing a unifying personality framework, research on the Big Five also has found important relationships between these personality dimensions and job performance. The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Extroversion captures one’s comfort level with relationships. Agreeableness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others. Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability. Emotional stability taps a person’s ability to withstand stress. Openness to experience addresses one’s range of interests and fascination with novelty. 138. Explain the differences among the following terms: affect, emotions, and moods. (Page 106) Affect is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. It’s an umbrella concept that encompasses both emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Finally, moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and which lack a contextual stimulus. 139. Can people be emotionless? (Page 109) Some people have severe difficulty in expressing their emotions and understanding the emotions of others. Psychologists call this alexithymia (which is Greek for lack of emotion). People who suffer from alexithymia rarely cry and are often seen by others as bland and cold. Their own feelings make them uncomfortable, and they’re not able to discriminate among their different emotions. Additionally, they’re often at a complete loss to understand what others around them feel. 140. What is emotional intelligence? What are the five dimensions of emotional intelligence? (Page 109) Emotional intelligence refers to an assortment of noncognitive skills, capabilities, and competencies that influence a person’s ability to succeed in coping with environmental demands and pressure. It’s composed of five dimensions. Self-awareness is being aware of what you’re feeling. Self-management is the ability to manage one’s own emotions 85 and impulses. Self-motivation is the ability to persist in the face of setbacks and failures. Empathy is the ability to sense how others are feeling. Social skills is the ability to handle the emotions of others. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 141. What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and how might it be used by managers? (Pages 96-97) One of the most widely used personality frameworks is called the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). It is essentially a 100-question personality test that asks people how they usually feel or act in particular situations. On the basis of the answers individuals give to the test, they are classified as extroverted or introverted (E or I), sensing or intuitive (S or N), thinking or feeling (T or F), and perceiving or judging (P or J). These classifications are then combined into sixteen personality types. 142. Discuss Holland’s personality-job fit theory and its importance. (Pages 103-105) John Holland’s personality-job fit theory is based on the notion of fit between an individual’s personality characteristics and his or her occupational environment. Holland presents six personality types and proposes that satisfaction and the propensity to leave a job depend on the degree to which individuals successfully match their personalities to an occupational environment. Each one of the six personality types has a congruent occupational environment. The theory argues that satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest when personality and occupation are in agreement. 143. Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions. (Pages 109-110) The evidence confirms differences between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others. In contrasting the genders, women show greater emotional expression than men; they experience emotions more intensely; and they display more frequent expressions of both positive and negative emotions, except anger. In contrast to men, women also report more comfort in expressing emotions. Finally, women are better at reading nonverbal and paralinguistic cues than are men. These differences may be explained by the way men and women have been socialized, that women may have more innate ability to read others and present their emotions than do men, and women may have a greater need for social approval, and thus a higher propensity to show positive emotions. 86 Chapter 5 Perception and Individual Decision Making MULTIPLE CHOICE What Is Perception and Why Is It Important? 1. A process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment is called: a. interpretation. b. environmental analysis. c. perception. d. outlook. (c; Easy; p. 123) Factors Influencing Perception 2. What one perceives _______ objective reality. a. is always the same as b. can be substantially different from c. should be the same as d. is considered (b; Easy; p. 123) Which one of the following is not a factor that influences perception? a. target b. society c. perceiver d. situation (b; Easy; p. 124) 3. If two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently, the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside in: a. the perceiver. b. the target being perceived. c. the timing. d. the context of the situation in which the perception is made. (a; Challenging; p. 124) 5. Personal characteristics of the individual perceiver include all of the following except: a. his/her attitudes. b. personality. c. expectations. d. location. (d; Moderate; Exh. 5-1; p. 124) 4. 87 6. The focus of a person’s attention appears to be influenced by: a. interests. b. past experiences. c. expectations. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 124) 7. Which of the following is not true about our perceptions of a target? a. Objects that are close together will be perceived together rather than separately. b. Persons that are similar to each other tend to be grouped together. c. Targets are usually looked at in isolation. d. Motion, sounds, size, and other attributes of a target shape the way we see it. (c; Moderate; p. 124) 8. The time at which an object or event is seen is an example of a _____ factor influencing the perceptual process. a. perceiver b. target c. context of the situation d. reality (c; Moderate; pp. 124-125) Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 9. The theory that has been proposed to develop explanations to explain that we judge people differently depending on what meaning we assign to their behavior is: a. behavioral theory. b. judgmental theory. c. equity theory. d. attribution theory. (d; Moderate; p. 125) 10. The most relevant application of perception concepts to OB is: a. person perception. b. context perception. c. situation perception. d. reality perception. (a; Challenging; p. 125) 11. When individuals observe behavior, they attempt to determine whether it is internally or externally caused. This is the: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. attribution theory. d. selective behavior theory. (c; Moderate; p. 125) 12. The determination of whether an individual’s behavior is externally or internally caused depends on 88 all of the following factors except: a. distinctiveness. b. consensus. c. consistency. d. perception. (d; Moderate; p. 125) 13. Internally caused behaviors are: a. those that are believed to be under the personal control of the individual. b. resulting from personality traits. c. resulting from outside causes. d. forced upon a person by the situation. (a; Easy; p. 125) 14. Which of the following is not true about attribution theory? a. It tries to attribute causes to specific behaviors. b. The cause of behavior may be internal. c. The cause of behavior may be external. d. Behavior can be attributed to one’s heredity. (d; Moderate; p. 125) 15. Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior? a. An employee is late because he was partying late and then overslept. b. An employee is late because of a major accident that tied up traffic. c. An employee was fired because he did not possess the necessary skills. d. An employee was promoted because he was intelligent. (b; Challenging; p. 125) 16. Whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations is referred to as: a. continuity. b. integrity. c. distinctiveness. d. flexibility. (c; Moderate; p. 125) 17. If everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, attribution theory states that the behavior shows: a. consensus. b. similarity. c. reliability. d. consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 125) 18. Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. This behavior exhibits: a. consensus. 89 b. similarity. c. reliability. d. consistency. (d; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 19. The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to: a. depend on the behavior. b. attribute it to internal causes. c. attribute it to consensus. d. attribute it to external causes. (b; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 20. If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows: a. distinctiveness. b. consensus. c. consistency. d. continuity. (c; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 21. The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is termed: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. selective perception. d. consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 126) 22. Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you were late this morning, he assumed that you had overslept. He never considered that there might have been a delay on the freeway. He is guilty of: a. self-serving bias. b. selective perception. c. fundamental attribution error. d. inconsistency. (c; Moderate; p. 126) 23. The tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consistency. d. selective perception. (b; Moderate; p. 126) 24. Jane is difficult to work with. Whenever she is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or to one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of: 90 a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consensus. d. distinctiveness. (b; Moderate; p. 126) 25. When investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000, they were guilty of: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consensus. d. distinctiveness. (b; Moderate; p. 126) 26. Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following except: a. stereotyping. b. halo effect. c. projection. d. self-serving bias. (d; Easy; p. 127) 27. Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, we engage in: a. selective perception. b. memorization. c. mental desensitization. d. periodic listening. (a; Easy; p. 127) 28. _____ allows us to “speed-read” others, but not without the risk of drawing an inaccurate picture. a. Selective perception b. Memorization c. Mental desensitization d. Periodic listening (a; Moderate; p. 127) 29. When we draw a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance: a. we have misjudged the person. b. personal bias is in effect. c. we are prejudiced. d. the halo effect is operating. (d; Moderate; p. 128) 30. The halo effect causes one trait to be extended into a(n): a. overall evaluation. b. stereotype. c. unsatisfied need. 91 d. self-serving bias. (a; Moderate; p. 127) 31. One of the shortcuts used to judge others involves evaluating a person based on how he/she compares to other individuals on the same characteristic. This shortcut is known as: a. selective perception. b. contrast effects. c. halo effect. d. prejudice. (b; Moderate; p. 128) 32. _____ is the tendency to attribute one’s own characteristics to other people. a. Stereotyping b. Interpretation c. Selection d. Projection (d; Easy; p. 128) 33. People who engage in _____ tend to perceive others according to what they themselves are like, rather than according to what the person being observed is really like. a. projection b. a contrast effect c. halo effect d. stereotyping (a; Challenging; p. 128) 34. Among people who engage in projection, their perception of others is influenced: a. more by what the observer is like than by what the person being observed is like. b. more by the situation than by what the person being observed is like. c. by the environment. d. more by dominant attributes of the person than by the general character of the person. (a; Moderate; p. 128) 35. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he/she belongs, we are using the shortcut called: a. grouping. b. stereotyping. c. categorizing. d. assimilating. (b; Easy; pp. 128-129) 36. When F. Scott Fitzgerald said, “The very rich are different from you and me” and Hemingway replied, “Yes, they have more money,” Hemingway refused to engage in what shortcut to judge others? a. projection b. contrast effect 92 c. halo effect d. stereotyping (d; Challenging; pp. 128-129) 37. Which of the following is not an example of stereotyping? a. Men aren’t interested in child care. b. Older workers can’t learn new skills. c. This applicant was good at her last job, so she will be good at this one. d. Women won’t relocate for a promotion. (c; Easy; pp. 128-129) 38. When one person inaccurately perceives a second person and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception, _____ has occurred. a. stereotyping b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. a self-serving bias d. the fundamental attribution error (b; Moderate; p. 130) One organizational area where there are important consequences of judging people is: a. the employment interview b. marketing c. accounting d. operations (a; Easy; p. 129) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that: a. usually agree with other interviewers. b. are often inaccurate. c. are exceptionally accurate. d. are not quickly entrenched. (b; Moderate; p. 129) Which of the following is not true concerning interviewers? a. Their perceptual judgments are often inaccurate. b. Agreement among interviewers is often poor. c. Different interviewers see the same things in the same candidate. d. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. (c; Challenging; p. 129) 41. 40. 39. Most interviewers’ decisions change very little after the first _____ minutes of the interview. a. 1-2 b. 4-5 c. 30-40 d. 50-60 (b; Moderate; p. 129) 93 42. 43. Another name for self-fulfilling prophecy is: a. Pygmalion effect. b. projection. c. self-selecting bias. d. negative reinforcement. (a; Moderate; p. 130) 44. According to _____, people’s expectations determine their behavior. a. Pygmalion effect b. projection c. self-selecting bias d. negative reinforcement (a; Moderate; p. 130) 45. Which of the following is not descriptive of performance evaluation? a. It is closely tied to an employee’s future. b. It is dependent on the perceptual process. c. It is best to use subjective measures which are less judgmental. d. Subjective measures are easier to implement by providing managers greater discretion. (c; Moderate; p. 130) 46. An assessment of an individual’s effort is a judgment susceptible to _____. a. consistent objective measures b. perceptual distortions c. few biases d. consistency across all raters (b; Challenging; p. 130) The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision Making How individuals in organizations make decisions, and the quality of their final choice is largely influenced by their: a. personality. b. perceptions. c. experience. d. job satisfaction. (b; Challenging; p. 131) 47. 48. ____ make decisions in organizations. a. Top managers b. Middle and lower level managers c. Non-managerial managers d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 131) 94 49. A discrepancy between some desired state and the actual condition is defined as a(n): a. decision. b. criterion. c. attribution. d. problem. (d; Moderate; p. 131) How Should Decisions Be Made? The optimizing decision-maker is: a. rational. b. creative. c. satisfying. d. innovative. (a; Moderate; p. 131) 51. Decision making is initiated by: a. a problem. b. a solution. c. conflict. d. perceptual distortion. (a; Moderate; p. 132) 52. Rationality assumes: a. high intelligence. b. consistency. c. maturity. d. unlimited choices. (b; Moderate; p. 132) Which is not one of the steps in the rational decision-making model? a. defining the problem b. identifying the decision criteria c. rating the alternatives d. computing the decisions that satisfice (d; Moderate; p. 132) 53. 50. 54. In the following steps in decision making, which would come first? a. Generate alternatives. b. Identify criteria. c. Make a choice. d. Implement the decision. (b; Easy; p. 132) 55. The factors that an individual views as important in a decision are considered in which step in the 95 optimizing model? a. decision criteria b. developing alternatives c. evaluation of alternatives d. problem definition (a; Moderate; p. 132) 56. Which of the following is not an assumption of the rational decision-making model? a. problem clarity b. preferences change slowly c. no time or cost constraints d. maximum payoff (b; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 57. _____ is the ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas. a. Creativity b. Talent c. Decision making d. Lateral thinking (a; Moderate; p. 133) 58. Creativity’s most obvious value in decision making is in: a. identifying the problem. b. computing the optimal decision. c. allocating weights to the alternatives. d. helping identify all viable alternatives. (d; Moderate; p. 133) 59. Why is creativity important to decision making? a. It allows the decision-maker to more fully appraise the problem. b. It allows the decision-maker to see problems others cannot see. c. It helps the decision-maker identify all viable alternatives. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 133) 60. Each of the following is part of the three-component model of creativity except: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (c; Challenging; pp. 133-134) 61. The segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for all creative work is: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (a; Challenging; p. 133) 96 62. The segment of the three-component model of creativity that encompasses personality characteristics associated with creativity is: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (b; Challenging; pp. 133-134) _____ is the motivational component in the three-component model of creativity that turns creative potential into actual creative ideas. a. Expertise b. Creative thinking skills c. Intuitive decision making d. Intrinsic task motivation (d; Challenging; p. 134) How Are Decisions Actually Made In Organizations? 64. Looking for a solution that is satisfactory and sufficient is called: a. suboptimizing. b. seeking an implicit favorite. c. simplifying. d. satisficing. (d; Moderate; p. 135) 65. Decision makers operate within the confines of _____ i.e., they construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. a. optimal decision making b. intuitive decision making c. bounded rationality d. synectics (c; Moderate; p. 135) 66. The satisficing decision maker is best characterized as: a. seeking a “good enough” solution. b. following bounded rationality. c. a decision confirmation process. d. a search for consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 135) 67. _____ is an unconscious process created out of distilled experience. a. Intuitive decision making b. Bounded rationality c. Optimizing decision making d. Satisficing (a; Moderate; p. 136) 68. Research on what game has provided an excellent example of how intuition works? a. soccer 97 63. b. chess c. cricket d. backgammon (b; Challenging; pp. 136-137) 69. Which of the following conditions would probably not lead to intuitive decision making? a. Time is limited and there is pressure to come up with the right decision. b. Facts don’t clearly point the way to go. c. A high level of certainty exists. d. “Facts” are limited. (c; Moderate; p. 137) 70. If a decision maker faces a conflict between selecting a problem that is important to the organization and one that is important to a decision maker: a. organizational interest is top priority. b. self-interest tends to win out. c. neither wins. d. the winner is unpredictable. (b; Challenging; p. 137) 71. Which of the following is not a bias in decision making? a. representative heuristic b. availability heuristic c. escalation of commitment d. an heuristical fallacy (d; Easy; p. 139) 72. Judgmental shortcuts in decision making are termed: a. optimalities. b. escalations. c. satisficing. d. heuristics. (d; Moderate; p. 139) 73. _____ is the tendency for people to base their judgments on readily available information. a. Representative heuristic b. Availability heuristic c. Escalation of commitment d. An heuristical fallacy (b; Challenging; p. 139) 74. The tendency to assess the likelihood of an occurrence by trying to match it with a preexisting category is: a. representative heuristic. b. availability heuristic. c. escalation of commitment. d. an heuristical fallacy. (a; Challenging; p. 139) 98 75. An increased commitment to a previous decision in spite of negative information is termed: a. escalation of commitment. b. optimizing decision making. c. satisficing decision making. d. reengineering. (a; Moderate; p. 139) 76. When inner-city African-American boys overestimate the likelihood of their playing in the NBA because they have heard about a boy from their neighborhood ten years ago who played professional basketball, they are suffering from a(n) _____ heuristic. a. availability b. escalation c. representative d. optimizing (c; Moderate; p. 139) 77. People differ along two dimensions in their approaches to decision making. These two dimensions are: a. way of thinking/tolerance for ambiguity. b. consideration/structure. c. commitment/intuitive thinking. d. rationality/concern for people. (a; Moderate; p. 140) 78. People with the _____ style of decision making tend to make decisions fast and focus on the short run. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (a; Moderate; p. 140) 79. People with the _____ style of decision making tend to be very broad in their outlook and consider many alternatives. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (c; Moderate; p. 140) People with the _____ style of decision making are careful decision-makers with the ability to adapt to or cope with novel situations. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (b; Moderate; p. 140) 81. Which of the following is not one of the four styles of decision making? 99 80. a. directive b. analytic c. satisficing d. conceptual (c; Challenging; Exh. 5-5; pp. 140-141) 82. Business students, lower level managers, and top executives tend to score highest in the _____ style of decision making. a. analytic b. directive c. conceptual d. behavioral (a; Moderate; p. 141) 83. Which of the following is not an organizational constraint on decision making? a. performance evaluation b. reward system c. personality d. formal regulations (c; Easy; p. 142) 84. A culture’s time orientation can be expected to influence decision making. In Egypt, decisions will be made: a. quickly. b. at a moderate pace. c. slowly. d. at various rates. (c; Moderate; p. 143) 85. In the U.S., it is important that decisions appear to be made: a. slowly. b. only at senior levels. c. intuitively. d. rationally. (d; Moderate; p. 143) 86. Which of the following is not listed in your text as a criterion for making ethical choices? a. utilitarianism b. justice c. rights d. satisficing (d; Moderate; pp. 143-144) 87. Decisions made so as to provide the greatest good for the greatest number are based on: a. utilitarianism. b. justice. c. rights. d. profit. 100 (a; Moderate; pp. 143-144) TRUE/FALSE What Is Perception and Why Is It Important? 88. Perception refers to the way we organize and interpret the world around us. (True; Easy; p. 123) 89. The reality of a situation is what is behaviorally important. (False; Moderate; p. 124) Factors Influencing Perception When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. (True; Easy; p. 124) 91. Personal characteristics affecting perception include the time at which an object or event is seen. (False; Moderate; p. 124) 92. An individuals expectations have little effect on perception. (False; Easy; p. 124) 93. Individuals can be involved in the same situation but perceive that situation very differently. (True; Easy; p. 124) 94. Expectations can distort your perceptions in that you will see what you expect to see. (True; Easy; p. 124) 95. The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception. (True; Easy; pp. 124-125) 96. Elements in the surrounding environment are ignored in our perceptions. (False; Moderate; pp. 124-125) 97. Attribution theory looks at the internal or external causes of behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 125) 98. Internally caused behaviors are those that are believed to be under the personal control of the individual. (True; Easy; p. 125) 99. Giving an attribution an external causation means you assume that the individual is responsible for his or her own behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 125) 100. In attribution theory, “distinctiveness” refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in 101 90. different situations. (True; Moderate; p. 125) In attribution theory, “consensus” refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations. (False; Moderate; p. 125) 102. The more consistent the behavior, the more the observer is inclined to attribute it to internal causes. (True; Moderate; pp. 125-126) The tendency for individuals to attribute their successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is called the fundamental attribution error. (False; Moderate; p. 126) 104. The self-serving bias explains why a sales manager is prone to attribute the poor performance of her sales agents to laziness rather than to the innovative product line introduced by a competitor. (False; Challenging; p. 126) 105. The self-serving bias suggests that feedback provided to employees in performance reviews is very likely to be distorted by recipients. (True; Moderate; p. 126) Projection is the idea that people selectively interpret what they see based on their interests, background, experience, and attitudes. (False; Moderate; pp. 127-128) 107. Selective perception allows us to “speed read” others. (True; Moderate; p. 127) 108. The halo effect occurs because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see. (False; Moderate; p. 128) 109. When managers see people as more homogeneous than they really are, managers are probably engaging in projection. (True; Moderate; p. 128) 110. When you are judging someone based upon your perception of a group to which he belongs, you are guilty of projection. (False; Easy; p. 128) 111. An individual’s place in the interview schedule may affect the interviewer’s evaluation of the applicant. This example illustrates the halo effect. (False; Moderate; p. 129) Interviewers can make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate during an employment interview. (True; Easy; p. 129) 113. Negative information exposed early in an interview tends to be more heavily weighted than if the 102 112. 106. 103. 101. same information were conveyed later. (True; Moderate; p. 129) 114. If you expect to see that older workers can’t learn a new job skill, you will probably perceive that, whether it is accurate or not. (True; Moderate; p. 130) 115. Another name for the self-serving bias is the Pygmalion effect. (False; Challenging; p. 130) Brenda has been told that her students have been selected for her class because they are the most intelligent in their grade. She finds that they consistently perform above average work. This may be an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy. (True; Moderate; p. 130) The judgment of the evaluator plays an important role in subjective criteria used to do performance evaluations. (True; Moderate; p. 130) 118. A primary influence on the future of an employee in an organization is “employee effort” – which is subject to perceptual distortion. (True; Moderate; p. 130) The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision Making 119. Making decisions is not the sole province of managers. (True; Easy; p. 131) 120. Decision making occurs as a reaction to a problem. (True; Moderate; p. 131) 121. Awareness that a problem exists and that a decision needs to be made is a perceptual issue. (True; Moderate; p. 131) 122. One person’s problem is another person’s satisfactory state of affairs. (True; Easy; p. 131) 123. To optimize a certain outcome, the rational decision-making process is used. (True; Moderate; p. 131) 124. If a decision maker chooses not to identify some factor as a decision criterion in step two of the decision making process, it becomes irrelevant to the process. (True; Challenging; p. 132) 125. Rationality assumes that the options and alternatives can be ranked according to their importance. (True; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 126. The rational decision-making model assumes rationality and that the alternative that yields the lowest perceived value will be chosen. 103 117. 116. (False; Moderate; p. 133) 127. The rational decision-making model assumes the problem is clear and unambiguous. (True; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 128. Creativity’s value in helping decision makers is in helping decision makers analyze alternatives. (False; Challenging; p. 133) 129. People do not differ in their inherent creativity. (False; Moderate; p. 133) 130. Most decisions in the real world follow the rational model. (False; Moderate; p. 133) 131. The four-component model of creativity incorporates expertise, task motivation, creativity skills, and pragmatism. (False; Easy; pp. 133-134) 132. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. (True; Challenging; p. 133) 133. The bounded rationality model assumes that the decision maker will simplify the problem. (True; Moderate; p. 135) 134. The bounded rationality model ignores rationality. (False; Moderate; p. 135) 135. A satisficing solution is both satisfactory and sufficient. (True; Easy; p. 135) 136. Intuitive decision making is a conscious process created out of experience. (False; Challenging; p. 136) 137. Intuitive decision analysis must operate independently of rational analysis. (False; Moderate; p. 136) 138. Rational decision making is considered more socially desirable than intuitive decision making. (True; Moderate; p. 137) 139. All rational decision makers can be expected to identify and select the same problems to solve. (False; Challenging; p. 137) Availability heuristic is the tendency for people to base judgments on information that is readily available to them. (True; Moderate; p. 138) 141. Jackson continues to put money into car repair even though he knows the car is a “lemon.” This is an example of the availability heuristic. (False; Moderate; p. 138) 104 140. 142. It has been well documented that individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. (True; Moderate; pp. 138-139) 143. Decision makers with the analytic style make decisions fast and focus on the short run. (False; Challenging; p. 140) 144. Directive style decision makers tend to focus on the long run. (False; Moderate; p. 140) 145. The basic foundation of the model of decision making style is that people differ along two dimensions: their way of thinking and their tolerance for errors. (False; Moderate; p. 140) 146. Utilitarianism dominates business decision making. (True; Easy; pp. 143-144) A focus on utilitarianism as an ethical decision criterion promotes efficiency and productivity as well as a focus on the rights of individuals. (False; Easy; pp. 143-144) 148. The justice criterion for decision making requires that individuals impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. (True; Moderate; p. 144) 149. Ethical standards are less ambiguous in Asia than in the United States. (False; Challenging; p. 145) 147. SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Attribution Theory You are on a team with two individuals who are difficult. The work has been divided among the three of you and each time your team meets, Janet and Jim disagree about the progress of the team project. Janet is convinced that Jim’s lack of progress is because he is inherently lazy and not because of some overwhelming problem with the project itself. The truth seems to be that Janet is not doing her part of the work. 150. You might attempt to understand Janet and Jim by using _____ theory. a. social relevance b. attribution c. optimizing d. satisficing (b; Easy; pp. 125-126) 105 151. Janet seems to be guilty of: a. proximity bias. b. ethnocentrism. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias. (c; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 152. Janet may be attributing to Jim some of her own characteristics. She might be guilty of: a. projection. b. the halo effect. c. contrast effect. d. stereotyping. (a; Moderate; pp. 125-126) Application of Shortcuts in Judging Others The students in your class are presenting their oral presentations in front of the entire class. You have heard that there are several frequently used shortcuts to judging others and are wondering if any of these are being used by your teacher. Jennifer has already presented two excellent reports. The report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. a. The contrast effect is distorting the teacher’s perception. b. The halo effect is operating. c. The teacher has stereotyped Jennifer. d. The teacher is projecting that Jennifer is an “A” student. (b; Moderate; pp. 127-129) 153. 154. Allison has just presented her paper and has done a really good job. You are afraid to go next because the _____ may operate and you will be perceived less favorably than if your presentation is on another day. a. stereotyping effect b. halo effect c. contrast effect d. projection effect (c; Moderate; pp. 127-129) 155. You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. This is an example of: a. halo effect. b. contrast effect. c. projection. d. stereotyping. (d; Moderate; pp. 127-129) 106 Application of Rational Problem-Solving Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model. The first step of _____ occurred when Sarah’s manager informed her that the old computer system was not able to accommodate the expected customer load. a. identifying decision criteria b. defining the problem c. rating each alternative on each criterion d. computing the optimal decision (a; Moderate; pp. 131-133) The third step of the rational decision-making model requires Sarah to: a. identify the decision criteria. b. weight the decision criteria. c. generate possible alternatives. d. compute the optimal decision. (b; Moderate; pp. 131-133) When Sarah evaluates each alternative against the weighted criteria and selects the alternative with the highest total score, she is: a. identifying decision criteria. b. defining the problem. c. rating each alternative on each criterion. d. computing the optimal decision. (d; Moderate; pp. 131-133) 158. 157. 156. Application of Improving Creativity Susan is involved in making a very important decision for her university. The university is searching for a new president and Susan is a member of the committee. She wants to make certain that all information is considered and the best candidate is chosen. 159. Susan wants the committee to produce novel and useful ideas and has decided she should stimulate: a. consensus. b. creativity. c. diversity. d. clarity. (b; Moderate; pp. 133-134) 160. Creativity will probably be most important in: a. helping identify all viable alternatives. b. selecting the best alternative. c. allocating weights to criteria. 107 d. evaluating the alternatives. (a; Challenging; pp. 133-134) If Susan decides to use the three-component model of creativity, she will focus on _____ as the foundation of creative work. a. creative thinking skills b. intrinsic task motivation c. expertise d. external motivators (c; Challenging; pp. 133-134) Application of How Are Decisions Actually Made You are part of making a decision about the appropriateness of discontinuing research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous. 162. Your experience tells you that this project has merit. You decide to use _____ decision making and continue the project. a. compulsive b. intuitive c. rational d. satisficing (b; Moderate; pp. 135-139) 161. 163. You decide to rely on judgmental shortcuts in order to make the decision in a timely manner. These shortcuts are termed: a. heuristics. b. optimal solutions. c. lateral approaches. d. fundamental attribution errors. (a; Moderate; pp. 135-139) 164. You decide to spend more money on the project because you believe you might be viewed as responsible if the project failed. You are guilty of: a. availability heuristic. b. representative heuristic. c. escalation of commitment. d. satisficing. (c; Moderate; pp. 135-139) Application of Ethical Decision Making 108 You are the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. You have decided that it is important for your group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and you are designing a training program on the subject of ethics. 165. You will probably teach the _____ criterion since it is the decision criterion that currently dominates business decision making. a. utilitarian b. justice c. rights d. privilege (a; Challenging; pp. 143-144) 166. You decide to teach the group about the importance of making decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges. You are planning to focus on: a. utilitarian. b. justice. c. rights. d. privilege. (c; Moderate; pp. 143-144) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 167. Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias. (Page 126) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort while putting the blame for failure on external factors such as bad luck or unproductive coworkers. This is called the self-serving bias. 168. Discuss some of the errors in perceptual judgment made by interviewers. (Pages 129-130) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate. In addition, agreement among interviewers is often poor; that is, different interviewers see different things in the same candidate and thus arrive at different conclusions about the applicant. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. If negative information is exposed early in the interview, it tends to be more heavily weighted than if that same information comes out later. Studies indicate that most interviewers’ decisions change very little after the first four or five minutes of the interview. As a result, information elicited early in the interview carries greater weight than does information elicited later, and a “good applicant” is probably characterized more by the absence of unfavorable characteristics than by the presence of favorable characteristics. Perceptual factors influence who is hired and eventually the quality of an organization’s labor force. 169. What is the self-fulfilling prophecy? (Page 130) The self-fulfilling prophecy is also called the pygmalion effect. It characterizes the fact that people’s 109 expectations determine their behavior. In other words, if a manager expects big things from his people, they’re not likely to let him down. Similarly, if a manager expects people to perform minimally, they’ll tend to behave so as to meet those low expectations. The result then is that the expectations become reality. 170. What assumptions are made by the rational decision-making model? (Pages 132-133) There are six assumptions of the rational decision-making model: a. The problem is clear and unambiguous. The decision maker is assumed to have complete information regarding the decision situation. b. It is assumed the decision maker can identify all the relevant criteria and can list all the viable alternatives. Furthermore, the decision maker is aware of all the possible consequences of each alternative. c. Rationality assumes that the criteria and alternatives can be ranked and weighted to reflect their importance. d. It is assumed that the specific decision criteria are constant and that the weights assigned to them are stable over time. e. The rational decision maker can obtain full information about criteria and alternatives because it is assumed that there are no time or cost constraints. f. The rational decision maker will choose the alternative that yields the highest perceived value. 171. How is bounded rationality related to decision making? (Pages 135-136) Since the capacity of the human mind for formulating and solving complex problems is far too small to meet the requirements for full rationality, individuals operate within the confines of bounded rationality. They construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. Individuals can then behave rationally within the limits of the simple model. Once the limited set of alternatives is identified, the decision maker will begin reviewing it. But the review will not be comprehensive. Instead, the decision maker will begin with alternatives that differ only in a relatively small degree from the choice currently in effect. Following along familiar and well-worn paths, the decision maker proceeds to review alternatives only until he or she identifies an alternative that is “good enough.” The first alternative that meets the “good enough” criterion ends the search. So the final solution represents a satisficing choice rather than an optimum one. 172. Define the term “heuristic” and explain two common categories of heuristics. (Page 139) Heuristics are judgmental shortcuts in decision making. The two common categories are availability and representativeness. The availability heuristic is the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. The representative heuristic is the tendency to assess the likelihood of an occurrence by trying to match it with a preexisting category. 173. Define the term escalation of commitment. (Pages 139-140) A bias that creeps into decisions is a tendency to escalate commitment when a decision stream 110 represents a series of decisions. Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that it is wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 174. Discuss five shortcuts used in judging others. (Pages 127-129) Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, only certain stimuli can be taken in. Since we cannot observe everything going on about us, we engage in selective perception. This allows us to “speed-read” others. When we draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, a halo effect is operating. The contrast effect occurs when we don’t evaluate a person in isolation. Our reaction to one person is influenced by other persons we have recently encountered. The tendency to attribute one’s own characteristics to other people is projection. This occurs when we perceive others according to what we ourselves are like rather than according to what the person being observed is really like. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut called stereotyping. 175. Outline the six steps in the rational decision-making model. (Page 132) The rational decision-making model begins by defining the problem. Once a decision maker has defined the problem, he or she needs to identify the decision criteria that will be important in solving the problem. That is, the decision maker determines what is relevant in making the decision. The third step requires the decision maker to weight the previously identified criteria in order to give them the correct priority in the decision. The fourth step requires the decision maker to generate possible alternatives that could succeed in resolving the problem. Once the alternatives have been generated, the decision maker must critically analyze and evaluate each one. This is done by rating each alternative on each criterion. The final step requires computing the optimal decision. This is done by evaluating each alternative against the weighted criteria and selecting the alternative with the highest total score. 176. Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making. (Pages 143-145) There are three different criteria in making ethical choices. The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business decision making. Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 111 177. What factors reside in the perceiver, the target being perceived, or in the context of the situation that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception? (Exh 5-1; Pages 124-125) A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors. 178. Discuss the three-component model of creativity. (Pages 133-134) The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. The potential for creativity is enhanced when individuals have abilities, knowledge, proficiencies, and similar expertise in their field of endeavor. The second component is creativethinking skills. This encompasses personality characteristics associated with creativity, the ability to use analogies, as well as the talent to see the familiar in a different light. The final component is intrinsic task motivation. This is the desire to work on something because it is interesting, involving, exciting, satisfying, or personally challenging. This motivational component is what turns creativity potential into actual creative ideas. It determines the extent to which individuals fully engage their expertise and creative skills. 179. Discuss some of the ways in which the organization constrains decision makers. (Pages 141-143) The organization itself constrains decision makers. Managers are strongly influenced in their decision making by the criteria by which they are evaluated. The organization’s reward system influences decision makers by suggesting to them what choices are preferable in terms of personal payoff. Rules, policies, procedures, and other formalized regulations standardize behavior of organizational members. By programming decisions, organizations are able to get individuals to achieve high levels of performance without paying for the years of experience that would be necessary in the absence of regulations. Organizations impose deadlines on decisions. These conditions create time pressures on decision makers and often make it difficult, if not impossible, to gather all the information they might like to have before making a final choice. Decisions have a context. Decisions made in the past are ghosts which continually haunt current choices. Choices made today, therefore, are largely a result of choices made over the years. 112 Chapter 6 Basic Motivation Concepts MULTIPLE CHOICE Defining Motivation 1. Motivation is: a. a component of ability. b. situational. c. a personal trait. d. a constant intensity for each individual. (b; Moderate; p. 155) 2. Motivation is best defined as: a. high performance. b. efficient behavior. c. processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence toward attaining a goal. d. being told to exert high levels of effort. (c; Easy; p. 155) 3. The three key elements in the definition of motivation do not include: a. drive. b. intensity. c. direction. d. persistence. (a; Moderate; p. 155) Early Theories of Motivation 4. The drive to become what one is capable of becoming is which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. social b. self-actualization c. physiological d. esteem (b; Easy; p. 156) 5. The most well-known theory of motivation is Abraham Maslow’s: a. Theories X and Y b. Hierarchy of Needs c. Two-factor Theory d. Motivator-Hygiene Theory (b; Easy; p. 156) 114 6. Maslow’s hierarchy has five levels of needs. Which of the following is not one of those levels? a. safety needs b. social needs c. motivational needs d. self-actualization needs (c; Moderate; p. 156) 7. Which of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s need for hunger, thirst, and sex? a. safety b. physiological c. social d. esteem (b; Moderate; p. 156) 8. Self-respect, autonomy, and achievement are examples of Maslow’s: a. physiological factors. b. social factors. c. internal esteem factors. d. external esteem factors. (c; Moderate; p. 156) 9. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs are arranged in which of the following orders? a. physiological, esteem, safety, social, and self-actualization b. physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization c. safety, physiological, esteem, social, and self-actualization d. physiological, social, safety, esteem, and self-actualization (b; Easy; p. 156) 10. Growth and achieving one’s potential are examples of Maslow’s: a. self-actualization factors. b. physiological factors. c. social factors. d. esteem factors. (a; Moderate; p. 156) 11. According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating? a. when it is substantially satisfied b. it never stops motivating c. when one returns to a lower level need d. when one chooses to move to a higher level need (a; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Which one of the following statements about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is not true? a. The five levels of needs are arranged in hierarchical order. b. Physiological needs are the lowest level. c. The lower order need must be fully satisfied before the next higher need becomes potent. d. The need hierarchy concept has not been well supported by research. (c; Challenging; pp. 156-157) 13. The primary organizational factor that satisfies people’s physiological needs is: 12. 115 a. relationships with co-workers. b. recognition. c. pay. d. challenging job assignments. (c; Moderate; p. 157) 14. Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow? a. physiological, safety, social b. safety, social, esteem c. esteem, self-actualization d. social, esteem, self-actualization (d; Moderate; p. 157) There is little evidence: a. that need structures are organized along Maslow’s proposed dimensions. b. that unsatisfied needs motivate. c. that a satisfied need activates movement to a new need level. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 157) 16. Douglas McGregor proposed: a. the Hierarchy of Needs Theory. b. Theories X and Y. c. the Two-Factor Theory. d. ERG Theory. (b; Moderate; p. 157) 17. A Theory X manager would view employees as: a. seeking responsibility. b. needing to be coerced to achieve goals. c. viewing work as a normal daily activity. d. exercising self control. (b; Easy; p. 157) 18. Which one of the following statements best describes a manager who follows Theory X assumptions? a. He lets employees choose their own goals. b. He allows employees to use discretion. c. He imposes strict controls. d. He makes extensive use of delegating authority. (c; Moderate; p. 157) 19. 15. All of the following are assumptions of a Theory X manager concerning employees except: a. avoids responsibilities. b. dislikes work. c. seeks formal direction. d. exercises self direction. (d; Moderate; p. 157) 20. A Theory Y manager would assume that employees would: a. dislike work. 116 b. need to be controlled. c. avoid responsibility. d. exercise self direction. (d; Easy; p. 157) 21. A Theory X manager would assume that employees would: a. like work. b. seek responsibility. c. need to be controlled. d. exercise self direction. (c; Easy; p. 157) 22. Theory X assumptions relate to: a. Maslow’s lower level needs. b. Maslow’s higher level needs. c. both levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. d. neither level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. (a; Moderate; p. 158) 23. Who proposed a two-factor theory? a. Maslow b. McClelland c. Herzberg d. Alderfer (c; Challenging; p. 159) 24. The two-factor theory is also referred to as: a. Theories X and Y. b. Motivator-Hygiene Theory. c. Hierarchy of Needs Theory. d. Satisfaction/Dissatisfaction Theory. (b; Moderate; p. 159) 25. Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as _____ cause dissatisfaction. a. advancement b. working conditions c. achievement d. recognition (b; Moderate; p. 160) 26. Which of the following is not true about the two-factor theory? a. Working conditions are characterized as hygiene factors. b. Intrinsic factors are motivators. c. A job becomes satisfying when the dissatisfying characteristics are removed. d. Responsibility is a satisfier. (c; Moderate; pp. 159-160) 27. Which one of the following would Herzberg classify as a hygiene factor? a. responsibility b. growth 117 c. company policy d. achievement (c; Moderate; p. 160) 28. Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the two-factor theory? a. salary b. supervision c. working conditions d. recognition (d; Moderate; p. 160) 29. The hygiene factors make up the continuum that ranges from: a. no dissatisfaction to dissatisfaction. b. no dissatisfaction to satisfaction. c. satisfaction to no satisfaction. d. satisfaction to dissatisfaction. (a; Challenging; Exh. 6-3; p. 160) 30. Which of the following is a criticism of the two-factor theory? a. No overall measure of satisfaction is utilized. b. The research methodology does not examine productivity. c. The theory is inconsistent with previous research. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 160-161) 31. The popularity over the past 30 years of vertically expanding jobs to allow workers greater responsibility in planning and controlling their work can probably be largely attributed to the theory developed by: a. McGregor. b. Vroom. c. Herzberg. d. Maslow. (c; Challenging; p. 161) Contemporary Theories of Motivation 32. _____ developed the ERG theory. a. McClelland b. Maslow c. Alderfer d. Ouchi (c; Challenging; p. 161) 33. _____ substitutes three core needs for Maslow’s five needs. a. ERG theory b. Equity theory c. McClelland’s theory of needs 118 d. Expectancy theory (a; Moderate; p. 161) 34. Hunger, thirst, sex, pay, and physical work environment are examples of Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. safety needs. c. growth needs. d. physiological needs. (a; Moderate; p. 161) Desires for relationships with those who are significant to us, such as family members, supervisors, and friends, are examples of Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. relatedness needs. c. growth needs. d. esteem needs. (b; Moderate; p. 161) Our intrinsic desire for personal development is included in Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. relatedness needs. c. growth needs. d. esteem needs. (c; Moderate; p. 161) Alderfer’s ______ needs include the intrinsic component from Maslow’s esteem category and the characteristics included under self-actualization. a. existence b. relatedness c. growth d. physiological (c; Moderate; p. 161) 38. Which one of the following is not characteristic of ERG theory? a. It proposes three levels of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth. b. More than one level of needs may serve as motivators at the same time. c. It involves a frustration-regression process. d. The existence needs must be satisfied before the relatedness needs become important. (d; Moderate; p. 161) 37. 36. 35. 39. _____ theory is more consistent with our knowledge of individual differences than other theories. a. ERG b. Maslow’s c. Two-factor d. McClelland’s 119 (a; Challenging; p. 162) McClelland’s theory of needs includes all of the following except: a. need for achievement. b. need for existence. c. need for power. d. need for affiliation. (b; Moderate; p. 162) 40. 41. McClelland’s need for affiliation is: a. the drive to excel, to strive to succeed. b. the need to make others behave in a new way. c. the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. d. the same as Maslow’s physiological need. (c; Moderate; p. 162) 42. Which of the following needs is included in McClelland’s theory of needs? a. control b. power c. politics d. success (b; Easy; p. 162) 43. Who proposed that there are three major relevant motives, or needs, in workplace situations: achievement, affiliation, and power? a. McClelland b. Alderfer c. Herzberg d. Maslow (a; Moderate; p. 162) 44. According to McClelland, the need for ____ is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise. a. power b. achievement c. affiliation d. effectiveness (a; Moderate; p. 162) 45. Individuals who have a desire to excel and to succeed are high in: a. nPow. b. nAch. c. nMot. d. nAff. (b; Moderate; p. 162) 120 46. McClelland’s need for achievement best approximates Maslow’s need for: a. esteem. b. self-actualization. c. love. d. success. (b; Challenging; p. 163) 47. A desire for being productive and reaching desirable goals is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (a; Easy; p. 163) 48. The desire for positive relationships with others is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (b; Easy; p. 163) 49. The desire for influence and control over others is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (c; Easy; p. 163) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following except: a. job situations with personal responsibility. b. a high degree of risk. c. overcoming obstacles. d. feedback. (b; Moderate; p. 163) 50. 51. The ______ identified by McClelland has received the least attention from researchers. a. need for achievement b. need for affiliation c. need for power d. need for esteem (b; Challenging; p. 163) 52. How does most research determine if someone is a high achiever? a. polygraph b. projective test c. personal interview d. Myers-Briggs (b; Moderate; p. 163) 121 53. A high ___ motive may be a requirement for managerial effectiveness. a. need for achievement b. need for affiliation c. need for power d. need for esteem (c; Challenging; p. 164) 54. The issue of whether intrinsic and extrinsic motivators are independent is considered in which theory? a. expectancy b. reinforcement c. equity d. cognitive evaluation (d; Moderate; p. 164) 55. Which of the following is true about cognitive evaluation theory? a. If cognitive evaluation theory is correct, it would make sense to make an individual’s pay noncontingent on performance. b. Employees are motivated by a hierarchy of needs. c. This theory was developed by McClelland. d. Needs are separated into higher-order and lower-order categories. (a; Challenging; pp. 164-165) 56. _____ proposed that intentions to work toward a goal are a major source of work motivation. a. Maslow b. Herzberg c. McClelland d. Edwin Locke (d; Easy; p. 166) 57. According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be: a. extremely difficult. b. easy. c. difficult but attainable. d. just a bit beyond his or her potential. (c; Moderate; p. 166) All of the following are important issues relating to goal-setting theory with the exception of: a. goal difficulty. b. goal specificity. c. equity among co-workers. d. feedback. (c; Moderate; p. 166) 58. 59. Which of the following is inconsistent with goal-setting theory? a. Specificity increases motivation. b. Goals that are certain to be accomplished increase motivation. c. Challenging goals or difficult goals can increase performance. d. If employees participate in setting goals, chances for acceptance are increased. 122 (b; Challenging; p. 167) In addition to feedback, what are two of the other factors that have been found to influence the goalsperformance relationship? a. goal commitment and task difficulty b. self-efficacy and task subjectivity c. goal commitment and self-efficacy d. task subjectivity and task difficulty (c; Challenging; p. 167) 61. Your personal evaluation of your ability to perform is termed: a. goal setting. b. equity. c. self-efficacy. d. distributive justice. (c; Easy; p. 167) 62. Goal-setting theory is well adapted to countries like: a. Canada. b. Chile. c. Portugal. d. Spain. (a; Challenging; p. 167) 63. Reinforcement theory views behavior as: a. a cognitive process. b. environmentally caused. c. the inner state of the individual. d. a function of one’s power need. (b; Challenging; pp. 167-168) 64. Which theory is, strictly speaking, not a theory of motivation since it does not concern itself with what initiates behavior? a. equity theory b. expectancy theory c. ERG theory d. reinforcement theory (d; Moderate; p. 168) 60. 65. The work equivalent of the athlete’s being “in the zone” is called: a. concentration. b. flow. c. hype. d. zoned out. (b; Moderate; p. 168) 66. Which of the following is not a component of Thomas’ intrinsic motivation model? 123 a. choice b. competence c. confidence d. progress (c; Moderate; p. 169) 67. Thomas’ four intrinsic motivation components link with the concept of: a. flow. b. hype. c. zones. d. motivation. (a; Moderate; p. 170) 68. In equity theory, individuals assess the: a. cost-benefit ratio. b. efficiency-effectiveness trade-off. c. quantity-quality trade-off. d. outcome-input ratio. (d; Moderate; p. 170) 69. When individuals compare their outcomes and inputs against those of others, the applicable theory is called: a. equity theory. b. expectancy theory. c. needs hierarchy theory. d. ERG theory. (a; Easy; p. 170) 70. When people perceive an imbalance in their outcome-input ratio relative to others: a. an illegal situation is assumed. b. they expect to be promoted. c. equity tension is created. d. turnover is inevitable. (c; Challenging; p. 171) 71. Each of the following is a comparison an employee can use in equity theory except: a. self-inside. b. self-goal. c. other-outside. d. self-outside. (b; Moderate; p. 171) 72. Which of the following is not true about referent comparisons in equity theory? a. Both men and women prefer same-sex comparisons. b. Employees in sex-segregated jobs use more cross-sex comparisons. c. Employees with long tenure rely more heavily on co-workers for comparisons. d. Upper-level employees make more other-outside comparisons. (b; Challenging; p. 171) 124 73. Which of the following is not a predictable choice when employees perceive an inequity? a. change their inputs b. change their outcomes c. choose a different referent d. acquire more tenure (d; Moderate; p. 171) 74. If a salaried employee is overpaid, equity theory would predict that: a. quantity will decrease. b. quality will decrease. c. quantity and/or quality will increase. d. there will be no effect. (c; Challenging; p. 172) 75. If a piece-rate employee is overpaid, equity theory would predict that: a. quality will increase. b. quantity will increase. c. quality will decrease. d. there will be no effect. (a; Challenging; p. 172) 76. Equity theory focused on: a. interpersonal justice. b. distributive justice. c. equity. d. procedural justice. (b; Challenging; p. 172) 77. There are several types of justice. Which one is the term for “fairness of the process?” a. interpersonal justice b. distributive justice c. equity d. procedural justice (d; Moderate; p. 172) 78. Jessica believes that she got an appropriate salary increase this year but she does not believe that the company’s methods for determining salary increases are fair. She believes that there is a problem with the firm’s: a. interpersonal justice. b. distributive justice. c. equity. d. procedural justice. (d; Challenging; p. 172) 79. Equity theory historically focused on _____ justice. 125 a. procedural b. distributive c. interpersonal d. interactive (b; Moderate; p. 173) 80. _____ justice is perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. a. Interactive b. Interpersonal c. Procedural d. Distributive (d; Easy; p. 172) 81. What was the first model which attempted to measure the strength of one’s expectations and predict motivation? a. expectancy theory b. equity theory c. goal setting theory d. ERG theory (a; Challenging; p. 173) 82. Expectancy theory was developed by: a. McClelland. b. Maslow. c. House. d. Vroom. (d; Moderate; p. 173) 83. The degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a desired outcome is defined by expectancy theory as: a. performance-reward relationship. b. effort-performance relationship. c. rewards-personal goals relationship. d. effort-satisfaction relationship. (a; Moderate; p. 173) 84. Which of the following is not one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory? a. performance-reward relationship. b. effort-performance relationship. c. rewards-personal goals relationship. d. effort-satisfaction relationship. (d; Moderate; p. 173) 85. In expectancy theory, the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance is the _____ relationship. a. rewards-personal goals b. performance-reward 126 c. effort-performance d. rewards-effort (c; Moderate; p. 173) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is the ____ relationship. a. performance-reward. b. effort-performance. c. rewards-personal goals. d. effort-satisfaction. (a; Moderate; p. 173) 87. The theory that asserts that motivation depends upon an employee’s goals, and the belief that productive behavior will get these goals accomplished, is called: a. Herzberg’s dual-factor theory. b. McClelland’s three needs theory. c. Vroom’s expectancy theory. d. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. (c; Challenging; p. 173) 88. Which of the following concepts is inconsistent with the expectancy theory of motivation? a. Self-interest is pursued. b. Performance and rewards are related. c. Attractive rewards will motivate. d. One’s inputs and outputs are compared to another’s. (d; Challenging; p. 173) Caveat Emptor: Motivation Theories are Culture Bound 89. Most current motivation theories were developed in the United States by Americans and have a strong emphasis on: a. individualism and quantity of life. b. teamwork and quality of life. c. teamwork and quantity of life. d. risk minimization and consensus. (a; Challenging; p. 177) 90. A motivation concept that clearly has an American bias is the: a. power need. b. affiliation need. c. achievement need. d. social need. (c; Moderate; p. 178) 91. The desire for _____ seems important to almost all workers across cultures. a. interesting work b. higher pay c. more flexibility d. telecommuting options 127 86. (a; Moderate; p. 178) A theory based on “needs” is the premise for theories by all of the following except: a. McClelland. b. Alderfer. c. McGregor. d. Maslow. (c; Challenging; p. 177) 92. TRUE/FALSE Defining Motivation 93. Motivation is a personality trait. (False; Moderate; p. 156) 94. Motivation is the result of the interaction of the individual and the situation. (True; Easy; p. 156) 95. Leadership is the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. (False; Moderate; p. 156) 96. High intensity is unlikely to lead to favorable job-performance outcomes unless the effort is channeled in a direction that benefits the organization. (True; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Early Theories of Motivation 97. The early theories of motivation are widely used by practitioners to explain employee motivation. (True; Moderate; p. 156) 98. According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates. (True; Moderate; p. 156) 99. Esteem is considered a lower order need. (False; Moderate; p. 157) Higher-order needs are satisfied internally, whereas lower-order needs are predominantly satisfied externally. (True; Challenging; p. 157) 101. Research actively validates Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory. (False; Easy; p. 157) 102. Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human beings. (True; Moderate; p. 157) 100. 128 103. McGregor referred to the positive assumptions of human beings as Theory Y. (True; Moderate; p. 157) 104. People are inherently lazy. (False; Easy; p. 158) 105. Maslow proposed a two-factor theory, suggesting that intrinsic job factors motivate, whereas extrinsic factors only maintain and placate employees. (False; Moderate; p. 159) 106. According to Herzberg, the opposite of “satisfaction” is “dissatisfaction.” (False; Moderate; p. 160) 107. According to Herzberg, some factors lead to satisfaction, but if you remove the factors you create dissatisfaction. (False; Moderate; p. 160) 108. According to Herzberg, pay is a motivation factor. (False; Moderate; p. 160) 109. Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job. (False; Moderate; p. 160) The popularity of vertically expanding jobs to allow workers greater responsibility in planning and controlling their work can probably be attributed largely to Maslow’s findings. (False; Challenging; p. 161) Contemporary Theories of Motivation 111. The contemporary theories of motivation are generally more valid than the early theories of motivation. (True; Moderate; p. 161) 112. The core needs in ERG theory are reconcilable with Maslow’s five need categories. (True; Moderate; p. 161) 113. According to Alderfer, once an employee’s existence needs are substantially satisfied, the employee moves on to his or her relatedness needs. (False; Moderate; p. 161) 114. According to Alderfer, existence needs include the items Maslow considered to be physiological and safety needs. (True; Moderate; p. 161) 115. McClelland’s theory of needs contains a frustration-regression dimension. (False; Moderate; p. 162) 116. A drive to succeed would be described by McClelland as a need for achievement. (True; Moderate; p. 162) 129 110. 117. High achievers attempt the most difficult goals because once achieved, they gain more recognition. (False; Challenging; p. 163) 118. The needs for affiliation and power tend to be closely related to managerial success. (True; Moderate; p. 163) 119. The evidence indicates that high achievers make good managers. (False; Challenging; p. 164) 120. Evidence indicates that the best managers are high in nPow and low in nAff. (True; Challenging; p. 164) 121. The achievement need can be stimulated through training. (True; Moderate; p. 164) 122. When extrinsic rewards are given to someone for performing an interesting task, it causes intrinsic interest in the task itself to decline. (True; Challenging; p. 164) 123. Cognitive evaluation theory is concerned with whether individuals perceive that rewards are distributed fairly. (False; Moderate; p. 164) 124. According to the cognitive evaluation theory, pay should not be directly related to job performance. (True; Challenging; p. 165) Evidence gathered about the cognitive evaluation theory leads us to believe that extrinsic and intrinsic rewards are interdependent. (True; Challenging; p. 165) The cognitive evaluation theory may have limited applicability to work organizations because most low-level jobs are not inherently satisfying enough to foster high intrinsic interest. (True; Challenging; p. 165) According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a higher level of output than a specific goal. (False; Moderate; p. 166) Self-generated feedback has been shown to be a more powerful motivator than externally generated feedback. (True; Moderate; pp. 166-167) 129. Participatively set goals increase acceptance and elicit superior performance. (False; Easy; p. 167) 130. Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. (True; Moderate; p. 167) 128. 127. 126. 125. 130 131. The basic logic underlying goal-setting theory and reinforcement theory are at odds. (True; Challenging; p. 167) 132. The statement that “behavior is a function of its consequences” is consistent with reinforcement theory. (True; Moderate; p. 168) 133. According to reinforcement theory, behavior is environmentally determined. (True; Moderate; p. 168) Motivation researchers call the state of absolute concentration equivalent to an athlete’s being “in the zone” flow. (True, Moderate, p. 168) 135. Flow is often reported by people when engaged in leisure activities. (False; Challenging; p. 169) 136. Flow is more likely to be experienced at work than at home. (True; Challenging; p. 168) 137. Equity theory proposed that equity tension is the negative tension state which provides the motivation to do something to correct it. (True; Moderate; p. 171) 138. In equity theory, if perceived outcomes and inputs are not balanced, an individual will make certain adjustments to correct imbalance. (True; Moderate; p. 171) 139. Research shows that in equity theory men prefer same-sex comparisons but women do not. (False; Challenging; p. 171) If you pay an individual an hourly rate, according to the equity theory, overpaying this individual will result in more output. (True; Moderate; p. 172) 141. Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities. (False; Moderate; p. 172) It is possible for an employee to perceive injustice even if the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals is perceived as fair. (True; Moderate; p. 172) 143. Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. (False; Moderate; p. 172) 144. Procedural justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. (True; Moderate; p. 172) 131 142. 140. 134. 145. In expectancy theory, the strength of a person’s motivation to perform depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts. (True; Moderate; p. 173) 146. The expectancy theory is a contingency model. (True; Easy; p. 174) Integrating Contemporary Theories of Motivation 147. Expectancy theory predicts that an employee will exert only a low level of effort if she perceives a strong relationship between effort and performance, performance and rewards, and rewards and satisfaction of personal goals. (False; Challenging; p. 176) 148. Reinforcement theory recognizes that the organization’s rewards reinforce the individual’s performance. (True; Easy; p. 177) Caveat Emptor: Motivation Theories are Culture Bound 149. Maslow’s hierarchy works equally well for all cultures. (False; Moderate; p. 178) According to Maslow’s hierarchy, a country high in uncertainty avoidance would have security needs near the top of the need hierarchy. (True; Moderate; p. 178) 151. The desire for interesting work seems important to almost all workers, regardless of their culture. (True; Easy; p. 178) 152. Studies suggest there is some universality to the importance of intrinsic factors in two-factor theory. (True; Challenging; p. 178) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Maslow’s Hierarchy Your department is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who is working for minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it. Jane is single, 45 years old and has few interests outside of the office. You have decided to attempt to apply Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to motivate each of these individuals. 153. You would expect that Mary is trying to satisfy her _____ needs. a. social b. esteem c. physiological d. self-actualization 132 150. (c; Easy; pp. 156-157) 154. You would expect that Jane is trying to satisfy her ______ needs. a. social b. esteem c. physiological d. self-actualization (a; Moderate; pp. 156-157) 155. Which of the following do you think would motivate Mary the most? a. more vacation time b. more responsibility c. greater discretion over her job d. more money (d; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Application of Maslow’s Hierarchy You are interested in applying Maslow’s hierarchy in your workplace. You are interested in how the various employee needs are met by the organization because you believe your organization can motivate employees by analyzing where they are on Maslow’s hierarchy. 156. Some of the employees’ safety needs are met by providing them with insurance. (True; Moderate; pp. 156-157) 157. Self-actualization needs can be met by giving employees a place to take their breaks together. (False; Moderate; pp. 156-157) 158. The organization will find the employees’ self-actualization needs the easiest to satisfy. (False; Easy; pp. 156-157) Application of McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y You are a new employee with Acme, Inc. Your supervisor has explained your job to you and has indicated that you will have a great deal of control over your job once you become proficient at it. He compliments your history of accepting responsibility and suggests that you are to feel free to offer constructive criticism about the way that your job is structured. 159. Your supervisor seems to possess _______ assumptions. a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Theory Z d. to be lazy (b; Easy; p. 157) 160. Your supervisor would be expected to assume each of the following except: 133 a. employees view work as natural. b. the average person will seek responsibility. c. workers place security above all other factors. d. the ability to make innovative decisions is not necessarily the sole province of managers. (c; Moderate; p. 157) As a Theory Y manager, your supervisor can be expected to do all of the following except: a. assume that you will be internally motivated. b. assume that you want to do your job. c. allow you freedom to do your job as you believe it should be done. d. monitor your work closely for signs that you are derelict. (d; Moderate; p. 157) 161. Application of Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory Your fellow employees have a terrible work situation. They work in an old, unattractive building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious and the supervisor is rarely available. You have decided to try to apply Herzberg’s two-factor theory to the situation. 162. You decide that your first job should be to remove the dissatisfiers. Which of the following are hygiene factors? a. working conditions b. intrinsic rewards c. recognition d. advancement (a; Moderate; pp. 159-161) 163. Which of the following statements would be true? a. When the dissatisfiers are removed, employees will be satisfied. b. The relationship with the supervisor is a motivation factor. c. Dissatisfaction and satisfaction are not opposites. d. Lack of recognition is a dissatisfier. (c; Challenging; pp. 159-161) 164. What would Herzberg believe would motivate the employees? a. improvement in working conditions b. fixing the heating system c. receiving recognition for a job well done d. having the supervisor “hang around” more (c; Moderate; pp. 159-161) Application of Equity Theory You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired at a higher salary than you are now making. 165. You will probably use the _____ theory in evaluating how you regard this situation. a. equity b. expectancy 134 c. goal setting d. reinforcement (a; Moderate; pp. 170-172) 166. Your referent comparison for equity theory is termed: a. self-inside. b. self-outside. c. other-inside. d. other-outside. (c; Challenging; pp. 170-172) 167. You can be predicted to: a. work harder. b. call in sick. c. acknowledge that the new person hired is worth more. d. not work so hard. (d; Moderate; pp. 170-172) Application of McClelland’s Theory of Needs You manage a department of three employees. You have identified that Joe scores high in the need for achievement, Mary scores high in the need for power, and Jim scores high in the need for affiliation. Sarah scored high in both the need for power and the need for affiliation. Which employee would be best suited to a challenging new assignment where they would receive rapid feedback? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (a; Challenging; pp. 162-163) Which employee would be best suited as a mentor to new employees with a chance to develop friendships? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (c; Challenging; pp. 162-163) 170. Which employee would be most comfortable being in charge while you are on vacation? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (b; Challenging; pp. 162-163) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 135 169. 168. 171. What assumptions are held by a Theory Y manager? (Page 157) The Theory Y manager assumes employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play; people will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the objectives; the average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility; and the ability to make innovative decisions is widely dispersed throughout the population and is not necessarily the sole province of those in management positions. 172. List and explain the three groups of core needs in ERG Theory. (Page 161) Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. The existence group is concerned with providing our basic material existence requirements. The second group of needs are those of relatedness – the desire we have for maintaining important interpersonal relationships. Growth needs reflect an intrinsic desire for personal development. 173. Discuss McClelland’s Theory of Needs. (Pages 162-163) McClelland’s theory of needs focuses on three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation. The need for achievement is the drive to excel, to achieve in relation to a set of standards and to strive to succeed. The need for power is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise. The need for affiliation is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. 174. Explain cognitive evaluation theory. (Pages 164-165) Cognitive evaluation theory proposes that the introduction of extrinsic rewards, such as pay, for work effort that had been previously intrinsically rewarding due to the pleasure associated with the content of the work itself would tend to decrease the overall level of motivation. 175. What is self-efficacy? (Page 167) Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to succeed in a task. 176. What is flow? (Pages 168-169) Athletes commonly refer to it as being “in the zone.” It can also occur at work. Motivation researchers call this state of absolute concentration flow. The activity people are pursuing when they achieve the timelessness feeling of flow comes from the process of the activity itself rather than trying to reach a goal. So when a person experiences flow, he or she is completely intrinsically motivated. The flow experience is rarely reported by people when they’re doing leisure activities 136 such as watching television or relaxing. It is more likely to be experienced at work than at home. 177. Discuss distributive justice and procedural justice. Discuss how managers can use this information. (Page 172) Historically, equity theory focused on distributive justice or the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. But equity should also consider procedural justice – the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. The evidence indicates that distributive justice has a greater influence on employee satisfaction than procedural justice, while procedural justice tends to affect an employee’s organizational commitment, trust in his or her boss, and intention to quit. As a result, managers should consider openly sharing information on how allocation decisions are made, following consistent and unbiased procedures, and engaging in similar practices to increase the perception of procedural justice. By increasing the perception of procedural fairness, employees are likely to view their bosses and the organization as positive even if they’re dissatisfied with pay, promotions, and other personal outcomes. 178. What are the three relationships in Vroom’s expectancy theory? (Page 173) Expectancy theory argues that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual. The theory focuses on three relationships. The effort-performance relationship is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. The performance-reward relationship is the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. The rewards-personal goals relationship is the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 179. Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. (Page 156) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The physiological needs include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs. Safety includes security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Social includes affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship. Esteem includes internal esteem factors such as selfrespect, autonomy, and achievement; and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention. Self-actualization is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming; includes growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-fulfillment. As each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant. So if you want to motivate someone, according to Maslow, you need to understand what level of the hierarchy that person is currently on and focus on satisfying those needs at or above that level. 137 180. According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, how might a manager promote job satisfaction among employees? (Pages 159-160) According to Herzberg, the factors leading to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. Therefore, managers who seek to eliminate factors that can create job dissatisfaction may bring about peace but not necessarily result in motivation, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When they are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied. If we want to motivate people on their jobs, Herzberg suggested emphasizing factors associated with the work itself or to outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding. 181. What predictions can be made based on the relationship between the achievement need and job performance? (Pages 163-164) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. When these characteristics are prevalent, high achievers will be strongly motivated. The evidence consistently demonstrates, for instance, that high achievers are successful in entrepreneurial activities such as running their own businesses and managing a selfcontained unit within a large organization. A high need to achieve does not necessarily lead to being a good manager, especially in large organizations. People with a high achievement need are interested in how well they do personally and not in influencing others to do well. Employees have been successfully trained to stimulate their achievement need. So if a job calls for a high achiever, management can select a person with a high need for achievement or develop its own candidate through achievement training. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 182. How does ERG theory differ from Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? (Pages 161-162) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The physiological needs include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs. Safety includes security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Social includes affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship. Esteem includes internal esteem factors such as selfrespect, autonomy, and achievement; and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention. Self-actualization is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming; includes growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-fulfillment. As each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant. So if you want to motivate someone, according to Maslow, you need to understand what level of the hierarchy that person is currently on and focus on satisfying those needs at or above that level. 138 Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. The existence group is concerned with providing our basic material existence requirements. They include the items that Maslow considered to be physiological and safety needs. The second group of needs are those of relatedness – the desire we have for maintaining important interpersonal relationships. These social and status desires require interaction with others if they are to be satisfied, and they align with Maslow’s social need and the external component of Maslow’s esteem classification. Growth needs reflect an intrinsic desire for personal development. These include the intrinsic component from Maslow’s esteem category and the characteristics included under self-actualization. In addition, the ERG theory demonstrates that more than one need may be operative at the same time and if the gratification of a higher-level need is stifled, the desire to satisfy a lower-level need increases. ERG theory contains a frustration-regression dimension. ERG theory is also more consistent with our knowledge of individual differences among people. Overall, ERG theory represents a more valid version of the need hierarchy. 183. Discuss goal-setting theory and its implications for managers. (Pages 166-167) Edwin Locke proposed that intentions to work toward a goal are a major source of work motivation. Goals tell an employee what needs to be done and how much effort will need to be expended. The evidence strongly supports the value of goals. Specific goals increase performance; that difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals; and that feedback leads to higher performance than does nonfeedback. Specific hard goals produce a higher level of output than does the generalized goal of “do your best.” The specificity of the goal itself acts as an internal stimulus. The more difficult the goals, the higher the level of performance. However, it’s logical to assume that easier goals are more likely to be accepted. But once an employee accepts a hard task, he or she will exert a high level of effort until it is achieved, lowered, or abandoned. People will do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals because feedback helps to identify discrepancies between what they have done and what they want to do; that is, feedback acts to guide behavior. Goal-setting theory presupposes that an individual is committed to the goals, that is, is determined not to lower or abandon the goal when the goal is made public, when the individual has an internal locus of control, and when the goal is self-set rather than assigned. Goal-setting has also been found to be culture bound. It is well adapted to countries like the United States and Canada. Discuss equity theory. Include the concepts of equity tension, referent comparisons, and how employees might reduce perceived inequity. (Pages 171-172) According to equity theory, employees make comparisons of their job inputs and outcomes relative to those of others. We perceive what we get from a job situation in relation to what we put into it, and then we compare out outcome-input ratio with the outcome-input ratio of relevant others. If we perceive our ratio to be equal to that of the relevant others with whom we compare ourselves, a state of equity is said to exist. We perceive our situation as fair – that justice prevails. When we see ourselves as under-rewarded, the tension creates anger; when over-rewarded, the tension creates guilt. This negative state provides the motivation to do something to correct it. The referent that an employee selects adds to the complexity of equity theory. The four referent comparisons that an employee can use are the self-inside, the self-outside, the other-inside, and the other-outside. When 139 184. employees perceive an inequity, they can be predicted to make one of six choices. They may change their inputs. They may change their outcomes. They may distort perceptions of self. They may distort perceptions of others. They may choose a different referent, or they may leave the field. 140 Chapter 7 Motivation: From Concept to Applications MULTIPLE CHOICE Management by Objectives 1. MBO emphasizes converting overall organizational objectives into: a. capital gains. b. specific objectives for organizational units and individual members. c. operational units. d. terms that the individual worker can understand and accept. (b; Easy; p. 190) 2. MBO emphasizes participatively set goals that are: a. tangible. b. verifiable. c. measurable. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 190) 3. For the individual employee, MBO provides: a. specific personal performance objectives. b. increased monetary compensation. c. communication between co-workers. d. a means to an end. (a; Moderate; p. 190) 4. Since MBO works in an organization from the “top down” as well as from the “bottom up,” if all individuals achieve their goals: a. employees are more likely to be compensated for their efforts. b. their unit’s goals will be attained and the organization’s overall objectives become a reality. c. the individuals are less likely to be recognized for their work. d. the organization’s objectives will suffer. (b; Moderate; p. 190) 5. Which of the following is an example of an MBO objective? a. Decrease payroll costs by 6%. b. Increase quality significantly. c. Process orders quickly. d. Improve customer service. (a; Moderate; p. 190) All of the following are ingredients common to MBO programs except: a. an explicit time period. b. participative decision making. c. consistent monetary rewards. d. performance feedback. (c; Easy; p. 190) 6. 141 7. Feedback in an MBO program, ideally, is supplemented by: a. weekly meetings. b. periodic managerial evaluations. c. monthly progress reports by the employee. d. open book management. (b; Moderate; p. 190) 8. MBO objectives are: a. set unilaterally by the boss. b. set by the boss and assigned to subordinates to be carried out. c. set jointly by superior and subordinate. d. performed by the subordinate and evaluated exclusively by the superior. (c; Easy; p. 190) 9. A goal of “do your best:” a. is better than an easy goal. b. is better than a hard goal. c. is inappropriate goal setting. d. enables the employee to perform their best. (c, Moderate, p. 191) 10. According to the goal-setting theory, the goals that result in a high level of individual performance are: a. specific hard goals. b. specific easy goals. c. no goals at all. d. general easy goals that give the employee freedom. (a; Easy; p. 191) 11. One major difference between the goal-setting theory and MBO is that the goal-setting theory: a. demonstrates that assigning goals to subordinates frequently works as well as participative goalsetting. b. advocates participative goal-setting. c. requires feedback on performance. d. does not use objectives. (a; Challenging; p. 191) 12. The only possible disagreement between MBO and goal-setting theory relates to the issue of: a. feedback. b. goals. c. objectives. d. participation. (d; Challenging; p. 191) Employee Recognition Programs 142 13. Which of the following is true about employee recognition programs? a. The best ones recognize individual accomplishments only. b. The best ones recognize group accomplishments only. c. The best ones recognize individual and group accomplishments. d. The best ones use single sources. (c; Challenging; p. 192) 14. Laura may only make minimum wage, but her supervisor regularly compliments her and she has been chosen employee of the month twice this year. This is a good example of the power of: a. recognition. b. participation. c. goal setting. d. pay. (a; Moderate; p. 192) 15. Which of the following is not true regarding recognition? a. Rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition. b. Recognition can take many forms. c. To enhance group cohesiveness and motivation, you can celebrate team successes. d. Good work should only be recognized in private. (d; Moderate; p. 193) 16. Researchers found that employees considered the most powerful workplace motivator to be: a. recognition. b. money. c. opportunity for advancement. d. autonomy. (a; Moderate; p. 193) 17. Which of the following is a form of recognition? a. personal congratulations b. a handwritten note c. public notice d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 193) The _____ have been especially effective at making suggestion systems work. a. Americans b. Japanese c. Portuguese d. Canadians (b; Moderate; p. 193) 18. 19. One of the most well-known and widely used recognition devices is: a. bonuses. 143 b. suggestion systems. c. brainstorming. d. company t-shirts. (b; Moderate; p. 193) The laws of _____ require companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors. a. New Zealand b. Brazil c. Denmark d. Great Britain (c; Challenging; p. 193) Which of the following countries does not have a law requiring companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors? a. Germany b. Austria c. Brazil d. Sweden (c; Challenging; p. 103) 21. 22. Employee involvement encompasses such popular ideas as: a. employee ownership. b. workplace democracy. c. empowerment. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 194) What Is Employee Involvement? 23. A participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success is: a. MBO. b. employee involvement. c. reengineering. d. OB Mod. (b; Moderate; p. 194) Participation: a. is synonymous with employee involvement. b. is a more limited term than employee involvement. c. is the larger framework of which employee involvement is a subset. d. and employee stock ownership plans are synonymous. (b; Challenging; p. 195) 24. 20. 25. Which of the following is not an example of employee involvement? a. variable-pay programs b. participative management 144 c. quality circles d. employee stock ownership plans (a; Moderate; p. 195) 26. The distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs is the use of: a. joint decision making. b. increased compensation. c. flexible benefits. d. all of the above (a; Moderate; p. 195) 27. Participative management: a. is a panacea for poor morale. b. is a panacea for low productivity. c. is not appropriate for every organization. d. does not require trust. (c; Challenging; p. 195) 28. Participative management is a method of management in which: a. subordinates make corporate decisions and management helps carry out those decisions. b. all upper management participate in the organization’s strategic planning. c. subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. d. low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department. (c; Moderate; p. 195) 29. Management would want to share its _____ power with subordinates because it may increase commitment to decisions and can result in better decisions. a. coercive b. referent c. communication d. decision-making (d; Moderate; p. 195) Research studies conducted on the participation-performance relationship show that the use of participation: a. enhances job satisfaction. b. increases motivation. c. has only a modest influence on employee productivity. d. greatly influences employee attitudes. (c; Moderate; p. 195) 30. 31. Almost every country in Western Europe has some type of legislation requiring companies to practice: a. representative participation. b. MBO. 145 c. OB Mod. d. quality circles. (a; Easy; p. 195) 32. _____ has been called “the most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world.” a. Representative participation b. MBO c. OB Mod d. Quality circles (a; Moderate; p. 195) 33. The goal of representative participation is: a. for workers to own the firms where they work. b. to help workers’ self-esteem. c. to provide greater distinction between workers and management. d. to redistribute power within the organization. (d; Moderate; p. 195) 34. _____ are employees who sit on a company’s board of directors and represent the interests of the firm’s employees. a. Board representatives b. Works councils c. Quality circles d. Union representatives (a; Moderate; p. 196) 35. _____ link employees with management. a. Board representatives b. Works councils c. Quality circles d. Union representatives (b; Moderate; p. 196) 36. Overall, the greatest value of representative participation is: a. increased motivation. b. increased satisfaction. c. symbolic. d. all of the above (c; Moderate; p. 196) 37. Work groups of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to discuss their quality problems and recommend solutions is a form of participative management called: a. department teams. b. cooperative groups. 146 c. evaluation teams. d. quality circles. (d; Moderate; p. 196) 38. Quality circles were originally begun in ____ and exported to ____ in the 1950s. a. Japan; Europe b. the U.S.; Europe c. the U.S.; Japan d. Japan; the U.S. (c; Moderate; p. 196) 39. Quality circles meet regularly to: a. discuss their quality problems. b. investigate causes of the problems. c. recommend solutions. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 196) 40. One author suggested that the ___ was the management fad of the 1980s, but they’ve “become a flop.” a. MBO program b. reengineering program c. ESOP d. quality circle (d; Moderate; p. 196) 41. A company-established benefit plan in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits is a(n): a. MBO program. b. reengineering program. c. ESOP. d. quality circle. (c; Moderate; p. 197) 42. Research on employee stock ownership programs indicates that they: a. increase employee satisfaction. b. reduce salaries. c. reduce stress. d. increase productivity. (a; Moderate; p. 197) 43. Participative management is compatible with all of the following except: a. ERG theory. b. Theory X. c. efforts to stimulate the achievement need. d. MBO. 147 (b; Moderate; p. 198) 44. Theory X is consistent with: a. the autocratic style of managing people. b. participative management. c. ERG theory. d. the cognitive evaluation theory. (a; Challenging; p. 198) 45. Which of the following is true? a. Theory Y aligns with the autocratic management style. b. Employee involvement programs provide intrinsic motivation. c. Theory Y aligns with the autocratic management style. d. Employee involvement is incompatible with ERG theory. (b; Moderate; p. 198) Variable-Pay Programs 46. Which of the following are all forms of variable-pay programs? a. piece-rate, wage incentive plans, gainsharing b. profit-sharing, lump-sum bonuses, extended vacations c. wage incentive plans, flextime, piece-rate d. retirement benefits, extended vacations, wage incentive plans (a; Easy; p. 199) 47. One advantage of variable pay plans to management is that they turn _____ into _____. a. fixed costs; variable costs b. high productivity; low productivity c. slow employees; high performers d. high costs; lower costs (a; Challenging; p. 199) The most widely used variable-pay programs include all of the following except: a. piece-rate wages. b. bonuses. c. gainsharing. d. hourly wages. (d; Moderate; p. 199) 48. 49. An employee who _____ is paid according to a piece-rate plan. a. performs community services b. is paid $2 for each unit produced c. is paid time and a half for overtime d. is on commission (b; Moderate; p. 200) 148 50. Organization-wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s profitability are termed: a. profit-sharing plans. b. gainsharing. c. variable pay. d. ESOPs. (a; Moderate; p. 200) 51. _____ is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is allocated. a. ESOP b. Gainsharing c. Variable pay d. Scanlon plan (b; Moderate; p. 200) 52. Which of the following is true about organizations with profit-sharing plans? a. They have more predictable salaries. b. Recession doesn’t affect pay in these organizations. c. They have higher levels of profitability. d. They have more grievances. (c; Moderate; p. 200) Variable pay compensation is probably most compatible with: a. Theory Y. b. expectancy theory. c. MBO. d. participative management. (b; Moderate; p. 201) 53. 54. If rewards are allocated completely on nonperformance factors, such as seniority or job title, then employees are likely to: a. complain to management. b. quit their jobs. c. reduce their effort. d. absent themselves from work. (c; Moderate; p. 199) 55. One advantage of variable-pay programs is that they: a. are easy to administer. b. are a form of flexible benefits. c. avoid the fixed expense of permanent salary increases. d. decrease total employee compensation. (c; Moderate; p. 199) 149 56. The new trend in variable-pay programs is: a. larger incentives. b. including upper management. c. piece-rate plans. d. including nonmanagerial employees. (d; Challenging; p. 200) 57. Gainsharing’s popularity seems to be narrowly focused among: a. large, unionized manufacturing companies. b. large service organizations. c. small, non-unionized manufacturing companies. d. small, privately-held companies. (a; Challenging; p. 200) Many reasons are given for not adopting the pay-for-performance concept. Of the following, which is not one of those reasons? a. It is difficult to determine what should constitute performance. b. Employees’ pay does not have to stay in step with inflation. c. There is an historical attachment to cost-of-living raises. d. It is difficult to determine how to measure performance. (b; Challenging; p. 201) Skill-Based Pay Plans 59. When pay levels are based on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do, _____ is being used. a. a variable pay plan b. flexible pay c. competency-based pay d. gainsharing (c; Moderate; p. 202) 60. Skill-based pay: a. is an alternative to job-based pay. b. is called competency-based pay. c. is called knowledge-based pay. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 202-203) 58. 61. From management’s point of view, the appeal of skill-based plans is their: a. flexibility. b. low cost. c. motivation. d. ease of administration. (a; Moderate; pp.202-203) 62. Which of the following is not a downside of skill-based pay? 150 a. People can “top out.” b. Skills can become obsolete. c. Ambitious people can confront minimal advancement opportunities. d. People are paid for acquiring skills for which there is no immediate need. (c; Moderate; p. 203) 63. Skill-based pay plans are compatible with all of the following except: a. ERG theory. b. the achievement need. c. reinforcement theory. d. motivating professionals. (d; Challenging; p. 203) 64. Paying people to expand their skill levels is consistent with the _____ need. a. affiliation b. achievement c. social d. security (b; Moderate; p. 203) 65. Companies that pay employees for learning extra skills reported higher: a. operating costs. b. employee performance. c. turnover. d. absenteeism. (b; Challenging; p. 204) Flexible Benefits 66. If employees are allowed to pick and choose from among a menu of benefit options, they are said to have: a inconsistent needs. b. benefit menu options. c. flexible benefits. d. participative management. (c; Easy; p. 204) The average organization provides fringe benefits worth approximately _____ percent of an employee’s salary. a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40 (d; Challenging; p. 204) 68. Options in the flexible benefit programs might include: 151 67. a. extended disability. b. college tuition reimbursement programs. c. extended vacation time. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 204) 69. In the future, we can expect the percentage of large and medium-sized companies offering flexible benefit plans to increase to reflect: a. the expanding diversity among employees. b. growing entitlement. c. greater competition for employees. d. greater desire to give employees more. (a; Challenging; p. 205) 70. A major drawback of flexible benefit programs is: a. the organization’s costs are generally higher. b. employees can purchase fewer total benefits. c. reduced flexibility. d. these plans are only available to larger companies. (b; Moderate; p. 205) Special Issues in Motivation 71. Professionals are typically motivated by: a. money. b. time off. c. job challenge. d. promotions. (c; Challenging; p. 206) 72. Which of the following is not true about motivating professionals? a. They are motivated by money. b. They are motivated by challenging jobs. c. They are loyal to their profession rather than their employer. d. Their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. (a; Moderate; p. 206) To motivate professionals, you should do all of the following except: a. provide them with ongoing challenging projects. b. give them autonomy. c. reward them with higher salaries. d. allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive. (c; Moderate; p. 206) 73. 74. What motivates contingent workers? a. opportunity for permanent status b. training opportunities 152 c. freedom d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 206-207) 75. The opportunity for training will motivate: a. professionals. b. contingent workers. c. a and b d. none of the above (c; Moderate; pp. 206-207) 76. In order to maximize the motivation of a diverse workforce, the key word will be: a. fairness. b. flexibility. c. status. d. money. (b; Moderate; p. 207) 77. Motivation of people holding jobs with highly repetitive tasks can be made easier by: a. increasing pay. b. increasing autonomy. c. careful selection. d. ESOPs. (c; Moderate; p. 208) 78. Low-skilled service workers can best be motivated by: a. more interesting jobs. b. flexible scheduling. c. raising pay. d. stock options. (c; Moderate; p. 208) TRUE/FALSE Management By Objectives 79. Installing a variable-pay program can make goal-setting theory operational. (False; Challenging; p. 190) 80. In MBO, goals are unilaterally set by the employee and communicated to the boss. (False; Easy; p. 190) 81. In MBO, goals are established for departments and units rather than for individual employees. (False; Moderate; p. 190) 82. The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an implicit time period, and performance feedback. (False; Challenging; p. 190) 153 83. MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals. (True; Moderate; p. 190) 84. In MBO, goals should be tangible and measurable. (True; Moderate; p. 190) 85. MBO relies on participatively set goals. (True; Easy; p. 190) 86. MBO directly advocates specific goals and feedback. (True; Moderate; p. 191) 87. MBO would be most effective when the goals are easily reached by the employees. (False; Moderate; p. 191) 88. There are almost no documented cases where MBO has been implemented but failed to meet management’s expectations. (False; Easy; p. 191) Employee Recognition Programs 89. The best employee recognition programs are those that recognize just individual accomplishments. (False; Challenging; p. 193) Consistent with reinforcement theory, rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition. (True; Moderate; p. 193) 91. One of the most expensive recognition programs is that which recognizes an employee’s superior performance. (False; Easy; p. 193) 92. One of the most well-known and widely used recognition devices is the use of suggestion systems. (True; Moderate; p. 193) 90. Employee Involvement Programs 93. The laws of the United States require companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors. (False; Moderate; p. 193) 94. Employee involvement is a participation process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success. (True; Moderate; p. 194) 95. Employee participation and employee involvement are synonymous. 154 (False; Challenging; pp. 194-195) 96. Participative management implies joint decision making and equal decision-making roles. (False; Moderate; p. 195) It is generally agreed among OB scholars that participative management should be treated as an ethical imperative. (False; Challenging; p. 195) 98. Participation typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity, motivations, and job satisfaction. (True; Easy; p. 195) 99. If one is interested in changing employee attitudes or in improving organizational performance, representative participation would be a good choice. (False; Challenging; p. 195) The two most common forms that representative participation takes are works councils and board representatives. (True; Challenging; p. 196) 101. Participative management has had a profound influence on employee productivity and motivation. (False; Moderate; p. 196) 102. Board representatives are employees who sit on a company’s board of directors and represent the interests of the firm’s employees. (True; Moderate; p. 196) 103. Quality circles originated in the United States. (True; Moderate; p. 196) 104. Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative actions, and implement a solution. (False; Challenging; p. 196) 105. Quality circles have been a big success in businesses using them. (False; Moderate; p. 196) 106. The lack of planning and top management commitment often contributed to quality circle failures. (True; Challenging; p. 197) ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits. (True; Moderate; p. 197) 108. Research on ESOPs indicates they increase employee satisfaction. (True; Challenging; p. 197) 109. Theory X is consistent with participative management. (False; Easy; p. 198) 155 107. 100. 97. 110. Theory X aligns with autocratic management while Theory Y aligns with participative management. (True; Moderate; p. 198) 111. Employee involvement programs could provide employees with intrinsic motivation by increasing opportunities for growth and responsibility. (True; Challenging; p. 198) 112. Employee involvement is compatible with ERG Theory and efforts to achieve the affiliation need. (False; Challenging; p. 198) 113. While American employees readily accepted employee involvement programs, managers in India who tried to empower their employees were rated low by those employees and the use of empowerment also negatively affected employee satisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 198) 114. In recent years, many organizations have dropped their quality circles and replaced them with more comprehensive team-based structures. (True; Moderate; p. 198) Variable-Pay Programs 115. Both piece-rate and gainsharing plans are examples of variable-pay compensation. (True; Easy; p. 199) 116. Variable-pay compensation pays people for the time they spend on the job and seniority. (False; Easy; p. 199) 117. Piece-rate plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, and gainsharing are all forms of flexible benefits. (False; Moderate; p. 200) 118. Piece-rate wages have been around for nearly a century. (True; Moderate; p. 200) People who sell peanuts at ball parks, keeping $.75 for every bag of peanuts they sell, are being paid piece-rate wages. (True; Moderate; p. 200) 120. Variable-pay programs turn part of an organization’s fixed labor costs into a variable cost. (True; Easy; p. 200) 121. Employee compensation will decline if performance declines in variable-pay programs. (True; Moderate; p. 200) 122. Piece-rate plans are based on group productivity. (False; Moderate; p. 200) 119. 156 123. Profit sharing may be paid by direct cash outlay or as stock options. (True; Challenging; p. 201) 124. Gainsharing and profit sharing are the same thing. (False; Easy; p. 200) An employee in a gainsharing plan can receive incentive awards even if the organization isn’t profitable. (True; Moderate; p. 200) 126. Studies generally support the fact that organizations with profit sharing plans have higher levels of profitability than those without. (True; Moderate; p. 200) 127. An American Management Association study of companies who used gainsharing found that grievances, absences, and lost-time accidents decreased. (True; Moderate; p. 200) 128. Variable pay is probably most compatible with two-factor theory predictions. (False; Moderate; p. 201) 129. One study of 400 manufacturing firms found that those companies with wage incentive plans achieved 43 to 64 percent greater productivity than those without such plans. (True; Moderate; p. 201) 130. The cost-of-living raise is rapidly replacing the variable-pay concept. (False; Moderate; p. 201) 131. Group and organization-wide incentives reinforce personal goals. (False; Moderate; p. 201) 132. Gainsharing’s popularity seems to be narrowly focused among large, unionized manufacturing companies. (True; Challenging; p. 201) 133. Pay for performance means the employees have to share in the risks as well as the rewards of their employer’s business. (True; Moderate; p. 201) Skill-Based Pay Plans 134. Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills. (False; Moderate; p. 202) 135. From management’s perspective, the greatest appeal of skill-based pay plans is decreased payroll costs. (False; Challenging; p. 202) 136. Skill-based pay plans encourage people to specialize. 157 125. (False; Moderate; p. 202) 137. The increased use of skills as a basis for pay seems to work well for corporations facing domestic competition, but is not so effective for firms facing foreign competition. (False; Moderate; p. 204) Flexible Benefits Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of the 1950s; fewer than 10% of employees now fit that stereotype, requiring an updated look at these benefits. (True; Moderate; p. 204) 139. Flexible spending plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services. (True; Moderate; p. 204) Special Issues in Motivation 140. Professionals are largely motivated by the extrinsic, rather than the intrinsic, rewards of their jobs. (False; Moderate; p. 206) 141. The loyalty of professionals is more often to their profession than to their employer. (True; Moderate; p. 206) 142. Promotions typically motivate professionals. (False; Moderate; p. 206) 143. The terms “temporary workers” and “contingent employees” are synonymous. (True; Moderate; p. 206) 144. Permanent status is a motivating force for most temporary workers. (True; Moderate; p. 207) 138. 145. Turnover rates of 200 percent are not uncommon for fast food restaurants like McDonald’s. (True; Challenging; p. 208) 146. Because people vary in their tolerance for ambiguity, careful selection of individuals who are asked to do highly repetitive tasks can cut down on turnover. (True; Moderate; p. 208) 147. High pay will usually lead to highly motivated workers in low-skilled, highly repetitious jobs. (False; Moderate; p. 208) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Management by Objectives 158 You have just been hired by Computers-R-Us to institute a management by objectives program. The sales people have asked you to explain the program to them and to help them understand how it will affect them. You want to make sure that they understand the ingredients common to MBO programs. Which of the following is not one of those ingredients? a. Goals should be general enough to allow creativity. b. Decision making will be participative. c. Time periods will be explicit. d. Feedback will be given on each employee’s performance. (a; Moderate; pp. 190-191) 149. Which of the following is an example of an MBO objective? a. Telephone orders should be processed promptly. b. All customers should be treated well. c. Computer sales should be increased by six percent. d. Employees should reduce absenteeism. (c; Challenging; pp. 190-191) 150. The objectives for each individual will be set: a. unilaterally by the supervisor. b. by the employee. c. by a committee of peers. d. by the employee and his superior. (d; Moderate; pp. 190-191) Application of Employee Recognition Programs You have read about the merits of employee recognition programs. While you have no significant budget, you are willing to implement a program in your department. 148. 151. Consistent with reinforcement theory, the recognition: a. must immediately follow the behavior to encourage repetition. b. must be expensive. c. must come at some time during the same year as the behavior. d. none of the above (a; Moderate; pp. 192-193) 152. Which of the following might be the most successful? a. suggestions programs b. handwritten notes c. bonuses d. plaques (a; Moderate; pp. 192-193) Application of Employee Involvement Programs 159 Your supervisor has heard that employee involvement is important and you have been instructed to research various methods of employee involvement. You are supposed to help assist in the analysis of the probable effects of each of the programs being considered. If participative management is used, you would predict that: a. it would be time consuming. b. commitment to decisions would increase. c. it will provide intrinsic rewards for employees. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 195-197) 154. You have decided to let employees select a small group to represent them and work with management. This is termed: a. representative participation. b. an ESOP. c. quality circles. d. participative management. (a; Moderate; pp. 195-197) 155. A group of employees will meet regularly to discuss problems and recommend action. This group is a(n): a. ESOP. b. works council. c. MBO cluster. d. quality circle. (d; Moderate; pp. 195-197) Application of Skill-Based Pay Plans Amalgamated Industries manufactures parts for furniture. Management has decided to change the method of payment to a skill-based plan. You are interested in increasing your current compensation and see this as an opportunity. 156. You should expect to earn more if you: a. volunteer for overtime. b. increase your production. c. cross train in other jobs. d. become a specialist. (c; Moderate; pp. 202-203) 157. The appeal from management’s perspective is: a. protection of territory. b. flexibility. c. elimination of workers. d. decreased payroll costs. (b; Challenging; pp. 202-203) 158. Which of the following is a disadvantage of skill-based pay plans? a. Employees are less motivated. 160 153. b. Employees are more specialized. c. Employees tend not to work as hard as before. d. Employers may pay for skills that they aren’t using. (d; Moderate; pp. 202-203) Application of Flexible Benefits Your workforce is diverse in terms of their needs for benefits. Jim is married with two children and his wife is at home full time. Janet is single and supports her widowed mother. Bob is married and his wife has a high-paying job. You decide that you want to devise a benefits program which is tailored to their individual needs. 159. The best choice available is probably: a. traditional benefit programs. b. a flexible benefit program. c. letting them purchase their own benefits. d. an ESOP. (b; Easy; pp. 204-205) 160. The major drawback from the employee’s standpoint will probably be: a. reduced flexibility. b. loss of benefits. c. costs of individual benefits may go up, so fewer total benefits can be purchased. d. fewer benefits to choose from. (c; Easy; pp. 204-205) You should expect that the flexible benefits program will be all of the following except: a. less expensive. b. consistent with expectancy theory. c. more responsive to individual needs. d. motivational. (a; Moderate; pp. 204-205) 161. Application of Special Issues in Motivation Allied Health Professionals employs many individuals and has discovered that not all of their employees are motivated by the same things. They have decided to develop different plans for the different segments of their workforce. The segments that they have decided to concentrate on are health care professionals, contingent or temporary workers, and nighttime janitorial staff. 162. The physicians on your staff will probably be motivated by: a. ongoing opportunities for education and training. b. autonomy. c. recognition. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 206-208) 163. Contingency workers will probably be motivated by: 161 a. opportunities for training. b. getting a permanent position. c. freedom to choose to remain temporary or to get a permanent position. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 206-208) 164. The nighttime janitorial staff are generally low skilled and would probably be motivated by: a. traditional approaches for motivation. b. flexible work schedules. c. hiring teenagers and retirees. d. nontraditional approaches to create a close and family-like work environment. (d; Moderate; pp. 206-208) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 165. What are the four ingredients common to MBO programs? (Pages 190-191) The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an explicit time period, and performance feedback. The objectives in MBO should be concise statements of expected accomplishments. The objectives in MBO are not unilaterally set by the boss and then assigned to employees. MBO replaces imposed goals with participatively determined goals. Each objective has a specific time period in which it is to be completed. The final ingredient is feedback on performance. MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals. 166. How can an employer link employee recognition programs with reinforcement theory? (Page 193) Consistent with reinforcement theory, rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition. Since most organizations are under severe cost pressures, recognition programs are particularly attractive. 167. What is participative management? Give some examples of its use in organizations. (Page 195) All participative management programs use joint decision making. Subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. Western Europe uses representative participation. Quality circles and employee stock ownership plans have also become more popular in the U.S. 168. Why would management want to share its decision-making power with subordinates? (Page 195) As jobs have become more complex, managers often don’t know everything their employees do. Thus, participation allows those who know the most to contribute. The result can be better decisions. The interdependence in tasks that employees often do today also requires consultation with people in other departments and work units. This increases the need for teams, committees, and group 162 meetings to resolve issues that affect them jointly. Participation additionally increases commitment to decisions. People are less likely to undermine a decision at the time of its implementation if they shared in making that decision. Finally, participation provides intrinsic rewards for employees. It can make their jobs more interesting and meaningful. 169. What is a quality circle? (Page 196) A quality circle is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who have a shared area of responsibility. They meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions. Part of the quality circle concept includes teaching participating employees group communication skills, various quality strategies, and measurement and problem analysis techniques. 170. What are skill-based pay plans? (Pages 202-203) Skill-based pay is an alternative to job-based pay. Rather than having an individual’s job title define his or her pay category, skill-based pay sets pay levels on the basis of how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do. It is also called competency-based or knowledge-based pay. 171. How are flexible benefits linked with expectancy theory? (Page 205) Giving all employees the same benefits assumes all employees have the same needs. Yet this assumption is false. Thus, flexible benefits turn the benefits’ expenditure into a motivator. Consistent with expectancy theory’s thesis that organizational rewards should be linked to each individual employee’s goals, flexible benefits individualize rewards by allowing each employee to choose the compensation package that best satisfies his or her current needs. The fact that flexible benefits can turn the traditional homogeneous benefit program into a motivator was demonstrated at one company when 80 percent of the organization’s employees changed their fixed benefit packages when a flexible plan was put into effect. 172. What motivates professionals? (Page 206) Professionals have a strong and long-term commitment to their field of expertise. Their loyalty is more often to their profession than to their employer. To keep current in their field, they need to regularly update their knowledge, and their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. Money and promotions typically are low on their priority list. Job challenge tends to be ranked high. Their chief reward in their job is the work itself. Professionals also value support. They want others to think what they’re working on is important. And professionals place a high level of importance on having skill-development opportunities. Provide them with ongoing challenging projects. Give them autonomy to follow their interests and allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive. Reward them with educational opportunities that allow them to keep current in their field. Also reward them with recognition and ask questions and engage in other actions that demonstrate to them you’re sincerely interested in what they are doing. 163 MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 173. Discuss Management by Objectives. What are the characteristics of MBO goals? (Pages 190-191) Management by Objectives emphasizes participatively set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable. The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an explicit time period, and performance feedback. The objectives in MBO should be concise statements of expected accomplishments. The objectives in MBO are not unilaterally set by the boss and then assigned to employees. MBO replaces imposed goals with participatively determined goals. Each objective has a specific time period in which it is to be completed. The final ingredient is feedback on performance. MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals. 174. What is employee involvement? Give three examples. (Pages 194-197) Employee involvement is defined as a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success. The underlying logic is that by involving workers in those decisions that affect them and by increasing their autonomy and control over their work lives, employees will become more motivated, more committed to the organization, more productive, and more satisfied with their jobs. Examples of employee involvement include participative management, representative participation, quality circles, and employee stock ownership plans. Participative management programs use joint decision making. Subordinates actually share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. Representative participation refers to worker representation by a small group of employees who actually participate on the board. The goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders. A quality circle is a group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who have a shared area of responsibility. They meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective action. Employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) are companyestablished benefit plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits. 175. Discuss flexible benefit programs. What are the advantages and disadvantages to both employees and employers? (Pages 204-205) Flexible benefit programs allow employees to pick benefits that most meet their needs. The idea is to allow each employee to choose a benefit package that is individually tailored to his or her own need and situation. It replaces the traditional “one-benefit-plan-for-all” programs that dominated organizations for more than 50 years. For employees, flexibility is attractive because they can tailor their benefits and levels of coverage to their own needs. The major drawback, from the employee’s standpoint, is that the costs of optional benefits often go up, so fewer total benefits can be purchased. From the organization’s standpoint, the good news is that flexible benefits often produce savings. Many organizations use the introduction of flexible benefits to raise deductibles and premiums. Moreover, once in place, costly increases in things like health insurance premiums often have to be substantially absorbed by the employee. The bad news for the organization is that these plans are more cumbersome for management to oversee and administering the programs is often expensive. 164 COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 176. List and describe different variable-pay programs. Be sure to include piece-rate plans, profit-sharing plans, and gainsharing. (Pages 199-201) Piece-rate plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, and gainsharing are all forms of variablepay programs. In piece-rate pay plans, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. When an employee gets no base salary and is paid only for what he or she produces, this is a pure piece-rate plan. Bonuses can be paid exclusively to executives or to all employees. Many companies now routinely reward production employees with bonuses in the thousands of dollars when company profits improve. Profit-sharing plans are organization wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s profitably. Gainsharing is a formula-based group incentive plan. Improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is to be allocated. By focusing on productivity gains rather than profits, gainsharing rewards specific behaviors that are less influenced by external factors. Employees in a gainshairing plan can receive incentive awards even when the organization isn’t profitable. How might a manager motivate professional workers, contingent workers, low-skilled service workers, and people doing highly repetitive tasks? (Pages 206-208) Professionals have a strong and long-term commitment to their field of expertise. Their loyalty is more often to their profession than to their employer. To keep current in their field, they need to regularly update their knowledge, and their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. Money and promotions typically are low on their priority list. Job challenge tends to be ranked high. Their chief reward in their job is the work itself. Professionals also value support. They want others to think what they’re working on is important. And professionals place a high level of importance on having skill-development opportunities. 177. The following should be considered in motivating professionals: • Provide them with ongoing challenging projects. • Give them autonomy to follow their interests and allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive. • Reward them with educational opportunities that allow them to keep current in their field. • Reward them with recognition. • Ask questions and engage in other actions that demonstrate to them you’re sincerely interested in what they are doing. 165 Chapter 8 Foundations of Group Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE Defining and Classifying Groups 1. Which one of the following characteristics is not part of a definition of a group? a. interdependent b. two or more members c. organizationally assigned goals d. interacting (c; Challenging; p. 219) 2. _____ groups are defined by the organization’s structure. a. Informal b. Formal c. Friendship d. Interest (b; Moderate; p. 219) 3. Informal groups: a. appear in response to the need for social contact. b. are detrimental in the workplace. c. should be formed outside of working hours. d. are defined by the organization structure. (a; Moderate; p. 219) 4. Which of the following is not a sub-classification of groups? a. command b. task c. work d. friendship (c; Moderate; p. 219) 5. Three employees from different departments who regularly eat lunch together are an example of a(an) _____ group. a. formal b. informal c. command d. task (b; Easy; p. 219) Which of the following statements is true? a. All task groups are also command groups. b. All command groups are also task groups. c. All task groups are also friendship groups. d. All command groups are also informal groups. (b; Moderate; p. 220) 167 6. 7. The group type that is determined by the organization chart is: a. the friendship group. b. the interest group. c. the reference group. d. the command group. (d; Moderate; p. 219) 8. Which one of the following groups is organizationally determined? a. friendship b. task c. interest d. Volvo owners (b; Moderate; p. 220) 9. The group type that is not limited to its immediate hierarchical superior but can cross command relationships is the: a. task group. b. command group. c. interest group. d. friendship group. (a; Moderate; p. 220) 10. Command groups are also: a. informal groups. b. task groups. c. friendship groups. d. interest groups. (b; Easy; p. 220) 11. Social alliances based on support for Notre Dame football is an example of a ____ group. a. formal b. command c. friendship d. task (c; Easy; p. 220) 12. Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) _____ group. a. social b. support c. interest d. work (c; Moderate; p. 220) 13. Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups? a. They are longer lasting than command groups. b. They rarely satisfy the needs of members. c. They are formed because of some common interest. d. They are not found in manufacturing organizations. (c; Moderate; p. 220) 168 14. Which of the following is not a reason people join groups? a. security b. status c. equity d. power (c; Moderate; Exh. 8-1, p. 221) Stages of Group Development 15. The stages of group development are: a. idea generation, implementation, termination. b. introduction, high productivity, decline. c. initiation, evolution, maturation, decline. d. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. (d; Moderate; Exh. 8-2, p. 221) Which is not one of the stages in the five-stage group-development model? a. forming b. worming c. storming d. norming (b; Easy; Exh. 8-2; p.221) 16. 17. The stage in group development which is characterized by uncertainty is: a. norming. b. storming. c. forming. d. performing. (c; Easy; p. 220) 18. Which is the stage of group development characterized by close relationships and cohesiveness? a. bonding b. norming c. performing d. storming (b; Moderate; p. 221) 19. In the second stage of group development: a. close relationships are developed. b. the group demonstrates cohesiveness. c. intragroup conflict often occurs. d. the job task is performed. (c; Challenging; p. 221) 20. After which stage of a group’s development is there a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group? 169 a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing (b; Moderate; p. 221) 21. After which stage of a group’s development has the group formed a common set of expectations of member behaviors? a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing (a; Easy; p. 221) 22. When the group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the: a. performing stage. b. norming stage. c. storming stage. d. adjourning stage. (a; Moderate; p. 221) 23. Temporary groups with deadlines follow the _____ model. a. sociometry b. five-stage group development c. punctuated equilibrium d. cluster variance (c; Moderate; p. 222) 24. According to the punctuated equilibrium model, all of the following are true about groups except: a. the first meeting sets the group’s direction. b. a transition takes place at the end of the first phase which occurs exactly when the group has used up one third of its allotted time. c. the first phase of group activity is one of inertia. d. the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. (b; Challenging; p. 222) 25. According to the punctuated equilibrium model, groups tend to experience _____ about halfway between the first meeting and the official deadline. a. inertia b. stagnation c. reinforcement of the initial fixed course d. “mid-life crisis” (d; Moderate; p. 223) Toward Explaining Work Group Behavior 26. All of the following are reasons some groups are more successful than others except: 170 a. age of group members. b. size of the group. c. level of conflict. d. internal pressures for conformity. (a; Moderate; p. 223) External Conditions Imposed on the Group 27. Which of the following is not an external condition imposed on the group? a. group composition b. authority structures c. formal regulations d. performance evaluation system (a; Moderate; p. 224) 28. Which of the following defines “authority structure?” a. who reports to whom b. who makes decisions c. what decisions individuals or groups are empowered to make d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 224) 29. The more formal regulations that the organization imposes on its employees: a. the more dissatisfied the employees will be. b. the more productive the work group members will be. c. the more the behavior of the work group members will be consistent and predictable. d. the less productive the work group members will be. (c; Moderate; p. 224) Which external condition imposed on the group outlines the organization’s goals and the means for attaining these goals? a. organization’s overall strategy b. authority structure c. formal regulations d. performance evaluation system (a; Moderate; p. 224) 31. Which external condition imposed on the group determines the kinds of people that will be in its work groups? a. selection process b. authority structure c. performance evaluation system d. formal regulations (a; Moderate; p. 224) 32. The unwritten law that defines for employees standards of acceptable and unacceptable behavior is the: a. organizational culture. b. employee handbook. 171 30. c. feedback employees receive from their superiors. d. informal discussion among co-workers. (a; Easy; p. 225) Group Member Resources Which of the following is not true concerning knowledge, skills, and abilities of group members? a. Part of a group’s performance can be predicted by addressing the knowledge, skills, and abilities of its individual members. b. A group’s performance is not merely the summation of its individual members’ abilities. c. Interpersonal skills consistently emerge as important for high work group performance. d. Group members do not need conflict management skills. (d; Challenging; p. 225) 33. 34. Which one of the following personality traits tends to be positively related to group productivity? a. dominance b. authoritarianism c. sociability d. unconventionality (c; Moderate; p. 226) 35. Which of the following is not negatively related to group productivity? a. flexibility b. authoritarianism c. dominance d. unconventionality (a; Moderate; p. 226) 36. Which of the following personality traits is generally negatively related to group productivity? a. initiative b. unconventionality c. sociability d. openness (b; Moderate; p. 226) Group Structure 37. Formal leadership, roles, group norms, group status, and group size are examples of group: a. structural variables. b. role definitions. c. status symbols. d. perceptions of reality. (a; Moderate; p. 226) 38. Which of the following is not true regarding formal leadership? a. The formal leader can play an important role in the group’s success. b. The formal leader is typically identified by titles such as manager, supervisor, foreman, and project leader. c. Formal leadership does not shape the behavior of members. 172 d. Almost every work group has a formal leader. (c; Moderate; p. 226) 39. A _____ is a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in a social unit. a. role b. norm c. stereotype d. status hierarchy (a; Easy; p. 226) 40. Certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role are the: a. role expectations. b. role identity. c. role perception. d. psychological contract. (b; Easy; p. 227) 41. Which of the following is true of role identity? a. The attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role create the role perception. b. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation requires change. c. People do not have the ability to shift roles rapidly. d. Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation. (b; Moderate; p. 227) 42. How others believe you should act in a given situation is a: a. norm. b. stereotype. c. role expectation. d. role perception. (c; Easy; p. 227) 43. The _____ defines mutual expectations along with behavioral expectations that go with every role. a. group norm b. role expectation c. role stereotype d. psychological contract (d; Moderate; p. 227) 44. When an individual finds that compliance with one role requirement may make more difficult the compliance with another, the result is: a. role conflict. b. role expectation. c. role perception. 173 d. role identity. (a; Moderate; p. 228) 45. Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment is most important because it demonstrates: a. the importance of status. b. the impact of cohesiveness. c. that individuals can rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities. d. flaws in the Hawthorne studies. (c; Moderate; p. 228) 46. Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment involving “normal” students at Stanford University illustrated: a. group conformity. b. a conflict of interest. c. individual communication. d. the sudden adaptation of new roles. (d; Challenging; p. 228) 47. Acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members are: a. norms. b. rules. c. sanctions. d. opinions. (a; Easy; p. 229) Which is not a common class of norms appearing in most work groups? a. performance norms b. appearance c. termination d. arrangement (c; Easy; p. 229) 48. 49. One example of work group norms deals with performance-related processes. Examples of performance norms include all of the following except: a. appropriate dress. b. how hard the employee should work. c. appropriate levels of tardiness. d. level of output. (a; Challenging; p. 229) 50. Norms that dictate with whom group members eat lunch, friendships on and off the job, and social games are norms dealing with: a. appearance factors. b. social arrangements. c. ethical issues. d. group activity. 174 (b; Moderate; pp. 229-230) 51. Norms that dictate assignment of difficult jobs and allocation of new tools and equipment are norms dealing with: a. corporate objectives. b. financial standards. c. allocation of resources. d. informal arrangements. (c; Easy; p. 230) 52. ____ norms include things like appropriate dress, when to look busy, and loyalty to the organization. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (b; Easy; p. 229) 53. _____ norms include how to get the job done and the level of output. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (a; Easy; p. 229) _____ norms include with whom members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (c; Easy; p. 229) 55. _____ groups are characterized as ones where a person is aware of the others. The person defines himself or herself as a member, or would like to be a member. a. Reference b. Status c. Role d. Normative (a; Moderate; p. 229) 54. 56. The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of: a. group pressures for conformity. b. seating arrangements. c. the Hawthorne effect. d. status on group performance. (a; Moderate; p. 230) 175 Antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both are referred to as: a. ethical dilemmas. b. deviant workplace behavior. c. norms. d. antisocial behavior. (b; Moderate; p. 231) _____ is a socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others. a. Position b. Promotion c. Status d. Role (c; Easy; p. 232) 59. Which of the following is not true? a. Status has been shown to have some interesting effects on the power of norms and the pressures to conform. b. High status members of groups are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. c. Low status members of groups are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. d. High status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their lower status peers. (c; Moderate; p. 232) 60. 58. 57. Which of the following is not true about status equity? a. The trappings that go with formal positions are important elements in maintaining equity. b. Status incongruence is the perceived inequity between an individual's ranking and the status accoutrements that person is given by the organization. c. Groups generally agree within themselves on status criteria. d. It is unimportant for group members to believe that the status hierarchy is equitable, only that they understand it. (d; Challenging; p. 233) Your group is engaged in problem solving and your goal is fact-finding. Which size group should be most effective? a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 12 (d; Challenging; p. 234) 62. If your group must take action, which size should be most effective? a. 7 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12 (a; Challenging; p. 234) 63. In comparing the results of individual and group performance on a rope-pulling task, Ringelmann 176 61. concluded that: a. the larger the group, the greater the individual productivity. b. increases in group size are inversely related to individual performance. c. total productivity tends to decline in large groups. d. group size is not a determinant of individual productivity. (b; Challenging; pp. 234-235) According to your text, the group size that exercises the best elements of both small and large groups is: a. 3 to 4 members. b. 4 to 5 members. c. 5 to 7 members. d. 7 to 9 members. (c; Moderate; p. 234) Research on group demography demonstrates that _____ are positively related to _____ a. similar member attributes; performance. b. dissimilar member attributes; performance. c. similar member attributes; turnover. d. dissimilar member attributes; turnover. (d; Challenging; p. 236) 66. When predicting turnover in a work group made up of nine females and one male, we’d predict that: a. the male would be most inclined to leave the group. b. a female would be more inclined to leave the group than the male. c. there is no indication as to who would leave the group. d. the individual who had been in the group the longest would be most inclined to leave the group. (a; Moderate; p. 237) 67. The degree to which group members are attracted to one another is called: a. cohesiveness. b. integration. c. sociability. d. reliability. (a; Easy; p. 237) 65. 64. 68. Group cohesiveness is increased with each of the following except: a. when the group is heterogeneous. b. when members spend time together. c. when external threats exist. d. when the group is physically isolated. (a; Moderate; pp. 237-238) 69. If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low: a. internal conflict will be high. 177 b. internal conflict will be low. c. productivity will be high. d. productivity will be low. (d; Challenging; p. 237) Group Processes _____ is an action of two or more substances that results in an effect that is different from the individual summation of the substances. a. Brainstorming b. Power diffusion c. Synergy d. Effectiveness (c; Easy; p. 238) 71. Which of the following is an example of negative synergy? a. research teams working together, making use of diverse member skills b. social loafing c. process gain d. 2 + 2 = 5 (b; Moderate; p. 238) _____ refers to the tendency for performance to improve or decline in response to the presence of others. a. Social loafing effect b. Synergy c. Social facilitation effect d. Negative synergy (c; Moderate; pp. 238-239) Group Tasks 73. A group characterized by poor communication, weak leadership, and high levels of conflict will: a. be low performing. b. be high performing. c. disband due to inability to perform. d. still be effective if the tasks are simple and require little interdependence among group members. (d; Challenging; p. 239) Group Decision Making 74. Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when _____ is sought. a. acceptance of solution b. speed c. efficiency d. clear responsibility (a; Moderate; p. 240) 75. Which is not a weakness of group decision making? 178 72. 70. a. It is time consuming. b. There is increased diversity of views. c. It suffers from ambiguous responsibility. d. It can be dominated by one or a few members. (b; Easy; p. 240) Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when _____ is sought. a. speed b. diversity of perspectives c. acceptance of solution d. a higher quality decision (a; Challenging; p. 240) 77. Groupthink results in: a. higher quality decisions. b. more risky decisions. c. less critical analysis. d. unpopular decision choices. (c; Moderate; pp. 241-242) _____ is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. a. Group conformity b. Groupshift c. Groupthink d. Compromise (c; Easy; p. 242) 79. Groupshift most often means decisions: a. are made by groups rather than individuals. b. contain greater risk. c. are made more quickly. d. prove less effective. (b; Challenging; p. 242) 78. 76. All of the following are explanations for the phenomenon of groupshift except: a. discussion creates familiarization among members. b. most first-world societies value risk. c. the group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action. d. the group diffuses responsibility. (c; Challenging; p. 243) 80. 81. Which one of the following is likely to generate the least innovative alternatives? a. face-to-face interacting groups b. brainstorming c. Delphi technique 179 d. nominal group technique (a; Moderate; p. 243) 82. Brainstorming is: a. used to build group cohesiveness. b. a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking. c. a process for generating ideas. d. used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution. (c; Moderate; p. 244) 83. The _____ technique most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication during the decisionmaking process. a. interacting b. nominal group c. brainstorm d. electronic meeting (b; Moderate; pp. 244-245) 84. Which of the following is not considered an advantage of electronic meetings? a. honesty b. speed c. receiving credit for the best ideas d. anonymity (c; Moderate; p. 245) 85. Which type of decision-making group is most committed to the group solution? a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Challenging; p. 245) TRUE/FALSE Defining and Classifying Groups 86. A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives. (True; Moderate; p. 219) 87. Members in a group are interdependent. (True; Easy; p. 219) 88. The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals. (False; Moderate; p. 219) 89. Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and friendship groups are not. (True; Moderate; p. 220) 180 90. All task groups are also command groups. (False; Moderate; p. 220) 91. While command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, interest, and friendship groups develop because of the necessity to satisfy one’s work and social needs. (False; Moderate; p. 220) 92. The types of interactions among individuals, even though informal, deeply affect their behavior and performance. (True; Moderate; p. 220) 93. There is no single reason why individuals join groups. (True; Easy; p. 220) 94. Different groups provide different benefits to their members. (True; Easy; p. 220) Stages of Group Development 95. Temporary groups with task specific deadlines follow the five-stage model of group development. (False; Moderate; Exh. 8-2; p. 221) 96. Most conflicts are resolved by the completion of the first stage in a group’s development. (False; Moderate; p. 220) 97. The norming stage of group development is characterized by camaraderie. (True; Moderate; p. 221) 98. For permanent work groups, performance is the last stage in their development. (True; Challenging; p. 221) 99. Under some conditions, high levels of conflict are conducive to high group performance. (True; Moderate; p. 222) 100. The stages of group development must occur sequentially and will never occur simultaneously. (False; Moderate; p. 222) 101. The five-stage model of group development ignores organizational context. (True; Challenging; p. 222) 102. In the punctuated equilibrium model, the group’s direction is reexamined frequently in the first half of the group’s life and is likely to be altered. (False; Challenging; p. 222) 103. The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by members’ awareness of time and deadlines. (True; Challenging; p. 223) 181 External Conditions Imposed on the Group 104. An organization’s strategy will influence the power of various work groups. (True; Moderate; p. 224) 105. An organization’s authority structure defines a work group’s formal leader. (True; Moderate; p. 224) 106. The more formal regulations that the organization imposes on all its employees, the more the behavior of work groups will be inconsistent and unpredictable. (False; Moderate; p. 224) 107. The criteria that an organization uses in its selection process will determine the kinds of people who will be in the organization’s work groups. (True; Easy; p. 224) 108. After a few months, most employees understand their organization’s culture. (True; Easy; p. 225) 109. A work group often forms a subculture within the organization’s overall culture, but members of work groups have to accept the standards implied in the organization's dominant culture to remain in good standing. (True; Moderate; p. 225) 110. The physical work setting creates both barriers and opportunities for work group interaction. (True; Moderate; p. 225) Group Member Resources 111. Research demonstrates that group performance is the summation of the individual members’ abilities. (False; Moderate; p. 225) 112. Sociability has been found to be a personality characteristic that is a good predictor of group behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 226) Group Structure 113. Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the performance of the group itself. (True; Moderate; p. 226) 114. Almost every work group has a formal leader. (True; Moderate; p. 226) 115. All group members can be said to be actors, each playing a role. (True; Moderate; p. 226) 182 116. We all are required to play one role and our behavior varies with that role. (True; Easy; p. 227) 117. One’s view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. (True; Easy; p. 227) 118. Role identity is created by certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with that role. (True; Moderate; p. 227) 119. The psychological contract defines behavioral expectations that go with every role. (True; Easy; p. 227) 120. When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role conflict. (True; Easy; p. 228) 121. Asch’s simulated prison experiment demonstrated that people with no prior personality pathology or training in their roles could execute extreme forms of behavior consistent with the roles they were playing. (False; Moderate; p. 228) 122. Only some groups have established norms. (False; Easy; p. 229) 123. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. (True; Easy; p. 229) 124. Performance norms include things like appropriate dress and when to look busy. (False; Moderate; p. 229) 125. The most common class of norms are social arrangement norms. (False; Challenging; p. 229) 126. If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group’s norms would decrease. (True; Moderate; p. 230) 127. Solomon Asch’s study was very important in demonstrating the concept of group conformity on individual behavior. (True; Challenging; p. 230) 128. Asch’s study suggested that we desire to be one of the group and avoid being visibly different. (True; Moderate; p. 230) 129. Evidence indicates that Asch’s findings about group conformity are culture bound. (True; Moderate; p. 231) 130. Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both. 183 (True; Moderate; p. 231) 131. High status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group members. (False; Moderate; p. 232) When an employee believes there is an inequity between the perceived ranking of an individual and the status amenities he or she receives from the organization, this is known as status congruence. (False; Moderate; p. 233) 133. Cultures differ on the criteria that define status. (True; Easy; p. 234) While group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group has diminishing returns on productivity. (True; Challenging; p. 234) 135. Research on group size concludes that groups with an even number of members tend to be preferred over those with an odd number. (False; Challenging; p. 234) Research on group composition concludes that homogeneous groups are more effective than heterogeneous groups. (False; Moderate; p. 235) 137. Research on group composition concludes that composition may be an important predictor of turnover. (True; Moderate; p. 237) 138. Group demography is the degree to which members of a group share a common demographic attribute. (True; Easy; p. 236) Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. (False; Moderate; p. 237) 140. If performance-related norms are high, less cohesive groups are more productive. (False; Challenging; p. 237) 141. Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive. (True; Moderate; pp. 237-238) Group Processes 142. No matter how well designed a group is, it cannot create outputs greater than the sum of its inputs. (False; Moderate; p. 238) 143. Social loafing is a case of negative synergy. 184 139. 136. 134. 132. (True; Easy; p. 238) 144. The social facilitation effect refers to the tendency for performance to improve or decline in response to the presence of others. (True; Moderate; p. 238) 145. The size-performance relationship is moderated by the group’s task requirements. (True; Moderate; p. 239) 146. Effective communication and minimal levels of conflict should be more relevant to group performance when tasks are interdependent. (True; Challenging; p. 239) 147. Group decisions generate higher quality decisions than individual decisions. (True; Easy; p. 240) 148. Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions. (True; Easy; p. 240) 149. Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions. (False; Moderate; p. 240) 150. If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group’s overall effectiveness will suffer. (True; Moderate; p. 240) 151. Group decisions tend to be more creative than individual decisions. (True; Easy; p. 240) 152. Groupthink improves group performance. (False; Moderate; p. 242) 153. Groups usually make more risky decisions than do individuals. (True; Challenging; p. 243) 154. The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift. (False; Moderate; p. 242) Brainstorming is likely to generate more creative alternatives than use of face-to-face interacting groups. (True; Moderate; p. 244) The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group. (True; Challenging; p. 245) 157. One of the advantages of the electronic meeting is that ideas are processed fast. (True; Moderate; p. 245) 158. The primary contingency variable moderating the relationship between group processes and 185 156. 155. performance is the group’s cohesiveness. (False; Challenging; p. 247) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Stages of Group Development Astro Inc. is reorganizing and your new work group begins working together on Monday morning. Your college course in organizational behavior contained information about the stages of group development and your supervisor has asked your advice about the predictable stages of group development. 159. You should warn your supervisor that in the first stage of group development, the team members will probably: a. be uncertain. b. be their most productive. c. be a stage of conflict. d. focus their group energy on performing the task at hand. (a; Moderate; pp. 220-222) 160. You are predicting that the most productive stage will be: a. forming. b. storming. c. norming. d. performing. (d; Moderate; pp. 220-222) The final stage for this permanent work group should be: a. storming. b. norming. c. performing. d. adjourning. (c; Challenging; pp. 220-222) 161. Application of Roles Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom computer programming. You have noticed that people have definite expectations about what their appropriate role within the expanding company should be. 162. You can help them understand their roles and the role of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. All of the following are true except: a. each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles. b. most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands require major changes. c. role perception is how other people believe they are expected to act in their given role. d. it may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a psychological contract. (c; Challenging; pp. 226-228) 186 John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn’t know whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from: a. role conflict. b. role expectations. c. role perception. d. role identity. (a; Moderate; pp. 226-228) 164. To clear up confusion, you have decided that you must come to an unwritten agreement with each employee about your mutual expectations. You are developing a(n): a. role playing document. b. role expectation contract. c. psychological contract. d. employment contract. (c; Moderate; pp. 226-228) Application of Size Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments. He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior. 165. Joe has learned in an OB course that: a. small groups are good for gaining diverse input. b. large groups are better at taking action. c. social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. d. the sense of team spirit spurs individual effort and enhances the group’s overall productivity in all groups. (c; Moderate; pp. 234-235) 163. Given what Joe knows about groups, what is a good group size for a group that must take action? a. 2 b. 7 c. 4 d. 6 (b; Moderate; pp. 234-235) 167. Joe is forming a fact-finding group. What is a good group size to gain diverse input? a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 13 (d; Moderate; pp. 234-235) Application of Group Decision Making 166. 187 Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read extensively the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. 168. You should expect to find that: a. group decision making will be faster. b. group discussions will be shared equally. c. there will be increased acceptance of the decision. d. group decision making will not be viewed as legitimate. (c; Moderate; pp. 240-243) 169. You should expect a weakness of group decision making to be: a. less complete knowledge. b. more time will be used to make the decision. c. employees will be less accepting of the group decision. d. the decision will probably be a lower quality decision. (b; Moderate; pp. 240-243) 170. You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and you know that the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they may be suffering from: a. inefficiency syndrome. b. groupshift. c. disintegrating norms. d. groupthink. (d; Moderate; pp. 240-243) Application of Group Decision-Making Techniques You decide that the decision as to which new product to produce has got to have widespread acceptance and needs to be the highest quality decision possible. Having read the literature on decision making, you decide that this decision needs to be made by a group of your best managers. Your managers are located in Taiwan, India, Brazil, and the United States. Which group decisionmaking technique seems most reasonable for your situation? a. interacting groups b. brainstorming c. nominal group d. electronic meeting (d; Moderate; pp. 243-245) 172. You have decided to use the electronic meeting technique. Which of the following is not true about this type of meeting? a. Participants type their responses onto a computer screen. b. You can expect participants to be honest. c. Participants will be anonymous. d. Group cohesiveness will be high. (d; Moderate; pp 243-245) 173. You have decided to use the electronic meeting technique. Which of the following is true about this 188 171. method? a. This method is good for building group cohesiveness. b. This method is good for processing ideas fast. c. This method is good for establishing responsibility. d. This method is an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas. (b; Challenging; pp. 243-245) Application of Exhibit 8-10 Evaluating Group Effectiveness Jacob is the manager of a work group and has not been able to assess the group’s effectiveness. The vice president has told Jacob that there are many different effectiveness criteria and that his problem may be that he has not decided what he wishes to consider in analyzing the group effectiveness. Jacob has discovered that an appropriate choice of the type of group used may also be an important part of group effectiveness. 174. If commitment to solution is Jacob’s effectiveness criteria, the _____ type of group should be the most effective. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Moderate; Ex 8-10; p. 246) 175. Developing group cohesiveness is an important effectiveness criteria for the group. Jacob would want to avoid the _____ type of group. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (d; Challenging; Ex 8-10; p. 246) 176. Interpersonal conflict would be a big problem if it should develop in the work group. Jacob should probably avoid the _____ type of group. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Challenging: Ex 8-10; p. 246) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 177. List and briefly describe the stages in the five-stage model of group development. (Pages 220-222) The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are acceptable. The storming stage is one of intragroup 189 conflict. Members accept the existence of the group, but there is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes on individuality. There is conflict over who will control the group. The third stage is one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is now a strong sense of group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing. The structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the adjourning stage, the group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no longer the group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up activities. 178. What is the punctuated equilibrium model? (Pages 222-223) The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. 179. Explain the psychological contract. (Page 237) The psychological contract is the unwritten agreement that exists between employees and their employer. This sets out mutual expectations – what management expects from workers, and vice versa. Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day’s work, and give feedback on how well the employee is doing. Employees are expected to respond by demonstrating a good attitude, following directions, and showing loyalty to the organization. 180. What are norms? (Page 229) Norms are acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. From an individual’s standpoint, they tell what is expected of you in certain situations. When agreed to and accepted by the group, norms act as a means of influencing the behavior of group members with a minimum of external controls. Norms differ among groups, communities, and societies, but they all have them. 181. How does group size affect a group’s behavior? (Pages 234-235) The evidence indicates that smaller groups are faster at completing tasks than are larger ones. However, if the group is engaged in problem solving, large groups consistently get better marks than their smaller counterparts. Large groups – with a dozen or more members – are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact finding, larger groups should be more effective. Smaller groups are better at doing something productive with that input. Groups of approximately seven members tend to be more effective for taking action. Social loafing is the tendency for 190 individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. Groups with an odd number of members tend to be preferable to those with an even number, and groups made up of five or seven members do a pretty good job of exercising the best elements of both small and large groups. 182. What is cohesiveness? (Page 237) Cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Groups differ in their cohesiveness. 183. What is the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity? (Page 237) The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on the performance-related norms established by the group. If performance-related norms are high, a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases but less than in the high cohesiveness – high norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity will tend to fall into the low-to-moderate range. 184. Explain groupthink and groupshift. (Pages 241-243) Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. In some situations, caution dominates, and there is a conservative shift. More often, however, the evidence indicates that groups tend toward a risky shift. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 185. Differentiate between formal and informal groups. (Page 219) Formal groups are those defined by the organization’s structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors that one should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. Informal groups are alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. These groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the need for social contact. 186. Differentiate the terms role identity, role perception, and role expectation. (Page 237) There are certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role, and they create the role identity. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands clearly required major changes. One’s view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Based on an interpretation of how we believe we are supposed to 191 behave, we engage in certain types of behavior. Role expectations are defined as how others believe you should act in a given situation. How you behave is determined to a large extent by the role defined in the context in which you are acting. 187. What are four common classes of norms? (Pages 229-230) The most common class of norms is performance norms. Work groups typically provide their members with explicit cues on how hard they should work, how to get the job done, their level of output, appropriate levels of tardiness, and the like. Appearance norms include things like appropriate dress, loyalty to the work group or organization, when to look busy, and when it’s acceptable to goof off. Social arrangement norms come from informal work groups and primarily regulate social interactions within the group. With whom group members eat lunch, friendship on and off the job, social games, and the like are influenced by these norms. Allocation of resources norms can originate in the group or in the organization and cover things like pay, assignment of difficult jobs, and allocation of new tools and equipment. 188. Discuss strengths and weaknesses of group decision making. (Page 240) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Groups bring more input into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up the opportunity for more approaches and alternatives to be considered. Groups will almost always outperform even the best individual. Groups generate higher quality decisions. Finally, groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Members who participated in making a decision are likely to enthusiastically support the decision and encourage others to accept it. Groups also have drawbacks. They are time consuming. They take more time to reach a solution than would be the case if an individual were making the decision alone. There are conformity pressures in groups. The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the group can result in squashing any overt disagreement. Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. If this dominant coalition is composed of low- and moderate-ability members, the group’s overall effectiveness will suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual decision, it’s clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any single member is watered down. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS Compare and contrast the five-stage model for group development with the punctuated equilibrium model. (Pages 220-223) The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are acceptable. The storming stage is one of intragroup conflict. Members accept the existence of the group, but there is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes on individuality. There is conflict over who will control the group. The third stage is 192 189. one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is now a strong sense of group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing. The structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the adjourning stage, the group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no longer the group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up activities. The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long period of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by their members’ awareness of time and deadlines. Keep in mind, however, that this model doesn’t apply to all groups. It’s essentially limited to temporary task groups who are working under a time-constrained completion deadline. 190. Discuss external conditions imposed on the group. (Pages 224-225) External conditions include the organization’s overall strategy, its authority structures, formal regulations, resources, employee selection process, performance evaluation and reward systems, culture, and physical work setting. An organization’s overall strategy outlines the organization’s goals and the means for attaining these goals. Organizations have authority structures that define who reports to whom, who makes decisions, and what decisions individuals or groups are empowered to make. This structure typically determines where a given work group is placed in the organization’s hierarchy, the formal leader of the group, and formal relationships between groups. Organizations create rules, procedures, policies, job descriptions, and other forms of formal regulations to standardize employee behavior. The presence or absence of resources such as money, time, raw materials, and equipment – which are allocated to the group by the organization – have a large bearing on the group’s behavior. The criteria that an organization uses in its selection process will determine the kinds of people that will be in its work groups. Since work groups are part of the larger organizational system, group members’ behavior will be influenced by how the organization evaluates performance and what behaviors are rewarded. Every organization has an unwritten culture that defines standards of acceptable and unacceptable behavior for employees. Members of work groups have to accept the standards implied in the organization’s dominant culture if they are to remain in good standing. The physical work setting that is imposed on the group by external parties has an important bearing on work group behavior. These create both barriers and opportunities for work group interaction. 193 Chapter 9 Understanding Work Teams MULTIPLE CHOICE Why Have Work Teams Become So Popular? 1. Evidence suggests that teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done: a. require multiple skills. b. require judgment. c. require experience. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 258) 2. Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams? a. Teams are easier to manage. b. Teams are a way to better utilize employee talents. c. Teams are less expensive. d. Teams promote social loafing. (b; Moderate; pp. 258-259) 3. Which of the following does not explain the current popularity of teams? a. Teams outperform individuals when the tasks require multiple skills. b. Teams enable organizations to better utilize employee talents. c. Teams are a means to increase employee motivation. d. Teams do not require employee participation in operating decisions. (d; Moderate; pp. 258-259) Teams vs. Groups: What’s the Difference? 4. What is a work group? a. a group whose individual efforts result in a performance that is greater than the sum of those individual inputs b. a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member perform within his or her area of responsibility c. a group of 10 to 15 people who take on responsibilities of their former supervisors d. a group made up of members from across departmental lines (b; Challenging; p. 259) 5. A work team has one important aspect not found in a work group. This is: a. energy. b. enthusiasm. c. synergy. d. objectives. (c; Moderate; p. 259) 195 6. _____ is an attribute of work teams which results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs. a. Synergy b. Enthusiasm c. Energy d. Initiative (a; Moderate; p. 259) Types of Teams 7. Which is not one of the most common types of teams? a. problem-solving b. problem identification c. self-managed d. virtual (b; Easy; p. 259) 8. Teams of employees who meet to discuss ways to improve quality, efficiency, and the work environment are called: a. self-managed teams. b. unions. c. problem-solving teams. d. cross-functional teams. (c; Easy; p. 259) You are a member of a work team whose goal is to improve the efficiency of the production process. Your team is best described as: a. cross-functional. b. problem-solving. c. self-managed. d. goal oriented. (b; Moderate; p. 259) 10. An early application of problem-solving teams was: a. performance teams. b. linking teams. c. self-directed work teams. d. quality circles. (d; Moderate; p. 259) 11. _____ were widely used in the 1980’s. They were work teams of 8 to 10 employees and supervisors who had a shared area of responsibility and met regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions. a. Quality circles b. Action groups c. Reengineering squads d. Self-managed teams (a; Moderate; p. 259) 9. 196 12. ____ teams go farther than problem-solving teams in getting employees involved in work-related decisions and processes. a. Problem identification b. Self-managed c. Virtual d. Performance (b; Moderate; p. 259) 13. Self-managed work teams generally: a. take on the responsibilities of their former supervisors. b. meet weekly to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. c. are from different work areas, but about the same hierarchical level, and work together to accomplish tasks. d. are made up of people from different levels of the organization. (a; Challenging; p. 259) 14. Self-managed teams typically have ____ members. a. 2-3 b. 6-7 c. 8-9 d. 10-15 (d; Moderate; p. 259) 15. Self-managed teams typically perform which of the following responsibilities? a. planning and scheduling b. assigning tasks to members c. taking action on problems d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 259) 16. Overall, about _____ of U.S. employers now use self-managed work teams. a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% (b; Challenging; p. 260) 17. As a result of using self-managed teams, a factory at Eaton Corporation’s Aeroquip Global Hose Division was able to improve response time to customer concerns by: a. 50% b. 25% c. 75% d. 99% (d; Moderate; p. 260) 18. The research on the effectiveness of self-managed work teams suggests that: a. individuals have lower levels of job satisfaction. b. individuals overwhelmingly prefer to work on self-managed work teams. c. productivity is lower for self-managed work teams. d. absenteeism and turnover rates are higher on self-managed work teams. 197 (d; Challenging; p. 260) 19. _____ teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. a. Problem-solving b. Self-managed c. Cross-functional d. Multifaceted (c; Easy; p. 260) 20. A _____ is a temporary cross-functional team. a. quality circle b. group c. task force d. TQM group (c; Moderate; p. 261) 21. _____ is (are) composed of members from across departmental lines and is(are) an example of cross-functional teams. a. Committees b. Virtual teams c. A TQM group d. Self-managed work teams (a; Challenging; p. 261) 22. The Speed Team that generated recommendations on how to speed up projects was a crossfunctional team used by: a. IBM. b. Ford. c. Harley-Davidson. d. Jaguar. (c; Challenging; p. 261) 23. _____teams are an effective way to allow people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. a. Self-managed b. Problem-solving c. Cross-functional d. Multifaceted (c; Moderate; p. 261) 24. _____ teams allow people to collaborate online. a. Self-managed b. Cross-functional c. Problem-solving d. Virtual (d; Easy; p. 261) 198 25. While most types of teams do their work face-to-face, _____ teams use computer technology. a. virtual b. telecommuting c. outsourced d. functional (a; Moderate; p. 261) 26. Which is not one of the three primary factors that differentiate virtual teams from face-to-face teams? a. the absence of nonverbal and paraverbal cues b. limited social context c. increased social rapport d. the ability to overcome time and space constraints (c; Moderate; p. 261) 27. Which of the following is not true about virtual teams? a. There is an absence of paraverbal cues. b. Members report greater satisfaction with the group process. c. There is limited social context. d. They are more task oriented. (b; Moderate; p. 261) Beware! Teams Aren’t Always the Answer 28. Which of the following is true of teamwork as compared to individual work? a. Teams have increased communication demands. b. Teams have conflicts to be managed. c. Teams have meetings to be run. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 263) 29. The key components making up effective teams can be subsumed into four categories. Which of the following is not one of those four categories? a. work design b. goals c. contextual influences d. process variables (b; Challenging; p. 263) The context category of the team effectiveness model includes: a. autonomy. b. ability. c. adequate resources. d. conflict. (c; Challenging; Ex 9-3; p. 264) 30. 199 31. Effective teams require which of the following skills? a. problem-solving skills b. technical expertise c. interpersonal skills d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 264) 32. Team members with good listening, feedback, and conflict resolution skills possess: a. technical expertise. b. problem-solving skills. c. decision-making skills. d. interpersonal skills. (d; Easy; p. 264) 33. One stream of research has identified potential team roles the people prefer to play. The “creator” role is one who: a. champions ideas. b. initiates creative ideas. c. provides structure. d. coordinates and integrates. (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 34. Of the nine key roles on teams, the “promoter” is the group member most likely to: a. initiate creative ideas. b. champion ideas after they are initiated. c. provide structure. d. fight external battles. (b; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 35. Which of the following is not one of the nine potential team roles identified for successful teams? a. organizer b. resource allocator c. controller d. maintainer (b; Easy; Exh. 9-4; p. 266) 36. You find that in a team situation you prefer to be the one who examines for details and is concerned with enforcing rules and regulations. Your role is called the: a. maintainer. b. linker. c. controller. d. promoter. (c; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 37. Which team role provides structure? a. assessor b. organizer c. maintainer d. controller (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 200 38. People who hold strong convictions about the way things should be done and fight the team’s battles with outsiders while supporting internal team members are: a. controllers. b. producers. c. maintainers. d. assessors. (c; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 39. The most effective teams tend to have _____ members. a. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 7 c. less than 10 d. more than 12 (c; Challenging; p. 265) 40. There are four contextual factors that appear to be most significantly related to team performance. Which of the following is not one of those three factors? a. adequate resources b. effective communication c. effective leadership d. a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team contributions. (b; Challenging; p. 266) 41. Which of the following statements is true concerning the climate of trust? a. Interpersonal trust among team members inhibits cooperation. b. Interpersonal trust among team members reduces the need to monitor each other’s behavior. c. Interpersonal trust among team members bonds members around the belief that others will take advantage of them if given the opportunity. d. Interpersonal trust among team members increases members’ aversion to risk. (b; Challenging; p. 267) 42. Process variables include all of the following except: a. climate of trust. b. member commitment to a common purpose. c. team efficacy. d. minimizing social loafing. (a; Moderate; p. 268) 43. Successful teams translate their _____ into specific, measurable, and realistic performance goals. a. roles b. common purpose c. norms d. skills (b; Moderate; p. 268) 44. Effective teams have confidence in themselves and believe they can succeed. This is termed: a. social facilitation. b. goal congruence. c. social loafing. d. team efficacy. 201 (d; Challenging; p. 268) 45. What can management do to increase team efficacy? a. Provide measurable goals. b. Help the team achieve small successes. c. Limit time spent in training. d. Ensure team goals are challenging. (b; Moderate; p. 268) 46. Which type of conflict is almost always dysfunctional? a. task conflict b. efficacy conflict c. relationship conflict d. resource conflict (c; Moderate; pp. 268-269) 47. Coasting on the group effort is termed: a. inconsistency. b. incompetence. c. social loafing. d. cross-functional help. (c; Easy; p. 269) Your company is considering implementing work teams in your Mexico facility. You should find this relatively easy because those employees will have strong _____ values. a. social b. collectivist c. creative d. individualistic (b; Moderate; p. 269) Which of the following is not one of the options suggested that managers have for trying to turn individuals into team players? a. selection b. goals c. training d. rewards (b; Moderate; pp. 270-271) 50. When hiring job candidates who don’t have team skills, which of the following is an option for managers? a. The candidates can undergo training to make them into team players. b. The individual can be transferred to another unit within the organization without teams. c. The candidate should not be hired. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 270) 49. 48. 202 51. Exercises which help individuals become team players would include workshops in: a. negotiation. b. labor law. c. sexual harassment. d. power distance. (a; Moderate; p. 270) Contemporary Issues In Managing Teams 52. The essence of quality management is process improvement, and _____ is the linchpin of process improvement. a. negotiation b. employee involvement c. an outside consultant d. diversity (b; Moderate; p. 271) 53. The strongest case for diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in _____ tasks. a. problem-solving and decision-making b. manufacturing c. labor relations d. communication (a; Moderate; p. 272) 54. Studies show that members of cohesive teams have: a. lower satisfaction. b. higher attrition. c. lower absenteeism. d. greater diversity. (c; Challenging; p. 272) 55. _____ is detrimental to group cohesiveness. a. Diversity b. Education c. Teamwork d. Trust (a; Moderate; p. 272) All of the following are advantages of diversity except: a. increased flexibility. b. increased creativity. c. multiple perspectives. d. increased cohesiveness. (d; Challenging; Exh. 9-5; p. 272) 57. _____ teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink. a. Diverse b. Mature c. Newly-formed d. Total quality management 203 56. (b; Moderate; p. 273) Your work team has been together for quite a long time and you feel that they have become less efficient than they once were. In order to reinvigorate the team you might: a. suggest that some team members retire. b. disband the team. c. offer refresher or advanced training. d. offer individual incentives. (c; Challenging; p. 273) Which is not a suggestion for reinvigorating mature teams? a. Prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity. b. Get younger members. c. Offer refresher training. d. Offer advanced training. (b; Challenging; p. 273) Common characteristics of effective teams include all of the following except: a. the work that members do provides freedom and autonomy. b. the work that members do utilizes different skills and talents. c. the work that members do has substantial impact on others. d. the work that members do is routine to enable efficiency. (d; Moderate; p. 274) 61. Teams require individuals with high scores on the personality characteristics of all the following except: a. introversion. b. agreeableness. c. conscientiousness. d. emotional stability. (a; Moderate; p. 276) TRUE/FALSE 62. Teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done require multiple skills, judgment, and experience. (True; Easy; p. 257) 63. Teams tend to be less flexible and less responsive to changing events than traditional departments. (False; Moderate; p. 257) 64. Teams are an effective means for management to democratize their organizations. (True; Moderate; pp. 257-258) Teams vs. Groups–What’s the Difference? 65. A work group is a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member perform within his or her area of responsibility. (True; Easy; p. 258) 204 60. 59. 58. 66. A work group creates positive synergy. (False; Moderate; p. 258) 67. A work team generates positive synergy while a work group does not. (True; Challenging; p. 258) 68. Work groups engage in collective work that requires joint effort. (False; Challenging; p. 258) The extensive use of teams creates the potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs. (True; Easy; p. 258) 70. Merely calling a group a team doesn’t automatically increase its performance. (True; Moderate; p. 258) Types of Teams The four most common forms of teams are: problem-solving, self-managed, cross-functional, and virtual. (True; Moderate; p. 259) 72. Problem-solving teams generally consist of 3 to 5 hourly employees from the same department. (False; Challenging; p. 259) 73. Virtual teams were known as quality circles in the 1980s. (False; Moderate; p. 259) 74. You are a member of a team of eight individuals from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. You are a member of a self-managed work team. (False; Moderate; p. 259) 75. Quality circles were an application of problem-solving teams. (True; Easy; p. 259) 76. A self-managed work team takes on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. (True; Moderate; p. 259) 77. Supervisory positions take on decreased importance for a self-managed work team. (True; Moderate; pp. 259-260) 78. As a result of self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated. (True; Challenging; p. 260) 79. Individuals on self-managed work teams report higher levels of job satisfaction. (True; Moderate; p. 260) 80. Individuals on self-managed work teams have lower absenteeism rates than employees in traditional work structures. 205 71. 69. (False; Challenging; p. 260) 81. Turnover rates are lower for self-managed work teams than for employees working in traditional work structures. (False; Moderate; p. 260) 82. Self-managed teams have flourished in Mexico due to that culture’s low tolerance for ambiguity. (False; Moderate; p. 260) 83. Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. (True; Easy; p. 261) 84. A task force is a temporary cross-functional team. (True; Moderate; p. 261) 85. The popularity of cross-discipline work teams was explored in the late 1930s. (False; Moderate; p. 261) 86. Harley-Davidson and IBM have successfully used cross-functional teams to coordinate complex projects. (True; Easy; p. 261) 87. One advantage of cross-functional teams is that they are easy to manage. (False; Moderate; p. 261) 88. Electronic teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal. (False; Moderate; p. 261) 89. Virtual teams can accomplish all the things that other teams do. (True; Challenging; p. 261) 90. Virtual teams report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. (True; Moderate; p. 261) 91. Verifone found that virtual teams provide strong recruiting inducements. (True; Challenging; p. 261) Beware! Teams Aren’t Always the Answer 92. Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work. (True; Moderate; p. 262) 93. Teams make sense when there is interdependence between tasks. (True; Moderate; p. 262) 94. The key components making up effective teams can be grouped into four categories: work design, team composition, cohesion factors, and perceptual influences. 206 (False; Challenging; p. 263) 95. To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills – technical expertise, problem-solving and decision-making skills, and interpersonal skills. (True; Moderate; p. 264) 96. On a team, the role of the “creator” describes the person who analyzes decision options. (False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) The role of the “linker” describes the person within the work team who coordinates and integrates the work of team members. (True; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 98. Your analytical skills are very good and you enjoy the role of integrating creative ideas for your group. You will find that you are most effective in the role of the “promoter.” (False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 99. 97. Susan is well organized and enjoys providing structure for the group. Her role within the work team may be described as the “maintainer.” (False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 100. The most effective teams have fewer than four members. (False; Moderate; p. 265) 101. The purpose of the work team can be described as its vision and this purpose is broader than specific goals. (True; Easy; p. 268) 102. Given the option, many employees will select themselves out of team participation. (True; Challenging; p. 266) 103. When selecting team members, individual preferences should be considered as well as abilities, personalities, and skills. (True; Moderate; p. 266) 104. Teams must receive the necessary support from management and the larger organization if they are going to succeed in achieving their goals. (True; Moderate; p. 267) “Social loafing” is possible within a team because it is not possible to identify individual contributions. (True; Easy; p. 269) Turning Individuals Into Team Players 106. Teams fit well with countries that score high on collectivism. (True; Easy; p. 269) 107. Canadians would have more difficulty using work teams than the Japanese. (True; Easy; p. 269) 207 105. Communication and the ability to sublimate one’s personal goals are important for individuals who are members of work teams. (True; Easy; p. 269) Work teams may be difficult for American workers because they grow up learning the importance of individualism. (True; Easy; p. 269) 110. Introducing work teams into new organizations will generally be more difficult than introducing them into more mature organizations. (False; Moderate; p. 269) 111. A large proportion of people raised on the importance of individual accomplishment can be trained to become team players. (True; Moderate; p. 270) 112. Intrinsic rewards may be higher for individuals in work teams than for those who work alone. (True; Moderate; p. 271) 113. Competitive reward structures reinforce the importance of collaboration in work teams. (False; Moderate; p. 271) Contemporary Issues In Managing Teams 114. One of the central characteristics of quality management is the use of teams. (True; Easy; p. 271) 115. Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues but makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements. (True; Moderate; p. 272) 116. Work force diversity makes work teams easier to manage. (False; Easy; p. 272) 117. Studies show us that members of cohesive teams have greater satisfaction, lower absenteeism, and lower attrition. (True; Moderate; p. 272) 118. Diversity may be detrimental to group cohesiveness. (True; Moderate; p. 272) 119. The positive value from diversity on a team diminishes over time. (True; Moderate; p. 272) 120. Mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink. (True; Moderate; p. 273) 109. 108. 208 SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Types of Teams Recognizing that teams can do a variety of things, Joan has decided to use a number of teams in her divisions. 121. Joan has created a team of seven employees from the accounts payable department who meet for three hours a week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. This is an example of a ____ team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (a; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 122. Joan has decided to create a team of eleven employees from accounts receivable, give them the responsibility of their former supervisor (including scheduling of work and evaluating each other’s performance), and eliminate the former supervisor’s position. This is an example of a _____ team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (b; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 123. To better accomplish specific tasks, Joan is using task forces comprised of employees from different work areas. These are considered temporary ____ teams. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (c; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 124. Since Joan’s employees are located in Europe, Asia, and North America, she has decided to use computer technology to tie her employees together in order to achieve a common goal. This is an example of a _____ team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (d; Challenging; pp. 259-261) Application of Key Roles on Teams You have been assigned to a problem-solving team. You have never met any of the team members before but you have been given their resumes and it is your job to match the team members to the various roles that are needed for successful completion of your project. You have gathered the following information about the members of your team: Iris is a recent college graduate with a degree in mathematics. She is new to the company and seems eager to please but inexperienced. James has been with the company for 209 15 years and has had experience in several areas within the company. He has a reputation for being well organized and is a strong defender of the company and its policies. He always follows through and is able to coordinate the work of others. Betty is highly motivated and intelligent. She has several advanced degrees and is able to view situations from differing viewpoints. She is regarded as a good listener and as being able to coordinate and integrate. You have decided that you are willing to take on any group role that is handed to you but are more comfortable with implementation of ideas than with initiating them. 125. The role which might best suit Iris is that of: a. creator. b. assessor. c. linker. d. maintainer. (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 126. James is best suited to which role? a. producer b. maintainer c. linker d. He is well suited to all of the above. (d; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 127. The person best suited for the role of adviser is probably: a. Betty. b. James. c. Iris. d. you. (a; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) Application of Diversity on Teams Suppose that you have been working for several years as a member of a team that is very diverse. You have team members from several ethnic backgrounds, of varying ages and from vastly different educational backgrounds. The manager of your team has been promoted and you have just been introduced to your new manager, Ms. Yuko. Ms. Yuko has been hired because it is believed that her extensive experience in the industry will be an asset to your team. Ms. Yuko has asked for your advice and help in understanding the problems associated with managing a diverse team. You should remind her that studies show: a. the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams generally declines over time. b. diverse groups are generally less creative. c. communication should be easier because the group is diverse. d. the group may be less open to new ideas because of its diversity. (a; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 129. Ms. Yuko should expect the team to excel in _____ because of its diversity. a. its ability to communicate b. its problem-solving and decision-making tasks c. its technical skills d. its ability to reach an agreement 210 128. (b; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 130. Ms. Yuko should expect that the use of teams will: a. produce greater employee satisfaction. b. result in lower absenteeism. c. result in lower attrition. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 272-273) Application of Mature Teams The team of people with whom you work have been together for many years and you notice that they don’t always turn out the high-quality work that they did several years ago. You have decided to try to find out what the problem is and help the team work together like they did in the good old days. 131. You have discovered that your team is: a. mature. b. lazy. c. diverse. d. lacking trust. (a; Easy; p. 273) You have decided that your work team meets the criteria for a “mature” team. You know that mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from: a. lack of skills. b. groupthink. c. lack of cohesiveness. d. complexity. (b; Moderate; p. 273) 133 Which of the following is not a suggestion for reinvigorating mature teams? a. Prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity. b. Encourage teams to view their development as complete and focus on other issues. c. Offer refresher training. d. Offer advanced training. (b; Moderate; p. 273) Application of Diversity in Teams You have decided that you must diversify your work team. You have heard that diversity promotes creativity and increases problem-solving skills. 134. You should realize that diversity also may cause ambiguity and confusion in a work team. (True; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 135. You should expect that the diversified team will have reduced openness to new ideas. (False; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 136. You should expect that cohesiveness will be higher on your new diverse team. (False; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 211 132. SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 137. Why have teams become so popular? (Page 257) Teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done require multiple skills, judgment, and experience. As organizations have restructured themselves to compete more effectively and efficiently, they have turned to teams as a way to better utilize employee talents. Management has found that teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than are traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. Teams have the capacity to quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband. Teams facilitate employee participation in operating decisions. Teams, then, are an effective means for management to democratize their organizations and increase employee motivation. 138. Discuss the difference between a work group and a work team. (Page 258) A work group is a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member performs within his or her area of responsibility. There is no positive synergy that would create an overall level of performance that is greater than the sum of the inputs. A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Their individual efforts result in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of those individual inputs. 139. Discuss self-managed work teams. (Pages 259-260) Self-managed work teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Typically, this includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Fully self-managed work teams even select their own members and have the members evaluate each other’s performance. As a result, supervisory positions take on decreased importance and may even be eliminated. 140. What is a cross-functional team? (Pages 260-261) Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. This is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. 141. What is a virtual team? (Page 261) Virtual teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal. They allow people to collaborate online using communication links like wide-area networks, video conferencing, or e-mail, whether they’re only a room away or continents apart. Virtual teams can do all things that other teams do – share information, make decisions, complete tasks. 212 142. What are the factors that make a virtual team different from a face-to-face team? (Pages 260-261) The three primary factors that differentiate virtual teams from face-to-face teams are the absence of paraverbal and nonverbal cues, limited social context, and the ability to overcome time and space constraints. 143. What is team efficacy? (Page 268) Effective teams have confidence in themselves. They believe they can succeed. This is called team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which in turn, motivates them to work harder. 144. Discuss strategies an organization might use to turn individuals into team players. (Pages 270-271) Managers have several options to turn individuals into team players. When hiring team members, in addition to the technical skills required to fill the job, care should be taken to ensure that candidates can fulfill their team roles as well as technical requirements. A large proportion of people raised on the importance of individual accomplishment can be trained to become team players. Training specialists conduct exercises that allow employees to experience the satisfaction that teamwork can provide. The reward system needs to be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. Promotions, pay raises, and other forms of recognition should be given to individuals for how effective they are as a collaborative team member. 145. Why are teams an essential part of quality management? (Page 271) The essence of quality management is process improvement, and employee involvement is the linchpin of process improvement. In other words, quality management requires management to give employees the encouragement to share ideas and act on what they suggest. Teams provide the natural vehicle for employees to share ideas and to implement improvements. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 146. Teams can be classified based on their objective. Discuss the four most common forms of work teams: problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams. (Pages 259-261) Teams can do a variety of things. They can make products, provide services, negotiate deals, coordinate projects, offer advice, and make decisions. The four most common types of team are problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams. On problem-solving teams, members share ideas or offer suggestions on how work processes and methods can be improved. They meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. Rarely, however, are these teams given the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggested actions. 213 Self- managed work teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Typically, this includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Fully self-managed work teams even select their own members and have the members evaluate each other’s performance. As a result, supervisory positions take on decreased importance and may even be eliminated. Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. This is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. Virtual teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal. They allow people to collaborate online using communication links like wide-area networks, video conferencing, or e-mail, whether they’re only a room away or continents apart. Virtual teams can do all things that other teams do – share information, make decisions, complete tasks. The team effectiveness model identifies four categories of key components making up effective teams. What are these four categories? Give examples of each category. (Pages 263-269) The key components making up effective teams can be subsumed into four general categories. The first category is work design. Work design characteristics enhance motivation and increase team effectiveness. These characteristics motivate because they increase members’ sense of responsibility and ownership over the work and because they make the work more interesting to perform. The second relates to the team’s composition. To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills – technical expertise, problem-solving and decision-making skills, and interpersonal skills. No team can achieve its performance potential without developing all three types of skills. Third is the resources and contextual influences that make teams effective. The four contextual factors that appear to be most significantly related to team performance are the presence of adequate resources, effective leadership, a climate of trust, and a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team contributions. Finally, process variables reflect the things that go on in the team that influence effectiveness. These include member commitment to a common purpose, establishment of specific team goals, team efficacy, a managed level of conflict, and minimizing social loafing. 148. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of diversity on teams. (Exh. 9-5, Page 272) The strongest case for diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem solving and decision making. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions. Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decreases the changes that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, this positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to increase as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive. Diversity is 214 147. detrimental to group cohesiveness. If the norms of the team are supportive of diversity, then a team can maximize the value of heterogeneity while, at the same time, achieving the benefits of high cohesiveness. This makes a strong case for team members to participate in diversity training. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 149. What are some of the cautions to be aware of when using teams? (Pages 262-263) Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to be managed, and meetings to be run. It has been suggested that three tests be applied to see if a team fits the situation. First, can the work be done better by more than one person? A good indicator is the complexity of the work and the need for different perspectives. Simple tasks that don’t require diverse input are probably better left to individuals. Second, does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals? The final test to assess whether teams fit the situation is: Are the members of the group interdependent? Teams make sense where there is interdependence between tasks; where the success of the whole depends on the success of each one and the success of each one depends on the success of the others. What are some of the problems that might be encountered by mature teams? What can be done to reinvigorate a mature team? (Page 273) Effective teams can become stagnant. Initial enthusiasm can give way to apathy. Time can diminish the positive value from diverse perspectives as cohesiveness increases. Familiarity breeds apathy. Success can lead to complacency. And maturity brings less openness to novel ideas and innovation. Mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink. Mature teams’ early successes are often due to having taken on easy tasks. “But as time passes, the easy problems become solved and the team has to begin to confront more difficult issues. Internal team processes no longer work smoothly. Communication bogs down. Conflicts increase because problems are less likely to have obvious solutions. And team performance can drop dramatically. Four suggestions to reinvigorate mature teams are: prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity, offer refresher training, offer advanced training, and encourage teams to treat their development as a constant learning experience. 150. 215 Chapter 10 Communication MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Research indicates that poor _____ is probably the most frequently cited source of interpersonal conflict. a. motivation b. leadership c. training d. communication (d; Moderate; p. 283) 2. Individuals spend nearly _____ percent of their waking hours communicating. a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 (c; Moderate; p. 283) 3. _____ must include both the transference and the understanding of meaning. a. Motivation b. Leadership c. Training d. Communication (d; Moderate; p. 284) Functions of Communication 4. Formal guidelines and authority hierarchies are examples of which function of communication? a. control b. interaction c. organization d. information (a; Moderate; p. 284) 5. Communication serves all of the following functions within a group or organization except: a. motivation. b. time management. c. emotional expression. d. control. (b; Moderate; p. 284) 6. When employees are required to follow their job description or to comply with company policies, communication is performing a ______ function. a. control b. motivation c. emotional expression d. information 216 (a; Moderate; p. 284) 7. Clarification to employees about what is to be done, how well they are doing, and what can be done to improve performance if it is subpar are examples of which function of communication? a. information b. control c. motivation d. emotional expression (c; Moderate; p. 284) 8. The function of communication that facilitates decision making is: a. emotional expression. b. information. c. control. d. motivation. (b; Moderate; p. 284) The Communication Process 9. The step(s) between a source and a receiver that result in the transference and understanding of meaning is: a. the communication process. b. understanding. c. feedback. d. encoding. (a; Moderate; p. 284) 10. Which of the following occurs before the others? a. transmitting b. decoding c. encoding d. understanding (c; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285) 11. What is the final link in the communication process? a. decode b. feedback c. channel d. encode (b; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285) 12. The _______ initiates a message by encoding a thought. a. channel b. source c. receiver d. feedback (b; Easy; p. 285) 217 13. As depicted in the communication process model, the source initiates a message by: a. making contact with the receiver. b. choosing a channel of communication. c. encoding a thought. d. giving feedback to the sender. (c; Easy; p. 285) 14. The actual physical product means by which a source expresses information is the: a. channel. b. message. c. jargon. d. medium. (b; Moderate; p. 285) 15. The medium through which communication travels is called a: a. receiver. b. message. c. feedback mechanism. d. channel. (d; Moderate; p. 285) 16. Formal channels traditionally follow the ______ within the organization. a. grapevine b. authority chain c. informal channels d. nonverbal messages (b; Moderate; p. 285) 17. _____ is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended. a. Decode b. Feedback c. Channel d. Encode (b; Easy; p. 285) 18. John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of: a. encoding. b. decoding. c. feedback. d. channeling. (a; Moderate; p. 285) 19. Translating a sender’s communication message describes: a. the message. b. decoding. c. the channel. d. feedback. (b; Moderate; p. 285) 218 Direction of Communication The communication that is used by group leaders and managers to assign goals, point out problems that need attention, and provide job instructions is: a. downward communication. b. lateral communication. c. informal communication. d. directional communication. (a; Challenging; p. 285) 21. Which of the following is an example of downward communication flow? a. suggestion boxes b. envelope attitude surveys c. feedback on job performance d. identifying with and discussing problems with the boss (c; Moderate; p. 285) 22. All of the following are examples of downward communication flows except: a. managers assigning goals. b. informing employees of procedures. c. pointing out problems that need attention. d. conducting employee attitude surveys. (d; Challenging; p. 285) 23. Most formal directives issued by managers to subordinates would follow which communication direction? a. upward b. downward c. lateral d. across (b; Easy; p. 285) 24. Suggestion boxes, employee attitude surveys, and grievance procedures are examples of: a. organizational structure. b. horizontal communication. c. managerial communication. d. upward communication. (d; Moderate; p. 286) 25. Communication that takes place among members of the same work group is: a. vertical communication. b. downward communication. c. occupational communication. d. lateral communication. (d; Easy; p. 286) 20. 219 26. Which of the following is not an example of upward communication? a. performance reports prepared by lower management for top management b. informing employees of policies c. suggestion boxes d. grievance procedures (b; Moderate; p. 286) 27. When can lateral communications create dysfunctional conflict? a. when the formal vertical channels are breached b. when members go above or around their superiors to get things done c. when bosses find out that actions have been taken or decisions made without their knowledge d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 286) Interpersonal Communications 28. Which is not one of the three basic methods by which group members transfer meaning between and among each other? a. oral b. written c. grapevine d. nonverbal (c; Moderate; p. 286) 29. The game “telephone” demonstrates the major disadvantage of oral communication when the message has to be passed through a number of people. This is: a. static on the line. b. potential distortion. c. nonverbal cues. d. language barriers. (b; Moderate; pp. 286-287) 30. The terms asymmetric digital subscriber line, dark fiber, and dynamic host configuration protocol are examples of: a. technobabble. b. the dot.com bubble. c. architecture. d. acronyms. (a; Easy; p. 287) 31. Memos, letters, e-mail, fax transmissions, and organizational periodicals represent: a. informal organizational communication channels. b. formal organizational communication channels. c. written communication. d. technological communication. (c; Moderate; p. 287) 220 32. A sender may choose to use written communication since: a. they’re tangible and verifiable. b. both the sender and receiver have a record of the communication. c. the message can be stored for an indefinite period of time. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 287) 33. Which of the following is not a drawback of written messages? a. They’re time consuming. b. They are more likely to be well thought-out, logical, and clear. c. There is a lack of feedback. d. There is no assurance the communication has been received. (b; Moderate; pp. 287-288) Organizational Communication 34. Messages conveyed through body movements and facial expressions are: a. body language. b. kinesics. c. rumors. d. paralinguistics. (a; Moderate; p. 288) 35. Facial expressions, physical distance, and looking at your watch are all examples of: a. kinesics. b. nonverbal communication. c. informal networks. d. verbal communication. (b; Moderate; p. 288) All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication except: a. intonations or emphasis given to words. b. evaluation of a competitor’s intentions. c. physical distance between the message sender and receiver. d. facial expressions. (b; Moderate; p. 288) 36. 37. Computer-aided communication includes all of the following except: a. intranet links. b. telephone calls. c. videoconferencing. d. e-mail. (b; Moderate; p. 292) 38. Which of the following is not a benefit of e-mail as a communications tool? a. E-mail messages can be quickly written, edited, and stored. b. E-mail messages can be distributed to one person or thousands with a click of a mouse. c. They lack emotional content. d. They can be read at the recipient’s convenience. 221 (c; Challenging; p. 293) 39. _____ are private, organization-wide information networks that look and act like a web site but to which only people in an organization have access. a. Intranets b. Extranets c. Videoconferences d. Teleconferences (a; Moderate; p. 293) 40. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of nonverbal communication? a. It includes meanings transmitted through facial expressions. b. It is insignificant and should be ignored in the process of explaining and predicting behavior. c. It does not make use of oral processes, speech, or formal language. d. Less is known about it than is known about verbal communication. (b; Moderate; p. 288) Organizational Communication 41. _____ define the channels by which information flows. a. Communication networks b. Vertical channels c. Horizontal channels d. Wheels (a; Easy; p. 290) In a formal organization, a(n) _____ network would be found in direct-line authority relations with no deviations: a. vertical b. directional c. chain d. all-channel (c; Moderate; p. 290) 43. An example of a(n) _____ communication network is when a checkout clerk reports to a department manager, who in turn reports to a store manager, who reports to a regional manager. a. lateral b. all-channel c. “Y” d. chain (d; Moderate; p. 290) 44. When all communication is channeled through the supervisor, a _____ communication network exists. a. directional b. circle c. lateral d. wheel 42. 222 (d; Moderate; p. 290) 45. The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee. a. wheel b. all-channel c. interpersonal d. circle (b; Moderate; p. 290) In terms of facilitating the emergence of a leader, the most effective communication network is: a. chain. b. “Y.” c. wheel. d. circle. (c; Moderate; p. 290) 46. 47. Which of the following is not a formal small-group network? a. chain b. wheel c. spoke d. all-channel (c; Easy; p. 290) 48. In one study of the grapevine, it was found that only _____ percent of the executives acted as liaison individuals; that is, passed the information on to more than one other person. a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 (a; Challenging; p. 291) 49. The _____ network is best if you are concerned with high member satisfaction. a. chain b. circle c. wheel d. all-channel (d; Moderate; p. 290) 50. The _____ network is best if accuracy is important. a. chain b. circle c. wheel d. all-channel (a; Moderate; p. 290) 223 51. The informal communication network is called the: a. gossip monger. b. grapevine. c. chain. d. all-network. (b; Easy; p. 290) 52. The grapevine is: a. controlled by management. b. perceived by most employees as being more reliable than formal communication issued by top management. c. used to serve the self-interests of management. d. usually inaccurate. (b; Moderate; p. 291) 53. Grapevine studies have shown that _____ percent of the information transmitted is accurate. a. 50 b. 75 c. 60 d. 65 (b; Moderate; p. 291) 54. Rumors would most likely flourish in situations where there is: a. planned and well-communicated change. b. anxiety. c. an unimportant issue. d. open communication. (b; Moderate; p. 292) Which element does not have to be present in order for a rumor to emerge? a. anxiety b. importance c. competition d. ambiguity (c; Moderate; p. 292) 55. 56. With regard to the grapevine, a manager should try to: a. ignore it. b. destroy it. c. understand its importance to the communication network. d. force people to use formal communication channels. (c; Moderate; p. 292) 57. There is a rumor in your organization that layoffs are inevitable. Which of the following is not suggested by your text as a way to reduce the negative consequences of rumors? a. Explain decisions that may appear inconsistent or secretive. b. Emphasize the downside, as well as the upside, of current decisions and future plans. c. Ignore the rumor. d. Openly discuss worst case possibilities. 224 (c; Moderate; Exh. 10-5; p. 292) Choice of Communication Channel 58. When Neal Patterson, CEO of Lerner Corporation sent his seething e-mail to 400 managers, he erred by selecting: a. the wrong channel for his message. b. the wrong message. c. the wrong distribution channel. d. the wrong language. (a; Moderate; pp. 295-296) 59. All of the following are true regarding face-to-face communication except: a. it scores highest in terms of channel richness. b. it provides for a maximum amount of information to be transmitted. c. feedback is delayed. d. it offers multiple information cues. (c; Moderate; p. 295) 60. The amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode is: a. feedback. b. filtering. c. perception. d. channel richness. (d; Easy; p. 295) Barriers to Effective Communication 61. Filtering, selective perception, defensiveness, and language are all: a. potential barriers to effective communication. b. communication techniques. c. necessary for effective communication. d. none of the above (a; Easy; p. 297) 62. When a person manipulates information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver, he is: a. using selective perception. b. filtering information. c. communicating favorably. d. using vertical communication. (b; Moderate; p. 297) 63. Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication? a. filtering b. channel richness c. selective perception d. language (b; Moderate; p2 97) 225 64. Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in: a. filtering. b. selective perception. c. jargon. d. feedback. (a; Moderate; p. 297) 65. Receivers in communication selectively see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. This is called: a. language. b. filtering. c. selective perception. d. emotions. (c; Moderate; p. 297) An interviewer who was expecting a female applicant to put her family ahead of her career is using: a. prejudice. b. selective perception. c. nonverbal communication. d. filtering. (b; Challenging; p. 297) 67. _____ occurs when the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity. a. Selective processing b. Information overload c. Filtering d. Effective communication (b; Moderate; p. 297) 68. 66. Variables cited by your text that influence the language a person uses include all of the following except: a. age. b. religion. c. education. d. cultural background. (b; Moderate; pp. 297-298) 69. Specialists develop their own technical language, or _____, to aid communication within their group. a. norms b. subculture c. emoticons d. jargon (d; Easy; p. 298) 226 70. _____ is the tension and anxiety about oral communication, written, or both. a. Noncommunication b. Communication apprehension c. Communication breakdown d. Communication absence (b; Moderate; p. 299) All of the following are true concerning oral-communication apprehensives except: a. they prefer to talk on the phone rather than engage in face-to-face conversation. b. they distort the communication demands of their jobs. c. they limit their oral communication and then tend to rationalize their behavior. d. they rely on memos or letters to convey information better taken care of through oral communication. (a; Moderate; p. 299) 71. Current Issues in Communication 72. Tannen’s research indicates that men use talk to _____ , while women use it to _____ a. emphasize status; create connections. b. build relationships; get promotions. c. establish blame; emphasize status. d. create networks; emphasize separateness. (a; Challenging; p. 299) 73. Which of the following is true regarding the difference between genders when they communicate? a. Women apologize less. b. Women cast themselves in a superior light. c. Women avoid directness and prefer subtlety. d. Women tend to be more boastful. (c; Moderate; pp. 299-300) 74. Which of the following is an example of silence as communication? a. gaps b. hesitation c. pauses d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 300) 75. Which of the following is not a problem related to language difficulties in cross-cultural communications? a. barriers caused by tone difference b. barriers caused by word connotations c. barriers caused by semantics d. barriers caused by political correctness (d; Challenging; pp. 302-303) 227 76. _____ cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. a. High-context b. Low-context c. High-content d. Low-content (a; Moderate; pp. 303-304) 77. Low-context cultures, like that of _____, rely essentially on words to convey meaning. a. China b. Saudi Arabia c. Vietnam d. Germany (d; Challenging; p. 304) 78. Low-context cultures value: a. status. b. directness. c. subtle cues. d. trust. (b; Moderate; p. 304) 79. In dealing with cross-cultural communication, a manager might practice putting herself in the place of the employee, a method termed: a. sympathy. b. empathy. c. symbolic interaction. d. semantics. (b; Easy; p. 305) 80. Which of the following is not a recommendation for reducing misperceptions when communicating with people from a different culture? a. Assume differences until similarity is proven. b. Emphasize interpretation and evaluation rather than descriptions. c. Practice empathy. d. Treat your interpretations as a working hypothesis. (b; Moderate; pp. 304-305) TRUE/FALSE 81. No group can exist without communication. (True; Moderate; p. 283) 82. Poor communication is probably the most frequently cited source of interpersonal conflict. (True; Easy; p. 283) 83. Communication must include either the transference or the understanding of meaning. (False; Moderate; p. 284) 228 Functions of Communication 84. Informal communication can also control behavior. (True; Moderate; p. 284) 85. Communication provides a release for the emotional expression of feelings and for fulfillment of social needs. (True; Moderate; p. 284) Of all the functions served by communication, providing information is the most important. (False; Challenging; p. 284) The Communication Process 87. In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding. (False; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285) 88. Reading is a form of communication. (True; Moderate; p. 285) 89. Formal channels traditionally follow the authority chain within the organization. (True; Easy; p. 285) 90. The encoder is the object to whom the message is directed. (False; Moderate; p. 285) 91. Messages travel through media called channels. (True; Easy; p. 285) 92. When two people are talking, the words are the message. (True; Moderate; p. 285) 93. Feedback determines whether understanding has been achieved. (True; Moderate; p. 285) Direction of Communication 94. Communication can flow vertically or laterally. (True; Easy; p. 285) 95. Downward communication must be oral or face-to-face contact. (False; Easy; p. 285) 96. When feedback is being given to high-level individuals in an organization, upward communication is taking place. (True; Easy; p. 286) 97. Lateral communications break the chain of command in an organization. (True; Moderate; p. 286) 86. 229 98. Lateral communication can create dysfunctional conflicts. (True; Moderate; p. 286) Interpersonal Communication 99. The chief means of conveying messages is oral communication. (True; Easy; p. 286) 100. The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback. (True; Moderate; p. 286) 101. Oral communications are more likely to be well thought-out, logical, and clear. (False; Moderate; p. 287) 102. Written communication has a built-in feedback mechanism. (False; Moderate; p. 288) 103. Examples of nonverbal communication include messages transmitted by facial expressions and body movements. (True; Moderate; p. 288) 104. Body language conveys the relative perceived status between a sender and receiver. (True; Easy; p. 288) 105. Body language tends to make verbal communication much less complicated. (False; Easy; p. 288) 106. Facial expression can indicate something quite different from the verbal message being sent. (True; Easy; p. 288) 107. The way individuals space themselves in terms of physical distance has meaning. (True, Moderate, p. 288) 108. A recent study found that the average U.S. employee receives 31 e-mail messages a day. (True, Easy, p. 293) 109. A benefit of e-mail as a communications tool is information overload. (False; Moderate; p. 293) Organizations are creating intranet links that connect international employees with selected suppliers, customers, and strategic partners. (False; Moderate; p. 293) Organizational Communication 111. Three common small-group networks are chain, wheel, and global. (False; Moderate; Ex 10-3; p. 290) 112. The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command. 110. 230 (False; Easy; p. 290) 113. The grapevine is a type of formal communication. (False; Moderate; p. 290) 114. The grapevine is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable than formal communiqués issued by management. (True; Challenging; p. 291) 115. Rumors flourish in ambiguous situations. (True; Moderate; p. 291) 116. Evidence indicates that about 90 percent of the information on the grapevine is accurate. (False; Challenging; p. 291) 117. Electronic mail is the ideal means to convey messages that might evoke emotional responses. (False; Moderate; p. 293) 118. Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications. (True; Moderate; p. 293) Choice of Communication Channel 119. Face-to-face communication scores highest in terms of channel richness. (True; Easy; Ex 10-7; p. 295) 120. Managers can communicate nonroutine messages efficiently through channels that are lower in richness. (False; Moderate; p. 296) Barriers to Effective Communication 121. Filtering is most likely to occur in organizations in which there is emphasis on status differences and among employees with strong career mobility aspirations. (True; Challenging; p. 297) 122. Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. (False; Moderate; p. 297) 123. Filtering, selective perception, defensiveness, and language are all potential barriers to effective communication. (True; Moderate; p. 297) 124. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is selective perception. (False; Moderate; p. 297) 231 125. When people feel threatened, they become defensive and create a barrier to effective communication. (True; Moderate; p. 297) 126. A receiver who is experiencing depression may interpret a message differently from one who is experiencing jubilation. (True; Easy; p. 297) 127. Jargon is synonymous with “buzzwords.” (True; Easy; p. 298) 128. It is estimated that anywhere from five to twenty percent of the population suffers from communication apprehension. (True; Moderate; pp. 298-299) 129. People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both. (True; Challenging; p. 298) Current Issues in Communication 130. Tannen has found that gender often creates oral communication barriers. (True; Moderate; p. 299) 131. Tannen found that women use talk to emphasize status whereas men use it to create connection. (False; Moderate; p. 299) 132. Men use a communication style that allows others to save face by avoiding directness and preferring subtlety. (False; Moderate; p. 299) 133. Women view telling a problem as a means to promote closeness. (True; Moderate; p. 299) 134. Men are more direct than women in conversation. (True; Easy; p. 300) 135. There are several links between silence and work-related behavior. (True, Easy, p. 300) When we eliminate words from usage because they’re politically incorrect, we reduce our option for conveying messages in the clearest and most accurate form. (True; Easy; p. 301) 137. Cross-cultural communications may have a barrier caused by tone differences. (True; Moderate; p. 303) 138. Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. 136. 232 (False; Moderate; p. 304) 139. In high-context cultures, enforceable contracts tend to be in writing and precisely worded. (False; Challenging; p. 304) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Communication Process Mary telephones her employee, Joe, to let him know that today’s meeting has been moved to one o’clock. 140. In the communication process, Mary is: a. the source. b. the receiver. c. the message. d. the channel. (a; Moderate; pp. 284-285) 141. The telephone is the: a. source. b. sender. c. medium. d. message. (c; Moderate; pp. 284-285) 142. Joe misses the one o’clock meeting since he misunderstood which meeting Mary was referring to. This misunderstanding occurred as a lack of: a. encoding. b. decoding. c. channels. d. feedback. (d; Moderate; pp. 284-285) Application of Barriers to Effective Communication Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. The senior management feels that barriers are hindering communication. Frequently, senior managers feel that their employees are telling them only what they want senior managers to hear. Some middle managers are unable to deal with the vast amount of information in this fast-changing industry. The industry has the additional problem of communicating with users of satellite systems who do not understand the specialized technical language of the industry. 143. When subordinates manipulate information so that it will be seen more favorably by their managers, _____ occurs. a. filtering b. sabotage c. feedback d. overload 233 (a; Moderate; p. 297) 144. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is: a. filtering. b. feedback. c. information overload. d. defensiveness. (c; Moderate; p. 297) 145. _____ is likely to occur in organizations in which there is emphasis on status differences. a. Selective perception b. Information overload c. Defensiveness d. Filtering (d; Challenging; p. 297) 146. The specialized technical language used in an industry is termed: a. communicado. b. jargon. c. dogma. d. slang. (b; Easy; p. 297) Application of Gender Differences in Communication You are presenting a training seminar on the differences in the ways that men and women communicate in a business environment. You stage the following scenario for your participants: Mary: “I have been thinking all day about which one of the employees should be promoted to manager. Ralph, I’d like to get your impression and opinion of the three possible candidates.” “Hire Jackson.” “Well...I’d really like to discuss this so that we can both be comfortable with this decision.” “You asked my opinion. I said that we should hire Jackson. What’s wrong with you, can’t you make a decision?” “I’m sorry, maybe we can talk later.” Ralph: Mary: Ralph: Mary: 147. Which of the following is a point that you should make sure that your participants understand? a. Mary is being indecisive. b. Mary is using the discussion to try to make a connection with Ralph so that their working relationship will be better. c. Mary is using talk to emphasize her status. d. Ralph is attempting to gain support from Mary through discussion. (b; Challenging; pp. 299-300) 148. Which of the following statements is false? a. When men hear a problem, they offer solutions. b. Men see apologies as a weakness. 234 c. Women typically use apologies to put men in an uncomfortable position. d. Men use talk to emphasize their status. (c; Challenging; pp. 299-300) The women in the group need to understand how men see their use of language. Which of the following statements is false? a. Men complain that women talk on and on about a problem without solving it. b. Men believe that apologies show weakness. c. Men use conversations to preserve independence, not build relationships. d. Men are less direct in conversations than women. (d; Moderate; pp. 299-300) Application of Cultural Context Brenda is a recruiter for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to future employees that will help them understand the importance of communicating across cultures. 150. Brenda explains to future employees that _____ cultures, like China and Vietnam, rely heavily on nonverbal cues. a. low-content b. high-content c. low-context d. high-context (d; Moderate; p. 308) 151. Oral agreements imply strong commitments in _____ cultures. a. low-content b. high-content c. low-context d. high-context (d; Moderate; p. 308) 152. Which of the following is a good tip to employees who must deal with different cultures? a. Assume differences until similarities are proven. b. Emphasize evaluation rather than description. c. Practice sympathy. d. Act immediately so you’ll be viewed as decisive. (a; Moderate; p. 308) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 153. What are the four functions of communication? (Page 284) Communication serves four major functions within a group or organization: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information. Communication acts to control member behavior in several ways. Communication fosters motivation by clarifying to employees what is to be done, how well they are doing, and what can be done to improve performance if it’s subpar. For many employees, their work group is a primary source 149. 235 for social interaction. Finally, communication facilitates decision making by providing information. 154. What are the steps in the communication process model? (Ex 10-1, Pages 284-285) The seven parts of the communication process are the source, encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver, and feedback. The source initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product from the source encoding. The channel is the medium through which the message travels. The receiver is the object to whom the message is directed. The symbols must be translated into a form that can be understood by the receiver. This is the decoding. The final link is a feedback loop. 155. What are the communication flows? (Pages 285-286) Communication can flow vertically or laterally. The vertical dimension can be further divided into downward and upward directions. 156. What is communication apprehension? (Pages 298-299) Communication apprehension is a major barrier to effective communication. People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both. 157. Explain the concept of nonverbal communication. (Pages 288-289) Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. 158. What is the grapevine? (Pages 290-292) The informal communication system is the grapevine. While it is informal, it doesn’t mean that it is not an important source of information. A survey found that 75 percent of employees hear about matters first through rumors on the grapevine. 159. What is channel richness? (Page 295) Channels differ in their capacity to convey information. Some are rich in that they have the ability to handle multiple cues simultaneously, facilitate rapid feedback, and be very personal. Face-to-face conversation scores highest in terms of channel richness. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 160. What are the three basic methods of interpersonal communication? 236 (Pages 286-289) The three basic methods of interpersonal communication are oral, written, and nonverbal communication. The chief means of conveying messages is oral communication. Speeches, formal one-on-one and group discussions, and the informal rumor mill or grapevine are popular forms of oral communication. Written communications include memos, letters, electronic mail, fax transmissions, organizational periodicals, notices placed on bulletin boards, or any other device that is transmitted via written words or symbols. Nonverbal communications includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. 161. List and explain four barriers to effective communication. (Pages 296-297) Filtering refers to a sender’s purposely manipulating information so it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. Selective perception occurs when receivers process communication selectively to see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is information overload. How the receiver feels at the time of receipt of a communication message will influence how he or she interprets it. Words mean different things to different people. Age, education, and cultural background are three of the most obvious variables that influence the language a person uses and the definitions he or she gives to words. 162. Discuss the three common small group networks (wheel, chain, and all-channel). Evaluate each on their effectiveness. (Exhibit 10-3, Page 290) The chain rigidly follows the formal chain of command. This network approximates the communication channels you might find in a rigid three-level organization. The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication. It stimulates the communication network you would find on a team with a strong leader. The all-channel network is most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. The structure of the wheel facilitates the emergence of a leader. The all-channel network is best if you are concerned with having high member satisfaction. The chain is best if accuracy is most important. No single network will be best for all occasions. 163. What are the benefits and drawbacks of e-mail? (Pages 292-293) E-mail messages can be quickly written, edited, and stored. They can be distributed to one person or thousands with a click of a mouse. They can be read, in their entirety, at the convenience of the recipient. And the cost of sending formal e-mail messages to employees is a fraction of what it would cost to print, duplicate, and distribute a comparable letter or brochure. Information overload is a drawback. It’s not unusual for employees to get a hundred or more e-mails a day. Reading, absorbing, and responding to such an inflow can literally 237 consume an employee’s entire day. In essence, e-mail’s ease of use has become its biggest negative. Employees are finding it increasingly difficult to distinguish important e-mails from junk mail and irrelevant messages. Another drawback of e-mails is that they lack emotional content. The nonverbal cues don’t come across in e-mail. They can be cold and impersonal. As such, it’s not the ideal means to convey information like layoffs, plant closings, or other messages that might evoke emotional responses and require empathy or social support. 164. How can gender create oral communication barriers? (Pages 299-300) Men use talk to emphasize status, while women use it to create connection. Communication is a continual balancing act, juggling the conflicting needs for intimacy and independence. Intimacy emphasizes closeness and commonalities. Independence emphasizes separateness and differences. Women speak and hear a language of connection and intimacy; men speak and hear a language of status, power, and independence. So, for many men, conversations are primarily a means to preserve independence and maintain status in a hierarchical social order. For women, conversations are negotiations for closeness in which people try to seek and give confirmation and support. Men are also more direct than women in conversation. Women tend to be less boastful than men. Finally, men often criticize women for seeming to apologize all the time since they see the phrase “I’m sorry” as a weakness. They interpret the phrase to mean the woman is accepting blame. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 165. Discuss the communication process. Include the communication process model and explain the seven parts of this model. (Exhibit 10-1, Pages 284-285) Before communication can take place, a purpose, expressed as a message to be conveyed, is needed. It passes between a source (the sender) and a receiver. The message is encoded (converted to a symbolic form) and passed by way of some medium (channel) to the receiver, who retranslates (decodes) the message initiated by the sender. The result is a transference of meaning from one person to another. The seven parts of the communication process are the source, encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver, and feedback. The source initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product from the source encoding. The channel is the medium through which the message travels. The receiver is the object to whom the message is directed. The symbols must be translated into a form that can be understood by the receiver. This is the decoding. The final link is a feedback loop. Discuss specific problems related to cross-cultural communication. barriers and cultural context. (Pages 302-304) 166. Include cultural There are four specific problems related to language difficulties in cross-cultural communications. First, there are barriers caused by semantics. Second, there are barriers 238 caused by word connotations. Third are barriers caused by tone differences. Fourth, there are barriers caused by differences among perceptions. Cultures tend to differ in the importance to which context influences the meaning that individuals take from what is actually said or written versus who the other person is. High-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. What is not said may be more significant than what is said. A person’s official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight in communications. People in low-context cultures rely essentially on words to convey meaning. Body language or formal titles are secondary to spoken and written words. 167. Discuss four ways to reduce misinterpretations when communicating with people from a different culture. (Pages 304-305) The following four rules can be helpful when communicating with people from different cultures. 1. Assume differences until similarity is proven. You are less likely to make an error if you assume others are different from you rather than assuming similarity until differences are proven. 2. Emphasize description rather than interpretation or evaluation. Delay judgment until you’ve had sufficient time to observe and interpret the situations from the differing perspectives of all the cultures involved. 3. Practice empathy. Before sending a message, put yourself in the recipient’s shoes. 4. Treat your interpretations as a working hypothesis. Recognize that you need further testing of your hypothesis. Carefully assess the feedback provided by recipients to see if it confirms your hypothesis. 239 Chapter 11 Basic Approaches to Leadership MULTIPLE CHOICE What Is Leadership? 1. Leadership is: a. the ability to influence a group in goal achievement. b. an inherited trait. c. not something that can be learned. d. a trait held by all managers. (a; Moderate; p. 314) 2. Leaders: a. establish direction by developing a vision of the future. b. align people by communicating their vision. c. c.. inspire people to overcome hurdles. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 314) Good ____ brings about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans. a. leadership b. management c. vision d. inspiration (b; Easy; p.314) 4. Which of the following statements is true? a. All leaders are managers. b. All managers are leaders. c. When an organization provides its managers with formal rights, that is assurance that they will be able to lead effectively. d. Nonsanctioned leadership is not as important as formal influence. (b; Challenging; p. 314) Trait Theories Which theory states that people are born with certain characteristics that predispose them to being leaders? a. trait theory b. path-goal theory c. LPC d. contingency theory (a; Easy; p. 314) 5. 3. 240 6. The search for personality, social, physical, or intellectual attributes that would describe leaders and differentiate them from nonleaders goes back to the: a. 1930s. b. 1950s. c. 1970s. d. 1990s. (a; Easy; p. 314) 7. Which of the following is not a limitation of the trait approach? a. There are no universal traits that predict leadership in all situations. b. Traits predict behavior more in weak situations than in strong situations. c. The evidence is quite clear in separating cause from effect. d. Traits do a better job at predicting the appearance of leadership in distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders. (c; Moderate; p.315) 8. There is fairly consistent evidence that leadership is related to all of the following traits except: a. ambition and energy. b. extroversion. c. desire to lead. d. intelligence. (b; Moderate; p. 315) Behavioral Theories 9. If trait theories of leadership are valid, then leaders are: a. trained. b. born. c. dominant. d. powerless. (b; Moderate; p. 316) 10. If behavioral leadership theories are correct, then: a. leadership trait theories are incorrect. b. leaders are born with leadership behaviors. c. leader behavior should be altered. d. leadership can be learned. (d; Moderate; p. 316) 11. If trait research had been successful, we would _______, whereas if behavioral studies were correct, we would _____ a. teach people certain traits; teach people certain behaviors. b. select the right person for the job; train leaders. c. change jobs to suit people; change people to suit jobs. d. only hire women; hire either men or women. (b; Challenging; p. 316) 12. Which of the following is not a behavioral theory of leadership? 241 a. Ohio State studies b. trait theory c. University of Michigan studies d. leadership grid (b; Easy; pp. 315-317) 13. The two dimensions of leader behavior explained in the Ohio State studies are: a. coercion and motivation. b. motivation and charisma. c. employee-oriented and production-oriented. d. initiating structure and consideration. (d; Challenging; p. 316) 14. According to the Ohio State studies, the extent to which a leader’s behavior is directed toward getting the job done is called: a. consideration. b. initiating structure. c. employee-oriented. d. contingency theory. (b; Moderate; p. 316) 15. According to the Ohio State studies, the extent to which a leader is likely to have job relationships characterized by mutual trust and respect for his/her employees is: a. consideration. b. task-oriented. c. initiating structure. d. concern for production. (a; Moderate; p. 316) 16. A leader high in initiating structure would do which of the following? a. Help subordinates with personal problems. b. Have concern for subordinates’ status and satisfaction. c. Treat all subordinates as equal. d. Assign group members to particular tasks. (d; Moderate; p. 317) 17. The two dimensions of leadership behavior identified in the University of Michigan studies are: a. consideration and influence. b. employee-oriented and production-oriented. c. initiating structure and consideration. d. structured coercion and respect initiation. (b; Moderate; p. 317) 18. The University of Michigan studies define a(n) _____ leader as one who takes personal interest in the needs of his/her subordinates. 242 a. personal b. country club c. employee-oriented d. humanistic (c; Moderate; p. 316) 19. If a leader’s main concern is accomplishing his/her group’s tasks, the University of Michigan studies label this leader: a. single-minded. b. employee-oriented. c. goal-oriented. d. production-oriented. (d; Moderate; p. 317) 20. The conclusion arrived at by the University of Michigan researchers strongly favored: a. humanistic leaders. b. employee-oriented leaders. c. production-oriented leaders. d. technical-oriented leaders. (b; Moderate; p. 317) 21. Blake and Mouton were responsible for development of the: a. Delphi Technique. b. Managerial Grid. c. BCG Matrix. d. Leader-member Exchange Theory. (b; Moderate; p. 317) According to the Managerial Grid, managers perform best under a: a. 9,9 style. b. 5,5 style. c. 9,1 style. d. 1,9 style. (a; Moderate; p. 317) 22. 23. According to Blake and Mouton, a 9,1 style is considered: a. effective management. b. laissez-faire. c. authority. d. country club management. (c; Moderate; p. 317) 24. The graphic portrayal of a two-dimensional view of leadership style by Blake and Mouton is known as the: a. least preferred co-worker scale. 243 b. leader-participation model. c. autocratic-democratic continuum. d. Managerial Grid. (d; Easy; p. 317) 25. Researchers in Finland and Sweden have reassessed whether there are only two dimensions to leadership behavior. Their premise is that effective leaders would exhibit: a. development-oriented behavior. b. a 9,9 style. c. a team approach. d. employee-oriented behavior. (a; Challenging; p. 318) 26. The Scandinavian studies found: a. the previous behavioral approaches that focused in on only two behaviors appropriately captured leadership in the 21st century. b. leaders who demonstrate development-oriented behavior have more satisfied employees. c. leaders who demonstrate development-oriented behavior are seen as less competent by their employees. d. trait approaches were effective in identifying leadership success. (b; Challenging; p. 318) Contingency Theories 27. Consideration of ____ was missing from the behavioral theories. a. traits b. situational factors c. employee satisfaction d. employee turnover (b; Moderate; p. 318) 28. Which of the following is not a contingency theory? a. the Fiedler model b. Blake and Mouton c. Hersey and Blanchard d. leader-member exchange theory (b; Challenging; p. 320) 29. A national 15-year study of 41,000 managers suggested that many managers rely on a(n) ____ style of leadership. a. inclusive b. consensus-building c. autocratic d. laissez-faire (c; Moderate; p. 319) 30. Who developed the LPC (least preferred co-worker) questionnaire? a. Greenleaf b. Fiedler c. House 244 d. Blake and Mouton (b; Moderate; p. 320) 31. The first comprehensive contingency model for leadership was developed by: a. Hersey and Blanchard. b. Blake and Mouton. c. Fred Fiedler. d. Robert House. (c; Challenging; p. 320) 32. Fiedler’s contingency model assumes that an individual’s leadership style is: a. changeable. b. trained. c. situational. d. fixed. (d; Challenging; p. 320) If the least preferred co-worker is described in relatively positive terms, then the respondent is: a. relationship-oriented. b. task-oriented. c. humanistic. d. technical-oriented. (a; Challenging; p. 320) 33. 34. If the least preferred co-worker is seen in relatively unfavorable terms, Fiedler would label the respondent: a. technical-oriented. b. task-oriented. c. relationship-oriented. d. humanistic. (b; Challenging; p. 320) 35. “Leaders are inflexible in their ability to change their basic style” would be most attributable to: a. Blake and Mouton. b. Fiedler. c. Hersey and Blanchard. d. Vroom and Yetton. (b; Moderate; p. 320) 36. Three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model are: a. job requirements, position power, and leadership ability. b. charisma, influence, and leader-member relations. c. leader-member relations, task structure, and position power. d. task structure, leadership ability, and group conflict. (c; Moderate; p. 320) 37. Which of the following is not a contingency dimension identified by Fiedler? a. leader-member relations b. the LPC scale 245 c. task structure d. position power (b; Moderate; p. 320) 38. Fiedler labels the degree of confidence, trust, and respect subordinates have in their leader as: a. leader-member relations. b. task structure. c. position power. d. employee-oriented. (a; Easy; p. 320) 39. The degree to which job assignments are procedurized is classified in the Fiedler model as: a. leader-member relations. b. concern for people. c. task structure. d. position power. (c; Moderate; p. 320) 40. Which model represents the theory that effective leadership depends upon a proper match between a leader’s style of interacting with subordinates and the degree to which the situation gives control and influence to the leader? a. Leader-member Exchange Theory b. Fiedler Contingency Model c. Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Theory d. Situational Leadership Theory (b; Challenging; p. 321) 41. Fiedler’s theory predicts that an individual who is considered task oriented will be most effective when the situation is: a. moderately to highly favorable. b. moderately favorable. c. moderately to highly unfavorable. d. very favorable or unfavorable. (d; Challenging; pp. 321-322) 42. The reconceptualization of Fieldler’s contingency model is called: a. situational theory. b. cognitive resource theory. c. evaluative theory. d. leadership cognitive theory. (b; Moderate; p. 323) 43. According to Fiedler’s contingency theory, if there is not a match of leadership style to the group situation, what should be done? a. Replace the manager. b. Change the situation to fit the leader. c. either a or b d. none of the above 246 (c; Moderate; p. 322 ) 44. Garcia and Fiedler focused on the role of ____ in the cognitive resource theory. a. stress b. task structure c. position power d. conflict (a; Challenging; p. 323) 45. All of the following are predictions of the cognitive resource theory except: a. the intellectual abilities of leaders correlate with group performance in situations that the leader perceives as low stress. b. in nonstressful situations, there is a positive relationship between job experience and performance. c. in high-stress situations, there is a positive relationship between job experience and performance. d. directive behavior results in good performance only if linked with high intelligence in a supportive, nonstressful leadership environment. (b; Challenging; p. 323) 46. Hersey and Blanchard developed the _____ leadership theory. a. situational b. cognitive resource c. managerial grid d. path-goal (a; Moderate; p. 323) 47. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory differs from other leadership theories most clearly because it: a. identifies specific leadership styles. b. focuses on the followers. c. makes leadership contingent on the situation. d. uses the leadership dimensions of task and relationship behaviors. (b; Challenging; p. 323) 48. According to Hersey and Blanchard, readiness encompasses: a. the leader’s motivation. b. the age of the followers. c. the follower’s power. d. the ability and willingness of the followers to take responsibility. (d; Challenging; p. 324) Which of the following is not a leader behavior identified by Hersey and Blanchard? a. directive b. laissez-faire c. supportive d. consensus (d; Moderate; p. 324) 49. 247 50. The _____ theory argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their subordinates. a. managerial grid b. leader-member exchange c. path-goal d. Fiedler leadership (b; Moderate; p. 324) 51. According to LMX theory, which of the following is not true of those individuals who fall into the out-group? a. They get less of the leader’s time. b. They have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interaction. c. They are trusted. d. They get fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls. (c; Moderate; p. 324) The leadership model that integrates the expectancy model of motivation with the Ohio State leadership research is: a. path-goal. b. Fiedler. c. leader-participation. d. autocratic-democratic. (a; Challenging; p. 325) 53. The leadership behaviors identified by the path-goal theory are: a. participative, goal-oriented, and supportive. b. achievement-oriented and humanistic. c. supportive, directive, participative, and achievement-oriented. d. participative and autocratic. (c; Challenging; p. 326) 54. Which leadership style identified by House in path-goal theory leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful than when they are highly structured and well laid out? a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented (a; Challenging; p. 326) 52. Which of House’s leaders from path-goal theory are friendly and show concern for the needs of followers? a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented (b; Challenging; p. 326) 55. 248 Which of House’s leaders from path-goal theory sets challenging goals and expects followers to perform at their highest level? a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented (d; Challenging; p. 326) Which of the following is not an example of a hypothesis that has evolved out of path-goal theory? a. Subordinates with an internal locus of control will be more satisfied with a directive style. b. Directive leadership leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous. c. Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when subordinates are performing structured tasks. d. Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant by employees with considerable experience. (a; Challenging; pp. 325-327) 58. The leader-participation model was developed by: a. Robert House. b. Fred Fiedler. c. George Graen. d. Vroom and Yetton. (d; Moderate; p. 327) 59. Vroom and Yetton’s leadership theory could also be described as a _____ theory. a. power b. decision-making c. satisfaction d. trait (b; Moderate; p. 327) One of the problems with Vroom and Yetton’s leader-participation model is the complication of considering the ___ contingency variables. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 (d; Moderate; p. 328) 60. 57. 56. TRUE/FALSE What Is Leadership? 61. Leadership and management are two terms that are seldom confused. (False; Easy; p. 313) 62. Management is about coping with complexity while leadership is about coping with change. (True; Moderate; p. 313) 249 63. Those who hold a management position are the only individuals who can become leaders in a group or organization. (False; Moderate; p. 314) 64. Organizations need strong leadership and strong management for optimum effectiveness. (True; Moderate; p. 314) Trait Theories 65. The approach to leadership that attempted to find universal personality traits that leaders possessed to a greater degree than nonleaders proved very effective. (False; Moderate; p. 314) 66. The trait theories of leadership sought to find personality, social, physical, or intellectual traits that leaders had to some greater degree than nonleaders. (True; Moderate; p. 314) 67. There are traits that are consistently associated with leadership. (True; Moderate; p. 315) The cumulative findings from more than a half a century of research leads us to conclude that traits do not increase the likelihood of success of a leader. (False; Moderate; p. 315) 69. There are traits identified in the research that guarantee leadership success. (False; Moderate; p. 315) 70. There are no universal traits that predict leadership success in all situations. (True; Moderate; p. 315) Behavioral Theories 71. One implication of the trait view of leadership is that leaders can be trained. (False; Moderate; p. 316) 72. If trait research had been successful, it would have provided a basis for selecting the “right” persons to assume formal positions requiring leadership. (True; Challenging; p. 315) 73. If behavioral theories of leadership are valid, individuals can be trained to be leaders. (True; Easy; p. 316) 74. If trait theories of leadership are valid, leadership is basically inborn. (True; Easy; p. 316) The most comprehensive and replicated of the trait theories resulted from research that began at Ohio State University. (False; Challenging; p. 316) 75. 68. 250 76. The Ohio State Studies used two dimensions – initiating structure and consideration. (True; Moderate; p. 316) 77. The leader designated as high on initiating structure tends to structure the role of subordinates more clearly. (True; Moderate; p. 316) 78. Initiating structure is described as the extent to which a person is likely to have job relationships that are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees’ ideas, and regard for their feelings. (False; Easy; p. 316) 79. The University of Michigan studies found production-oriented leaders were associated with higher group productivity. (False; Challenging; p. 317) 80. The University of Michigan studies’ production-oriented leaders tended to emphasize the technical or task aspects of the job. (True; Easy; p. 317) 81. The managerial grid found that managers perform best under a 1,1 style. (False; Easy; p. 317) 82. Hersey and Blanchard developed the managerial grid. (False; Easy; p. 317) 83. Scandinavian studies found that development-oriented leaders value experimentation, seek new ideas, and generate and implement change. (True; Moderate; p. 318) A 15-year study of 41,000 managers suggested that many managers continue to rely on an autocratic style of leadership. (True; Challenging; p. 319) Contingency Theories 85. The contingency approach to leadership would be best served by an autocratic leadership style. (False; Moderate; p. 319) The Fiedler contingency model proposes that effective group performance depends upon the proper match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader. (True; Moderate; p. 320) 87. Contingency models of leadership suggest that there is no one best style of leadership. (True; Moderate; p. 320) 88. Fiedler used the most preferred co-worker (MPC) questionnaire. (False; Easy; p. 320) 89. In Fiedler’s model, if the LPC is seen in relatively unfavorable terms, the respondent can be said to 251 86. 84. be primarily task-oriented. (True; Moderate; p. 320) Fiedler’s theory is based on the assumption that leaders can’t change their styles to fit changing situations. (True; Moderate; p. 320) 91. According to Fiedler, task structure is the degree to which the job assignments are procedurized. (True; Moderate; p. 320) 92. One of the flaws in the Fiedler leadership model is that it fails to take into account the formal authority of the leader. (False; Challenging; p. 323) 93. According to Fiedler’s contingency model, task-oriented leaders are most effective in situations of high or low control. (True; Moderate; p. 323) Fiedler concludes that since we cannot change individuals, we should concentrate on changing situations to suit individuals. (True; Moderate; p. 322) 95. Taken as a whole, tests of the overall validity of the Fiedler model lead to a generally positive conclusion. (True; Moderate; p. 323) 96. Fiedler’s contingency model is the reconceptualization of cognitive resource theory. (False; Moderate; p. 323) 97. The essence of cognitive resource theory is that stress is the enemy of rationality. (True; Moderate; p. 323) Cognitive resource theory predicts that in low-stress situations, bright individuals perform worse in the leadership role than their less intelligent counterparts. (False; Challenging; p. 323) 98. 94. 90. 99. Situational leadership theory has been well validated by research but not well received by practitioners. (False; Challenging; p. 324) 100. Hersey and Blanchard argue that leadership success is contingent on the age of the leader. (False; Easy; p. 323) Readiness was defined by Hersey and Blanchard as the extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task. (True; Moderate; p. 324) 102. SLT essentially views the leader-follower relationship as analogous to that between a parent and 252 101. child. (True; Challenging; p. 326) 103. SLT is an example of a trait theory. (False; Easy; p. 326) 104. In the leader-member exchange theory, leaders don’t treat all their subordinates alike. (True; Moderate; p. 324) 105. According to LMX theory, out-group members get less of the leader’s time. (True; Moderate; p. 324) 106. Research to test LMX theory has been generally supportive. (True, Moderate, p. 325) 107. In the leader-member exchange theory, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group called the “mature followers.” (False; Challenging; p. 324) 108. The path-goal model of leadership integrates the expectancy model of motivation with the Fiedler contingency model. (False; Challenging; p. 325) 109. The path-goal theory assumes leaders are flexible and can display different leadership behavior depending on the situation. (True; Moderate; p. 325) 110. A hypothesis that has evolved out of path-goal theory is that directive leadership leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful than when they are highly structured and well laid out. (True; Challenging; p. 325) 111. The leader-participation model identifies two leadership behaviors—initiating structure and consideration. (False; Moderate; p. 327) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Behavioral Theories Your supervisor has been studying leadership and has described so many theories to you that you are really confused. You ask him to explain the similarities of the many theories so that you can understand the relationship between them. 112. What other term might be used to describe the concept of “task?” a. supportive b. initiating structure c. consideration 253 d. relationship-oriented (b; Moderate; pp. 316-317) 113. What other terms might be used to describe the concept of “people?” a. consideration and employee-oriented b. directive leadership and production-oriented c. supportive and directive leadership d. consideration and relationship-oriented (a; Challenging; pp. 316-317) 114. Behavioral leadership theorists seem to agree that: a. a leader’s style is fixed. b. a leader’s style is flexible. c. traits are always important. d. there seem to be two dimensions of leadership—task and people. (d; Challenging; pp. 316-317) Application of Fiedler’s LPC Theory You have decided to use Fiedler’s LPC questionnaire to help your employees learn more about their leadership styles. Each of your employees has filled out and scored the instrument. It is your job to try to explain how to use this information. You should assume which of the following about the styles that have been assessed? a. Each person’s style is essentially fixed. b. Each person can use the information to change his/her style to a more productive style if necessary. c. Task-oriented leaders will not perform as well as relationship-oriented leaders in situations that were very unfavorable. d. Task-oriented leaders will perform better than relationship-oriented leaders in moderately favorable situations. (a; Challenging; pp. 320-323) 115. 116. Which of the following is an important contingency dimension in Fiedler’s LPC model? a. leader-member relations b. task structure c. position power d. All of the above are important dimensions in this model. (d; Moderate; pp. 320-323) 117. The Fiedler model proposes: a. changing the leader. b. changing the situation. c. matching leaders and situations. d. changing the employees. 254 (c; Challenging; pp. 320-323) Application of Trait Theories Your company’s HR director is a believer in trait theories of leadership. He believes that he can differentiate leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics. You want to help shed some light on this perspective. 118. You should inform your HR director that research efforts at isolating leadership traits have: a. definitively identified six leadership traits. b. resulted in a number of dead ends. c. identified two traits that guarantee success. d. identified universal traits predicting success in all situations. (b; Moderate; pp. 314-315) 119. When selecting individuals for leadership positions, the trait research would suggest that which of the following should not be used as a trait differentiating leaders from nonleaders? a. ambitions and energy b. the desire to lead c. communication skills d. intelligence (d; Moderate; pp. 314-315) Application of LMX Theory As you have observed your department manager and her interactions with the department’s employees, you have come to believe in LMX theory. Sarah and Joe get less of the manager’s time. Sally gets fewer of the preferred rewards that the manager controls and John has a relationship with the manager based on formal authority interactions. Rebecca is trusted. Jennifer gets a disproportionate amount of the manager’s attention and is more likely to receive special privileges. 120. According to LMX theory, the in-group is likely to be comprised of: a. Rebecca. b. Jennifer. c. both Rebecca and Jennifer d. none of the above (c; Challenging; pp. 324-325) 121. According to LMX theory, which of the following employees is likely to be included in the outgroup? a. Rebecca b. Jennifer c. Sarah d. none of the above (c; Challenging; pp. 324-325) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 122. What is the difference between leadership and management? 255 (Pages 303-304) Leadership is defined as the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of goals. Leadership is about coping with change. Good management brings about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans, designing rigid organization structures, and monitoring results against plans. Management consists of implementing the vision and strategy provided by leaders, coordinating and staffing the organization, and handling day-to-day problems. 123. Discuss the two dimensions of leadership described in the Ohio State studies. (Page 316) The Ohio State studies proposed that two categories accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees. They called these two dimensions initiating structure and consideration. Initiating structure refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. Consideration is described as the extent to which a person is likely to have job relationships that are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees’ ideas, and regard for their feelings. 124. Discuss Blake and Mouton’s managerial grid. (Page 317) Blake and Mouton proposed a managerial grid based on the styles of concern for people and concern for production. This grid shows the dominating factors in a leader’s thinking in regard to getting results. Managers were found to perform best under a 9,9 style. The dimensions represent the Ohio State dimensions of consideration and initiating structure and the Michigan dimensions of employee oriented and production oriented. 125. What dimension did the Scandanavian studies add? (Pages 317-318) Researches in Finland and Sweden have been reassessing whether there are only two dimensions that capture the essence of leadership behavior. Their basic premise is that in a changing world, effective leaders would exhibit development-oriented behavior. These are leaders who value experimentation, seek new ideas, and generate and implement change. 126. Discuss cognitive resource theory. (Page 323) Fiedler and Joe Garcia reconceptualized Fiedler’s contingency model. They focused on the role of stress as a form of situational unfavorableness and how a leader’s intelligence and experience influence his or her reaction to stress. The essence of the theory is that stress is the enemy of rationality. Fiedler and Garcia found that a leader’s intellectual abilities correlate positively with performance under low stress but negatively under high stress. According to the theory, it’s the level of stress in the situation that determines whether an individual’s intelligence and experience will contribute to leadership performance. 127. Discuss Hersey and Blanchard’s situation leadership theory. (Pages 323-324) 256 Situation leadership is a contingency theory that focuses on the followers. Successful leadership is achieved by selecting the right leadership style, which Hersey and Blanchard argue is contingent on the level of the followers’ readiness. The emphasis on the followers in leadership effectiveness reflects the reality that it is the followers who accept or reject the leaders. The term readiness refers to the extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task. SLT says if a follower is unable and unwilling to do a task, the leader needs to give clear and specific directions; if followers are unable and willing, the leader needs to display high task orientation to compensate for the followers’ lack of ability and high relationship orientation to get the follower to “buy into” the leader’s desires; if followers are able and unwilling, the leader needs to use a supportive and participative style; and if the employee is both able and willing, the leader doesn’t need to do much. 128. Discuss LMX theory. (Pages 324-325) The leader-member exchange (LMX) theory argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers. These individuals make up the in-group – they are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader’s attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges. Other followers fall into the out-group. They get less of the leader’s time, fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls, and have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interactions. The leader implicitly categorizes the follower as an “in” or “out” and that relationship is relatively stable over time. 129. Describe the leader-participation model. (Pages 327-328) Victor Vroom and Phillip Yetton developed a leader-participation model that related leadership behavior and participation in decision making. Recognizing that task structures have varying demands for routine and nonroutine activities, these researchers argued that leader behavior must adjust to reflect the task structure. The model was normative – it provided a sequential set of rules that should be followed in determining the form and amount of participation in decision making, as determined by different types of situations. The model was a decision tree incorporating seven contingencies and five alternative leadership styles. 130. What are the predictions of the path-goal theory? (Page 326) Path-goal theory made several predictions: • Directive leadership leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful than when they are highly structured and well laid out. • Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when employees are performing structured tasks. • Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant among employees with high perceived ability or with considerable experience. • Employees with an internal locus of control will be more satisfied with a participative style. • Achievement-oriented leadership will increase employees’ expectancies that effort will lead to high performance when tasks are ambiguously structured. 257 MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 131. Describe the limitations of trait theory. (Page 315) Trait theory has at least four limitations. First, there are no universal traits that predict in all situations. Rather, traits appear to predict leadership in selective situations. Second, traits predict behavior more in “weak” situations than in “strong” situations. Strong situations are those in which there are strong behavioral norms, strong incentives for specific types of behaviors, and clear expectations as to what behaviors are rewarded and punished. Such strong situations create less opportunity for leaders to express their inherent dispositional tendencies. Since highly formalized organizations and those with strong cultures fit the description of strong situations, the power of traits to predict leadership in many organizations is probably limited. Third, the evidence is unclear in separating cause from effect. Finally, traits do a better job at predicting the appearance of leadership than in actually distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders. 132. What are the implications of the behavioral theories of leadership? (Pages 318-319) If trait research had been successful, it would have provided a basis for selecting the “right” persons to assume formal positions in groups and organizations requiring leadership. In contrast, if behavioral studies were to turn up critical behavioral determinants of leadership, we could train people to be leaders. The difference between trait and behavioral theories, in terms of application, lies in their underlying assumptions. If trait theories were valid, then leaders are born rather than made. On the other hand, if there were specific behaviors that identified leaders, then we could teach leadership – we could design programs that implanted these behavioral patterns in individuals who desired to be effective leaders. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS Explain Fiedler’s contingency model. Include the LPC (least preferred coworker) questionnaire and the key situational factors that determine leadership effectiveness in your discussion. (Pages 320-322) Fred Fiedler developed the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership. This model proposes that effective group performance depends upon the proper match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader. The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to determine what the leader’s basic style is. Sixteen contrasting adjectives are used to ask respondents to describe their least-preferred co-worker. If the least preferred co-worker is described in relatively positive terms (a high LPC score), then the respondent is primarily interested in good personal relations with this co-worker. This person is considered relationship oriented. If the least preferred co-worker is primarily interested in productivity, they would be labeled task oriented. Fiedler assumes that an individual’s leadership style is fixed. Fiedler identified three contingency dimensions that define the key situational factors that determine leadership effectiveness. Leader-member relations are the degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader. Task structure is the degree to which the job assignments are procedurized. Position power is the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as 258 133. hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases. The better the leader-member relations, the more highly structured the job, and the stronger the position power, the more control the leader has. With knowledge of an individual’s LPC and an assessment of the three contingency variables, Fiedler proposes matching them up to achieve maximum leadership effectiveness. Task-oriented leaders tend to perform better in situations that were very favorable to them and in situations that were very unfavorable. Relationship oriented leaders perform better in moderately favorable situations. Fiedler has suggested recently that task-oriented leaders perform best in situations of high and low control, while relationship-oriented leaders perform best in moderate control situations. There are two ways to improve leader effectiveness. You can change the leader to fit the situation. The second alternative would be to change the situation to fit the leader. This could be done by restructuring tasks or increasing or decreasing the power that the leader has to control factors such as salary increases, promotions, and disciplinary actions. Compare and contrast Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory with House’s path-goal theory. (Pages 323-326) Hersey and Blanchard’s situation leadership theory is a contingency theory that focuses on the followers. Successful leadership is achieved by selecting the right leadership style, which Hersey and Blanchard argue is contingent on the level of the followers’ readiness. The emphasis on the followers in leadership effectiveness reflects the reality that it is the followers who accept or reject the leaders. The term readiness refers to the extent to which people have the ability and willingness to accomplish a specific task. SLT says if a follower is unable and unwilling to do a task, the leader needs to give clear and specific directions; if followers are unable and willing, the leader needs to display high task orientation to compensate for the followers’ lack of ability and high relationship orientation to get the follower to “buy into” the leader’s desires; if followers are able and unwilling, the leader needs to use a supportive and participative style; and if the employee is both able and willing, the leader doesn’t need to do much. Path-goal theory was developed by Robert House. The essence of the theory is that it’s the leader’s job to assist followers in attaining their goals and to provide the necessary direction and/or support to ensure that their goals are compatible with the overall objectives of the group or organization. The term path-goal is derived from the belief that effective leaders clarify the path to help their followers get from where they are to the achievement of their work goals and make the journey along the path easier by reducing roadblocks. House identified four leadership behaviors. The directive leader lets followers know what is expected of them, schedules work to be done, and gives specific guidance as to how to accomplish tasks. The supportive leader is friendly and shows concern for the needs of followers. The participative leader consults with followers and uses their suggestions before making a decision. The achievement-oriented leader sets challenging goals and expects followers to perform at their highest level. House assumes that leaders are flexible and that the same leader can display any or all of these behaviors depending on the situation. Path-goal theory made several predictions: 134. 259 • Directive leadership leads to greater satisfaction when tasks are ambiguous or stressful than when they are highly structured and well laid out. • Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when employees are performing structured tasks. • Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant among employees with high perceived ability or with considerable experience. • Employees with an internal locus of control will be more satisfied with a participative style. • Achievement-oriented leadership will increase employees’ expectancies that effort will lead to high performance when tasks are ambiguously structured. 260 Chapter 12 Contemporary Issues in Leadership MULTIPLE CHOICE Trust: The Foundation of Leadership _____ is a positive expectation that another will – through words, actions, or decisions – act opportunistically. a. Confidence b. Trust c. c, Pygmalion effect d. Leadership (a; Moderate; p. 336) 2. Which of the following is not a dimension of trust? a. integrity b. competence c. loyalty d. distance (d; Easy; p. 336) 3. 1. The most critical characteristic that a person looks for in determining whether another person is trustworthy is: a. integrity. b. loyalty. c. consistency. d. openness. (a; Moderate; p. 336) Research has identified five dimensions that underlie the concept of trust. Among these dimensions is ______, which indicates willingness to protect and save face for a person. a. integrity b. competence c. loyalty d. openness (c; Challenging; p. 336) Reliability, predictability, and good judgment in handling situations is the dimension of trust known as: a. openness. b. consistency. c. loyalty. d. integrity. (b; Moderate; p. 336) 5. 4. 261 6. _____ refers to honesty and truthfulness. a. Integrity b. Competency c. Loyalty d. Openness (a; Moderate; p. 336) _____ is the dimension of trust that encompasses an individual’s technical and interpersonal knowledge and skills. a. Consistency b. Competence c. Integrity d. Confidence (b; Easy; p. 336) 8. ____ is the dimension of trust that refers to the degree to which you can rely on the person to tell you the full truth. a. Integrity b. Loyalty c. Consistency d. Openness (d; Moderate; p. 336) 9. Which of the following is not useful in building trust? a. keeping your feelings to yourself b. demonstrating that you’re working for others’ interests as well as your own c. showing consistency in the basic values that guide your decision making d. demonstrating competence (a; Moderate; p. 336) 10. 7. _____ consistently ranks at the top of most people’s list of characteristics they admire in their leaders. a. Honesty b. Communication c. Interpersonal skills d. Money (a; Moderate; p. 338) A recent national survey of U.S. employees found that about ____ percent of respondents trusted their senior manager. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 (c; Challenging; pp. 337-338) 11. 12. There are three types of trust in organization relationships. Which of the following is not one of 262 those three types? a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (a; Easy; p. 338) 13. The most fragile relationships are contained in _____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (b; Moderate; p. 338) 14. The new manager-employee relationship is an example of ____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (b; Moderate; p. 338) 15. Most organizational relationships are rooted in ____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (c; Moderate; p. 339) 16. Trust exists because the parties understand each other’s intentions and appreciate the other’s: a. wants and desires b. needs and feelings c. opinions and needs d. wants and feelings (a; Moderate; p. 339) 17. Controls are minimal with ____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (d; Moderate; p. 339) 18. A long-term happily married couple is an example of ____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (d; Moderate; p. 339) 263 19. The highest level of trust is exhibited in _____ trust. a. reward-based b. deterrence-based c. knowledge-based d. identification-based (d; Moderate; p. 339) Leaders as Shapers of Meaning 20. _____ is a way to use language to manage meaning. a. Framing b. Influencing c. Highlighting d. Trust (a; Easy; p. 340) Leaders demonstrate framing when they use language to do all of the following except: a. to influence followers’ perception of the world. b. to influence the meaning of events. c. to influence visions of the future. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 340) 21. What is Charismatic Leadership? 22. Which of the following is not true of charismatic leaders? a. They have a vision and the ability to articulate the vision. b. They have behavior that is unconventional. c. They are willing to take high personal risk. d. They are rarely sensitive to follower needs. (d; Challenging; Ex 12-2; p. 342) 23. Which of the following is not part of the four-step process charismatic leaders use to influence followers? a. The leader articulates an appealing vision. b. The leader communicates high performance expectations and expresses confidence that followers can attain them. c. The leader reinforces the old set of values. d. The leader makes self-sacrifices and engages in unconventional behavior to demonstrate courage and convictions about the vision. (c; Challenging; pp. 341-342) 24. A person can learn to become more charismatic by doing all of the following except: a. developing an aura of charisma by maintaining an optimistic view. b. creating a bond that inspires others to follow. 264 c. communicating only with words. d. bringing out the potential in followers by tapping into their emotions. (c; Moderate; p. 342) 25. There are some situations when charismatic leadership would not be needed. Which of the following would be an example of such a situation? a. A business is facing the introduction of a radically new product. b. A business is in its infancy. c. A business is operating during a time of war. d. A business has had several years of unchallenged success. (d; Moderate; p. 343) 26. The two types of leaders may be identified as: a. transformational leaders and charismatic leaders. b. translational leaders and transcendent leaders. c. transactional leaders and transformational leaders. d. task-oriented leaders and production-centered leaders. (c; Moderate; p. 343) 27. The Ohio State studies, Fiedler’s model, path-goal theory, and the leader-participation model all concerned the _____ leader. a. transactional b. charismatic c. transformational d. employee-oriented (a; Moderate; p. 343) 28. The type of leaders who guide or motivate their followers in the direction of established goals by clarifying role and task requirements are: a. transactional leaders. b. charismatic leaders. c. transformational leaders. d. employee-oriented leaders. (a; Moderate; p. 343) 29. The type of leader who inspires followers to transcend their own self-interest for the good of the organization and who is capable of having a profound effect on his/her followers is a(n): a. transcendent leader. b. transformational leader. c. transactional leader. d. employee-oriented leader. (b; Moderate; p. 343) 30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transactional leader? a. gives rewards in exchange for good work b. intervenes if standards aren’t met c. provides vision and a sense of mission 265 d. avoids making decisions (c; Challenging; p. 343) 31. The overall evidence indicates that transformational leadership is more strongly correlated than transactional leadership with: a. lower turnover rates. b. higher productivity. c. higher employee satisfaction, d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 343) The ability to create and articulate a realistic, credible, attractive vision of the future for an organization that grows out of and improves the present is _____ leadership. a. transformational b. visionary c. transactional d. feminine (b; Easy; p. 344) 33. What skills do visionary leaders exhibit? a. ability to explain the vision to others b. ability to express the vision through behavior c. ability to extend the vision to different leadership contexts d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 345) Emotional Intelligence and Leadership Effectiveness 34. Emotional Intelligence (EI) appears to be especially relevant in jobs that demand a high degree of: a. social interaction. b. commitment. c. task structure. d. technical expertise. (a; Challenging; p. 346) 35. Which of the following is not a key component of EI (emotional intelligence)? a. self-awareness b. self-management c. commitment d. empathy (c; Challenging; p. 346) 32. 36. ____ is exhibited by self-confidence, realistic self-assessment, and a self deprecating sense of humor. a. Self-awareness b. Self-management c. Commitment d. Empathy 266 (a; Challenging; p. 346) Contemporary Leadership Roles 37. Leaders of teams find themselves in a role of: a. autocrat. b. follower. c. high power. d. facilitator. (d; Moderate; p. 346) _____ are exhibited by the ability to lead change, persuasiveness, and expertise in building and leading terms. a. Social skills b. Change skills c. Interpersonal skills d. Technical skills (a; Moderate; p. 346) 39. A study of 20 organizations that had reorganized themselves around teams identified four specific roles for managers. Which of the following is not one of these roles? a. liaisons with external constituencies b. senior management c. troubleshooters d. conflict managers (b; Moderate; p. 347) 40. A ____ is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less experienced employee. a. mentor b. facilitator c. leader d. manager (a; Easy; p. 347) 41. 38. What is not a role performed by a mentor? a. coach b. counselor c. evaluator d. sponsor (c; Easy; p. 347) 42. Which of the following is not a difference found in the inherent leadership styles of men and women? a. Women tend to adopt a more democratic style. b. Men are more likely to use a direct command and control style. c. Women share power. d. Men tend to lead through inclusion and rely on interpersonal skills to influence others. (d; Moderate; p. 349) 267 43. All of the following are characteristics of women leaders except: a. democratic leadership style. b. encouraging participation. c. directive command. d. sharing power. (c; Moderate; p. 349) 44. Leaders can create self-leaders by which of the following? a. Model self-leadership. b. Encourage the use of self-rewards to strengthen and increase desirable behaviors. c. Create positive thought patterns. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 349-350) 45. Which of the following is true concerning on-line leadership? a. The digital age can never turn nonleaders into leaders. b. Effective online leaders need to develop the skill of deciphering the emotional components of messages. c. Managers whose face-to-face leadership skills are less than satisfactory will not shine online. d. The online leader has received considerable attention from OB researchers. ( b; Moderate; pp. 351-352) Challenges to the Leadership Construct The ______ says that leadership is merely an attribution that people make about other individuals. a. fundamental attribution error b. attribution theory of leadership c. perception of leadership d. organizational attribution theory (b; Moderate; p. 353) According to the attribution theory of leadership, what’s important in being characterized as an “effective leader” is projecting the ____ of being a leader rather than focusing on _____. a. appearance; actual accomplishments b. image; attributions c. reality; appearance d. appearance; perception (a; Challenging; p. 353) 47. 46. _____ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. a. Substitutes b. Neutralizers c. Higher level leaders d. Rewards (b; Moderate; p. 354) 48. 268 49. Examples of substitutes do not include which of the following? a. explicit formalized goals b. rigid rules and procedures c. cohesive work groups d. professional orientation of employees (d; Moderate; p. 354) 50. Which of the following skills might be included in leadership training? a. vision creation b. trust building c. situational analysis d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 356) TRUE/FALSE Trust: The Foundation of Leadership 51. Recent research has identified the dimensions that underlie the concept of trust. Loyalty is the willingness to share ideas and information freely. (False; Easy; p. 336) 52. Trust implies familiarity and risk. (True; Moderate; p. 336) Recent research has identified various dimensions that underlie the concept of trust. Integrity is the term used to describe a person’s honesty and truthfulness. (True; Moderate; p. 336) 54. Openness refers to whether or not you can rely on a person to give you the full truth. (True; Moderate; p. 336) 55. Honesty is absolutely essential to leadership. (True; Easy; p. 337) The three types of trust in organizational relationships are deterrence-based, knowledge-based, and identification-based. (True; Easy; p. 338) 57. The most fragile relationships are contained in identification-based trust. (False; Moderate; p. 338) 58. Deterrence-based trust will work only to the degree that punishment is possible, consequences are clear, and the punishment is actually imposed if the trust is violated. (True; Moderate; p. 338) 59. Most new relationships begin on a base of deterrence. (True; Moderate; p. 339) 60. At the knowledge-based level, trust is broken by inconsistent behavior. 269 56. 53. (False; Challenging; p. 339) 61. Controls are minimal at the identification level of trust. (True; Challenging; p. 339) Leaders as Shapers 62. Framing was used by Martin Luther King, Jr. in his “I have a dream” speech. (True; Moderate; p. 340) 63. George W. Bush has been the only U.S. president to engage in framing. (False; Easy; p. 341) 64. According to charismatic leadership theory, followers make attributions of heroic leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. (True; Moderate; p. 341) 65. Most researchers have concluded that charisma cannot be learned. (False; Moderate; p. 342) 66. Charismatic leadership is necessary to achieve high levels of employee performance. (False; Moderate; pp. 342-343) 67. Transactional leaders are charismatic leaders. (False; Moderate; p. 343) 68. Transformational leadership is built on top of transactional leadership. (True; Challenging; p. 343) There is an increasing body of research that shows impressive correlation between transformational leadership and higher productivity, lower turnover rates, and higher employee satisfaction. (True; Moderate; pp. 343-344) 70. Visionary leadership is a way to “jump-start” the future. (True; Moderate; p. 344) 71. The key properties of a vision tend to be value-centered. (True; Challenging; p. 344) 69. A vision is likely to fail if it doesn’t offer a view of the future that is clearly and demonstrably better for the organization and its members. (True; Moderate; pp. 344-345) 73. Visionary leaders do not need the ability to explain the vision to others. (False; Easy; p. 344) 74. IQ and technical skills are sufficient requirements for leadership. (False; Moderate; p. 345) 270 72. 75. EI is especially relevant in jobs that demand a high degree of social interaction. (True; Challenging; p. 345) 76. EI is an essential element in leadership effectiveness. (True; Moderate; p. 349) Recent studies indicate that EI (emotional intelligence)—more than IQ, expertise, or any other single factor—is the best predictor of who will emerge as a leader. (True; Moderate; p. 345) 78. Leaders of teams will probably find they need to adopt an autocratic style. (False; Moderate; p. 346) 79. Team leaders are increasingly being described as coaches rather than bosses. (True; Moderate; p. 347) 80. A protégé is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee. (False; Easy; p. 347) 81. The mentoring role includes coaching, counseling, and sponsorship. (True; Moderate; p. 347) 82. Successful mentors are good teachers. (True; Easy; p. 347) 83. Minorities and women are less likely to be chosen as protégés than are white males. (True; Moderate; pp. 348-349) 84. Differences in the leadership styles of men and women tend to outweigh the similarities. (False; Moderate; p. 349) 85. Women typically prefer to lead through inclusion and rely on their charisma, expertise, contacts, and interpersonal skills to influence others. (True; Moderate; p. 349) 86. Neutralizers and substitutes make leadership assume greater importance. (False; Moderate; p. 354) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Trust: The Three Types of Trust As a seasoned manager, you have recognized the importance of trust when using empowerment and teams. You have observed the three different types of trust in your organization. 87. You have a new employee in the department. She trusts you even though there is little experience on which to base that trust. What type of trust relationship is described here? a. deterrence-based trust 271 77. b. knowledge-based trust c. identification-based trust d. consistency-based trust (a; Challenging; pp. 338-339) You have an employee that has worked with you regularly for ten years. You both have enough experience working with each other to know what to expect of each other. This is an example of: a. deterrence-based trust. b. knowledge-based trust. c. identification-based trust. d. consistency-based trust. (b; Challenging; p. 338-339) You have the highest level of trust for Joe. He often acts as your agent and can easily understand your intentions. He requires no monitoring and there is unquestioned loyalty. This is an example of: a. deterrence-based trust. b. knowledge-based trust. c. identification-based trust. d. consistency-based trust. (c; Challenging; pp. 338-339) Application of Transactional and Transformational Leaders The two leaders in your department are very different. John believes that he should guide and motivate by clarification of the roles and tasks of his subordinates. Alan feels that his role should be to provide individualized consideration and intellectual stimulation. Most of the workers believe that both leaders are well trained, but Alan has a special “spark” that employees feel when they work with him. 90. That special “spark” that people notice when they work with Alan may be termed: a. transactional. b. laissez-faire. c. charisma. d. structure. (c; Easy; pp. 343-344) 89. 88. 91. John is a _____ leader. a. transformational b. transactional c. charismatic d. team (b; Moderate; pp. 343-344) 92. Alan is a _____ leader. a. transactional b. Theory X c. transformational 272 d. laissez-faire (c; Moderate; pp. 343-344) Application of What is Trust? Suppose that you are the manager in charge of a work team. You realize that high performance teams are characterized by high mutual trust and it is your goal to make sure that your team has this high level of trust. You wish to use the recent research that has identified the five dimensions that underlie the concept of trust as your model. Answer the following questions about how you should proceed. 93. Which of the following has been found to be the most important dimension in developing trust? a. openness b. consistency c. integrity d. loyalty (c; Challenging; p. 336) 94. You find that members of the team are unpredictable and unreliable. With which dimension of trust does the team need help? a. integrity b. competence c. consistency d. loyalty (c; Challenging; p. 336) All of the following are ways you can build trust within the work team except: a. practice openness. b. speak your feelings. c. demonstrate your competence. d. keep all negative thoughts to yourself. (d; Moderate; p. 339) 95. SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 96. What is trust? (Page 336) Trust is a positive expectation that another will not – through words, actions, or decisions – act opportunistically. The two most important elements of the definition are that it implies familiarity and risk. 97. What is charismatic leadership? (Page 341) According to charismatic leadership theory, followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. Five characteristics have been identified: they have a vision, are willing to take risks to achieve that vision, are sensitive to both environmental constraints and follower needs, and exhibit behaviors that are out of the ordinary. 273 98. What is the difference between transactional leadership and transformational leadership? (Page 343) Transactional leaders guide or motivate their followers in the direction of established goals by clarifying role and task requirements. The transformational leader inspires followers to transcend their own self-interests for the good of the organization, and who is capable of having a profound and extraordinary effect on his or her followers. Transformational leadership is built on top of transactional leadership – it produces levels of follower effort and performance that go beyond what would occur with a transactional approach alone. 99. What is visionary leadership? (Page 344) Visionary leadership is the ability to create and articulate a realistic, credible, attractive vision of the future for an organization or organizational unit, that grows out of and improves upon the present. This vision, if properly selected and implemented, is so energizing that it “in effect jump-starts the future by calling forth the skills, talents, and resources to make it happen.” 100. What are the qualities of a vision? (Pages 344-345) The key properties of a vision seem to be inspirational possibilities that are value centered, realizable, with superior imagery and articulation. Visions should be able to create possibilities that are inspirational, unique, and offer a new order that can produce organizational distinction. A vision is likely to fail if it doesn’t offer a view of the future that is clearly and demonstrably better for the organization and its members. Desirable visions fit the times and circumstances and reflect the uniqueness of the organization. People in the organization must also believe that the vision is attainable. It should be perceived as challenging yet doable. Visions that have clear articulation and powerful imagery are more easily grasped and accepted. 101. What is EI (emotional intelligence)? (Page 345) EI is emotional intelligence. The five components of emotional intelligence are self-awareness selfmanagement, self-motivation, empathy, and social skills. Leaders need basic intelligence and jobrelevant knowledge, but these are only threshold capabilities. The possession of EI allows an individual to become a star performer. 102. What is a mentor? (Page 347) A mentor is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee (a protégé). The mentoring role includes coaching, counseling, and sponsorship. 103. What is online leadership? (Page 351) Today’s managers and their employees are increasingly being linked by networks rather than 274 geographical proximity. Examples include managers who regularly use e-mail to communicate with their staff, managers overseeing virtual projects or teams, and managers whose telecommuting employees are linked to the office by a computer and modem. Online leadership is the topic of how you lead people who are physically separated from you and where interactions are basically reduced to written digital communication. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 104. What are the key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust? (Page 336) The key dimensions that underlie the concept of trust are integrity, competence, consistency, loyalty, and openness. Integrity refers to honesty and truthfulness. Competence encompasses an individual’s technical and interpersonal knowledge and skills. Consistency relates to an individual’s reliability, predictability, and good judgment in handling situations. Loyalty is the willingness to protect and save face for another person. The final dimension of trust is openness. This asks if you can rely on the person to give you the full truth. 105. Discuss the three kinds of trust in organizational relationships. (Pages 338-339) There are three types of trust in organizational relationships: deterrence-based, knowledge-based, and identification-based. The most fragile relationships are contained in deterrence-based trust. One violation or inconsistency can destroy the relationship. This form of trust is based on fear of reprisal if the trust is violated. Most new relationships begin on a base of deterrence. Most organizational relationships are rooted in knowledge-based trust. That is, trust is based on the behavioral predictability that comes from a history of interaction. It exists when you have adequate information about someone to understand them well enough to be able to accurately predict their likely behavior. The highest level of trust is achieved when there is an emotional connection between the parties. It allows one party to act as an agent for the other and substitute for that person in interpersonal transactions. This is called identification-based trust. Trust exists because the parties understand each other’s intentions and appreciate the other’s wants and desires. 106. Why is framing relevant to leadership? (Page 340) What is real is often what the leader says is real. What’s important is what he or she chooses to say is important. Leaders can use language to influence followers’ perceptions of the world, the meaning of events, beliefs about causes and consequences, and visions of the future. It’s through framing that leaders determine whether people notice problems, how they understand and remember problems, and how they act upon them. Thus, framing is a powerful tool by which leaders influence how others see and interpret reality. 107. Are charismatic leaders born or made? (Pages 342) While a small minority still think charisma cannot be learned, most experts believe that individuals can be trained to exhibit charismatic behaviors and can thus enjoy the benefits that accrue to being labeled “a charismatic leader.” One set of authors proposes that a person can learn to become charismatic by following a three-step process. First, an individual needs to develop the aura of 275 charisma by maintaining an optimistic view; using passion as a catalyst for generating enthusiasm; and communicating with the whole body, not just with words. Second, an individual draws others in by creating a bond that inspires others to follow. And third, the individual brings out the potential in followers by tapping into their emotions. 108. Explain the importance of EI (emotional intelligence) and explain its five key components. (Pages 345-346) EI is emotional intelligence. The five components of emotional intelligence are self-awareness, selfmanagement, self-motivation, empathy, and social skills. Leaders need basic intelligence and jobrelevant knowledge, but these are only threshold capabilities. The possession of EI allows an individual to become a star performer. Self-awareness is exhibited by self-confident, realistic selfassessment, and a self-deprecating sense of humor. Self-management is exhibited by trustworthiness and integrity, comfort with ambiguity, and openness to change. Self-motivation is exhibited by a strong drive to achieve, optimism, and high organizational commitment. Empathy is exhibited by expertise in building and retaining talent, cross-cultural sensitivity, and service to clients and customers. Social skills are exhibited by the ability to lead change, persuasiveness, and expertise in building and leading teams. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 109. Discuss the difference between the role of team leader and the traditional leadership role performed by first-line supervisors. (Pages 346-347) There are four specific roles that team leaders must take on to be effective – over and above traditional leadership. The challenge for most managers is to learn how to become an effective team leader – learning patience to share information, to trust others to give up authority, and understand when to intervene. Team leaders are liaisons with external constituencies. These include upper management, other internal teams, customers, and suppliers. Second, team leaders are troubleshooters. When the team has problems and asks for assistance, team leaders sit in on meetings and help try to resolve the problems. Third, team leaders are conflict managers. When disagreements surface, they help process the conflict. Finally, team leaders are coaches. They clarify expectations and roles, teach, offer support, cheerlead, and whatever else is necessary to help team members improve their work performance. 110. Why would a leader want to be a mentor? (Page 348) There are personal benefits to the leader as well as benefits for the organization. The mentor-protégé relationship gives the mentor unfiltered access to the attitudes and feelings of lower-ranking employees. Proteges can be an excellent source of potential problems by providing early warning signals. They provide timely information to upper managers that short-circuits the formal channels. In addition, in terms of leader self-interest mentoring can provide personal satisfaction to senior executives. In the later stages of their careers, managers are often allowed the luxury of playing the part of elder statesperson. They are respected for their judgment, built up over many years and through varied experiences. The opportunity to share this knowledge with others can be personally 276 rewarding for the mentor. 111. What is self-leadership? How do leaders create self-leaders? (Page 349) Effective leaders help their followers lead themselves – that is, become self-leaders. They do this by developing leadership capacity in others and nurturing followers so they no longer need to depend on formal leaders for direction and motivation. Leaders can create self-leaders by the following: • Model self-leadership. They practice self-observation, setting challenging personal goals, selfdirection, and self-reinforcement. • Encourage employees to create self-set goals. They have quantitative, specific goals. • Encourage the use of self-rewards to strengthen and increase desirable behaviors. Selfpunishment should be limited to occasions when the employee has been dishonest or destructive. • Create positive thought patterns. They should encourage employees to use mental imagery and self-talk to further stimulate self-motivation. • Create a climate of self-leadership. They redesign the work to increase the natural rewards of a job and focus on these naturally rewarding features of work to increase motivation. • Encourage self-criticism. They should encourage individuals to be critical of their own performance. The assumptions behind self-leadership are that people are responsible, capable, and able to exercise initiative without the external constraints of bosses, rules, or regulations. Given the proper support, individuals can monitor and control their own behavior. 277 Chapter 13 Power and Politics MULTIPLE CHOICE A Definition of Power 1. Power is: a. ability to influence others. b. dependency upon others. c. equal to sexual harassment. d. being rewarded by others. (a; Easy; p. 366) 2. Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power? a. influence b. potential c. dependency d. discretion (d; Moderate; p. 366) 3. The most important aspect of power is that it: a. is needed to get things done in an organization. b. is a function of dependency. c. tends to corrupt people. d. is counterproductive. (b; Moderate; p. 366) 4. Which of the following is true concerning power? a. The most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependency. b. A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire. c. The threat of writing family members out of the will is an example of power. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 366) Contrasting Leadership and Power 5. Leaders achieve goals, and power is: a. an indicator of a good leader. b. usually used by poor leaders. c. a means of achieving the goals. d. counterproductive to goal achievement. (c; Easy; p. 366) 6. _____ does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. a. Leadership b. Communication c. Information d. Power 278 (d; Moderate; p. 366) 7. _____ requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. a. Leadership b. Communication c. Information d. Power (a; Easy; p. 366) 8. _____ focuses on the downward influence of one’s followers. a. Leadership b. Communication c. Information d. Power (a; Easy; p. 366) 9. _____ research emphasizes style; whereas research on _____ focuses on tactics for gaining compliance. a. Power; persuasion b. Communication; politics c. Leadership; power d. Politics; leadership (c; Challenging; p. 366) 10. _____ is based on an individual’s position in an organization. a. Leadership b. Formal power c. Informal power d. Influence (b; Easy; p. 367) 11. Formal power can come from: a. the ability to coerce or reward. b. formal authority. c. control of information. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 367) Bases of Power 12. Bases of power refer to: a. power characteristics. b. whether the power position has a good foundation. c. sources of power. d. the elements of power. (c; Moderate; p. 367) 13. One reacts to _____ power out of fear of the negative ramifications that might result if one fails to 279 comply. a. knowledge b. coercive c. influence d. persuasive (b; Moderate; p. 367) 14. When a bank robber points a gun at a bank employee, his base of power is: a. coercive. b. persuasive. c. position. d. knowledge. (a; Moderate; p. 367) The statement “That person can make things difficult for people, and you want to avoid getting him angry,” describes someone with what type of power? a. referent b. reward c. legitimate d. coercive (d; Moderate; p. 367) 16. A has ______ power over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming that B values his or her job. a. referent b. reward c. legitimate d. coercive (d; Moderate; p. 367) 17. The opposite of coercive power is _____ power. a. referent b. reward c. legitimate d. coercive (b; Moderate; p. 367) 18. Legitimate power is based on: a. rewards. b. fear. c. position. d. knowledge. (c; Moderate; p. 367) 15. 19. The control of discretionary funds involves the power base known as: a. positive reinforcement power. 280 b. persuasive power. c. reward power. d. coercive power. (c; Moderate; p. 367) 20. When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he/she is exercising: a. referent power. b. coercive power. c. reward power. d. expert power. (c; Moderate; p. 367) 21. ____ power and ____ power are actually counterparts of each other. a. Referent; reward b. Expert; reward c. Reward; coercive d. Coercive; expert (c; Moderate; p. 367) 22. The power a person receives as a result of position on the organizational chart is known as: a. coercive power. b. reward power. c. legitimate power. d. expert power. (c; Moderate; p. 367) The power that the College Dean has been granted by the University over the faculty is termed: a. coercive power. b. reward power. c. legitimate power. d. expert power. (c; Moderate; p. 367) 24. _____ power is broader than the power to coerce and reward. a. Coercive power b. Reward power c. Legitimate power d. Expert power (c; Moderate; p. 367) 25. _____ power comes from access to and control over information. a. Coercive power b. Reward power c. Information power d. Expert power (c; Moderate; p. 367) 26. When people in organizations have data or knowledge that others need which makes those others 281 23. dependent upon them, they have _____ power. a. coercive b. reward c. information d. expert power (c; Moderate; p. 367) 27. ______ power comes from an individual’s unique characteristics. a. Personal b. Reward c. Legitimate d. Expert (a; Moderate; p. 368) 28. Expert power refers to influence that derives from: a. politics. b. special skills or knowledge. c. educational institutions. d. position. (b; Easy; p. 368) 29. Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her _____ power. a. coercive b. legitimate c. reward d. expert (d; Moderate; p. 368) 30. _____ power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. a. Coercive b. Legitimate c. Referent d. Expert (c; Moderate; p. 369) Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers believe the celebrities have _____ power. a. coercive b. referent c. expert d. reward (b; Moderate; p. 369) 31. 32. _____ power is an extension of referent power stemming from an individual’s personality and interpersonal style. a. Charismatic b. Referent 282 c. Expert d. Reward (a; Moderate; p. 369) Dependency: The Key to Power 33. Dependency is inversely proportional to: a. power. b. the alternative sources of supply. c. knowledge. d. financial resources. (b; Challenging; p. 369) 34. Avoidance of _____ is why most organizations develop multiple suppliers rather than give their business to only one. a. knowledge b. dependency c. power d. independence (b; Challenging; p. 369) 35. Which of the following is not a variable that creates dependency? a. importance b. scarcity c. nonsubstitutability d. All of the above are variables that create dependency. (d; Moderate; p. 369) 36. The _____ relationship can be seen in the power of occupational categories. In occupations where supply is low relative to demand, compensation is more attractive. a. substitutability b. scarcity-dependency c. referent power d. importance-dependency (b; Challenging; p. 370) 37. Dependency is decreased when the resource you control is: a. important. b. scarce. c. highly substitutable. d. perceived as nonsubstitutable. (c; Challenging; p. 370) Power Tactics 38. Power tactics define: a. the sources of power. b. how to translate power bases into specific actions. 283 c. what powerholders desire. d. organizational structural characteristics. (b; Moderate; p. 370) 39. Which of the following is not a tactical dimension? a. reason b. legitimate position c. higher authority d. bargaining (b; Easy; p. 371) 40. Power tactics explain: a. the personality of the leader. b. the things that motivate people to seek power. c. how to organize power functions. d. how to translate power bases into specific actions. (d; Moderate; pp. 370-371) 41. Vivian has not been handling one portion of her duties in a satisfactory manner. As a result, her manager threatens to withhold her promotion. Which power tactic is being used? a. higher authority b. assertiveness c. sanctions d. reason (c; Moderate; p. 371) 42. The most popular power tactic used by managers to influence subordinates is: a. friendliness. b. reason. c. higher authority. d. sanctions. (b; Moderate; p. 371) 43. Which is not a contingency variable that affects the selection of a power tactic? a. the organization’s formal policies and procedures b. the manager’s relative power c. the manager’s objectives for wanting to influence d. the organization’s culture (a; Challenging; p. 371) Sanctions are most synonymous with: a. group support. b. rationality. c. authority. d. penalties. (d; Easy; p. 371) 44. 284 45. The power tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is: a. friendliness. b. reason. c. coalition. d. bargaining. (a; Easy; p. 371) 46. James approaches his supervisor with data and a logical presentation supporting his request for additional personnel. He is using: a. friendliness. b. bargaining. c. reason. d. assertiveness. (c; Moderate; p. 371) 47. Joe comes to you with a request for funds for a project. He reminds you that company policy supports his position. He is using the tactic of: a. reason. b. coalition. c. bargaining. d. assertiveness. (d; Challenging; p. 371) 48. Which of the following is not a tactic for gaining power? a. reason b. friendliness c. bargaining d. rudeness (d; Moderate; p. 371) 49. All other things equal, managers with greater power use which power tactic more frequently than managers with less power? a. friendliness b. bargaining c. assertiveness d. higher authority (c; Challenging; p. 371) 50. _____ is a backup strategy, used when the target of influence refuses or appears reluctant to comply with the request. a. Friendliness b. Bargaining c. Assertiveness d. Higher authority (c; Challenging; p. 371) 285 51. When managers seek benefits from a superior, they tend to use: a. friendliness. b. assertiveness. c. coercion. d. persuasion. (a; Easy; p. 371) 52. When managers attempt to persuade their superiors to accept new ideas, they tend to use: a. assertiveness. b. reason. c. friendliness. d. knowledge. (b; Easy; p. 371) 53. When past experience indicates a high probability of success, managers use _____ to gain compliance. a. simple requests b. assertiveness c. bargaining d. friendliness (a; Moderate; p. 372) People in different countries tend to prefer different power tactics. Americans perceive _____ to be the most effective. a. simple requests b. reason c. bargaining d. friendliness (b; Challenging; p. 372) Power in Groups: Coalitions 55. If individual efforts at gaining power fail, the next response is likely to be: a. an intimidation ritual. b. a coalition. c. efforts to increase uncertainty. d. seeking a managerial position. (b; Moderate; p. 372) 54. Coalitions are most synonymous with: a. individual influence. b. collaboration. c. goal attainment. d. sanctions. (b; Moderate; p. 372) 56. 57. Which one of the following is true about coalition formation? 286 a. Coalitions seek to minimize their size. b. Coalitions usually precede uses of individual power. c. Coalitions are more likely to form where tasks are non-routine. d. Coalitions are more likely to be created where there is interdependence. (d; Challenging; p. 373) Sexual Harassment: Unequal Power in the Workplace 58. Unwelcome advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature that affect an individual’s employment is: a. illegal. b. sexual harassment. c. abuse of power. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 373) 59. Most studies confirm that the concept of _____ is central to understanding sexual harassment. a. power b. sex c. politics d. locus of control (a; Moderate; p. 374) 60. An individual could be subjected to sexual harassment perpetrated by: a. a coworker. b. a supervisor. c. a subordinate. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 374) Politics: Power in Action 61. Activities that influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization are: a. human resources. b. political behavior. c. tactical planning activities. d. strategic planning activities. (b; Challenging; p. 375) 62. Political behavior is: a. outside of one’s specified job requirements. b. part of each job requirement. c. seen only in large organizations. d. counterproductive to individual goals. (a; Moderate; p. 375) 63. _____ is a form of illegitimate political behavior. a. Bypassing chain of command 287 b. Forming coalitions c. Sabotage d. Obstructing organizational policies through excessive adherence to rules (c; Easy; p. 375) 64. Most political activities in organizations would be described as: a. functional. b. legitimate. c. illegitimate. d. “playing hardball.” (b; Moderate; p. 375) 65. _____ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests. a. Demonstrating disloyalty b. Politicking c. Encouraging change and innovation d. Developing dysfunctional working relationships (b; Moderate; p. 376) 66. ______ is the term used to refer to establishing effective relationships with key people inside and/or outside the organization. a. Networking b. In-group c. Politicking d. Interest groups (a; Moderate; p. 377) 67. An individual most likely to engage in political behavior would have all of the following except: a. a high need for power. b. a high ability to self monitor. c. a low need for security. d. an internal locus of control. (c; Moderate; p. 377) 68. Which of the following does not describe a high self-monitor? a. more sensitive to social cues b. less skilled in political behavior than low self-monitors c. exhibits higher levels of social conformity d. All of the above describe a high self-monitor. (b; Moderate; p. 377) 69. Which of the following is not an individual factor related to political behavior? a. personality traits b. perceived alternatives 288 c. declining organizational resources d. expectations of success (c; Moderate; Exh. 13-4; p. 378) 70. The more an organization _____, the greater the likelihood that an employee can get away with politicking. a. uses subjective criteria in appraisal b. appraises an individual immediately following performance c. mistreats employees d. emphasizes an overall performance measure (a; Challenging; p. 379) 71. Which of the following is not true? a. The more an organization’s culture emphasizes the zero-sum allocations, the more employees will be motivated to engage in politicking. b. The more pressure that employees feel to perform well, the more likely they are to engage in politicking. c. When employees see their superiors engaging in political behavior, especially when they do so successfully and are rewarded for it, a climate is created that rejects politicking. d. The greater the role ambiguity, the more one can engage in political activity with little chance of it being visible. (c; Challenging; p. 379) 72. Reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change are termed: a. political behaviors. b. defensive behaviors. c. coalitions. d. impression management. (b; Moderate; p. 381) 73. Which of the following defensive behaviors is a way of avoiding action? a. passing the buck b. buffing c. justifying d. scapegoating (a; Challenging; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) Which of the following is not considered an example of a defensive behavior intended to avoid action? a. justifying b. playing dumb c. depersonalization d. overconforming (a; Moderate; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) 74. 75. When physicians refer to patients by their room number or disease, the physicians are using which of the following defensive behaviors? a. buffing 289 b. depersonalization c. misrepresenting d. stalling (b; Moderate; p. 382) 76. Individuals who rigorously document activity to project an image of competence and thoroughness are using which of the following defensive behaviors? a. buffing b. justifying c. playing safe d. escalation of commitment (a; Moderate; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) 77. The process by which individuals attempt to control the impressions others form of them is: a. impression management. b. misdirection. c. defensive behavior. d. perception management. (a; Easy; p. 381) 78. Which of the following is not an example of an impression management technique? a. acclaiming b. mirroring c. flattery d. favors (b; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 383) 79. “I’ve got two tickets to the game tonight that I can’t use. Take them. Consider it a thank you for taking the time to talk with me.” This is an example of which impression management behavior? a. favor b. flattery c. accounts d. conformity (a; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 383) 80. When a person explains favorable events in order to maximize the desirable implications for himself, he is using the impression management technique of: a. conformity. b. accounts. c. acclaiming. d. favors. (c; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 383) 81. Each of the following is a question your text suggests to analyze ethical questions except: a. Is the action consistent with the organization’s goals? b. Is the action legal? c. Does the action violate rights of other parties? 290 d. Does the action conform to standards of equity and justice? (b; Challenging; Exh. 13-8; p. 385) TRUE/FALSE A Definition of Power 82. Power needs to be used for its existence to be validated. (False; Moderate; p. 366) 83. Power is a function of dependency. (True; Easy; p. 366) 84. A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire. (True; Moderate; p. 366) Contrasting Leadership and Power Power, unlike leadership, does not require a significant degree of goal compatibility, merely dependence. (True; Moderate; p. 366) 86. Power, unlike leadership, focuses on downward influence patterns. (False; Challenging; p. 366) Bases of Power 87. The robber’s power is coercive power and is based on fear. (True; Moderate; p. 367) If A can assign B work activities that B finds unpleasant, or treat B in a manner that B finds embarrassing, A possesses expert power over B. (False; Easy; p. 367) 89. Reward power rests on the allocation of things others view as valuable. (True; Moderate; p. 367) 90. For reward power to be effective, the rewards must be financial. (False; Easy; p. 367) 91. Legitimate power represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources. (True; Easy; p. 367) 92. The managerial position gives its incumbent legitimate power. (True; Easy; p. 367) 93. Information power is a source of formal power. (True; Moderate; p. 367) 88. 85. 291 94. You must have a formal position in an organization to have power. (False; Easy; p. 368) 95. Personal power comes from an individual’s unique characteristics. (True; Moderate; p. 368) 96. The expert power of an individual is weakened when another individual with the same job-related knowledge and skills is hired by the organization. (True; Moderate; p. 368) 97. Expertise has become one of the most powerful sources of influence as the world has become more technologically oriented. (True; Moderate; p. 368) 98. A famous NFL quarterback’s power to influence your buying behavior through commercial endorsements is based on his expertise at leading a football team and his ability to throw a football. (False; Challenging; p. 369) 99. Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. (True; Easy; p. 369) 100. If I like, respect, and admire you, you have referent power over me. (True; Easy; p. 369) 101. Charismatic power is an extension of referent power. (True; Moderate; p. 369) 102. Many organizations will have people with charismatic qualities, who, while not in formal leadership positions, nevertheless, are able to exert influence over others because of the strength of their heroic qualities. (True; Moderate; p. 369) Dependency: The Key to Power 103. An understanding of dependency is central to understanding power. (True; Easy; p. 369) 104. The greater B’s dependence on A, the greater is B’s power in the relationship. (False; Moderate; p. 369) 105. If you can make people dependent upon you, your power is increased. (True; Moderate; p. 369) 106. Dependency explains why organizations use single suppliers. (False; Moderate; p. 370) 107. To create dependency, the thing you control must be perceived as being important. (True; Moderate; pp. 369-370) 108. Labor negotiators become less powerful within the personnel area and the organization as a whole 292 during periods of labor strife. (False; Challenging; p. 370) 109. Power is increased by possession of something that is plentiful and easily available. (False; Easy; p. 370) 110. The scarcity-dependency relationship can be observed in supply/demand relationships between various occupational categories. (True; Challenging; p. 370) 111. Dependency is inversely proportional to the supply of alternatives. (True; Moderate; p. 370) 112. The more a resource has no viable substitutes, the more power control over that resource provides. (True; Moderate; p. 370) In universities where there are strong pressures for the faculty to publish, it can be said that a department head’s power over a faculty member is inversely related to the member’s publication record. (True; Moderate; p. 370) Power Tactics 114. Ways in which individuals translate power bases into specific actions are termed coalitions. (False; Moderate; p. 370) 115. Reason is the power tactic that uses flattery. (False; Moderate; p. 371) 116. Regardless of the direction of influence, the most popular power tactic is the use of reason. (True; Moderate; pp. 371-372) 117. Sanctions, as a power tactic, are inappropriate when individuals attempt to influence their superiors. (True; Moderate; p. 371) 118. Managers who control resources that are valued by others, or who are perceived to be in positions of dominance, use a greater variety of tactics than do those with less power. (True; Moderate; p. 372) 119. Managers with power use assertiveness with less frequency than those with less power. (False; Easy; p. 372) 120. Managers vary their power tactics in relation to their objectives. (True; Moderate; p. 372) 121. The organizational culture in which a manager works will not have a significant bearing on defining which tactics are considered appropriate. (False; Moderate; p. 372) 113. 293 122. People in different countries tend to prefer different power tactics. (True; Easy; p. 372) Power in Groups: Coalitions 123. When two or more individuals together seek to increase their power as a group, the alternative is to form a subculture. (False; Moderate; p. 372) 124. Successful coalitions have been found to contain fluid membership. (True; Moderate; p. 372) 125. Coalitions in organizations should be expanded to include as many interests as possible. (True; Moderate; p. 373) 126. Coalitions in organizations often seek to minimize their size. (False; Moderate; p. 373) 127. The more routine the task of a group, the greater the likelihood that coalitions will form. (True; Moderate; p. 373) Sexual Harassment: Unequal Power in the Workplace 128. Unwelcome advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature is termed sexual harassment. (True; Easy; p. 373) 129. If no mention is made of a sexual act, sexual harassment has not occurred. (False; Moderate; p. 373) 130. The problems today are likely to surface around more subtle forms of sexual harassment. (True; Easy; p. 373) 131. Sexual harassment is frequently concerned with power abuse. (True; Moderate; p. 374) 132. It is not possible for a subordinate to sexually harass his/her supervisor. (False; Moderate; p. 374) Politics: Power in Action 133. When employees in organizations convert their power into action, we describe them as being engaged in politics. (True; Moderate; p. 374) 134. Power is defined as the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization. (False; Moderate; p. 375) 135. Political behavior is outside one’s specified job requirements. 294 (True; Moderate; p. 375) 136. Legitimate political behavior refers to actions that are specified in one’s formal job description. (False; Moderate; p. 375) 137. By definition, all political behavior is considered an illegitimate activity. (False; Moderate; p. 375) 138. The vast majority of all organizational political actions are of the legitimate variety. (True; Moderate; p. 375) 139. Politics is a fact of life in organizations. (True; Easy; p. 375) 140. Political behavior is one way to react to limited resources. (True; Moderate; p. 375) 141. Politicking is most likely to be used when decisions are made in a climate of ambiguity. (True; Moderate; p. 376) 142. Networking refers to establishing effective relationships with key people inside and/or outside the organization. (True; Moderate; p. 377) 143. For people who want to get ahead or build their political power within an organization, they should spend time and effort in developing a network of contacts. (True; Challenging; p. 377) Political behavior can be stimulated by individual personalities and characteristics in the organization’s internal environment. (True; Moderate; p. 377) 145. Employees with an external locus of control are more likely to engage in political behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 377) 146. The existence of alternative job opportunities and illegitimate political actions would tend to be positively correlated. (True; Challenging; p. 378) 147. Political activity is probably more a function of the organization’s characteristics than of individual differences. (True; Moderate; p. 378) 148. Objective performance appraisal criteria tends to encourage politicking. (False; Moderate; p. 379) 149. Cultures emphasizing the zero-sum approach to reward allocations will create breeding grounds for politicking. (True; Moderate; p. 379) 295 144. 150. In the last twenty-five years, there has been a general move in North America toward making organizations less democratic. (False; Easy; p. 379) 151. Most managers are very comfortable with the move toward less autocracy in organizations in North America. (False; Moderate; p. 379) 152. Politicking by top management, in a sense, gives permission to those lower in the organization to play politics by implying that such behavior is acceptable. (True; Moderate; p. 380) 153. When people perceive politics as a threat rather than an opportunity, they often respond with defensive behaviors. (True; Moderate; p. 381) 154. The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. (True; Easy; p. 381) 155. Another way to describe impression management might be “personal/individual public relations.” (True; Challenging; p. 381) In impression management, individuals use association and conformity to manipulate information about themselves. (True; Easy; p. 382) High self-monitors are good at reading situations and molding their appearances and behavior to fit each situation. (True; Moderate; p. 382) 158. The evidence seems to demonstrate that impression management techniques work. (True; Easy; p. 384) Applicants using submissive styles during interviews were offered more positions than those using controlling styles. (False; Moderate; p. 384) Reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change are termed impression management. (False; Moderate; p. 384) 161. Rigid adherence to rules exemplifies the “over-conforming” defensive behavior. (True; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 382) 162. Defensive behavior when you “cover your rear” is termed “playing safe.” (False; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 382) 160. 159. 157. 156. 296 163. “Misrepresenting” as a defensive behavior has been used when the employee blames his/her computer for not having a project submitted on time. (False; Moderate; Exh. 13-7; p. 382) 164. There are clear-cut ways to differentiate ethical from unethical politicking. (False; Moderate; p. 384) 165. Ethical decisions may include concern about the privacy rights of others. (True; Moderate; p. 385) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Bases of power Your colleagues at work are constantly talking about the vice president in your area. He is feared throughout the organization as a ruthless man who is not to be antagonized. It is necessary for you to bring him a report and you are very nervous about having to deal with him. 166. The vice president’s major base of power seems to be: a. reward. b. coercive. c. referent. d. expert. (b; Moderate; pp. 367-369) 167. You know that the vice president has the authority to accept or reject your report. This is part of his _____ power. a. reward b. coercive c. expert d. legitimate (d; Moderate; pp. 367-369) The one base of power which the vice president does not seem to have is: a. reward. b. referent. c. expert. d. legitimate. (b; Moderate; pp. 367-369) 168. Application of Sexual Harassment: Unequal Power in the Workplace Marie’s supervisor embarrasses her by constantly telling sexual jokes and by making sexual comments. Marie was shocked when she observed that he had sexually explicit material on his computer screen during working hours. Although he has never directly asked her to sleep with him, she feels threatened and is so uncomfortable that it is difficult for her to do her job. 169. Marie’s supervisor is guilty of: 297 a. sexual harassment. b. abusing his power. c. creating a hostile work environment. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 373-374) 170. Studies show that this situation is probably more about _____ than about sex. a. power b. coercion c. politics d. impressing you (a; Moderate; pp. 373-374) 171. One basic problem in this situation is: a. Marie’s clothes are probably too suggestive. b. there is an unequal power relationship between Marie and her supervisor. c. Marie’s perception is probably very different form her supervisor’s. d. this is not clearly sexual harassment since he has not requested that she give him sexual favors. (b; Moderate; pp. 373-374) Application of Politics: Power in Action Catherine and Bernice are faculty members at a local college who feel very differently about their academic dean. Catherine believes that he is always engaging in political activity that is not in the best interests of the college. She describes him as a man who passes the buck, is scheming and arrogant. Bernice believes that he is an effective manager. She sees him differently. 172. Bernice’s label for what Catherine describes as “passing the buck” might be: a. delegating authority. b. fixing responsibility. c. encouraging change and innovation. d. practical minded. (a; Challenging; pp. 375-376) 173. Bernice’s effective management label for Catherine’s phrase “scheming” is probably: a. astute. b. planning ahead. c. competent. d. career minded. (b; Challenging; pp. 375-376) 174. What Catherine views as “arrogant” is probably described by Bernice as: a. astute. b. fixing responsibility. c. confident. 298 d. competent and capable. (c; Challenging; pp. 375-376) Application of Impression Management Jerod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his coworkers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor’s opinion most of the time and is always doing nice things for him. Jerod makes sure that he associates with the “right” people and is constantly complimenting others about their good work. 175. Jerod is attempting to use: a. politics. b. impression management. c. defensive behavior. d. his power base. (b; Moderate; pp. 381-384) 176. Jerod is engaging in which of the following impression management techniques? a. excuses b. acclaiming c. apologies d. conformity (d; Challenging; pp. 381-384) Jerod is engaging in all of the following impression management techniques except: a. conformity. b. flattery. c. excuses. d. association. (c; Moderate; pp. 381-384) Application of Defensive Behaviors 177. Thomas recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. He is not good at playing games and instead frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and protect his interests. Thomas has had some success by passing the buck and stalling. The defensive behavior that he is engaged in is termed: a. avoiding action. b. avoiding blame. c. avoiding change. d. waffling. (a; Challenging; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) 179. Thomas has decided to play it safe and engage in buffing if he has to. These defensive behaviors are part of: a. avoiding change. b. avoiding action. c. avoiding blame. d. avoiding risk. 299 178. (c; Moderate; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) 180. Thomas has decided that avoiding blame is his best defense. Which of the following behaviors are included in defensive behaviors termed “avoiding blame?” a. overconforming b. playing dumb c. scapegoating d. protecting turf (c; Moderate; Exh. 13-6; p. 382) Application of Dependency: The Key to Power Gerald knows that an understanding of dependency is central to understanding power in his organization. 181. The general dependency postulate: a. suggests that dependency is inversely proportional to the alternative sources of power. b. proposes that the greater B’s dependency on A, the greater the power A has over B. c. explains why his organization develops multiple suppliers rather than give their business to only one. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 369-370) 182. Dependency is increased when the resources you control meet all of the following conditions except: a. important. b. scarce. c. novel. d. nonsubstitutable. (c; Moderate; pp. 369-370) 183. When the supply of personnel is low relative to demand, individuals can negotiate compensation and benefit packages which are far more attractive than can those in occupations where there is an abundance of candidates. This is an example of: a. the scarcity-dependency relationship. b. importance. c. the scarcity-substitutes relationship. d. alternatives. (a; Challenging; pp. 369-370) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 184. How is power defined? (Page 366) Power is a capacity that A has to influence the behavior of B, so that B acts in accordance with A’s wishes. This implies a potential that need not be actualized to be effective and a dependency relationship. Power may exist but not be used. It is, therefore, a capacity or potential. One can have power but not impose it. A person can have power over you only if he/she has something you desire. 300 185. Contrast leadership and power. (Page 367) Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. A second difference relates to the direction of influence. Leadership focuses on the downward influence on one’s followers. It minimizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns. Power does not. Still another difference deals with research emphasis. Leadership research, for the most part, emphasizes style. It seeks answers to such questions as: How supportive should a leader be? How much decision making should be shared with followers? In contrast, the research on power has tended to encompass a broader area and focus on tactics for gaining compliance. It has gone beyond the individual as exerciser because power can be used by groups as well as by individuals to control other individuals or groups. 186. What is the general dependency postulate? (Page 366) The general dependency postulate states that the greater B’s dependency on A, the greater the power A has over B. When you possess anything that others require but that you alone control, you make them dependent upon you and, therefore, you gain power over them. Dependency, then, is inversely proportional to the alternative sources of supply. If something is plentiful, possession of it will not increase your power. 187. Define power tactics. (Pages 370-371) Employees translate their power bases into specific actions with power tactics. There are seven tactical dimensions: reason, friendliness, coalition, bargaining, assertiveness, higher authority, and sanctions. 188. Why do coalitions form? (Page 373) Those “out of power” and seeking to be “in” will first try to increase their power individually. But if this proves ineffective, the alternative is to form a coalition – an informal group bound together by the active pursuit of a single issue. The logic is that there is strength in numbers. 189. What is political behavior? (Page 375) Political behavior in organizations is defined as those activities that are not required as part of one’s formal role in the organization, but that influence, or attempt to influence, the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization. Political behavior is outside one’s specified job requirements. 190. Distinguish between legitimate political behavior and illegitimate political behavior. (Page 375) Legitimate political behavior refers to normal everyday politics – complaining to your supervisor, bypassing the chain of command, forming coalitions, obstructing organizational policies or decisions 301 through inaction or excessive adherence to rules, and developing contacts outside the organization through one’s professional activities. On the other hand, there are also illegitimate political behaviors that violate the implied rules of the game. Those who pursue such extreme activities are often described as individuals who “play hardball.” Illegitimate activities include sabotage, whistleblowing, and symbolic protests such as wearing unorthodox dress or protest buttons, and groups of employees simultaneously calling in sick. 191. What are defensive behaviors? (Page 381) Defensive behaviors occur when people perceive politics as a threat rather than an opportunity. They respond with reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change. Defensive behaviors are often associated with negative feelings toward the job and work environment. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness protects their self-interest. But in the long run, it is the only way they know how to behave. At that point, they lose the trust and support of their peers, bosses, employees, and clients. 192. Explain impression management and give an example of its use in the workplace. (Pages 381-382) The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. IM techniques are especially widespread in the employment interview. People create an impression to be seen as more attractive than other candidates. This can help them initially get the jobs they want in an organization and, once hired, to get favorable evaluations, superior salary increases and more rapid promotions. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 193. List and discuss the bases of formal power. (Pages 367-369) Formal power can come from the ability to coerce or reward, from formal authority, or from control of information. The coercive power base is dependent on fear. One reacts to this power out of fear of the negative results that might occur if one failed to comply. A has coercive power over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming that B values his or her job. The opposite of coercive power is reward power. People comply with the wishes or directives of another because doing so produces positive benefits. Therefore, one who can distribute rewards that others view as valuable will have power over those others. These rewards can be either financial or nonfinancial. One’s structural position is called legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources. Information power comes from access to and control over information. People in an organization who have data or knowledge that others need can make those others dependent upon them. 194. List and discuss the bases of personal power. (Pages 368-369) 302 Personal power comes from an individual’s unique characteristics. Three bases of personal power are expertise, the respect and admiration of others, and charisma. Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. Expertise has become one of the most powerful sources of influence as the world has become more technologically oriented. Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. If I like, respect, and admire you, you can exercise power over me because I want to please you. Charismatic power is really an extension of referent power stemming from an individual’s personality and interpersonal style. Charismatic leaders get others to follow them because they can articulate attractive visions, take personal risks, demonstrate environmental and follower sensitivity, and are willing to engage in behavior that most others consider unconventional. 195. Describe three things that create resource dependency. (Pages 369-370) Dependency is increased when the resource you control is important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable. If nobody wants what you’ve got, it’s not going to create dependency. To create dependency, therefore, the thing you control must be perceived as being important. If something is plentiful, possession of it will not increase your power. A resource needs to be perceived as scarce to create dependency. The more that a resource has no viable substitutes, the more power that control over that resource provides. 196. What is sexual harassment? What is the role of power? (Pages 373-374) Sexual harassment is defined as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual’s employment. The supervisor-employee dyad best characterizes an unequal power relationship, where formal power gives the supervisor the capacity to reward or coerce. Because of power inequities, sexual harassment by one’s boss typically creates the greatest difficulty for those who are being harassed. Although co-workers don’t have legitimate power, they can have influence and use it to sexually harass peers. Most often co-workers harass by providing or withholding information, cooperation, and support. The topic of sexual harassment is about power. It’s about an individual controlling or threatening another individual. 197. What are some of the individual factors that are related to political behavior? (Pages 377-378) At the individual level, researchers have identified certain personality traits, needs, and other factors that are likely to be related to political behavior. Employees who are high self-monitors, possess an internal locus of control, and have a high need for power are more likely to engage in political behavior. An individual’s investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and expectations of success will influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of political action. 198. What organizational factors are related to political behavior? (Pages 378-379) Political activity is probably more a function of the organization’s characteristics than of individual difference variables. When an organization’s resources are declining, when the existing pattern of resources is changing, and when there is opportunity for promotions, politics is more likely to 303 surface. In addition, cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance evaluation systems, zero-sum reward allocation practices, democratic decision making, high pressures for performance, and self-serving senior managers will create breeding grounds for politicking. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 199. What power tactics can employees use to translate their power bases into specific actions? (Pages 371) Employees translate their power bases into specific actions with power tactics. There are seven tactical dimensions. Reason is the use of facts and data to make a logical or rational presentation of ideas. Friendliness is use of flattery, creation of goodwill, acting humble, and being friendly prior to making a request. Coalition is getting the support of other people in the organization to back up the request. Bargaining is the use of negotiation through the exchange of benefits or favors. Assertiveness is the use of a direct and forceful approach such as demanding compliance with requests, repeating reminders, ordering individuals to do what is asked, and pointing out that rules require compliance. Higher authority is gaining the support of higher levels in the organization to back up requests. Sanctions are the use of organizationally derived rewards and punishments such as preventing or promising a salary increase, threatening to give an unsatisfactory performance evaluation, or withholding a promotion. 200. Discuss the effectiveness of IM techniques as related to interview success. (Page 384) The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. The evidence indicates IM behavior works. In one study, interviewers felt that those applicants for a position as a customer service representative who used IM techniques performed better in the interview, and they seemed somewhat more inclined to hire these people. It was the IM techniques alone that influenced the interviewers. It didn’t seem to matter if applicants were well or poorly qualified. If they used IM techniques, they did better in the interview. Those applicants who used the controlling style were rated higher by interviewers on factors such as motivation, enthusiasm, and even technical skills – and they received more job offers. Another study confirmed the value of a controlling style over a submissive one. Specifically, recent college graduates that used more self-promotion tactics got higher evaluations by interviewers and more follow-up job site visits, even after adjusting for grade point average, gender, and job type. 304 Chapter 14 Conflict and Negotiation MULTIPLE CHOICE A Definition of Conflict 1. If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that: a. employee-employer relations will be good. b. conflict is subversive. c. no conflict exists. d. conflict is inevitable. (c; Moderate; p. 395) Which of the following is not a requirement in your text’s definition of conflict? a. must be perceived b. overt acts only c. incompatibility d. opposition (b; Easy; p. 395) 2. 3. _____ is a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. a. Politics b. Consideration c. Power d. Conflict (d; Moderate; p. 395) Transitions in Conflict Thought Which of the following is not one of the views of conflict? a. the traditional view b. the human relations view c. the interactionist view d. the inevitability view (d; Easy; p. 396) 4. 5. The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict: a. cannot be avoided. b. indicates a malfunctioning within the group. c. is good for a group. d. improves productivity. (b; Moderate; p. 396) 306 6. The traditional view of conflict is: a. the belief that all conflict is harmful and must be avoided. b. the belief that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group. c. the belief that conflict is not only a positive force in a group but that it is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. d. no generalization about conflict is appropriate. (a; Moderate; p. 396) Which one of the following is not part of the traditional view of conflict? a. inevitable b. must be avoided c. indicates malfunctioning d. harmful (a; Moderate; p. 396) 7. 8. Which one of the following views on conflict dominates in most actual groups and organizations? a. human relations b. interactionist c. traditional d. functional (c; Challenging; p. 396) 9. The _____ view of conflict argues that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group. a. human relations b. interactionist c. traditional d. functional (a; Challenging; p. 396) The _____ view of conflict argues that some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. a. human relations b. interactionist c. traditional d. functional (b; Challenging; p. 396) 11. The ______ view of conflict argues that conflict indicates a malfunctioning within the group. a. human relations b. interactionist c. traditional d. functional (c; Challenging; p. 396) 10. 12. The human relations view of conflict argues that conflict is: 307 a. an inevitable outcome in any group. b. always a positive force in determining group performance. c. always a negative force in determining group performance. d. necessary for effective group performance. (a; Moderate; p. 396) 13. The human relations view of conflict advocates: a. encouraging conflict. b. open communication for resolving conflict. c. group therapy for resolving conflict. d. acceptance of conflict. (d; Easy; p. 396) 14. The interactionist view of conflict proposes that conflict is: a. an indication of the group maturity level. b. necessary for effective group performance. c. a necessary evil. d. always evident in groups. (b; Moderate; p. 396) 15. According to the interactionist’s perspective, a group that functions without conflict is: a. the ideal situation but is rarely achieved. b. prone to becoming static and apathetic. c. likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation. d. the most productive. (b; Moderate; p. 396) 16. Encouraging group leaders to maintain an ongoing minimum level of conflict is part of the _____ view of conflict. a. functional b. traditional c. human relations d. interactionist (d; Easy; p. 396) Functional vs. Dysfunctional Conflict _____ conflict supports the goals of the group and improves its performance. a. Formal b. Informal c. Functional d. Dysfunctional (c; Moderate; p. 397) 17. 18. _____ conflict hinders group performance. a. Formal 308 b. Informal c. Functional d. Dysfunctional (d; Moderate; p. 397) 19. Conflict is functional if it: a. supports the goals of the group. b. is satisfying to the individual members of the group. c. causes group members to argue. d. causes turnover. (a; Moderate; p. 397) 20. Conflict that relates to the content and goals of the work is termed _____ conflict. a. explicit b. task c. relationship d. process (b; Moderate; p. 397) Which is not one of the three types of conflict? a. task b. job c. relationship d. process (b; Easy; p. 397) 21. 22. _____ conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships. a. Task b. Job c. Relationship d. Process (c; Easy; p. 397) 23. _____ conflict relates to how the work gets done. a. Task b. Job c. Relationship d. Process (d; Moderate; p. 397) 24. _____ conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. a. Task b. Job c. Relationship d. Process (c; Challenging; p. 397) 25. The most important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional or dysfunctional is: a. overall morale. b. turnover rates. 309 c. absenteeism levels. d. group performance. (d; Moderate; p. 397) The Conflict Process 26. The first stage of the conflict process is called: a. cognition and personalization. b. behavior. c. potential opposition or incompatibility. d. outcomes. (c; Easy; p. 398) 27. Which of the following is a stage in the conflict process? a. functional conflict b. dysfunctional conflict c. hindering conflict d. incompatibility (d; Moderate; Exh 14-1; p. 398) 28. Which of the following is not a stage in the conflict process? a. potential opposition b. cognition c. vision d. intentions (c; Easy; Exh. 14-1; p. 398) 29. The presence of conditions that create opportunities for conflict to arise is the _____ stage of the conflict process. a. potential opposition b. cognition c. vision d. intentions (a; Moderate; p. 398) 30. Stage II of the conflict process deals with: a. cognition and personalization of conflict. b. group development. c. conflict avoidance. d. interaction between group members. (a; Easy; Exh 14-1; p. 398) 31. According to the text, the categories of antecedent conditions for conflict include all of the following except: a. communication. b. structure. 310 c. group interaction. d. personal variables. (c; Challenging; Exh. 14-1; p. 398) 32. High job specialization causes _____ conflict. a. communicative b. structural c. personal-variable d. antecedent (b; Moderate; p. 399) 33. Research confirms that participation and conflict are: a. positively correlated. b. counterproductive. c. negatively correlated. d. always present together. (a; Challenging; pp. 399-400) 34. In which stage are conflict issues defined? a. Stage I, Potential opposition b. Stage II, Cognition and personalization c. Stage III, Intuitions d. Stage IV, Behavior (b; Challenging; p. 401) _____ intervene(s) between people’s perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. a. Intuition b. Intention c. Cognition d. Attributions (b; Moderate; p. 401) There are two dimensions to conflict-handling intentions, cooperativeness, and assertiveness. Cooperativeness is the degree to which: a. one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns. b. one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns. c. both parties work toward a common goal. d. there is an absence of conflict. (a; Moderate; p. 401) 36. 35. 37. The dimension of the conflict-handling intention labeled assertiveness is: a. the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own concerns. b. the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns. c. the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy everyone’s concerns. d. the degree to which one party is competitive. 311 (a; Challenging; p. 401) Which is not one of the five conflict-handling intentions? a. cooperating b. competing c. accommodating d. avoiding (a; Moderate; pp. 401-402) 38. 39. The conflict-handling orientation that combines assertiveness and cooperation is: a. collaborating. b. competing. c. avoiding. d. accommodating. (a; Moderate; p. 402) 40. The unassertive and uncooperative conflict-handling orientation is: a. collaborating. b. accommodating. c. avoiding. d. competing. (c; Moderate; p. 402) Attempting to find a win-win solution that allows both parties’ goals to be completely achieved and seeking a conclusion that incorporates the valid insights of both parties is an example of which conflict-handling intention? a. collaborating b. accommodating c. avoiding d. competing (a; Moderate; p. 402) 42. Which type of conflict-handling intention results in a person’s withdrawing from conflict? a. competing b. avoiding c. accommodating d. compromising (b; Moderate; p. 402) 41. 43. Conflict-handling behaviors are initiated in _____, in which there is a dynamic process of interaction. a. Stage II of the conflict process b. Stage III of the conflict process c. Stage IV of the conflict process d. Stage V of the conflict process (b; Challenging; p. 403) 312 44. The two dimensions of conflict-handling orientations are: a. awareness and assertiveness. b. reliability and awareness. c. cooperativeness and assertiveness. d. independence and interdependence. (c; Challenging; Exh. 14-2; p. 402) 45. Trying to make someone else accept blame for a problem is an example of which conflict-handling orientation? a. competing b. avoiding c. accommodating d. compromising (a; Moderate; p. 402) Which one of the following conflict-handling orientations represents an attempt to find a win-win solution? a. avoiding b. collaborating c. accommodating d. compromising (b; Moderate; p. 402) 47. Collaborating is the preferred conflict-handling orientation: a. to build social credits for later issues. b. in emergencies. c. to gain consensus and commitment. d. when an issue is trivial. (c; Challenging; p. 402) _____ is when one party is willing to be self-sacrificing in order that the relationship can be maintained. a. Competing b. Accommodating c. Collaborating d. Compromising (b; Easy; p. 402) 48. 46. The conflict-handling orientation that is based on a process of give-and-take and an emphasis on “splitting the difference” is: a. avoiding. b. collaborating. c. accommodating. d. compromising. (d; Moderate; p. 403) 313 49. 50. To achieve a compromising approach one needs to: a. avoid overt disagreement. b. value openness and trust. c. dominate the other conflicting party. d. give up something of value. (d; Easy; p. 403) A willingness to accept a raise of $2 an hour rather than $3, to acknowledge partial agreement with a specific viewpoint, and to take a partial blame for an infraction are examples of: a. avoiding. b. collaborating. c. accommodating. d. compromising. (d; Moderate; p. 403) 52. In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? a. potential opposition or incompatibility (Stage I) b. cognition and personalization (Stage II) c. intentions (Stage III) d. behavior (Stage IV) (d; Challenging; p. 403) 53. Which of the following is not a conflict resolution technique? a. superordinate goals b. appointing a devil’s advocate c. avoidance d. authoritative command (b; Challenging; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 54. 51. Conflict management techniques can: a. resolve conflict. b. stimulate conflict. c. both resolve and stimulate conflict. d. none of the above (c; Easy; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 55. Which of the following is a conflict stimulation technique? a. expansion of resources b. compromise c. bringing in outsiders d. authoritative command (c; Easy; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 56. What is conflict management? 314 a. achieving the desired conflict level b. stopping all conflict c. stimulating conflict d. avoiding conflict (a; Moderate; p. 404) 57. Conflict is constructive when: a. it improves the quality of decisions. b. it stimulates creativity and innovation. c. it fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 405) 58. Which one of the following might not be a functional outcome of the conflict process? a. stimulates creativity b. avoids risk c. fosters environment of self-evaluation d. relieves tensions (b; Moderate; p. 405) 59. Conflict is dysfunctional when it: a. provides a medium to release tension. b. reduces group cohesiveness. c. fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. d. provides a means for releasing tensions. (b; Moderate; p. 406) A common ingredient in organizations that successfully create functional conflict is that they: a. reward dissent and punish conflict avoiders. b. shoot the messenger. c. formally assign devil’s advocates. d. avoid risky situations. (a; Moderate; p. 407) 60. Negotiation A process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon the exchange rate for them is: a. negotiation. b. conflict management. c. economics. d. supply side economics. (a; Moderate; p. 408) 315 61. 62. The terms negotiation and _______ are used interchangeably. a. win-lose b. bargaining c. collaboration d. accommodating (b; Moderate; p. 408) 63. Labor-management negotiations over wages exemplifies: a. integrative bargaining. b. cost-effective bargaining. c. distributive bargaining. d. third-party bargaining. (c; Moderate; p. 408) 64. _____ is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.” a. Distributive bargaining b. Integrative bargaining c. Unethical bargaining d. BATNA (a; Moderate; p. 408) 65. The focus of relationships in distributive bargaining is: a. on varying amounts of resources. b. the long term. c. the short term. d. win-win. (c; Moderate; p. 409) 66. Integrative bargaining focuses relationships on: a. I win–you lose. b. the short term. c. resistance to bargaining. d. the long term. (d; Moderate; p. 409) 67. The bargaining strategy that operates under zero-sum conditions is called: a. win-win. b. unethical. c. integrative bargaining. d. distributive bargaining. (d; Moderate; p. 409) 68. The point below which either negotiating party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement is called the: a. resistance point. 316 b. refusal point. c. non-negotiating point. d. negative point. (a; Challenging; p. 410) 69. ______ operates under the assumption that there exists one or more settlements that can create a winwin solution. a. Positive negotiation b. Distributive bargaining c. Integrative bargaining d. Equal bargaining (c; Moderate; p. 409) Which bargaining strategy is preferable for use in intra-organizational behavior? a. positive negotiation b. distributive bargaining c. integrative bargaining d. equal bargaining (c; Moderate; p. 409) 70. Which bargaining strategy is used most in intra-organizational behavior? a. positive negotiation b. distributive bargaining c. integrative bargaining d. equal bargaining (b; Moderate; pp. 409-410) 71. 72. Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process? a. definition of ground rules b. clarification and justification c. bargaining and problem solving d. evaluation of process (d; Moderate; p. 410) 73. Your _____ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement. a. BATNA b. margin of error c. bid price d. asking price (a; Moderate; p. 410) 74. During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands? a. preparation and planning b. definition of ground rules 317 c. clarification and justification d. bargaining and problem-solving (b; Moderate; p. 411) 75. Which of the following is correct about cultural differences in negotiation? a. The French dislike conflict. b. The Chinese draw out negotiations. c. North Americans persuade by appealing to emotions. d. Arabs rely on facts and appeal to logic. (b; Moderate; p. 412) In third-party negotiations, a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions is known as a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. (a; Moderate; p. 413) 77. In third-party negotiations, a third party with the authority to dictate an agreement is known as a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. (b; Moderate; p. 413) 78. The major advantage of _____ is that it always results in a settlement. a. mediation b. consultancy c. arbitration d. conciliation (c; Moderate; p. 413) 76. 79. In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. consultant. d. conciliator. (d; Moderate; p. 414) 80. ____ typically act as more than mere communication conduits. They also engage in fact-finding, interpreting messages, and persuading disputants to develop agreements. a. Conciliators b. Arbitrators 318 c. Mediators d. Consultants (a; Moderate; p. 414) 81. In third-party negotiations, a skilled and impartial third party who attempts to facilitate problem solving through communication and analysis, aided by his or her knowledge of conflict management, is known as a(n): a. conciliator. b. arbitrator. c. mediator. d. consultant. (d; Moderate; p. 414) TRUE/FALSE A Definition of Conflict 82. If conflict isn’t perceived, it is assumed not to exist. (True; Easy; p. 395) 83. Conflict implies opposition. (True; Easy; p. 395) 84. Negotiation is a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. (False; Challenging; p. 395) 85. Conflict covers the full range from overt and violent acts to subtle forms of disagreement. (True; Moderate; p. 395) Transitions in Conflict Thought 86. The presence of conflict is a reliable indicator of a poorly functioning group or organization. (False; Moderate; p. 396) 87. The traditional view toward conflict seeks to retain only the functional conflict in a group. (False; Moderate; p. 396) 88. The traditional view sees conflict as a dysfunctional outcome. (True; Easy; p. 396) 89. The traditional view states that conflict is natural and inevitable and therefore must be accepted. (False; Easy; p. 396) 90. The interactionist view proposes that all conflicts are good. (False; Moderate; p. 396) 91. The interactionist view proposes that inadequate levels of conflict can hinder a group’s performance. (True; Moderate; p. 396) 319 92. To say that all conflict is good or bad is inappropriate and naïve. (True; Easy; p. 396) Functional vs. Dysfunctional Conflict 93. Dysfunctional conflict is destructive. (True; Moderate; p. 397) 94. Relationship conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships. (True; Moderate; p. 397) 95. For process conflict to be productive, it must be kept low. (True; Challenging; p. 397) 96. Process conflict relates to the content and goals of the work. (False; Moderate; p. 397) The Conflict Process 97. The first stage of the conflict process is cognition. (False; Easy; Exh. 14-1; p. 398) 98. Communication difficulties are a major cause of conflict. (True; Easy; p. 398) 99. The potential for conflict can actually be increased if too much information is communicated. (True; Moderate; p. 398) 100. Too much information can lay the foundation for conflict. (True; Moderate; p. 398) Participation and conflict are highly correlated because participation encourages the promotion of differences. (True; Moderate; pp. 399-400) 102. Certain personality types lead to potential conflict. (True; Easy; p. 400) Many conflicts which are attributed to poor communication are, on closer examination, due to value differences. (True; Challenging; p. 400) 104. Once a conflict is perceived, it is personalized. (False; Moderate; p. 401) 105. In the conflict process, emotions play a major role in shaping perceptions. (True; Moderate; p. 401) 106. Understanding an individual’s intentions is the best way to understand his or her behavior. 320 103. 101. (True; Moderate; p. 401) 107. In terms of assertiveness and cooperativeness, the conflict-handling intention that is the opposite of competing is avoiding. (False; Challenging; Exh. 14-2; p. 402) 108. Avoiding encompasses both assertive and uncooperative behaviors. (False; Moderate; Exh. 14-2; p. 402) 109. If you place your opponent’s interest above your own, you are engaging in collaborating. (False; Moderate; p. 402) 110. In compromising, there is no clear or definitive winner. (True; Moderate; p. 403) 111. In the conflict process, individuals’ intentions are not fixed and, in fact, may change due to reconceptualization of the other party. (True; Challenging; p. 403) 112. Many open and violent conflicts in work groups are functional. (False; Easy; p. 403) 113. A shared goal that cannot be attained without the cooperation of each of the conflicting parties is a superordinate goal. (True; Moderate; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 114. Avoidance is playing down differences while emphasizing common interests between the conflicting parties. (False; Moderate; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 115. A devil’s advocate is a critic designated to argue against the majority position of the group. (True; Moderate; Exh. 14-4; p. 404) 116. Conflict always improves the quality of group decision making. (False; Moderate; p. 405) 117. Dysfunctional conflicts hinder a group’s performance. (True; Easy; p. 406) 118. Conflict is an antidote for groupthink. (True; Moderate; p. 407) 119. The Walt Disney Company purposely encourages big, unruly, and disruptive meetings to create friction and stimulate creative ideas. (True; Moderate; p. 407) 120. A reduction in group cohesiveness is an undesirable consequence of conflict. (True; Moderate; p. 407) 321 121. Those organizations that don’t encourage and support dissent may find their survival threatened. (True; Challenging; p. 407) 122. One common ingredient in organizations that successfully create functional conflict is that they reward dissent and punish conflict avoiders. (True; Moderate; p. 407) Negotiation 123. Negotiation permeates the interactions of almost everyone in groups and organizations. (True; Easy; p. 407) Neutralization is defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon the exchange rate for them. (False; Easy; p. 408) 125. There are two general approaches to negotiation: distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining. (True; Easy; p. 408) 126. When negotiating the price of a car, you are probably using an integrative bargaining strategy. (False; Moderate; p. 408) 127. An individual’s target point represents the lowest outcome he or she would accept during a negotiation process. (False; Moderate; p. 408) 128. If two parties’ aspiration ranges overlap, there exists a settlement range. (True; Moderate; p. 408) 129. Integrative bargaining is the strategy most used in today’s intraorganizational problem-solving behavior. (False; Moderate; p. 409) In terms of intraorganizational behavior, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining. (True; Moderate; p. 409) 131. Your BATNA determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement. (True; Moderate; p. 410) 132. Personality traits of the negotiating parties have a significant direct effect on the bargaining process and negotiation outcomes. (False; Moderate; p. 411) Managerial women demonstrate less confidence in anticipation of negotiating and are less satisfied with their performance after the process is complete, even when their performance and the outcomes they achieve are similar to men. (True; Moderate; p. 412) 133. 130. 124. 322 134. Cultural background of negotiators has no significant effect on negotiations. (False; Easy; p. 412) A neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions for alternatives is a mediator. (True; Moderate; p. 413) 136. A third party to a negotiation who has the authority to dictate an agreement is a mediator. (False; Moderate; p. 413) 137. The major advantage of mediation over arbitration is that it always results in a settlement. (False; Moderate; p. 413) 138. There is a great deal of overlap between mediation and conciliation. (True; Challenging; pp. 413-414) 139. The consultant’s role is not to settle the issues, but, rather, to improve relations between the conflicting parties so that they can reach a settlement themselves. (True; Moderate; p. 414) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Transitions in Conflict Thought and Functional Conflict It seems that your work group is in conflict much of the time. One colleague has suggested that you, as the supervisor, are responsible for eliminating the conflict so that they can work harmoniously. Another colleague has suggested that conflict is good for stimulating creativity and productivity. You are unsure about whether you should try to eliminate the conflict or learn to deal with it positively. 135. 140. If you support the idea that conflict is bad and should be eliminated, you are supporting: a. the traditional view. b. the human relations view. c. the interactionist view. d. the moderated acceptance view. (a; Moderate; p. 396) 141. You have decided to accept conflict as a natural occurrence and deal with it. You are supporting: a. the traditional view. b. the human relations view. c. the interactionist view. d. the behavior modification view. (b; Moderate; p. 396) 142. You decide to do more research on the view that conflict should be encouraged as a means to achieve change and innovation. This view is termed: 323 a. the traditional view. b. the human relations view. c. the interactionist view. d. the acceptance view. (c; Moderate; p. 396) When the group disagrees, it is usually over how the work should get done. The type of conflict experienced by your group is: a. task conflict. b. relationship conflict. c. process conflict. d. traditional conflict. (c; Moderate; p. 396) 144. You have decided to allow the conflict to exist so long as it doesn’t hinder group performance. You will try to eliminate _____ conflict. a. functional b. dysfunctional c. task d. individualized (b; Easy; p. 396) Application of Functional and Dysfunctional Outcomes Jennifer has come to realize that conflict has both functional, as well as dysfunctional, outcomes. She has observed examples of both in her organization. 143. Last month, Jennifers department experienced constructive conflict during a meeting. Which of the following is not an outcome of this functional conflict? a. improved quality of decisions b. creativity and innovation are stimulated c. tensions are released d. communication is retarded (d; Moderate; p. 397) 146. When “yes” people are hired and promoted, _____ outcomes are likely to result. a. improved organizational b. functional c. dysfunctional d. better decisions (c; Challenging; p. 397) 147. Conflict: a. can be positively related to productivity. 324 145. b. is always dysfunctional. c. can arise from diversity. d. all of the above (b; Moderate; p. 397) Application of Bargaining Strategies Labor and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. The drivers are threatening to strike and management knows that if a strike occurs that it will be very costly. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement seems to be possible. 148. Both sides have agreed that there is a fixed amount of resources. Each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. They believe they are engaged in: a. integrative bargaining. b. distributive bargaining. c. mediation. d. BATNA. (b; Moderate; pp. 408-409) 149. Which of the following is a characteristic of distributive bargaining? a. I win, you win b. long-term focus c. convergent or congruent interests d. opposed to each other (d; Moderate; pp. 408-409) 150. You have decided to try to find a win-win situation. You have decided to find a way to engage in: a. integrative bargaining. b. distributive bargaining. c. mediation. d. BATNA. (a; Moderate; pp. 408-409) Application of Issues in Negotiation Playbill, Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. They employ actors and actresses from all over they world. The actors and actresses have joined together to ask Playbill for higher salaries. 151. Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the role of personality traits in negotiations? a. Personality of the negotiators will determine, to a large extent, who prevails. b. Personality traits will have no significant direct effect on either the bargaining process or negotiation outcomes. c. High risk takers will be better negotiators. d. Those with internal locus of control will be better negotiators. (b; Challenging; pp. 411-412) 152. Which of the following statements is false concerning gender differences in negotiations? a. Women are neither worse nor better negotiators than men. 325 b. Women’s attitudes toward negotiation and toward themselves as negotiators appear to be quite different from men’s. c. Low-power managers, regardless of gender, attempt to placate their opponents. d. Women are more cooperative, pleasant, and relationship oriented in negotiations than men. (d; Challenging; pp. 411-412) 153. You have hired a prominent French actor to star in one of your productions. Which of the following should you expect to find in negotiations with this actor? a. He will try to draw out negotiations. b. The French like conflict. c. He will rely upon logic and reason. d. The French are impatient and want to be liked. (c; Challenging; pp. 411-412) Application of Third-Party Negotiations Alpha Construction has a dispute with a home buyer about some of the terms of their building contract. Both Alpha and the home buyer want to avoid the expense of going to court, but they cannot agree on how to settle their disagreement. Alpha wants to bring in a neutral third party who will facilitate a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. This person is a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. (a; Moderate; pp. 413-414) 154. 155. The home buyer wants to bring in a third party who will have the authority to dictate an agreement. This person is a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. (b; Moderate; pp. 413-414) They have asked Sam Jones, an attorney and trusted friend, to help them informally to solve their problem. Sam's role is that of a(n): a. mediator. b. arbitrator. c. conciliator. d. consultant. (c; Moderate; pp. 413-414) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 157. What is conflict? 326 156. (Page 395) Conflict is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. This includes the full range of conflict levels – from overt and violent acts to subtle forms of disagreement. 158. Distinguish between functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict. (Page 397) Some conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance; these are functional, constructive forms of conflict. Additionally, there are conflicts that hinder group performance; these are dysfunctional or destructive forms of conflict. 159. Explain the three types of conflict: task conflict, relationship conflict, and process conflict. (Page 397) There are three types of conflict: task, relationship, and process. Task conflict relates to the content and goals of the work. Relationship conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships. Process conflict relates to how the work gets done. 160. Discuss the three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict. (Pages 397-398) The three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict are communication, structure, and personal variables. Communication represents those opposing forces that arise from semantic difficulties, misunderstandings, and “noise” in the communication channels. Differing word connotations, jargon, insufficient exchange of information, and noise in the communication channel are all barriers to communication and potential antecedent conditions to conflict. The potential for conflict increases when either too little or too much communication takes place. Structure includes variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to group members, jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward systems, and the degree of dependence between groups. Personal variables include individual value systems that each person has and the personality characteristics that account for individual idiosyncrasies and differences. 161. Discuss dysfunctional outcomes of conflict. (Page 406) Destructive outcomes of conflict include the following: uncontrolled opposition breeds discontent, which acts to dissolve common ties, and eventually leads to the destruction of the group. Conflict can also reduce group effectiveness. Among the most undesirable consequences are a retarding of communication, reductions in group cohesiveness, and subordination of group goals to the primacy of infighting between members. At the extreme, conflict can bring group functioning to a halt and potentially threaten the group’s survival. 162. Discuss the two general approaches to negotiation. (Pages 408-409) There are two general approaches to negotiation – distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining. 327 Distributive bargaining is characterized by zero-sum conditions. Each negotiator has a target point that defines what he or she would like to achieve. Each also has a resistance point, which marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable – the point below which they would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement. The area between these two points makes up each one’s aspiration range. As long as there is some overlap between A and B’s aspiration ranges, there exists a settlement range where each one’s aspirations can be met. Integrative bargaining operates under the assumption that there exists one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution. Both parties must be open with information and candid about their concerns, have a sensitivity to each other’s needs, the ability to trust one another, and a willingness by both parties to maintain flexibility. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 163. Discuss the three schools of thought regarding conflict in groups and organizations. (Page 396) The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict must be avoided. Conflict indicates a malfunctioning within the group. The human relations view argues that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group and that it need not be evil, but rather has the potential to be a positive force in determining group performance. The third, and most recent perspective, proposes not only that conflict can be a positive force in a group but explicitly argues that some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. This is the interactionist view. 164. Discuss the primary conflict-handling intentions. (Pages 401-403) When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests, regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, he or she is competing. In collaborating, the intention of the parties is to solve the problem by clarifying differences rather than by accommodating various points of view. In avoiding, a person may recognize that a conflict exists and want to withdraw from it or suppress it. When one party seeks to appease an opponent, that party may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own. In order for the relationship to be maintained, one party is willing to be self-sacrificing by accommodating. In compromising, there is no clear winner or loser. Rather, there is a willingness to ration the object of the conflict and accept a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties’ concerns. Each party to the conflict seeks to give up something and sharing occurs, resulting in a compromised outcome. 165. When is conflict constructive? (Page 405) Conflict is constructive when it improves the quality of decisions, stimulates creativity and innovation, encourages interest and curiosity among group members, provides the medium through which problems can be aired and tensions released, and fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. Conflict can improve the quality of decision making by allowing all points, particularly the ones that are unusual or held by a minority, to be weighed in important decisions. Conflict is an antidote for groupthink. It doesn’t allow the group passively to “rubber stamp” decisions that may be based on weak assumptions, inadequate consideration of relevant alternatives, or other debilities. Conflict challenges the status quo and therefore furthers the creation of new ideas, promotes 328 reassessment of group goals and activities, and increases the probability that the group will respond to change. 166. Distinguish between the roles of mediator, arbitrator, conciliator, and consultant. (Pages 413-414) There are four basic third-party roles: mediator, arbitrator, conciliator, and consultant. A mediator is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. An arbitrator is a third party with the authority to dictate an agreement. A conciliator is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent. A consultant is a skilled and impartial third party who attempts to facilitate problem solving through communication and analysis, aided by his or her knowledge of conflict management. The consultant’s role is not to settle the issues but, rather, to improve relations between the conflicting parties so that they can reach a settlement themselves. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 167. What are the five stages of the conflict process? (Exh. 14-1; Page 398) The conflict process can be seen as comprising five stages: potential opposition or incompatibility, cognition and personalization, intentions, behavior, and outcomes. The first step in the conflict process is the presence of conditions that create opportunities for conflict to arise. They need not lead directly to conflict, but one of these conditions is necessary if conflict is to surface. These conditions are communication, structure, and personal variables. If the conditions cited in Stage I negatively affect something that one party cares about, then the potential for opposition or incompatibility becomes actualized in the second stage. The antecedent conditions can only lead to conflict when one or more of the parties are affected by, and aware of, the conflict. Stage II is cognition and personalization. This is where conflict issues tend to be defined. In Stage III, intentions intervene between people’s perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. These intentions are decisions to act in a certain way. When most people think of conflict situations, they tend to focus on Stage IV because this is where conflicts become visible. The behavior stage includes statements, actions, and reactions made by the conflicting parties. The action-reaction interplay between the conflicting parties results in consequences. These outcomes in Stage V may be functional in that the conflict results in an improvement in the group’s performance, or dysfunctional in that it hinders group performance. 168. How can functional conflict be created? (Pages 406-407) To create functional conflict, organizations must encourage and support dissent. They should encourage their people to challenge the system and develop fresh ideas. Companies can encourage unruly and disruptive meetings to create friction and stimulate creative ideas. They can reward dissenters by recognizing those who go against the grain. They can criticize their bosses and question without impunity. Some may build devil’s advocates into the decision process. One common ingredient in organizations that successfully create functional conflict is that they reward dissent and punish conflict avoiders. Managers have to learn to take the bad news without flinching. 169. How might personality affect the negotiation process? 329 (Page 411) Overall assessments of the personality-negotiation relationship find that personality traits have no significant direct effect on either the bargaining process or negotiation outcomes. This suggests that you should concentrate on the issues and the situational factors in each bargaining episode and not on your opponent’s personality. 170. How might gender affect the negotiation process? (Pages 411-412) Men have been found to negotiate better outcomes than women, although the difference is quite small. This difference might be due to men and women placing divergent values on outcomes. Lowpower managers, regardless of gender, attempt to placate their opponents and to use softly persuasive tactics rather than direct confrontation and threats. Where women and men have similar power bases, there shouldn’t be any significant differences in their negotiation styles. The evidence suggests that women’s attitudes toward negotiation and toward themselves as negotiators appear to be quite different from men’s. Managerial women demonstrate less confidence in anticipation of negotiating and are less satisfied with their performance after the process is complete, even when their performance and the outcomes they achieve are similar to men. 330 Chapter 15 Foundations of Organization Structure MULTIPLE CHOICE What is Organizational Structure? 1. _____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. a. Organizational structure b. Organizational behavior c. Formalization d. Span of control (a; Easy; p. 425) 2. Organizational structure is made up of six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? a. centralization b. departmentalization c. coordination d. formalization (c; Moderate; Exh. 15-1; p. 426) 3. Work specialization is the same as: a. span of control. b. division of labor. c. unity of command. d. job grouping. (b; Easy; p. 426) 4. The degree to which tasks are subdivided into separate jobs is termed: a. departmentalization. b. formalization. c. work specialization. d. span of control. (c; Moderate; p. 426) 5. In the late 1940s, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high: a. departmentalization. b. formalization. c. work specialization. d. span of control. (c; Moderate; p. 426) 6. For much of the first half of the 20th century, managers viewed _____ as an unending source of increased productivity. a. departmentalization b. formalization c. work specialization d. span of control 331 (c; Moderate; p. 426) 7. Which one of the following components of organizational structure specifically defines where decisions are made? a. complexity b. formalization c. centralization d. technology (c; Moderate; Exh 15-1; p. 426) 8. The basis by which jobs are grouped together is termed: a. departmentalization. b. formalization. c. work specialization. d. centralization. (a; Easy; Exh. 15-1; p. 426) 9. Grouping jobs on the basis of function, product, geography, process, or customer is a form of: a. departmentalization. b. work specialization. c. span of control. d. chain of command. (a; Moderate; p. 427) 10. One of the most popular ways to group activities is by: a. product. b. function. c. geography. d. process. (b; Challenging; p. 427) Proctor & Gamble departmentalizes by Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by: a. function. b. process. c. customer. d. product. (d; Easy; p. 428) 12. A manufacturing manager who organizes the plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and purchasing into departments is practicing _____ departmentalization. a. target customer b. product c. functional d. geographic (c; Moderate; p. 428) 11. 332 13. _____ departmentalization achieves economies of scale by placing people with common skills and orientations into common units. a. Functional b. Process c. Product d. Geographic (a; Moderate; p. 428) 14. At an Alcoa aluminum tubing plant in upstate New York, production is organized into five departments: casting; press; tubing; finishing; and inspecting; packing; and shipping. This is an example of _____departmentalization. a. Functional b. Process c. Product d. Geographic (b; Moderate; p. 428) 15. The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom is termed: a. chain of command. b. authority. c. power. d. unity of command. (a; Moderate; p. 429) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed: a. chain of command. b. authority. c. power. d. unity of command. (b; Moderate; p. 429) 17. The _____ principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. a. span of control b. power c. unity of command d. decentralization (c; Moderate; p. 429) 18. The _____ principle states that a person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible. a. span of control b. chain of command c. unity of command d. power (c; Easy; p. 429) 16. 333 19. The _____ refers to the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct. a. span of control b. unity of command c. chain of command d. organizational chart (a; Easy; p. 418) 20. Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control? a. It reduces effectiveness. b. It is more efficient. c. It encourages overly tight supervision and discourages employee autonomy. d. It empowers employees. (c; Challenging; p. 430) 21. Which of the following is not a drawback of a narrow span of control? a. They are expensive. b. They make vertical communication in the organization more complex. c. They encourage employee autonomy. d. They encourage overly tight supervision. (c; Challenging; p. 430) 22. The trend in recent years has been toward: a. narrower spans of control. b. wider spans of control. c. a span of control of five. d. an ideal span of control of eight. (b; Moderate; p. 430) 23. If you have a narrow span of control, you have a _____ organization. a. multi-level b. short c. tall d. matrix (c; Moderate; p. 430) _____ are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees. a. Wider spans of control b. Narrower spans of control c. Flatter organizations d. Formalization (a; Moderate; p. 430) 25. The best definition for centralization is: a. decision discretion is pushed down to lower level employees. b. decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. c. decision making depends on the situation. d. decision making is done in each department and then sent to the president for the final decision. 334 24. (b; Moderate; p. 431) 26. The component of structure which considers where decision-making authority lies is: a. delegation. b. formalization. c. complexity. d. centralization. (d; Moderate; p. 431) 27. In an organization that has high centralization: a. the corporate headquarters is located centrally to branch offices. b. all top level officials are located within the same geographic area. c. top managers make all the decisions and lower level managers merely carry out top management’s directions. d. action can be taken more quickly to solve problems. (c; Moderate; p. 431) 28. The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more _____ there is. a. centralization b. decentralization c. work specialization d. departmentalization (b; Moderate; p. 431) 29. If a job is highly formalized, it would not include which of the following? a. clearly defined procedures on work processes b. explicit job description c. high employee job discretion d. a large number of organizational rules (c; Moderate; p. 431) 30. Explicit job descriptions, lots of rules, and clearly defined procedures concerning work processes are consistent with: a. high formalization. b. technological innovation. c. high centralization. d. an organic model. (a; Challenging; pp. 431-432) 31. Employee discretion is inversely related to: a. complexity. b. standardization. c. centralization. d. technology. (b; Challenging; p. 432) 335 Common Organizational Designs Which of the following is not a common organizational design? a. simple structure b. bureaucracy c. centralized structure d. matrix structure (c; Easy; p. 433) 32. 33. The _____ is characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. a. bureaucracy b. matrix organization c. simple structure d. team structure (c; Moderate; p. 433) 34. Which one of the following is consistent with a simple structure? a. high centralization b. high horizontal differentiation c. high formalization d. high departmentalization (a; Moderate; p. 433) The ____ is a flat organization. a. simple structure b. bureaucracy c. centralized structure d. matrix structure (a; Moderate; p. 433) 36. Simple structures are characterized by: a. shared authority. b. a narrow span of control. c. lots of formalization. d. a low degree of departmentalization. (d; Moderate; p. 433) The ___ is most widely practiced in small businesses in which the manager and owner are one and the same. a. simple structure b. bureaucracy c. centralized structure d. matrix structure (a; Moderate; p. 433) 37. 35. 336 The bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following except: a. highly routine operating tasks. b. formalized rules and regulations. c. tasks that are grouped into functional departments. d. decentralized decision making. (d; Moderate; p. 434) 38. 39. The key underlying all bureaucracies is: a. flexibility. b. standardization. c. dual lines of authority. d. wide span of control. (b; Moderate; p. 434) 40. The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization. a. simple structure b. bureaucracy c. centralized structure d. matrix structure (b; Moderate; p. 434) 41. The strength of the simple structure lies in its: a. formalization. b. simplicity. c. centralization. d. information processing. (b; Easy; p. 433) 42. Which of the following is not a weakness of the simple structure? a. It is risky. b. information overload c. accountability is clear d. slower decision making (c; Moderate; p. 433) 43. Specialization creates subunit conflicts in the: a. simple structure. b. bureaucracy. c. centralized structure. d. matrix structure. (b; Moderate; p. 434) 44. The structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization is the: a. simple structure. b. bureaucracy. c. matrix structure. d. virtual organization. 337 (c; Moderate; p. 435) 45. The matrix structure combines which two forms of departmentalization? a. simple and functional b. functional and product c. product and organic d. organic and mechanistic (b; Challenging; p. 435) 46. The _____ violates the unity of command concept. a. simple and functional b. functional and product c. product and organic d. organic and mechanistic (c; Challenging; p. 435) 47. Which one of the following problems is most likely to occur in a matrix structure? a. decreased response to environmental change b. decreased employee motivation c. loss of economies of scale d. employees receiving conflicting directives (d; Moderate; p. 436) 48. The strength of the matrix structure is its: a. ability to facilitate coordination. b. economies of scale. c. adherence to chain of command. d. predictability. (a; Moderate; p. 436) 49. The major disadvantage of the matrix structure is: a. the confusion it creates. b. its propensity to foster power struggles. c. the stress it places on individuals. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 436) New Design Options 50. The primary characteristics of the _____ structure are that it breaks down departmental barriers and decentralizes decision making to the level of the work team. a. virtual organization b. team c. boundaryless d. feminine organization (b; Moderate; p. 436) 338 51. In larger organizations, the team structure complements what is typically a: a. virtual organization. b. bureaucracy. c. simple structure. d. boundaryless organization. (b; Challenging; p. 437) 52. A small, core organization that outsources major business functions is the _____ organization. a. team b. virtual c. boundaryless d. matrix (b; Moderate; p. 437) 53. The ____ is also called the network or modular organization. a. virtual organization b. team structure c. pyramid d. boundaryless organization (a; Moderate; p. 437) 54. The prototype of the virtual structure is today’s: a. automobile manufacturers. b. movie-making organizations. c. fast-food restaurants. d. software companies. (b; Challenging; p. 437) 55. The major advantage of the virtual organization is its: a. control. b. predictability. c. flexibility. d. empowerment. (c; Moderate; p. 438) 56. The _____ organization stands in sharp contrast to the typical bureaucracy that has many vertical levels of management and where control is sought through ownership. a. virtual b. team c. limitless d. matrix (a; Challenging; p. 438) 57. The boundaryless organization relies heavily on: a. information technology. b. vertical boundaries. c. horizontal boundaries. d. external barriers. 339 (a; Moderate; p. 438) An organization that seeks to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace departments with empowered teams is the: a. virtual organization. b. boundaryless organization. c. matrix organization. d. team structure. (b; Moderate; p. 438) 59. The one common technological thread that makes the boundaryless organization possible is: a. reengineering. b. MBA’s. c. networked computers. d. mainframes. (c; Moderate; p. 439) Why Do Structures Differ? 60. The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. a. mechanistic model b. organic model c. technology model d. boundaryless organization (a; Moderate; p. 440) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mechanistic structure? a. extensive departmentalization b. high formalization c. limited information network d. flexibility (d; Easy; p. 440) 61. 62. If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network, and high participation in decision making, one would expect a(n): a. bureaucracy. b. mechanistic structure. c. organic structure. d. stable structure. (c; Challenging; p. 440) All of the following are characteristics of the organic model except: a. cross-functional teams. b. rigid departmentalization. c. cross hierarchical teams. d. free flow of information. (b; Moderate; p. 440) 63. 340 58. 64. Which of the following is not a determinant of an organization’s structure? a. strategy b. organization size c. industry d. technology (c; Moderate; pp. 440-444) 65. Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to: a. changes in the environment. b. better communication. c. increased productivity. d. changes in an organization’s structure. (d; Challenging; p. 440) 66. A strategy that emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services is a(n) _____ strategy. a. innovation b. cost-minimization c. imitation d. organic (a; Moderate; p. 441) 67. The innovation strategy is characterized by: a. avoiding unnecessary costs. b. a mixture of loose with tight properties. c. low specialization and low formalization. d. tight controls over current activity. (c; Challenging; p. 441) _____ refers to how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs. a. Imitation b. Technology c. Operations d. Innovation (b; Moderate; p. 441) 69. Which of the following is not part of the organization’s environment? a. public pressure groups b. customers c. technology d. competitors (c; Easy; p. 443) 70. The _____ of an environment refers to the degree to which it can support growth. a. capacity b. volatility c. complexity d. nurturance 341 68. (a; Moderate; p. 443) 71. _____ refers to the degree of instability of an environment. a. Capacity b. Volatility c. Complexity d. Equilibrium (b; Easy; p. 443) 72. Three key dimensions to any organization’s environment have been found. Which of the following is not one of these key dimensions? a. volatility b. capability c. complexity d. capacity (b; Moderate; p. 443) 73. The _____ of an environment refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements. a. capacity b. volatility c. complexity d. creativity (c; Moderate; p. 443) Organization Designs and Employee Behavior Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee performance and satisfaction is most true? a. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction. b. It is probably safe to say that no evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee performance. c. The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to lower employee productivity. d. No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine. (b; Challenging; pp. 445-446) 75. _____ models of organizational structure are perceptions that people hold regarding structural variables formed by observing things around them in an unscientific fashion. a. Explicit b. Implicit c. Strategic d. Intuitive (b; Challenging; p. 447) TRUE/FALSE 76. Organizations have different structures, but the structure has little bearing on employee attitudes and behavior. 342 74. (False; Easy; p. 425) What is Organizational Structure? 77. Specialization defines how job tasks are formally defined, grouped, and coordinated. (False; Moderate; p. 426) 78. Managers need to address six key elements when they design their organization’s structure: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization. (True; Moderate; p. 426) The degree to which tasks in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs is termed departmentalization. (False; Moderate; p. 426) 80. Work specialization and division of labor are the same thing. (True; Easy; p. 426) 81. Work specialization can be carried too far and may result in employee boredom, stress, and absenteeism. (True; Moderate; p. 427) 82. For much of the first half of this century, managers viewed departmentalization as an unending source of increased productivity. (False; Moderate; p. 427) 83. The strength of functional departmentalization is putting similar specialists together. (True; Moderate; p. 428) 84. Organizations may choose only one of the forms of departmentalization at a time. (False; Moderate; p. 429) 85. The inherent right in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed is termed authority. (True; Moderate; p. 429) 86. Departmentalization answers questions for employee such as “To whom do I go if I have a problem?” (False; Moderate; p. 429) 87. The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon is termed the chain of command. (True; Easy; p. 429) 88. The principle of unity of command suggests that managers should back one another up when a directive has been given. (False; Challenging; p. 429) 89. The trend in recent years has been toward wider spans of control. 343 79. (True; Easy; p. 430) 90. Span of control determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. (True; Moderate; pp. 429-430) 91. All things being equal, the wider or larger the span, the more efficient the organization. (True; Moderate; pp. 429-430) 92. Flat organizational structures result from narrow spans of control. (False; Moderate; Exh. 15-3; p. 430) 93. Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and discourage employee autonomy. (True; Moderate; p. 430) 94. Having too many people report to you can undermine your effectiveness. (True; Challenging; p. 430) The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more centralized the organization. (False; Moderate; p. 431) A decentralized organization is more likely to result in a feeling of alienation by employees than a centralized organization. (False; Challenging; p. 431) 97. There has been a marked trend toward decentralized decision making. (True; Moderate; p. 431) 98. Increase in the number of rules and regulations results in increased formalization. (True; Moderate; pp. 431-432) 99. The greater the formalization, the less input an employee has into how his or her work is done. (True; Moderate; p. 432) 100. Autonomy and formalization are inversely related. (True; Moderate; p. 432) Common Organizational Designs 101. The simple structure is fast, flexible, inexpensive to maintain, and accountability is clear. (True; Moderate; p. 433) 102. The strength of the bureaucracy lies in its simplicity. It’s fast, flexible, and inexpensive to maintain. (False; Moderate; p. 433) 103. One major strength of the simple structure is it’s easy to maintain in any size. (False; Moderate; p. 433) 104. The simple structure is risky since everything depends on one person. 344 96. 95. (True; Easy; p. 434) 105. Standardization is the key that underlies all bureaucracies. (True; Easy; p. 434) 106. The simple structure is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization. (False; Moderate; p. 434) 107. A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules. (False; Easy; p. 434) 108. The bureaucracy is efficient only as long as employees confront problems that they have previously encountered. (True; Easy; p. 434) 109. A structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization is the matrix structure. (True; Moderate; p. 435) The strength of the bureaucracy is its ability to facilitate coordination when the organization has complex and interdependent activities. (False; Moderate; p. 436) 111. The matrix structure facilitates the allocation of specialists. (True; Challenging; p. 436) The major disadvantages of the matrix lie in the confusion it creates, its propensity to foster power struggles, and the stress it places on individuals. (True; Challenging; p. 436) New Design Options 113. The team structure breaks down department barriers and decentralizes decision making to the level of the work team. (True; Moderate; p. 436) 114. Often, particularly among larger organizations, the team structure complements what is typically a bureaucracy. (True; Moderate; p. 437) 115. The primary characteristics of the virtual organization are that it breaks down department barriers and decentralizes decision making to the level of the work team. (False; Moderate; p. 437) You have decided to hire a small shop to do all your duplicating and printing. This is an example of outsourcing. (True; Moderate; p. 437) 116. 112. 110. 345 117. The virtual organization is also called the network or modular organization. (True; Moderate; p. 437) 118. The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility. (True; Easy; p. 438) 119. The virtual organization was created to obtain maximum stability. (False; Moderate; p. 438) 120. Jack Welch coined the term boundaryless organization. (True; Easy; p. 438) 121. An organization that seeks to eliminate the chain of command is a boundaryless organization. (True; Moderate; p. 438) 122. Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization. True; Moderate; p. 439) 123. Globalization is more difficult in a boundaryless organization. (False; Challenging; p. 439) 124. The one common technological thread that makes the boundaryless organization possible is networked computers. (True; Moderate; p. 439) Why Do Structures Differ? 125. The organic structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. (False; Easy; p. 440) 126. The boundaryless organization is an example of the organic model of organizational design. (True; Easy; p. 440) 127. Mechanistic structures are high in formalization. (True; Moderate; p. 440) 128. Mechanistic structures have high participation in decision making. (False; Moderate; p. 440) 129. Strategy does not impact an organization’s structure. (False; Easy; p. 440) 130. An innovation strategy works well only for simple change. (False; Moderate; p. 441) 131. An organization that tightly controls costs, refrains from incurring unnecessary innovation or marketing expenses, and cuts prices in selling a basic product pursues a cost-minimization strategy. 346 (True; Moderate; p. 441) 132. An innovation strategy seeks to move into new products or new markets only after their viability has been proven. (False; Moderate; p. 441) 133. Size appears to have a decreasing rate of impact on complexity of structure. (True; Challenging; pp. 441-442) 134. Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is likely to result in a shift toward a more organic structure. (False; Challenging; p. 442) 135. Technology refers to how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs. (True; Moderate; p. 442) The three key dimensions to an organization’s environment have been found to be: capacity, complexity, and technology. (False; Challenging; p. 443) The environment of an organization needs to be assessed in terms of capacity, which is the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements. (False; Challenging; p. 443) 138. The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should be. (True; Moderate; p. 444) Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior 139. Research supports the notion that employees prefer an organic structure. (False; Moderate; p. 445) 140. There is fairly strong evidence linking work specialization to positive job satisfaction. (False; Challenging; p. 445) 141. A review of the research indicates that there is no evidence to support a relationship between span of control and employee performance. (True; Challenging; p. 445) 142. Organizations that are less centralized have a greater amount of participative decision making. (True; Easy; p. 446) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Six Key Questions That Managers Need to Answer in Designing the Proper Organizational Structure We-Train-Em has hired you to develop training materials for their seminars. Your first assignment is to write a training manual that will assist new managers in designing an appropriate structure for their part of an 347 137. 136. organization. Included in the manual will be information about the key questions that they must answer in deciding about the best organizational structure. 143. One of the questions included in the training manual is “To what degree are tasks subdivided into separate jobs?” This question addresses the issue of: a. formalization. b. work specialization. c. span of control. d. chain of command. (b; Moderate; Exh. 15-1; p. 426) 144. _____ is addressed by asking the question “On what basis will jobs be grouped together?” a. Departmentalization b. Work specialization c. Centralization and decentralization d. Formalization (a; Challenging; Exh. 15-1; p. 426) 145. The degree of rules and regulations that direct employees and managers is termed: a. chain of command. b. formalization. c. span of control. d. departmentalization. (b; Moderate; Exh. 15-1; p. 426) Application of Departmentalization You have divided the jobs done by your department through work specialization and are now trying to decide how to best group them for efficiency and service to the customer. You are considering grouping activities by function, product, process, or customer. 146. You have decided that since you are a novice at departmentalization, you will go with the most popular method. You will probably choose _____ departmentalization. a. function b. product c. process d. customer (a; Moderate; pp. 427-429) You are organizing into southern, midwestern, western, and eastern regions. This is termed ______ departmentalization. a. process b. customer c. geography d. function (c; Easy; pp. 427-429) 147. 348 148. You find that there seems to be a common set of problems among certain types of buyers of your product. You will probably choose: a. function departmentalization. b. product departmentalization. c. process departmentalization. d. customer departmentalization. (d; Easy; pp. 427-429) Application of Span of Control Matthew is a new divisional manager. In reorganizing his department, he must make some decisions regarding the span of control. 149. The question of span of control determines: a. who reports to whom. b. the number of levels and managers an organization has. c. where decisions are made. d. how jobs will be grouped. (b; Moderate; pp. 429-430) 150. Wider spans are more efficient in terms of cost. However, at some point: a. employee performance soars. b. supervisors have more time to provide support. c. wider spans reduce effectiveness. d. the organization becomes taller. (c; Challenging; pp. 429-430) 151. By keeping the span of control to 5 or 6 employees, which of the following is not a drawback? a. It is expensive. b. Vertical communication is more complex. c. Decision making is slowed down. d. Upper management is less isolated. (d; Challenging; pp. 429-430) Application of Common Designs You are interested in explaining the different types of organizational designs to students of basic management. These students need to know the advantages and disadvantages of each structure as well as the structure’s characteristics. 152. You have just described a structure that is flat, has little formalization and is fast, flexible, and inexpensive to maintain. This describes the: a. matrix structure. b. simple structure. c. bureaucracy. d. team structure. (b; Easy; pp. 433-436) 349 153. You have been extolling the virtues of standardization. You are probably describing the: a. matrix structure. b. simple structure. c. bureaucracy. d. team structure. (c; Moderate; pp. 433-436) 154. The structure that combines functional and product departmentalization is the: a. matrix structure. b. simple structure. c. bureaucracy. d. team structure. (a; Moderate; pp. 433-436) 155. You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to try to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure probably best meets the definition of the: a. matrix structure. b. simple structure. c. bureaucracy. d. virtual structure. (a; Moderate; pp. 433-436) Application of New Design Options You have learned about the traditional and new design options for organizational structures. You have decided that one of the designs developed during the last decade or two is probably the most appropriate for your newly formed organization. 156. You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, a computer firm to handle all records, and are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your business as a: a. matrix organization. b. virtual organization. c. team structure. d. matrix structure. (b; Moderate; pp. 436-439) 157. Your new organization is looking for maximum flexibility. The most appropriate structure is probably the: a. matrix organization. b. virtual organization. c. team structure. d. matrix structure. (b; Moderate; pp. 436-439) 350 158. You have eliminated horizontal, vertical, and external barriers. You are operating as a: a. matrix organization. b. virtual organization. c. team structure. d. boundaryless organization. (d; Moderate; pp. 436-439) Application of the Boundaryless Organization You have decided that you want to change your organization to a “boundaryless” organization because you believe that you would be more efficient with fewer barriers. You can expect to eliminate barriers within your organization, but eliminating external barriers is probably not possible. (False; Moderate; pp. 438-439) 160. You will be trying to outsource many major functions. (False; Moderate; pp. 438-439) 161. Your organization will minimize the importance of status and rank. (True; Challenging; pp. 438-439) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 162. What is organizational structure? (Page 425) An organizational structure defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. The elements that must be addressed are work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization. 163. What is work specialization? (Pages 426-427) Work specialization is also known as division of labor. It describes the degree to which tasks in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs. The essence of work specialization is that, rather than an entire job being done by one individual, it is broken down into a number of steps, each step being completed by a separate individual. In essence, individuals specialize in doing part of an activity rather than the entire activity. 164. What is departmentalization? (Pages 427-429) The basis by which jobs are grouped together is called departmentalization. Tasks can be grouped by function performed, the type of product the organization produces, on the basis of geography or territory, process used, or by the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. 159. 351 165. What is chain of command? (Page 429) The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom. It answers questions for employees such as “To whom do I go if I have a problem?” and “To whom am I responsible?” The two complementary concepts are authority and unity of command. Authority refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed. The unity of command principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. It states that a person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible. 166. What is span of control? (Pages 429-430) The question of span of control is important because, to a large degree, it determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. It answers the question “How many employees can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?” All things being equal, the wider or larger the span, the more efficient the organization. 167. What is the difference between centralization and decentralization? (Pages 430-431) The term centralization refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. The concept includes only formal authority, that is, the rights inherent in one’s position. The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more decentralization there is. An organization characterized by centralization is an inherently different structural animal from one that is decentralized. In a decentralized organization, action can be taken more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make the decisions that affect their work lives. 168. What is the virtual organization? (Pages 437-438) The virtual organization is sometimes called the network or modular organization. Typically, a small, core organization outsources major business functions. In structural terms, the virtual organization is highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization. Why own when you can rent is the question that captures the essence of the virtual organization. 169. Explain the concept of the “boundaryless” organization. (Pages 438-439) Jack Welch coined the term boundaryless organization to describe his idea of what he wanted GE to become. He wanted to eliminate vertical and horizontal boundaries within GE and break down external barriers between the company and its customers and suppliers. The boundaryless organization seeks to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace 352 departments with empowered teams. And because it relies so heavily on information technology, some have turned to calling this structure the T-form (or technology-based) organization. By removing vertical boundaries, management flattens the hierarchy. Status and rank are minimized. 170. What is the difference between the mechanistic model and the organic model? (Page 440) The mechanistic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network (mostly downward communication), and little participation by low-level members in decision making. At the other extreme is the organic model. This model looks a lot like the boundaryless organization. It is flat, uses cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network and it involves high participation in decision making. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 171. What are five common ways that an organization can group activities? Give an example of each. (Pages 427-429) One of the most popular ways to group activities is by functions performed. A manufacturing manager might organize his or her plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and supply specialists into common departments. Tasks can also be departmentalized by type of product the organization produces. Procter & Gamble is organized along these lines. Each major product is placed under the authority of an executive who has complete global responsibility for that product. Another way to departmentalize is on the basis of geography or territory. The sales function, for instance, may have western, southern, midwestern, and eastern regions. Each of these regions is, in effect, a department organized around geography. Process departmentalization can be used to group departments. At an Alcoa aluminum tubing plant in upstate New York, production is organized into five departments: casting; press; tubing; finishing; and inspecting, packing, and shipping. Each department specializes in one specific phase in the production of aluminum tubing. A final category is to use the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. Microsoft, for instance, recently reorganized around four customer markets: consumers, large corporations, software developers, and small businesses. 172. Discuss innovation strategy, cost-minimization strategy, and imitation strategy. (Page 441) An innovation strategy does not mean a strategy merely for simple or cosmetic changes from previous offerings but rather one for meaningful and unique innovations. An organization that is pursuing a cost-minimization strategy tightly controls costs, refrains from incurring unnecessary innovation or marketing expenses, and cuts prices in selling a basic product. Organizations following an imitation strategy try to capitalize on the best of both of the previous strategies. They seek to minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit. Their strategy is to move into new products or new markets only after viability has been proven by innovators. Discuss the three key dimensions of an organization's environment: capacity, volatility, and complexity. (Page 443) 353 173. An organization’s environment is composed of those institutions or forces that are outside the organization and potentially affect the organization’s performance. These typically include suppliers, customers, competitors, government regulatory agencies, public pressure groups, and the like. The capacity of an environment refers to the degree to which it can support growth. Rich and growing environments generate excess resources, which can buffer the organization in times of relative scarcity. Abundant capacity leaves room for an organization to make mistakes, while scarce capacity does not. The degree of instability in an environment is captured in the volatility dimension. Where there is a high degree of unpredictable change, the environment is dynamic. This makes it difficult for management to predict accurately the probabilities associated with various decision alternatives. At the other extreme is a stable environment. Finally, the environment needs to be assessed in terms of complexity; that is, the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements. Simple environments are homogeneous and concentrated. Environments characterized by heterogeneity and dispersion are called complex. Organizations that operate in environments characterized as scarce, dynamic, and complex face the greatest degree of uncertainty. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS List and briefly describe the six key questions that managers need to answer in designing the proper organizational structure. (Exh. 15-1; Page 426) There are six questions that manager need to answer in designing the proper organizational structure. Work specialization answers the question “To what degree are tasks subdivided into separate jobs?” Departmentalization answers the question “On what basis will jobs be grouped together?” Chain of command answers the question “To whom do individuals and groups report?” Span of control answers the question “How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?” Centralization and decentralization answer the question “Where does decisionmaking authority lie?” And formalization answers the question “To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?” 175. Describe the three common organizational designs: simple structure, bureaucracy, and matrix structure. (Pages 433-436) The simple structure is said to be characterized most by what it is not rather than what it is. The simple structure is not elaborate. It has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. The simple structure is a “flat” organization; it usually has only two or three vertical levels, a loose body of employees, and one individual in whom the decision-making authority is centralized. Standardization is the key concept that underlies the bureaucracy. It is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations, tasks that are grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command. The matrix combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. It breaks the unity-of-command concept. Employees in the matrix have two bosses – their functional department managers and their product managers. Therefore, the matrix has a dual chain of command. 354 174. 176. What are the implications of organizational design on employee behavior? (Pages 445-446) A review of the evidence linking organizational structures to employee performance and satisfaction leads to a pretty clear conclusion – you can’t generalize. Not everyone prefers the freedom and flexibility of organic structures. Individual differences must be addressed. The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to higher productivity but at the price of reduced job satisfaction. Work specialization is not an unending source of higher productivity. Problems start to surface, and productivity begins to suffer, when the human diseconomies of doing repetitive and narrow tasks overtake the economies of specialization. As the workforce has become more highly educated and desirous of jobs that are intrinsically rewarding, the point where productivity begins to decline seems to be reached more quickly than in decades past. Negative behavioral outcomes from high specialization are most likely to surface in professional jobs occupied by individuals with high needs for personal growth and diversity. A review of the research indicates that it is probably safe to say there is no evidence to support a relationship between span of control and employee performance. There is some evidence indicating that a manager’s job satisfaction increases as the number of employees he or she supervises increases. Fairly strong evidence has linked centralization and job satisfaction. In general, organizations that are less centralized have a greater amount of participative decision making. Participative decision making is positively related to job satisfaction. But, again, individual differences surface. The decentralization-satisfaction relationship is strongest with employees who have low self-esteem. Because individuals with low self-esteem have less confidence in their abilities, they place a higher value on shared decision making, which means that they’re not held solely responsible for decision outcomes. To maximize employee performance and satisfaction, individual differences, such as experience, personality, and the work tasks, should be taken into account. In addition, national culture influences preference for structure so it, too, needs to be considered. There is substantial evidence that individuals are attracted to, selected by, and stay with organizations that suit their personal characteristics. So the effect of structure on employee behavior is undoubtedly reduced where the selection process facilitates proper matching of individual characteristics with organizational characteristics. 355 Chapter 16 Work Design and Technology MULTIPLE CHOICE Technology in the Workplace 1. How an organization transfers its inputs into outputs is: a. technology. b. marketing. c. procedures. d. organizational structure. (a; Easy; p. 455) 2. The common theme among new technologies in the workplace is that they: a. are bigger, better, and faster. b. substitute machinery for human labor in transforming inputs into outputs. c. computerize everything. d. use sophisticated electronics. (b; Moderate; p. 455) 3. Specific issues related to technology and work include all except which of the following? a. continuous improvement processes b. process reengineering c. behavior modification d. mass customization (c; Challenging; p. 456) 4. _____is a philosophy of management that seeks to achieve continuous process improvement so that variability is constantly reduced. a. Technology b. Quality management c. Reengineering d. Process value analysis (b; Moderate; p. 456) 5. Which of the following argues that employees will no longer be able to rest on their previous accomplishments and successes? a. continuous improvement b. MBO c. team management d. authoritative management (a; Moderate; p. 456) 356 _____means that management rethinks and redesigns those processes by which the organization creates value and does work, ridding itself of operations that have become antiquated. a. TQM b. Technology review c. Reengineering d. MBO (c; Easy; p. 457) 7. The person who coined the term “reengineering” for organizations was: a. Weber. b. Hammer. c. Hackman. d. Lawrence. (b; Moderate; p. 457) 8. An organization’s _____define(s) what it is that the organization is more superior at delivering than its competition. a. process value b. competitive advantage c. distinctive competencies d. core processes (c; Moderate; p. 457) 9. Better store locations, more efficient distribution systems, or superior technical support are examples of: a. process value. b. competitive advantage. c. distinctive competencies. d. core processes. (c; Moderate; p. 457) 10. Which of the following is one of the three key elements of reengineering? a. evaluating technology b. reorganizing vertically by processes c. assessing core processes d. limiting conflict (c; Moderate; p. 457) 11. Mini-rip Convenience Store has the best location in your town. This is the reason for Mini-rip’s: a. low prices. b. high prices. c. reengineering effort. d. distinctive competency. (d; Moderate; p. 457) 6. 357 12. _____is determination of the degree to which each organizational process adds value to the organization’s distinctive competencies. a. Competitive assessment b. Reengineering c. Process value analysis d. TQM (c; Moderate; p. 457) 13. Process reengineering requires which of the following? a. reorganizing around horizontal processes b. using cross-functional and self-managed teams c. focusing on processes rather than functions d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 457) 14. One of the goals of _______ is to minimize the necessary amount of management. a. competitive assessment b. reengineering c. process value analysis d. TQM (b; Challenging; p. 457) Which of the following statements about reengineering is not true? a. Lots of people are going to lose their jobs as a direct result of reengineering efforts. b. Staff support jobs, especially middle managers, will be most vulnerable to reengineering. c. The results of reengineering will be uniform across the organization. d. Clerical jobs in service industries will be vulnerable. (c; Challenging; p. 457) 15. 16. Print on demand is an example of: a. quality management. b. mass customization. c. mass reading. d. large print books. (b; Moderate; p. 458) 17. ________ encompasses production processes that are flexible enough to create products and services that are individually tailored to individual customers. a. Mass customization b. Construction production c. Quality management d. Continuous process improvement (a; Moderate; p. 458) 358 18. Advantages of mass customization include all of the following except: a. customers don’t have to compromise. b. manufacturers increase production efficiency. c. increased coordination demands are created. d. less working capital is required. (c; Challenging; p. 459) OB in an E-World 19. _____ refers to the sales side of electronic business. a. E-organization b. E-commerce c. E-business d. E-work (b; Moderate; p. 459) 20. ______ is the full breadth of activities included in a successful Internet-based enterprise. a. E-organization b. E-commerce c. E-business d. E-work (c; Moderate; p. 459) ____ refers to the act of employees using their organization’s Internet access during formal work hours to surf non-job related web sites and to send or read personal e-mail. a. Social loafing b. Internet loafing c. Cyberloafing d. Cyberstealing (c; Easy; p. 460) 22. 21. Which of the following statements is not true concerning decisions in e-organizations? a. Decisions in e-orgs are in a continual flex with past choices being continually modified and even discarded. b. Routine decision programs are essentially useless because few of the decisions that need to be made have been encountered before. c. The probability of errors in decision making is increased. d. There is a decrease in the need to recover fast from mistakes and move on. (d; Challenging; pp. 461-462) 23. The downside of the open communication in the e-org is: a. instant communication. b. rigid adherence to hierarchical levels. c. communication overload. d. filtering. (c; Moderate; p. 462) 359 24. E-politicians are likely to rely much more on: a. cyberloafing. b. cyber-schmoozing. c. traditional face-to-face interaction. d. cocktail party interactions. (b; Moderate; p. 462) Conceptual Frameworks for Analyzing Work Tasks 25. Herzberg’s two-factor theory and the research on the achievement need are essentially: a. unproven by research. b. applications of the theory behind TQM. c. task characteristics theories. d. applications of reengineering. (c; Moderate; p. 464) 26. _____ seek(s) to identify task characteristics of jobs, how these characteristics are combined to form different jobs, and their relationship to employee motivation, satisfaction, and performance. a. Reengineering b. Task characteristics theories c. Process value analysis d. The theory of distinctive competencies (b; Easy; p. 464) Task characteristics theories seek to identify all of the following except: a. task characteristics of jobs. b. how the task characteristics of jobs are combined to form different jobs. c. the relationship of task characteristics to motivation, satisfaction, and performance. d. which task characteristics add distinctive value to an organization. (d; Challenging; p. 464) 27. 28. Requisite task attributes theory was developed by: a. Hackman and Oldham. b. Turner and Lawrence. c. Herzberg. d. Tuckman and Jensen. (b; Easy; p. 464) 29. Which of the following describes task identity according to JCM? a. the degree to which the job provides independence b. the degree to which the employee receives information concerning performance c. the degree to which the job requires completion of a piece of work d. the degree to which the job requires a variety of different activities (c; Moderate; p. 465) 360 Which of the following describes autonomy according to JCM? a. the degree to which the job provides independence b. the degree to which the employee receives information concerning performance c. the degree to which the job requires completion of a piece of work d. the degree to which the job requires a variety of different activities (a; Moderate; p. 465) 31. The job characteristics model (JCM) includes all of the following except: a. task identity. b. feedback. c. role identity. d. task significance. (c; Moderate; p. 465) 32. According to JCM, the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people is: a. task significance. b. task identity. c. autonomy. d. skill variety. (a; Moderate; p. 465) 33. What two theorists are associated with the job characteristics model (JCM)? a. Turner and Lawrence b. Hackman and Oldham c. Blake and Mouton d. Luft and Ingham (b; Challenging; p. 465) 34. The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work is: a. task significance. b. task identity. c. skill variety. d. feedback. (b; Moderate; p. 465) 35. What theory laid the basis for Hackman and Oldham’s JCM (job characteristics model)? a. social information processing model b. reengineering c. requisite task attributes theory d. TQM (c; Challenging; p. 465) 36. In terms of job characteristics, a body shop worker who sprays paint eight hours a day exemplifies: a. low skill variety. b. high skill variety. c. low feedback. d. high feedback. 361 30. (a; Moderate; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) 37. In terms of job characteristics, sweeping floors in the hospital intensive care unit exemplifies: a. high task identity. b. low task identity. c. low task significance. d. high task significance. (c; Moderate; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) In terms of job characteristics, an electronics factory worker who assembles a radio and then tests it to determine if it operates properly exemplifies: a. high feedback. b. low feedback. c. high task significance. d. low task significance. (a; Challenging; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) 39. Which of the following would be an example of a job with the characteristic of high task significance? a. a body shop worker who sprays paint eight hours a day b. nursing the sick in a hospital intensive care unit c. sweeping hospital floors d. an electronics factory worker who assembles a radio and then tests it to determine if it operates properly (b; Moderate; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) 40. The core dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) can be combined into a single predictive index called the: a. JCM score. b. growth-need score. c. motivating potential score. d. core dimensions variable. (c; Moderate; p. 466) 41. Which of the following statements is not true? a. People who work on jobs with high-core job dimensions are generally more motivated. b. People who work on jobs with high-core job dimensions are generally less productive. c. People who work on jobs with high-core job dimensions are generally more satisfied. d. Job dimensions operate through the psychological state in influencing personal outcome variables rather than influencing them directly. (b; Challenging; pp. 466-467) 42. The central thesis of the social information processing (SIP) model is: a. any job can be described in terms of five core job dimensions. b. the basic needs of people can be narrowed down to achievement, affiliation, and power. c. people respond to jobs as they perceive them rather than to the objective jobs themselves. d. job enrichment should be used to motivate employees. (c; Moderate; p. 468) 362 38. 43. Which of the following is consistent with the social information processing (SIP) model? a. Employees adopt attitudes and behaviors in response to the social cues provided by others with whom they have contact. b. Co-workers have little influence on an employee’s perception of a particular job. c. Job characteristics impact behavioral outcomes. d. Managers have little to do with the way an employee views his/her job. (a; Moderate; p. 468) Work Space Design 44. The study of _____looks at the amount of work space, its arrangement or layout, the degree of privacy it provides, and the effect on employees’ performance and satisfaction. a. kinesics b. interior space analysis c. work space design d. office analysis and design (c; Moderate; p. 469) 45. Which one of the following trends is seen in contemporary work space design? a. Space is an indication of status. b. Extra space is allocated to public spaces. c. More employees have private offices. d. Offices are getting larger. (b; Moderate; p. 469) 46. _____ refers to the distance between people and facilities. a. Size b. Privacy c. Arrangement d. Formality (c; Easy; p. 470) 47. The arrangement of one’s workplace is important primarily because: a. it significantly influences social interaction. b. it signifies status. c. it affects security of confidential information. d. it affects workers’ health. (a; Challenging; p. 470) 48. There is a sizable amount of research that supports that you are more likely to interact with: a. those individuals who are your opposite. b. those individuals who are physically close. c. those individuals with similar size cubicles. d. individuals in public spaces. (b; Moderate; p. 470) 363 49. _____ is in part a function of the amount of space per person and the arrangement of that space, but is also influenced by walls, partitions, and other physical barriers. a. Arrangement b. Formality c. Status d. Privacy (d; Challenging; p. 470) 50. ____ is an ancient Chinese system for arranging a person’s surroundings so they are in harmony and balance with nature. a. Chi b. Feng shui c. Life force d. Harmony furniture (b; Easy; p. 471) 51. Which is not a feng-shui-based suggestion for managers to attract positive chi to their workplaces? a. The manager’s office should be as far as possible from the entrance to the building. b. When seated behind his or her desk, a person must always be able to see the door. c. Fish tanks and aquariums should be avoided since water is bad chi. d. A mirror at the entrance to a building acts to repel bad things. (c; Challenging; p. 471) 52. Matching the office to the brain work is called: a. cognitive ergonomics. b. ergonomics. c. brainstorming. d. brainmatching. (a; Easy; p. 472) Work Redesign Options Which of the following is not an option a manager has if he wants to redesign or change the make-up of employee jobs? a. job enlargement b. job rotation c. job enrichment d. job specification (d; Challenging; p. 472) 53. 54. Cross training is another phrase for: a. job enrichment. b. job enlargement. c. job rotation. d. job enhancement. (c; Easy; p. 472) 364 55. Josie works on a production line. Her job used to be to put on right front fenders. She is not particularly pleased because now she has been assigned to do several different jobs while each car is at her station. Josie has experienced: a. job rotation. b. job enlargement. c. job enrichment. d. job combination. (b; Easy; p. 473) 56. _____refers to the horizontal expansion of jobs. a. Job enrichment b. Reengineering c. Promotion d. Job enlargement (d; Easy; p. 473) 57. _____refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. a. Job rotation b. Job enlargement c. Job enrichment d. Cross training (c; Easy; p. 473) 58. Combining tasks, creating natural work units, establishing client relationships, and opening feedback channels are related to: a. job enlargement. b. job enrichment. c. job processing. d. job rotation. (b; Moderate; p. 474) Work Schedule Options 59. All of the following are examples of alternative work schedule options except: a. compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. variable-rate schedules. d. job sharing. (c; Challenging; pp. 475-477) 60. A work scheduling option that increases employee discretion over when they arrive at and leave work is: a. the compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. a 4-40 program. d. job rotation. (b; Moderate; p. 475) 365 61. Which of the following is a benefit of flextime? a. reduced absenteeism b. increased productivity c. reduced overtime expenses d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 476) 62. When employees work during a common core time period each day but may choose when they work for the rest of the day, it is called: a. compressed workweek. b. core hour scheduling. c. flextime. d. 4-40 program. (c; Easy; p. 476) 63. The major drawback to flextime is: a. the workplace tends to be disorganized. b. employees try to arrive late and leave early. c. it is not applicable to every job. d. productivity tends to be lower. (c; Challenging; p. 476) 64. The practice of allowing two or more people to split a 40-hour-a-week job is termed: a. job rotation. b. job sharing. c. job enlargement. d. cross training. (b; Easy; p. 476) 65. Jessica works from her home via her computer which is linked to her office. This is an example: of a. telecommuting. b. job sharing. c. job enlargement. d. virtual officing. (a; Easy; p. 477) 66. When employees can do their work from home on a computer, they are: a. job sharing. b. telecommuting. c. job enriching. d. job friendly. (b; Easy; p. 477) 366 67. Which of the following job categories has not been identified as lending themselves to telecommuting? a. routine information-handling tasks b. emergency room doctors c. mobile activities d. professional and other knowledge-related tasks (b; Easy; p. 477) TRUE/FALSE Technology in the New Workplace 68. Technology is how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs. (True; Easy; p. 455) 69. Reengineering is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes. (False; Moderate; p. 456) 70. Quality management programs seek to achieve continuous process improvements, so variability is constantly reduced. (True; Easy; p. 456) 71. The pressures from an unrelenting search for process improvements can create anxiety and stress in some employees. (True; Moderate; p. 456) You are instituting a quality management program in your facility. You should include employee involvement programs as an important part of your program. (True; Moderate; p. 456) An organization’s process value competencies define what it is that the organization is more superior at delivering than its competition. (False; Easy; p. 457) 74. Identifying distinctive competencies is important because it guides decisions regarding what activities are crucial to the organization’s success. (True; Challenging; p. 457) 75. Process-value analysis typically uncovers many activities that add value. (False; Moderate; p. 457) 76. Reengineering requires management to reorganize around vertical processes. (False; Moderate; p. 457) 77. One of the goals of reengineering is to minimize the necessary amount of management. (True; Moderate; p. 457) 367 73. 72. 78. Lots of people are going to lose their jobs as a direct result of reengineering efforts. (True; Moderate; p. 457) 79. If your firm is involved in reengineering, it will probably take three to five years to implement. (True; Moderate; p. 457) 80. Print on demand is an example of mass customization. (True; Moderate; p. 458) Levi’s ability to provide customers with a custom-fitted pair of jeans is an example of mass production efficiencies. (False; Challenging; p. 458) The downside of mass customization is that it creates increased coordination demands on management. (True; Challenging; p. 459) OB in an E-World 83. E-commerce refers to the sales side of electronic business. (True; Easy; p. 459) 84. E-orgs do not include hospitals, schools, or government agencies. (False; Moderate; p. 459) 85. An e-org is defined by the degree to which it uses global and private network linkages. (True; Challenging; p. 459) 86. There are no unique challenges to motivating employees in e-orgs. (False; Easy; p. 460) 87. Cyberloafing refers to the act of employees using their organization’s Internet access during formal work hours to surf non-job related Web sites and to send or read personal e-mail. (True; Easy; p. 460) 88. Electronic surveillance of employees by employers is an issue that puts an organization’s desire for control against an employee’s right to privacy. (True; Moderate; p.461) 89. A recent survey found that 95 percent of U.S. employers actively monitor or restrict employees’ Web activity. (False; Moderate; p. 461) 90. Individual decision-making models are likely to become increasingly obsolete. (True; Challenging; p. 461) 91. E-orgs allow, even encourage, individuals to communicate directly without going through channels. 368 82. 81. (True; Moderate; p. 462) 92. E-politicians are likely to rely more on face-to-face activities instead of cyber-schmoozing. (False; Challenging; p. 462) 93. Online networking will become increasingly popular and effective as a supplement to more traditional political channels. (True; Moderate; p. 463) 94. When introverts use the Internet, it undermines their offline social interactions. (True; Challenging; p. 463) Conceptual Frameworks for Analyzing Work Tools 95. The three most important task characteristics theories are requisite task attributes theory, the job characteristics model, and the social information processing model. (True; Moderate; p. 464) 96. The task characteristics approach began with the work of Hersey and Blanchard. (False; Challenging; p. 464) 97. Turner and Lawrence found that absenteeism was lower when jobs were complex and challenging. (True; Moderate; p. 464) 98. The requisite task attributes theory is based upon the job characteristics model. (False; Challenging; pp. 464-465) According to the social information processing model, a job can be described in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback. (False; Challenging; p. 465) 100. The degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities is termed task significance. (False; Moderate; p. 465) 101. The degree to which the job provides substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to an individual is termed autonomy. (True; Moderate; p. 465) 102. The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work is termed task significance. (False; Moderate; p. 465) 103. An example of a job with high task significance is nursing the sick in the hospital intensive care unit. (True; Moderate; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) 104. A telephone salesperson who must speak from a prepared script has high job autonomy. (False; Easy; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) 105. The core dimensions of a job can be combined into a single predictive index called the motivating 369 99. potential score. (True; Moderate; Exh. 16-3; p. 466) People who work on jobs with high-core job dimensions are generally less motivated, satisfied, and productive than are those who do not. (False; Moderate; p. 467) 107. The central thesis of the social information processing model is that people respond to their jobs as they perceive them rather than to the objective jobs themselves. (True; Moderate; p. 468) 108. A number of studies generally confirm the validity of the SIP model. (True; Moderate; p. 469) Work Space Design 109. Status is the most important determinant of space allocated to an employee. (False; Moderate; p. 469) 110. Today, when extra space is allocated, the trend is toward setting it aside where people can meet and teams can work. (True; Moderate; p. 470) 111. Arrangement refers to the distance between people and facilities. (True; Moderate; p. 470) 112. One of the most widespread workplace design trends in recent years has been the phasing out of closed offices and replacing them with open office plans that have few, if any, walls or doors. (True; Moderate; p. 470) 113. The single most important concept in feng shui is water. (False; Challenging; p. 471) 114. A feng-shui-based suggestion is for managers to always keep the door to their backs when seated at their desks. (False; Moderate; p. 471) 115. The trend is toward less privacy in the workplace. (True; Moderate; p. 470) Work Redesign Options 116. Job rotation is the same as cross training. (True; Easy; p. 472) 117. Job rotation decreases skill variety. (False; Easy; p. 473) 106. 370 118. Boredom during the first week or two of a new job activity is a common problem with job rotation. (False; Moderate; p. 473) 119. Job rotation always increases productivity. (False; Moderate; p. 473) 120. Expanding jobs horizontally is called job enlargement. (True; Easy; p. 473) 121. Increasing the number and variety of tasks that an individual performs is called job enrichment. (False; Easy; p. 473) 122. Job enrichment gives an employee more control over his work than job enlargement. (True; Moderate; p. 473) 123. Job enrichment tends to improve employee freedom and independence. (True; Moderate; p. 473) 124. Ideally, feedback about performance should be received directly as the employee does the job, rather than from management on an occasional basis. (True; Easy; p. 473) 125. The job characteristics model (JCM) recommendations seem to be as valid at the group level as they are at the individual level. (True; Challenging; p. 474) Work Schedule Options 126. Flextime is a scheduling option that allows employees, within specific parameters, to decide when to go to work. (True; Easy; p. 475) 127. Flextime tends to reduce absenteeism. (True; Moderate; p. 475) 128. Flextime’s major drawback is that it’s not applicable to every job. (True; Easy; p. 476) 129. The practice of having two or more people split a 40-hour workweek is termed flextime. (False; Easy; p. 476) 130. Jim and Janet each work one half of the same job. Their arrangement is termed job sharing. (True; Easy; p. 476) The major drawback of job sharing from management’s perspective is finding compatible pools of employees who can successfully coordinate the intricacies of one job. (True; Moderate; p.477) 131. 371 132. Working at home via a computer linked to the office is termed virtual officing. (False; Easy; p. 478) 133. The major downside of telecommuting for management is less direct supervision of employees. (True; Moderate; p. 478) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Job Characteristics Model You plan to use Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model to describe the core job dimensions of the jobs within your division. You understand that these dimensions are related to employee motivation, performance, and satisfaction. 134. John has a job that requires a variety of different activities so that he gets to use a number of different skills and talents. John’s job has: a. skill variety. b. task identity. c. task significance. d. autonomy. (a; Moderate; p. 465) 135. Jill’s job lets her begin and complete a whole piece of work. Jill’s job has: a. skill variety. b. task identity. c. task significance. d. autonomy. (b; Moderate; p. 465) 136. Jessi’s job is such that she gets to schedule her work and determine the procedures to be used in carrying it out. Jessi’s job has: a. skill variety. b. task identity. c. task significance. d. autonomy. (d; Moderate; p. 465) Application of Work Schedule Options B&B Marketing Research conducts telephone interviews for its clients. Most of the work done requires very little interaction between the workers. B&B is considering using some of the relatively new work schedule options available in the work world today in order to motivate current employees and attract new employees. 137. B&B has decided to take advantage of employees’ most productive periods of the day by letting them decide which hours they want to work. B&B would probably consider: a. flextime. b. compressed workweeks. c. shorter workweeks. 372 d. job sharing. (a; Moderate; pp. 475-477) 138. B&B employees would like to work from their homes. _____might be a good option for them. a. Flextime b. Compressed workweeks c. Job sharing d. Telecommuting (d; Easy; pp. 475-477) Two employees have approached B&B about an interesting idea. They would like to split a traditional 40 hour-a-week job. They are interested in: a. job sharing. b. telecommuting. c. compressed workweeks. d. flextime. (a; Moderate; pp. 475-477) Application of Reengineering Jacob works for Compudot, a computer software development company. He has heard rumors that the company has not met profit expectations for the year and that management is going to “shake up the company” by doing “something drastic.” 140. Which of the following options best meets the idea of drastic change? a. flexible hours b. JCM c. TQM d. reengineering (d; Moderate; p. 457) 141. One of the phrases Jacob has heard is Plan-Do-Check-Act. This phrase is probably connected with management’s interest in: a. a compressed workweek. b. flextime. c. TQM. d. reengineering. (c; Moderate; p. 457) 142. If management decides to reengineer, all of the following will probably happen except: a. increased employee motivation. b. reorganization around horizontal processes. c. elimination of antiquated processes. d. an autocratic, non-democratic process in the beginning. (a; Challenging; p. 457) 139. 373 Application of Alternative Work Scheduling You have been assigned the task of developing some alternative scheduling options for your organization. You put forward three options: a four-day, 10-hour per day option; an option where workers self-schedule their work hours; and a program in which two workers can split a job. 143. You should anticipate that your flextime option will increase productivity. (True; Moderate; pp. 475-477) 144. Job sharing may increase flexibility, but it will probably decrease worker satisfaction. (False; Moderate; pp. 475-477) 145. The program where workers self-schedule their work hours is termed telecommuting. (False; Easy; pp. 475-477) Application of Work Redesign Options You have determined that you must redesign several of the routine assembly line jobs in your department. You are familiar with several options. Joe’s job involves putting the two right wheels on every automobile on the assembly line. Sam’s job involves putting on the right side doors. 146. If Joe performs his job for four hours each day and Sam’s job for four hours each day, the redesign option used is: a. job rotation. b. job enlargement. c. job enrichment. d. job requisite model. (a; Moderate; pp. 472-474) 147. To enrich Joe’s job, which of the following might be considered? a. Have Joe put the two left wheels on each automobile with the two right wheels. b. Have Joe put only one right wheel on each automobile. c. Have Joe take on the supervisor’s responsibility of checking the quality of the wheels before he installs them. d. none of the above (c; Moderate; pp. 472-474) 148. If Joe’s job is enlarged, what is the likely outcome? a. Joe will definitely be enthusiastic. b. It will instill meaningfulness to Joe’s activities. c. It will not instill challenge to Joe’s job. d. It will decrease the variety of tasks Joe performs. (c; Challenging; pp. 472-474) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 149. Explain the concept of distinctive competencies. 374 (Page 457) An organization’s distinctive competencies define what it is that the organization does better than its competition. Examples might include better store locations, a more efficient distribution system, higher-quality products, more knowledgeable sales personnel, or superior technical support. 150. What is mass customization? (Page 458) Mass customization encompasses production processes that are flexible enough to create products and services that are individually tailored to individual customers. The future of production manufacturing is one of mass customization. For those products where customers want custom features, firms will be converting to “build to order” systems. 151. What is an e-organization? (Page 459) The e-organization (or e-org) refers to applications of e-business concepts to all organizations. Eorgs not only include business firms but also hospitals, schools, museums, government agencies, and the military. 152. What is cyberloaofing? (Pages 460-461) Cyberloafing refers to the act of employees using their organization’s Internet across during formal work hours to surf non-job related web sites and to send or read personal e-mail. Cyberloafing is consuming a lot of time among workers who have Internet access. 153. What is the central thesis of social information processing? (Page 468) The central thesis of social information processing is the fact that people respond to their jobs as they perceive them rather than to the objective jobs themselves. 154. What is feng shui? (Page 471) Feng shui is an ancient Chinese system for arranging a person’s surroundings so they are in harmony and balance with nature. It is more popular in guiding the design of buildings and workplaces. 155. Define job rotation. (Page 472) Job rotation is a work redesign option. It is also referred to as cross-training. When an activity is no longer challenging, the employee is rotated to another job, usually at the same level, that has similar skill requirements. 156. What is the difference between job enrichment and job enlargement? (Page 473) 375 Job enlargement is the idea of expanding jobs horizontally. It increases the number and variety of tasks that an individual performs. It addresses the lack of diversity in overspecialized jobs, yet does little to instill challenge or meaningfulness to a worker’s activities. Job enrichment was introduced to deal with the shortcomings of enlargement. Job enrichment refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. It increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work. 157. What is flextime? (Pages 475-476) Flextime is short for flexible work hours. It allows employees some discretion over when they arrive at and leave work. Employees have to work a specific number of hours a week, but they are free to vary the hours of work within certain limits. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 158. Discuss continuous improvement processes. (Page 456) The search for continuous improvement recognizes that good isn’t good enough and that even excellent performance can, and should, be improved upon. Quality management programs seek to achieve continuous process improvements so that variability is constantly reduced. When you eliminate variations, you increase the uniformity of the product or service. Increasing uniformity, in turn, results in lower costs and higher quality. Process reengineering means that management should start with a clean sheet of paper – rethinking and redesigning those processes by which the organization creates value and does work, ridding itself of operations that have become antiquated. 159. What are the advantages and disadvantages of mass customization? (Pages 458-459) Mass customization offers advantages to both customers and manufacturers. Customers don’t have to compromise. They can have the products they want, tailored to their individual tastes and needs. For manufacturers, they create more satisfied customers while, at the same time, increasing production efficiency. Mass customization results in little or no work-in-progress or finished-goods inventories; no obsolete products gathering dust on shelves or in showrooms, and requires less working capital. The downside of mass customization is that it creates increased coordination demands on management. And it typically requires emplo9yees to go through significant retraining. Mass customization usually requires reengineering of processes, and reorganizing work around teams to increase flexibility. 160. Why was Turner and Lawrence’s requisite task attributes theory important? (Pages 464-465) Turner and Lawrence’s requisite task attributes theory was important for at least three reasons. First, they demonstrated that employees did respond differently to different types of jobs. Second, they provided a preliminary set of task attributes by which jobs could be assessed. And third, they 376 focused on the need to consider the influence of individual differences on employees’ reactions to jobs. 161. Discuss three of the alternative work schedule options discussed in your text. (Pages 475-477) Flextime, job sharing, and telecommuting are three alternative work schedule options discussed in the text. Flextime is short for flexible work hours. It allows employees some discretion over when they arrive at and leave work. Employees have to work a specific number of hours a week, but they are free to vary the hours of work within certain limits. Job sharing allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. One person might perform the job from 8 A.M. to noon, while another performs the same job from 1 P.M. to 5 P.M. or the two could work full, but alternate days. Telecommuting refers to employees who do their work at home at least two days a week on a computer that is linked to their office. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 162. Explain the five core job dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM). (Pages 465-466) According to the job characteristics model, any job can be described in terms of five core job dimensions. These are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback. Skill variety is the degree to which the job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills and talents. Task identity is the degree to which the job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. Task significance is the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people. Autonomy is the degree to which the job provides substantial freedom, independence, and discretion to the individual in scheduling the work and in determining the procedures to be used in carrying it out. Feedback is the degree to which carrying out the work activities required by the job results in the individual obtaining direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance. 163. Discuss the importance of size, arrangement, and privacy in work space design. (Pages 469-470) Space costs money and reducing space cuts costs. A lot of the reduction in office space can be traced to reengineering. As jobs have been redesigned and traditional hierarchies replaced with teamwork, the need for large offices has lessened. Today, when extra space is being allocated, rather than giving it to specific individuals, the trend is toward setting it aside where people can meet and teams can work. While size measures the amount of space per employee, arrangement refers to the distance between people and facilities. This is important since it influences social interaction. Research indicates that you are more likely to interact with those individuals who are physically close. An employee’s work location, therefore, is likely to influence the information to which one is privy and one’s inclusion or exclusion from organization events. Privacy is in part a function of the amount of space per person and the arrangement of that space. But it also is influenced by walls, partitions, and other physical barriers. One of the most widespread workspace design trends in recent years has been the phasing out of closed offices and replacing them 377 with open office plans that have few, if any, walls or doors. The former provides privacy while the latter facilitates open communication. Organizations have sought to increase flexibility and employee collaboration by removing physical barriers like high walls, closed offices, and doors. Yet organizations are making exceptions for employees engaged in work that requires deep concentration. There is growing evidence that the desire for privacy is a strong one on the part of many people. Yet the trend is clearly toward less privacy at the workplace. 378 Chapter 17 Human Resource Policies and Practices MULTIPLE CHOICE Selection Practices Which one of the following is not a direct outcome of job analysis? a. job design b. description of tasks involved in a job c. ascertainment of needed knowledge, skills, and abilities d. determination of the relationship of a given job to other jobs (a; Easy; pp. 489-490) 1. 2. A written statement of what a jobholder does is a: a. job analysis. b. job description. c. job design. d. job specification. (b; Moderate; p. 490) 3. A written statement of the minimum acceptable qualifications a jobholder needs for a given job is: a. a job analysis. b. a job description. c. a job design. d. a job specification. (d; Moderate; p. 490) 4. The following are all popular job analysis methods except: a. diary method. b. transportation method. c. observation method. d. group interview method. (b; Moderate; Exh. 17-1; p. 490) 5. The job analysis method in which an analyst views videotapes of workers on the job is termed: a. diary method. b. technical conference method. c. individual interview method. d. observation method. (d; Moderate; Exh. 17-1; p. 490) 6. The job analysis method where the job incumbents record their daily activities is the: a. diary method. b. critical incident method. c. individual interview method. d. observation method. (a; Moderate; Exh. 17-1; p. 490) 379 7. One of the most frequently used selection devices that tends to carry a disproportionate amount of influence is the: a. interview. b. written test. c. performance simulation test. d. work sampling. (a; Moderate; pp. 490-491) 8. The unstructured interview: a. is frequently conducted. b. typically is biased. c. typically is unrelated to future job performance. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 491) 9. The variability in interview results across applicants is reduced by which of the following? a. having interviewers with a uniform method of recording information b. avoiding standardization of the rating of the applicant’s qualifications c. providing interviewers with a uniform method of recording data d. conducting longer interviews (c; Moderate; p. 491) 10. Which of the following is not a typical written test? a. intelligence b. integrity c. work sampling d. aptitude (c; Easy; p. 492) 11. _____ tests have proven to be particularly good predictors for jobs that require cognitive complexity. a. Intelligence b. Integrity c. Work sampling d. Aptitude (a; Challenging; p. 492) 12. One problem with written tests is that they are frequently: a. validated. b. discriminatory. c. intimidating. d. too difficult. (b; Challenging; p. 492) Which one of the following is the best reason for the reduced use of written tests? a. They are hard to construct. b. They are difficult to validate. c. They are expensive to administer. d. They give very little information. (b; Challenging; p. 492) 13. 380 14. Making an individual actually do the job as a test to see if he can do it is: a. a performance simulation test. b. valid. c. work sampling. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 492) 15. The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by: a. the interview process. b. a written test. c. a “hands-on” day in the office. d. a performance simulation test. (d; Challenging; p. 492) 16. The type of performance simulation that utilizes a miniature replica of the job is: a. an assessment center. b. an interview. c. job analysis. d. work sampling. (d; Moderate; p. 492) 17. A more elaborate set of performance simulation tests, specifically designed to evaluate a candidate’s managerial potential, is administered in: a. work sampling. b. assessment centers. c. personality tests. d. management development programs. (b; Moderate; p. 493) 18. _____ yield validities superior to written aptitude and personality tests. a. Work samples b. Interviews c. Integrity tests d. Interest tests (a; Challenging; p. 492) Training and Development Programs Basic literacy training must often be provided by employers because about _____ of the U.S. population can’t read at even an eighth-grade level. a. 10% b. 15% c. 30% d. 50% (d; Challenging; p. 494) 20. Which one of the following was not specifically suggested by your author as a general category of employee skills? 381 19. a. financial b. basic literacy c. problem solving d. interpersonal (a; Easy; p. 494) 21. According to your author, which type of skill training has become increasingly important? a. financial b. technical c. problem solving d. interpersonal (b; Moderate; p. 494) Learning how to be a better listener and how to be a more effective team player is included in training for: a. financial. b. technical. c. problem solving. d. interpersonal. (d; Moderate; pp. 494-495) 23. A recent survey found that about ___ percent of employees working in the 1000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 (d; Challenging; p. 495) 24. 22. Examples of on-the-job training include all of the following except: a. job rotation. b. apprenticeship. c. simulation exercises. d. understudy assignments. (c; Easy; p. 495) 25. Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except: a. classroom lectures. b. apprenticeship. c. Internet courses. d. public seminars. (b; Moderate; p. 495) 26. The primary drawback of on-the-job training is that: a. it seldom works. b. it often disrupts the workplace. 382 c. it is too time consuming. d. all of the above (b; Challenging; p. 495) 27. Effective training recognizes that people learn differently. Examples of learning styles include: a. reading. b. watching. c. participating. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 496) Which of the following does not characterize today’s careers? a. people adapting quickly b. a series of upward moves with increasing income c. people learning continuously d. people changing their work identities over time (b; Challenging; pp. 496-497) 28. 29. Modern opinions about the organization’s responsibilities for career development seem to indicate: a. organizations have an obligation to provide individuals with life-long employment. b. organizations should have formalized employer-directed career planning programs. c. career development should be paternalistic. d. organizations should be supportive as individuals proceed with their own career development. (d; Challenging; p. 497) 30. Which is not a suggested way for organizations to provide career development support to their employees? a. Clearly communicate the organization’s goals and future strategies. b. Create growth opportunities. c. Provide time for employees to learn. d. Avoid tuition reimbursement. (d; Moderate; p. 497) 31. Today’s employees should think of themselves as: a. irreplaceable. b. self-employed. c. at the organization’s mercy. d. braggarts to get ahead. (b; Moderate; p. 498) Performance Evaluation 32. Which one of the following was mentioned in your text as a purpose for performance evaluations? a. improves group cohesiveness 383 b. defines the structure c. validates selection programs d. identifies what jobs are being done (c; Challenging; pp. 498-499) The performance evaluation purpose that was not suggested by your text is: a. a method to identify training needs. b. a feedback mechanism. c. a method to acquire power bases. d. a basis for reward allocation. (c; Easy; p. 498-499) 33. 34. Your text emphasizes performance evaluations as a mechanism for: a. feedback. b. promotion. c. human resource planning. d. promotion. (a; Moderate; p. 499) 35. Performance evaluation is most relevant to which relationship in the expectancy theory of motivation? a effort-performance b. effort-individual goal c. reward-individual goal d. attractiveness-individual goal (a; Challenging; p. 499) 36. We can expect individuals to work considerably below their potential if which of the following conditions occurs? a. if the objectives that employees are expected to achieve are unclear. b. if the criteria for measuring those objectives are vague. c. if the employees lack confidence that their efforts will lead to a satisfactory appraisal of their performance. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 500) 37. Examples of individual task outcomes that management could evaluate include all of the following except: a. quantity produced. b. scrap generated. c. promptness in submitting reports. d. cost per unit of production. (c; Moderate; p. 500) 38. Examples of behaviors that management could evaluate include all of the following except: a. quantity produced. b. average number of calls per day. c. sick days per year. 384 d. cost per unit of production. (a; Moderate; p. 500) 39. The weakest set of criteria used to evaluate employees is: a. individual traits. b. individual task outcomes. c. behaviors. d. All of the above are excellent criteria to use when evaluating employees. (a; Moderate; p. 500) 40. The most common source of employee evaluations is: a. immediate superiors. b. peers. c. immediate subordinates. d. 360-degree evaluations. (a; Moderate; p. 501) 41. ____ is one of the most reliable sources of appraisal data. a. Immediate superiors b. Peers c. Immediate subordinates d. Customers (b; Moderate; p. 501) 42. Which of the following is not true concerning self-evaluation? a. Self-evaluations get high marks from employees themselves. b. Self-evaluations tend to heighten employees’ defensiveness about the appraisal process. c. Self-evaluations make excellent vehicles for stimulating job performance discussions between employees and their superiors. d. Self-evaluations suffer from overinflated assessments. (b; Challenging; p. 501) 43. The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed: a. critical incidents. b. 360-degree evaluation. c. BARS. d. multiperson comparisons. (b; Moderate; p. 501) 44. _____ provide(s) performance feedback from a full circle of daily contacts. a. 360-degree evaluations b. Peer evaluations c. Paired comparison d. Subordinate evaluation 385 (a; Easy; p. 501) 45. All of the following are methods of performance evaluation except: a. critical incidents. b. written essays. c. interviews. d. graphic rating scales. (c; Moderate; pp. 502-503) 46. 360-degree evaluations fit well into all of the following organizations except: a. those that have introduced teams. b. those that have employee involvement. c. those that have introduced quality management. d. those that do not support employee participation. (d; Moderate; p. 502) 47. The evaluation method that focuses the evaluator’s attention on those behaviors that are key to executing a job effectively is: a. written essays. b. critical incidents. c. graphic rating scales. d. behaviorally anchored rating scales. (b; Easy; pp. 502-503) 48. Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete? a. written essays. b. critical incidents. c. graphic rating scales. d. behaviorally anchored rating scales. (a; Moderate; p. 502) 49. Which performance evaluation method produces descriptions such as anticipates, plans, executes, and solves immediate problems? a. written essays b. critical incidents c. graphic rating scales d. behaviorally anchored rating scales (d; Challenging; p. 503) 50. If the manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation: a. the subordinate is apt to become confused. b. the evaluator’s writing skills become the determining factor in success or failure. c. the subordinate will become motivated. d. the focus is on key behaviors. (d; Moderate; p. 503) 386 51. One reason to consider graphic rating scales is: a. accuracy. b. they require little time to administer. c. quality of result. d. breadth of information. (b; Moderate; p. 503) 52. When an appraiser rates employees based on items on a continuum with the points reflecting actual behaviors on the given job, it is called: a. BARS. b. critical incident. c. graphic rating scale. d. forced comparison. (a; Moderate; p. 503) 53. _____ evaluates one’s performance against the performance of one or more others. a. BARS b. Critical incident c. Graphic rating scale d. Forced comparison (d; Moderate; p. 503) 54. _____ requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top onefifth or second one-fifth. a. Individual ranking b. Group order ranking c. Paired comparison d. Critical incident (b; Moderate; p. 503) 55. Which popular approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst? a individual ranking b. group order ranking c. paired comparison d. 360-degree evaluation (a; Moderate; p. 504) 56. Through the use of forced comparisons, employees are evaluated based on: a. items along a continuum. b. a set of performance factors. c. group, individual, or paired comparison. d. graphic rating scales. (c; Moderate; p. 504) 387 57. The performance evaluation approach that compares each employee with every other employee and rates each as either the superior or the weaker member of the pair is: a. group order ranking b. individual ranking c. paired comparison d. BARS (c; Moderate; p. 504) 58. All of the following are ways to overcome problems encountered with performance evaluations except: a. use multiple criteria. b. emphasize traits. c. use multiple evaluators. d. emphasize behaviors. (b; Moderate; p. 505) 59. The concept of _____ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly. a. interpersonal justice b. due process c. due diligence d. restrained evaluation (b; Moderate; p. 506) 60. Which of the following is not a reason given by managers regarding their reluctance to give performance feedback? a. discomfort discussing performance weaknesses b. fear of confrontation with employees c. employees inflate assessments of their own performance making good news “just not good enough” d. fear that members of the human resources department will not accept their evaluations and force them to change the rating (d; Moderate; pp. 506-507) 61. Which of the following is not a suggestion offered by your text for designing a system to evaluate the performance of teams? a. Tie the team’s results to the organization’s goals. b. Measure both team and individual performance. c. Encourage individuals to state their goals. d. Train the team to create its own measures. (c; Moderate; p. 507) The Union-Management Interface 62. What percent of the U.S. work force currently belongs to a labor union? a. less than 5% b. less than 15% c. 30% d. over 30% (b; Challenging; p. 507) 388 63. The most pervasive area of labor union influence on an organization’s activities is: a. setting hiring criteria. b. setting safety rules. c. setting wage rates. d. designing jobs. (c; Moderate; p. 508) International Human Resource Practices: Selected Issues 64. Which of the following statement is true concerning international selection techniques? a. Structured interviews are popular in all countries. b. Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across countries. c. There are no widely accepted universal selection practices. d. Policies and practices do not require modification from one country to the next. (c; Moderate; p. 509) 65. Which of the following is not true concerning international performance evaluations? a. Caution should be used in generalizing across cultures. b. Every culture is concerned with performance appraisal. c. All managers don’t look at performance appraisal the same way as do managers in the United States. d. Individualistic countries emphasize formal performance evaluation systems to a greater degree than informal systems. (b; Challenging; pp. 509-510) Managing Diversity in Organizations 66. Which of the following might a company consider to help employees address work/life conflicts? a. Keep workloads reasonable. b. Reduce work-related travel. c. Offer on-site quality child-care. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 510-511) 67. The centerpiece of most diversity programs is: a. money. b. employer commitment. c. training. d. human resource personnel. (c; Moderate; p. 511) 68. Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for: a. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes. b. focusing on individual differences. c. eliminating group learning. d. balancing work/life conflicts. (a; Moderate; p. 511) 389 TRUE/FALSE Selection Practices 69. If management fails to get a proper match between the employee and the position, both employee performance and satisfaction suffer. (True; Easy; p. 489) 70. The search to achieve the right individual-job fit begins with selection. (False; Moderate; p. 489) 71. The process of assessing the activities within a job is termed job description. (False; Moderate; p. 490) 72. A job specification is a written statement of what a jobholder does. (False; Easy; p. 490) 73. Job descriptions and specifications are created from information gathered in interviews with job applicants. (False; Moderate; p. 490) 74. The interview is the most widely used selection device. (True; Easy; p. 491) As unstructured and random interviews become more structured and focused, the validity increases significantly. (True; Challenging; p. 491) The evidence indicates that interviews are good for assessing an applicant’s intelligence, level of motivation, and interpersonal skills. (True; Moderate; p. 491) 77. Written tests, as a selection device, have increased in usage during the past 20 years. (True; Moderate; p. 492) 78. Written tests have frequently been characterized as discriminatory. (True; Challenging; p. 492) 76. 75. 79. Intelligence tests have proven to be particularly good predictors for jobs that require cognitive complexity. (True; Moderate; p. 492) 80. As ethical problems have increased in organizations, integrity tests have gained popularity. (True; Easy; p. 492) 81. Performance simulation tests are a specific type of written test. (False; Moderate; p. 492) 390 82. Work samples yield validities almost consistently superior to written aptitude tests. (True; Moderate; p. 492) 83. Assessment center tests have proven effective for predicting later job performance in managerial positions. (True; Moderate; p. 493) Training and Development 84. Skills rarely deteriorate and never really become obsolete. (False; Easy; p. 493) 85. Organizations are increasingly having to provide basic reading and math skills for their employees. (True; Moderate; p. 479) A recent report found that 50 percent of the U.S. population reads below the eighth grade level and about 90 million adults are functionally illiterate. (True; Challenging; p. 494) 87. Awareness training is the most common type of employee training. (False; Easy; p. 494) 88. Technical training has become increasingly important because of changes in organization design. (True; Moderate; p.494) 89. Problem-solving skills cannot be taught. (False; Moderate; p. 495) 90. Most training takes place on the job. (True; Easy; p. 495) 91. Only about 20% of employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training. (False; Challenging; p. 495) 92. Most informal training is nothing other than employees helping each other out. (True; Moderate; p. 495) 93. An apprenticeship is an example of an off-the-job training method. (False; Easy; p. 495) 94. McDonald’s Hamburger University is an off-the-job training program. (True; Easy; p. 495) 95. Effective training incorporates the employee’s learning style. (True; Moderate; p. 496) 96. To maximize learning, readers should get the opportunity to observe individuals modeling the new skills. (False; Easy; p. 496) 391 86. 97. Most employees plan to provide an employee with lifetime employment. (False; Easy; p. 496) 98. For most organizations, formalized employer-directed career planning has been discarded. (True; Moderate; p. 496) 99. The essence of progressive career development is built on providing support for employees to continually add to their skills, abilities, and knowledge. (True; Challenging; p. 497) 100. Today’s employees should think of themselves of self-employed. (True; Moderate; p. 497) In a world of “free agency,” the successful career will be built on maintaining flexibility and keeping skills and knowledge up to date. (True; Moderate; p. 498) Performance Evaluation If the objectives that employees are expected to achieve are unclear, we can expect them to try harder to meet possibly high expectations. (False; Moderate; p. 498) Employees will alter their job behavior to reflect the criteria that management uses to evaluate their performance. (True; Moderate; p. 498) 104. Performance evaluation can be used for general human resource decisions and to identify training and development needs. (True; Easy; p. 498) 105. One explanation for why many employees may not be motivated is that the performance evaluation process is often more political than objective. (True; Moderate; p. 499) 103. 102. 101. When a manager is evaluated on cost per unit of production in his or her department, the evaluation criterion being used is behaviors. (False; Moderate; p. 500) When a manager is evaluated on the degree to which he or she “has a good attitude,” the evaluation criterion being used is traits. (True; Moderate; p. 500) 108. The weakest set of evaluation criteria is individual behaviors. (False; Moderate; p. 500) 109. The majority of all performance evaluations at lower and middle levels of the organization are 392 107. 106. conducted by the employee’s immediate boss. (True; Challenging; p. 500) 110. Peer evaluation is usually biased and unreliable because of competition and jealousy. (False; Moderate; p. 501) 111. Self-evaluation is consistent with empowerment. (True; Moderate; p. 501) 112. Using immediate subordinates in the performance evaluation process is inconsistent with recent trends in empowerment in the workplace. (False; Moderate; p. 501) 113. Respondent anonymity is crucial if immediate subordinate evaluations are to be accurate. (True; Challenging; p. 501) 114. The latest approach to evaluations is the 360-degree evaluation which obtains feedback from the full circle of daily contacts that an employee might have. (True; Moderate; p. 501) 115. Probably the simplest method of evaluation is the graphic rating scale. (False; Easy; p. 502) 116. The major problem with a written essay performance appraisal is lack of objectivity. (False; Moderate; p. 502) 117. Critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation focuses on key behaviors. (True; Moderate; pp. 502-503) 118. One of the most popular methods of evaluation is the graphic rating scale. (True; Easy; p. 503) 119. BARS is an example of a career development technique. (False; Easy; p. 503) 120. Forced comparisons are absolute measuring devices for performance evaluation. (False; Moderate; p. 503) In forced comparisons, the approach which compares each employee with every other employee and rates each as either the superior or weaker member of the pair is called group order ranking. (False; Moderate; p. 504) 122. The individual ranking approach rank-orders employees from best to worst. (True; Easy; p. 503) 123. There is evidence that certain traits will be adequate synonyms for performance in a large crosssection of jobs. (False; Challenging; p. 505) 121. 393 124. As the number of evaluators increases, the probability of attaining more accurate information increases. (True; Moderate; p. 505) 125. If raters make evaluations on only those dimensions which they are in a good position to rate, we increase the inter-rater agreement and make the evaluation a more valid process. (True; Moderate; p. 505) 126. There is no evidence to support that training evaluators can help minimize or eliminate common errors such as halo and leniency. (False; Moderate; p. 506) 127. The performance review should be designed more as a counseling activity than a judgment process and can best be accomplished by allowing the review to evolve out of the employee’s own selfevaluation. (True; Moderate; p. 507) Performance evaluation concepts have been almost exclusively developed with only individual employees in mind. (True; Moderate; p. 507) 129. In designing systems that support the performance of the teams, the team’s results should be tied to the organization’s goals. (True; Easy; p. 507) The Union-Management Interface 130. Today, approximately half of the U.S. work force belongs to a labor union. (False; Moderate; p. 507) 131. The most obvious areas of union influence are wage rates and working conditions. (True; Moderate; p. 508) 132. Where unions exist, performance evaluation systems tend to be more complex. (False; Moderate; p. 508) 133. The evidence demonstrates that union members are more satisfied with the work itself than their nonunion counterparts. (False; Moderate; p. 508) International Human Resource Practices: Selected Issues 134. Selection practices are uniform across countries. (False; Moderate; p. 509) In Middle Eastern countries, performance evaluations aren’t likely to be widely used, since managers in these countries tend to see people as subjugated to their environment. (True; Moderate; p. 510) Managing Diversity in Organizations 394 135. 128. 136. Evidence indicates that time pressures aren’t the primary problem underlying work/life conflicts. (True; Moderate; p. 511) 137. Diversity training cannot really be helpful in reducing cultural misunderstandings. (False; Easy; p. 511) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Job Analysis You are involved in job analysis. You are developing detailed descriptions of the tasks involved in each of the jobs within the division, determining the relationship of each job to other jobs, and deciding what knowledge, skills, and abilities are necessary for an employee to be successful in his/her job. 138. You have just completed an interview with all the workers in the data processing division. Your interview has been extensive and was done with all of the workers present at the same time. This popular job analysis method is called the: a. diaries method. b. observation method. c. interview method. d. questionnaire method. (c; Easy; pp. 489-490) 139. You have decided to have the incumbents check or rate the items they perform in their jobs from a long list of possible task items. This popular job analysis method is called the: a. diary method. b. observation method. c. interview method. d. questionnaire method. (d; Moderate; pp. 489-490) 140. You have prepared a _____, a written statement of what each jobholder does, how it is done, and why it is done. a. job analysis b. job description c. job specification d. job document (b; Easy; pp. 489-490) Application of Selection Devices Robert has received authorization to add a person to his department. This person will be working closely with him and must have excellent interpersonal as well as technical skills. He wants to make certain that he maximizes the chance of choosing the correct individual and is trying to decide which is the most appropriate selection device. 395 141. Written tests may be a problem because they have been characterized as: a. valid predictors. b. discriminatory. c. unimportant. d. overly difficult. (b; Easy; pp. 490-493) Robert has decided to create a miniature replica of the job and let applicants demonstrate their abilities. This is termed: a. an assessment center. b. an interview. c. work sampling. d. a realistic job preview. (c; Moderate; pp. 490-493) Because this position is vital to success in the department, Robert plans to use _____ where the employees go through a full day of exercises that simulate real problems they might confront on the job. a. an assessment center b. written tests c. work sampling d. an interview (a; Moderate; pp. 490-493) Application of Skill Categories You are involved in training and development for your division at Acme Inc. You are aware that skills can be dissected into four general categories and want to target some very specific organizational problems through training. 143. 142. 144. Your organization is situated in a rural area where many students do not finish high school. You will probably first have to address the skill category termed: a. basic literacy. b. technical. c. interpersonal. d. problem solving. (a; Easy; pp. 494-495) 145. You have decided to present a seminar in diversity training. This is part of the skill category termed: a. basic literacy. b. technical. c. interpersonal. d. problem solving. (c; Challenging; pp. 494-495) 146. You offer a course which is designed to update the computer skills of your clerical personnel. This is 396 part of the skill category termed: a. basic literacy. b. technical. c. interpersonal. d. problem solving. (b; Moderate; pp. 494-495) Application of Performance Evaluations Alice Ann Jones is the new director of human resources for a small consulting firm. She has been charged with developing a performance evaluation system for the firm. Alice Ann recognizes the importance of performance evaluation on employee behavior and asks your advice. 147. You know that this organization wants to use performance evaluations for appropriate reward allocations. Research shows that the primary use of performance evaluations among firms today is: a. promotion. b. compensation determination. c. retention/discharge. d. training opportunities. (b; Moderate; pp. 498-499) Alice Ann tells you that the firm believes in empowerment. Who should probably evaluate employees? a. immediate superior b. peers c. themselves d. immediate subordinates (c; Moderate; pp. 498-499) 148. 149. You have heard Alice Ann’s opinion that her firm likes to be using the latest approaches if possible. Which of the following approaches to evaluation would you probably recommend? a. immediate supervisor evaluations b. peer evaluations c. immediate subordinate evaluations d. 360-degree evaluations (d; Moderate; pp. 498-499) Application of Managing Diversity in Organizations You have recently gone to work for Goodvibes, Inc., a medium-sized firm which provides temporary workers for organizations who are outsourcing such functions as accounting, marketing, and training and development. Most of the employees are highly trained and could work at almost any company that they choose. Many employees work part-time or job share so that they can have more control over how their time is spent. Goodvibes has instituted many family-friendly programs in order to attract and keep these talented people. 397 150. Which of the following might be part of a family-friendly workplace? a. child care b. elder care c. relocation assistance d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 510-512) 151. In response to the research, Goodvibes should spend less effort helping employees with: a. time management issues. b. segmenting their lives. c. balancing work/life issues. d. providing a wide range of scheduling options. (a; Moderate; pp. 510-512) 152. Goodvibes has employees from many different cultures. They want to make sure that each employee is accepting of those who are different. They will probably offer: a. group therapy. b. mentoring. c. legal seminars on discrimination. d. diversity training. (d; Easy; pp. 510-512) Application of Union-Management Interface You work in an industry that is highly unionized. This is your first experience with unions and you want to read up on the relationship between unions and management. 153. You will probably find that the most pervasive area of labor’s influence is on the amount of work produced and the payment of overtime. (False; Moderate; pp. 507-509) You should expect that performance evaluation systems will tend to be less complex because they play a relatively small part in reward decisions. (True; Challenging; pp. 507-509) 155. You should expect overall employee satisfaction to be much higher in a unionized environment. (False; Moderate; pp. 507-509) Application of Career Development Recognizing that her organization is no longer as paternalistic as it once was, Paola wants to provide more support for her employees’ career development. She wants to begin by identifying the company’s responsibilities and the employees’ responsibilities. 156. Paola should communicate that the organization’s responsibility is to: a. build employee self-reliance. b. help employees maintain their marketability through continual learning. c. both a and b 398 154. d. none of the above (c; Moderate; pp. 496-498) 157. Paola’s organization should do all except which of the following? a. Clearly communicate the organization’s goals and future strategies. b. Create growth opportunities. c. Offer tuition reimbursement to keep employees current. d. Limit paid time off from work for off-the-job training. (d; Moderate; pp. 496-498) 158. Paola should inform her employees that they also have responsibilities in their career development. Which of the following is one of those responsibilities? a. Know yourself. b. Manage your reputation. c. Build and maintain network contacts. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 496-498) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 159. What is a job analysis? (Page 489) Job analysis involves developing a detailed description of the tasks involved in a job, determining the relationship of a given job to other jobs, and ascertaining the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for an employee to successfully perform the job. 160. What is the difference between a job description and job specification? (Page 490) Information gathered in job analysis results in the organization being able to create a job description and job specification. The job description is a written statement of what a jobholder does, how it is done, and why it is done. It should accurately portray job content, environment, and conditions of employment. The job specification states the minimum acceptable qualifications that an employee must possess to perform a given job successfully. It identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job effectively. Job descriptions identify characteristics of the job, while job specifications identify characteristics of the successful job incumbent. 161. What types of training are frequently offered by organizations? (Pages 493-495) Four general skills categories typically offered by organizations are basic literacy, technical, interpersonal, and problem solving. 162. What are the three most popular sets of criteria for evaluating employee performance? 399 (Page 500) The three most popular sets of criteria for evaluating employee performance are individual task outcomes, behaviors, and traits. If ends count, rather than means, then management should evaluate an employee’s task outcomes. In many cases, it’s difficult to identify specific outcomes that can be directly attributable to an employee’s actions. It’s not unusual for management to evaluate the employee’s behavior. The weakest set of criteria, yet one that is widely used by organizations, is individual traits. They are weaker because they are farthest removed from the actual performance of the job itself. 163. Who should evaluate an employee? (Pages 500-502) The majority of performance evaluations at the lower and middle levels of organizations continue to be conducted by an employee’s immediate boss. Yet a number of organizations are recognizing the drawbacks to using this source of evaluation. Peer evaluations are one of the most reliable sources of appraisal data because they are close to the action. Using peers as raters results in a number of independent judgments. Self-evaluation is consistent with values such as self-management and empowerment. A fourth judgment source is an employee’s immediate subordinates. Its proponents argue that it is consistent with recent trends toward enhancing honesty, openness, and empowerment in the workplace. 164. What is 360-degree evaluation? (Pages 501-502) The latest approach to performance evaluation is the use of 360-degree evaluation. It provides for performance feedback from the full circle of daily contacts that an employee might have, ranging from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers. 165. How can team performance evaluations be improved? (Page 507) Four suggestions have been offered for designing a system that supports and improves the performance of teams. First, tie the team’s results to the organization’s goals. Second, begin with the team’s customers and the work process that the team follows to satisfy customers’ needs. Third, measure both team and individual performance. Fourth, train the team to create its own measures. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 166. Discuss the four general skill categories addressed by most training activities. (Pages 493-495) Four general skill categories typically offered by organizations are basic literacy, technical, interpersonal, and problem solving. Organizations are increasingly having to provide basic reading and math skills for their employees. Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee’s technical skills. Technical training has become increasingly important today for two more reasons – new technology and new structural designs. Almost all employees belong to a work unit. To some degree, their work performance depends on their ability to effectively interact with 400 their co-workers and their bosses. Managers, as well as many employees who perform nonroutine tasks, have to solve problems on their job. When people require these skills but are deficient in them, they can participate in problem-solving training. 167. Discuss three selection devices. (Pages 490-493) Selection devices include interviews, written tests, and performance simulation tests. Of all the selection devices that organizations use to differentiate candidates, the interview continues to be the one most frequently used. Not only is the interview widely used, it also seems to carry a great deal of weight. The evidence indicates that interviews are most valuable for assessing an applicant’s applied mental skills, level of conscientiousness, and interpersonal skills. When these qualities are related to job performance, the validity of the interview as a selection deice is increased. Typical written tests are tests of intelligence, aptitude, ability, interest, and integrity. More than 60 percent of all U.S. organizations use some type of employment test today. Managers have come to recognize that there are valid tests available and that these tests can be helpful in predicting who will be successful on the job. What better way is there to find out if an applicant can do a job successfully than by having him or her do it? That’s precisely the logic of performance simulation tests. The two best-known performance simulation tests are work sampling and assessment centers. The former is suited to routine jobs, whereas the latter is relevant for the selection of managerial personnel. 168. Discuss the three most popular forced comparison methods of performance evaluation. (Pages 503-504) The three most popular comparisons are group order ranking, individual ranking, and paired comparisons. The group order ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. This method is often used in recommending students to graduate schools. The individual ranking approach rank-orders employees from best to worst. If the manager is required to appraise 30 employees, this approach assumes that the difference between the first and second employee is the same as that between the twenty-first and twentysecond. Even though some of the employees may be closely grouped, this approach allows for no ties. The result is a clear ordering of employees, from the highest performer down to the lowest. The paired comparison approach compares each employee with every other employee and rates each as either the superior or the weaker member of the pair. After all paired comparisons are made, each employee is assigned a summary ranking based on the number of superior scores he or she achieved. This approach ensures that each employee is compared against every other, but it can obviously become unwieldy when many employees are being compared. 169. What effect do labor unions have on human resource management? (Pages 507-509) Labor unions are a vehicle by which employees act collectively to protect and promote their interests. For employees who are members of a labor union, wage levels and conditions of employment are explicitly articulated in a contract that is negotiated, through collective bargaining, between representatives of the union and the organization’s management. Where a labor union exists, it influences a number of organizational activities. Recruitment sources, hiring criteria, work schedules, job design, redress procedures, safety furls, and eligibility for training programs are examples of activities that are influenced by unions. The most obvious and pervasive area of labor’s influence is wage rates and working conditions. Where unions exist, performance evaluation systems 401 tend to be less complex because they play a relatively small part in reward decisions. Wage rates, when determined through collective bargaining, emphasize seniority and downplay performance differences. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 170. Discuss the organization’s and the employee’s responsibilities in training. (Pages 497-498) The organization’s responsibilities include clearly communicating the organization’s goals and future strategies. When people know where the organization is headed, they’re better able to develop a personal plan to share in that future. The organization must create growth opportunities. Employees should have the opportunity to get new, interesting, and professionally challenging work experiences. Organizations must also offer financial assistance. The organization should offer tuition reimbursement to help employees keep current. Finally, the organization should provide the time for employees to learn. Organizations should be generous in providing paid time off form work for offthe-job training. There are several employee responsibilities as well. Employees must know themselves. They must manage their reputations. Employees must also build and maintain network contacts. They must keep current. Balancing specialist and generalist competencies is a responsibility of employees. They must document their achievements. Finally, employees must keep their options open. 171. What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations? (Pages 498-499) Performance evaluations serve a number of purposes in organizations. Management uses evaluations for general human resource decisions. Evaluations provide input into such important decisions as promotions, transfers, and terminations. Evaluations identify training and development needs. They pinpoint employee skills and competencies that are currently inadequate but for which programs can be developed to remedy. Performance evaluations can be used as a criterion against which selection and development programs are validated. Newly hired employees who perform poorly can be identified through performance evaluation. Evaluations also fulfill the purpose of providing feedback to employees on how the organization views their performance. Furthermore, performance evaluations are used as the basis for reward allocations. Decisions as to who gets merit pay increases and other rewards are frequently determined by performance evaluations. 172. Discuss some suggestions for improving performance evaluations. (Pages 504-506) Evaluators must emphasize behaviors rather than traits. Many traits often considered to be related to good performance may, in fact, have little or no performance relationship. Traits like loyalty and initiative may be prized by managers, but there is no evidence to support that certain traits will be adequate synonyms for performance in a large cross section of jobs. Performance behaviors should be documented in a diary. Diaries help evaluators to better organize information in their memory. The evidence indicates that by keeping a diary of specific critical incidents for each employee, evaluations tend to be more accurate and less prone to rating errors. 402 The use of multiple evaluators is also recommended. As the number of evaluators increases, the probability of attaining more accurate information increases. By moving employees about within the organization so as to gain a number of evaluations or by using multiple assessors, we increase the probability of achieving more valid and reliable evaluations. Appraisers should evaluate only those areas in which they have some expertise. If raters make evaluations on only those dimensions which they are in a good position to rate, we increase the interrater agreement and make the evaluation a more valid process. Evaluators should be trained. If you can’t find good evaluators, the alternative is to make good evaluators. There is substantial evidence that training evaluators can make them more accurate raters. Finally, employees should be provided with due process. The concept of due process can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly. Three features characterize due process systems: individuals are provided with adequate notice of what is expected of them, all relevant evidence to a proposed violation is aired in a fair hearing so individuals affected can respond, and the final decision is based on the evidence and free from bias. 403 Chapter 18 Organizational Culture MULTIPLE CHOICE Institutionalization: A Forerunner of Culture 1. When an organization acquires immortality, we can say that it has: a. acquired a dominant culture. b. developed subcultures. c. become institutionalized. d. become socialized. (c; Moderate; p. 524) 2. Institutionalization is when: a. you become a part of your organization. b. an organization takes on a life of its own. c. you are offered a lifetime position. d. an organization employs over 1,000 people. (b; Moderate; p. 524) 3. Which of the following is not true about institutionalization? a. It operates to produce common understandings about appropriate behavior. b. Acceptable modes of behavior become largely self-evident to its members. c. It does essentially the same thing organizational culture does. d. It is bound by its original mission. (d; Challenging; p. 524) What Is Organizational Culture? 4. _____is a shared system of meaning held by the organization’s members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. a. The organizational chart b. Organizational culture c. A ritual d. Formalization (b; Easy; p. 525) 5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture? a. attention to detail b. innovation c. formalization d. team orientation (c; Moderate; p. 525) 404 6. The key characteristic of organizational culture which addresses the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed: a. innovation. b. attention to detail. c. outcome orientation. d. people orientation. (d; Easy; p. 525) The key characteristic of organizational culture which addresses the degree to which people are competitive rather than easygoing is termed: a. innovation. b. team orientation. c. aggressiveness. d. innovation and risk taking. (c; Moderate; p. 525) 8. The key characteristic of organizational culture which addresses the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision is termed: a. innovation. b. team orientation. c. attention to detail. d. innovation and risk taking. (c; Moderate; p. 525) 9. The key characteristic of organizational culture which assesses the degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is: a. team orientation. b. aggressiveness. c. stability. d. outcome orientation. (c; Easy; p. 525) 10. In contrasting organizational culture with job satisfaction, the former _____while the latter _____. a. is written; is implied b. is implied; describes c. evaluates; describes d. describes; evaluates (d; Moderate; p. 525) 11. _____expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization’s members. a. Dominant culture b. Subculture c. Strong culture d. Personal morality (a; Moderate; p. 526) 7. 12. The macro view of culture that gives an organization its distinct personality is its: 405 a. dominant culture. b. subculture. c. strong culture. d. personal morality. (a; Moderate; p. 526) Minicultures within an organization, typically defined by departmental designations and geographical separation, are often called: a. strong cultures. b. subcultures. c. dominant cultures. d. mixed cultures. (b; Moderate; p. 526) 14. Which does not define a subculture? a. minicultures within an organization b. typically defined by department organizations c. only those cultural values that are shared throughout the organization d. usually defined by geographical separation (c; Moderate; p. 526) 15. The dominant culture is: a. the sum of the subcultures. b. the culture of the industry leader. c. synonymous with the organization’s culture. d. the degree of sharedness. (c; Challenging; p. 526) 16. The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are: a. jargon. b. core values. c. minivalues. d. formalized culture. (b; Easy; p. 526) 17. Which of the following terms is not part of the definition of a strong culture? a. great influence on members’ behavior b. low behavioral controls c. widely shared values d. intensely held values (b; Moderate; p. 527) 18. A culture where the core values are intensely held and widely shared is termed a: a. fortress. b. subculture. c. strong culture. d. formal culture. (c; Moderate; p. 527) 13. 406 19. A specific result of a strong culture should be: a. lower employee turnover. b. lower employee satisfaction. c. higher employee turnover. d. higher absenteeism. (a; Moderate; p. 527) The unanimity of a strong culture builds all of the following except: a. cohesiveness. b. loyalty. c. quality. d. organizational commitment. (c; Easy; p. 527) 20. 21. According to your text, a strong culture can act as a substitute for: a. institutionalization. b. formalization c. socialization. d. rewards. (b; Challenging; p. 527) 22. High formalization in an organization creates all of the following except: a. predictability. b. cohesiveness. c. orderliness. d. consistency. (b; Moderate; p. 527) 23. The research indicates that national culture has a _____ on employees than does their organization’s culture. a. greater impact b. lesser impact c. similar impact d. more negative impact (a; Moderate; p. 528) What Do Cultures Do? Which one of the following is not a function of culture cited in your text? a. conveys a sense of organizational identity b. controls employee behavior c. improves the organization’s ability to hire competent employees d. has a boundary-defining role (c; Challenging; p. 528) 24. 25. Culture performs all the following functions except: a. shows how organizations are all basically the same. b. enhances social system stability. 407 c. conveys a sense of identity for organization members. d. facilitates commitment to something larger than individual self-interest. (a; Moderate; p. 528) 26. As organizations have widened spans of control, flattened structures, introduced teams, reduced formalization, and empowered employees, the _____ provided by a strong culture ensures that everyone is pointed in the same direction. a. rules and regulations b. shared meaning c. material symbols d. language (b; Challenging; p. 528) 27. Culture is most likely to be a liability when: a. it increases consistency of behavior. b. the environment is dynamic. c. management is incompetent. d. it reduces ambiguity. (b; Moderate; p. 529) 28. Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces: a. a dynamic environment. b. an unknown environment. c. a stable environment. d. massive changes. (c; Moderate; p. 529) 29. Culture may be a liability because it is a barrier to: a. change. b. diversity. c. mergers and acquisitions. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 529-530) Creating and Sustaining Culture 30. In recent years, _____ has become the primary concern in acquisitions and mergers. a. cultural compatibility b. financial advantages c. product synergy d. none of the above (a; Challenging; p. 531) 31. The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is: a. top management. b. the selection process. c. the country in which the organization operates. 408 d. its founders. (d; Moderate; p. 531) 32. Culture creation occurs in all of the following ways except: a. founders only hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. b. founders indoctrinate and socialize employee to their way of thinking and feeling. c. founders traditionally keep their vision secret from all organizational members. d. the founders’ own behavior acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs. (c; Moderate; p. 531) 33. All of the following serve to sustain a culture except: a. selection. b. formalization. c. socialization. d. top management. (b; Moderate; p. 531) 34. The selection process helps sustain the organization’s culture by: a. establishing norms. b. ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values. c. socializing the applicant. d. providing training. (b; Moderate; pp. 531-532) 35. The selection process helps candidates learn about the organization and if they perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they should: a. wait until they get hired to change the organization. b. express their concerns at the time of the interview. c. enlighten the organization as to appropriate changes. d. self-select out of the applicant pool. (d; Moderate; p. 532) 36. Top management has a major impact on the organization’s culture by: a. establishing norms that filter down through the organization. b. ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values. c. socializing the applicant. d. providing training. (a; Moderate; p. 532) 37. The process that adapts employees to the organization’s culture is called: a. indoctrination. b. orientation. c. socialization. d. confirmation. 409 (c; Moderate; p. 532) 38. The Marine boot camp, where Marines “prove” their commitment is an example of: a. indoctrination. b. orientation. c. socialization. d. confirmation. (c; Moderate; p. 532) 39. The stage in socialization that encompasses all the learning that occurs before a new member joins the organization is called: a. prearrival. b. encounter. c. metamorphosis. d. mentoring. (a; Easy; p. 533) 40. Which of the following is not a stage of the socialization process? a. prearrival b. encounter c. metamorphosis d. mentoring (d; Easy; p. 533) 41. _____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization’s culture. a. Training b. Mentoring c. Socialization d. Communication (c; Easy; p. 533) 42. The correct order for the stages of the socialization process is: a. prearrival, metamorphosis, encounter. b. encounter, prearrival, metamorphosis. c. metamorphosis, encounter, prearrival. d. prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis. (d; Challenging; Exh. 18-2; p. 533) 43. When the employee compares her expectations to organizational reality, which stage of socialization is she experiencing? a. prearrival b. encounter c. metamorphosis d. mentoring 410 (b; Easy; p. 534) If there is a basic conflict between the individual’s expectations and the organization’s expectations, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during which stage? a. prearrival b. anxiety c. encounter d. metamorphosis (c; Moderate; p. 534) 45. Employee attitudes and behavior change during the _____ stage of socialization. a. prearrival b. anxiety c. encounter d. metamorphosis (d; Moderate; pp. 534-535) The time when a new employee sees what the organization is really like and realizes that expectations and reality may diverge is called: a. encounter stage. b. exploration stage. c. establishment stage. d. metamorphosis stage. (a; Moderate; p. 534) 47. The stage in entry socialization when the employee has become comfortable is the: a. encounter stage. b. exploration stage. c. establishment stage. d. metamorphosis stage. (d; Moderate; p. 535) 48. Mentors are a critical element in _____ socialization. a. collective b. informal c. divestiture d. serial (d; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 46. 44. 49. The more a new employee is segregated from the ongoing work setting and differentiated in some way to make explicit his newcomer’s role, the more _____ socialization is. a. formal b. informal c. individual d. fixed (a; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 411 50. The boot camp experience of those joining the military is an example of _____ socialization. a. individual b. collective c. informal d. random (b; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 51. A characteristic of _____ socialization is the use of role models who train and encourage newcomers. a. investiture b. fixed c. serial d. random (c; Challenging; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) _____ socialization assumes the newcomer’s qualities and qualifications are the necessary ingredients for job success. a. Investiture b. Fixed c. Formal d. Serial (a; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) How Employees Learn Culture 53. Which of the following is not a potent form by which culture is transmitted to employees? a. stories b. selection c. rituals d. language (b; Easy; p. 535) 54. 52. Which one of the following terms is not consistent with the definition of a ritual? a. stories b. sequence of activities c. repetition d. key values (a; Challenging; p. 536 55. _____ typically contain(s) a narrative of events about the organization’s founders, rule breaking, or reactions to past mistakes. a. Stories b. Material symbols c. Rituals d. Language (a; Moderate; p. 535) 412 56. According to your text, one of the most potent ways that employees learn culture is through: a. material symbols. b. role models. c. colleagues. d. mentors. (a; Challenging; p. 537) 57. _____ are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are important, which people are important, and which are expendable. a. Stories b. Rituals c. Material symbols d. Cultural typologies (b; Easy; p. 536) 58. All of the following are examples of rituals except: a. college faculty seeking tenure. b. Mary Kay Cosmetics’ annual award meeting. c. fraternity initiation. d. the layout of Tandem’s corporate offices. (d; Moderate; pp. 536-537) 59. All of the following are examples of material symbols except: a. top executives’ unlimited use of the company jet. b. a swimming pool for the employees to use. c. an annual award meeting. d. different types of cars for different executives. (c; Moderate; p. 537) Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture 60. An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards is one that: a. is high in risk tolerance. b. is low-to-moderate in aggressiveness. c. focuses on means as well as outcomes. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 538) 61. To create a more ethical culture, management should do all of the following except: a. be a visible role model. b. ignore unethical acts. c. provide ethical training. d. communicate ethical expectations. (b; Moderate; pp. 538-539) Creating a Customer-Responsive Culture 413 62. Which of the following is not a variable evident in customer-responsive cultures? a. Employees are outgoing and friendly. b. There is high formalization. c. Employees have good listening skills. d. Employees exhibit organizational citizenship behavior. (b; Challenging; p. 540) 63. Once a customer-responsive culture hires service-oriented employees, the organization must: a. clarify their roles. b. minimize rules and regulations. c. provide them with a wide range of decision discretion to do their job as they see fit. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 540) 64. The place to start in building a customer-responsive culture is: a. hiring service-contact people with the personality and attitudes consistent with a high service orientation. b. training and socializing employees. c. reducing rules and regulations. d. empowering employees with the discretion to make day-to-day decisions about job-related activities. (a; Moderate; p. 541) Spirituality and Organizational Culture 65. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture: a. have organized religious practices. b. adopt a corporate religion. c. recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit. d. all of the above (c; Moderate; p. 542) 66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a spiritual organization? a. focus on individual development b. employee empowerment c. censorship of employee expression d. trust and openness (c; Challenging; p.543) 67. Which of the following is not a reason for the growing interest in spirituality? a. as a counterbalance to the pressures and stress of a turbulent pace of life b. Aging baby-boomers are looking for something in their life. c. Formalized religion has worked for so many people that they want to bring it to the workplace. d. the desire to integrate personal life values with one’s professional life (c; Challenging;, Exh. 18-6; p. 543) TRUE/FALSE 414 Institutionalization: A Forerunner of Culture 68. A strong organizational culture undermines stability within an organization. (False; Moderate; p. 524) 69. The idea of viewing organizations as cultures is a relatively recent phenomenon. (True; Easy; p. 524) 70. When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals become viewed as the prime directive. (False; Easy; p. 524) 71. When an organization is new, acceptable modes of behavior are self-evident to its members. (False; Moderate; p. 524) What Is Organizational Culture? 72. Organizational culture is a set of key characteristics that the organization values. (True; Easy; p. 525) 73. The degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks is termed aggressiveness. (False; Moderate; p. 525) 74. The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed outcome orientation. (False; Challenging; p. 525) 75. The degree to which management focuses on results rather than on techniques and processes is termed outcome orientation. (True; Moderate; p.525) The degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is termed stability. (True; Moderate; p. 525) 77. Individuals with different backgrounds or at different levels in the organization will tend to describe the organization’s culture in similar terms. (True; Moderate; p. 525) 78. The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are the core values. (True; Moderate; p. 526) 79. “Giving your best effort” is part of every organization’s culture. (False; Moderate; p. 526) 80. The key element in organizational culture is that it gives meaning to the organization that different employees can share. (True; Moderate; p. 526) 76. 415 81. Dominant culture refers to the cultural attributes of the leading organizations in an industry. (False; Moderate; p. 526) 82. Research demonstrates that subcultures act to undermine the dominant culture. (False; Moderate; p. 526) 83. Strong cultures have a greater impact on employees’ behavior than weak cultures. (True; Easy; p. 526) 84. Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely shared. (True; Easy; p. 527) 85. Strong cultures have been shown to be related to higher employee productivity. (False; Moderate; p. 527) 86. One specific result of a strong culture should be lower employee turnover. (True; Challenging; p. 527) 87. A strong culture can act as a substitute for rules and regulations. (True; Challenging; p. 527) Research indicates that organizational culture has a greater impact on employees than does their national culture. (False; Moderate; p. 528) What Does Culture Do? 89. Culture has a boundary-defining role; it creates distinctions between one organization and others. (True; Easy; p. 528) 90. Organizational culture serves to reinforce an individual’s self-interest. (False; Moderate; p. 528) Culture is the social glue which holds the organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. (True; Moderate; p. 528) 92. Culture defines the rules of the game. (True; Easy; p. 528) 93. Culture increases ambiguity for employees. (False; Easy; p. 528) 94. A strong culture can be a liability. (True; Moderate; p. 529) 95. Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment. (False; Challenging; p. 529) 91. 88. 416 96. A strong culture provides a supportive atmosphere for diversity. (False; Moderate; p. 529) 97. Strong cultures encourage individuality. (False; Moderate; p. 529) 98. While a favorable financial statement or product line may be the initial attraction of an acquisition candidate, whether the acquisition actually works seems to have more to do with how well the two organizations’ cultures match up. (True; Challenging; pp. 529-530) Creating and Sustaining Culture The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization’s culture since they are so far removed from the employees. (False; Moderate; p. 531) 100. The selection process is two-way in that it allows the organization to determine how well the applicant will fit into the culture while representing the culture to the applicant in order for him/her to decide whether organization values conflict with his/her own. (True; Moderate; p. 531) 101. Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices, promotion policies, and socialization methods. (False; Challenging; p. 531) 102. The values within an organization’s culture tend to flow down from top management. (True; Moderate; p. 532) 103. Senior executives establish norms that filter down through the organization as to whether risk taking is desirable. (True; Moderate; p. 532) 104. Socialization is the process that defines group interaction patterns. (False; Moderate; p. 532) 105. The socialization process is made up of three steps: prearrival, adjustment, and stabilization. (False; Moderate; p. 533) The period of learning in the socialization process that occurs before a new employee joins the organization is termed the encounter stage. (False; Moderate; p. 533) 107. The most critical socialization stage is the metamorphosis stage. (False; Challenging; p. 533) 108. One major purpose of a business school is to socialize business students to the attitudes and behavior that business firms want. (True; Moderate; p. 533) 417 106. 99. 109. The stage of socialization where an individual confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality is the encounter stage. (True; Moderate; p. 534) When the new member works out problems discovered during the encounter stage, he is in the metamorphosis stage of the socialization process. (True; Easy; p. 534) 111. Socialization is complete when an employee completes his six-month probationary period. (False; Moderate; p. 535) 112. Serial socialization is characterized by role models. (True; Challenging; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 113. Divestiture socialization assumes that the newcomer’s qualities and qualifications are the necessary ingredients for job success. (False; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 114. Fraternity pledges go through divestiture socialization. (True; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 115. In random socialization, role models are deliberately withheld. (True; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) How Employees Learn Culture 116. A ritual is a sequence of activities that continually express the key values of the organization. (True; Easy; p. 536) Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the hierarchical structure of the organization. (False; Moderate; p. 536) 118. College faculty members undergo a lengthy ritual in their quest for permanent employment – tenure. (True; Easy; pp. 536-537) 119. Material symbols convey to employees the degree of egalitarianism that is desired by top management. (True; Moderate; p. 537) 120. Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms and jargon specific to the organization. (True; Easy; p. 538) All organizations within an industry use the terminology designated by the industry so that their employees can move freely from organization to organization. (False; Moderate; p. 538) Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture 418 121. 117. 110. 122. A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees than a weak one. (True; Easy; p. 538) 123. Johnson & Johnson is an example of a strong culture that supports high ethical standards. (True; Moderate; p. 538) Performance appraisals of managers should include a point-by-point evaluation of how his or her decisions measured against the organization’s code of ethics. (True; Moderate; p. 538) Creating a Customer-Responsive Culture Employees in customer-responsive cultures are willing to take the initiative even when it’s outside their normal job requirements, to satisfy a customer’s needs. (True; Moderate; p. 540) In almost every organization that has successfully created and maintained a strong customerresponsive culture, its CEO has played a major role in championing the message. (True; Challenging; p. 541) 127. Evidence indicates that behavior-based performance evaluations are inconsistent with improved customer service. (False; Moderate; p. 542) Spirituality and Organizational Culture 128. Workplace spirituality is about organized religious practices. (False; Easy; p. 542) 129. Spiritually-based organizations do not stifle employee emotions. (True; Moderate; p. 543) 130. Spirituality and profits may be compatible objectives. (True; Challenging; p. 544) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Organizational Culture Masterson College is a small liberal arts women’s college in North Carolina. The founders of the college were Baptist and were committed to the idea that a liberal arts education was the best preparation for life-long learning. Within the last two decades, the business department has become one of the larger departments on campus. The faculty of the business department are committed to liberal arts education but are also committed to finding employment for their graduates. 131. The belief in a liberal arts education is part of the: a. subculture of the business department. b. weak culture. 419 126. 125. 124. c. dominant culture. d. mission statement. (c; Moderate; p. 526) 132. The commitment to finding employment for graduates is part of the: a. subculture of the business department. b. weak culture. c. dominant culture. d. mission statement. (a; Moderate; p. 526) 133. The business department holds some unique values in addition to the _____ of the dominant culture. a. core values b. weak values c. formalization d. holistic values (a; Moderate; p. 526) Application of Culture as a Liability The Young Woman’s Club of Williams has been operating for seventy-five years as an organization which supports women who stay at home. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. The group has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved to Williams and commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. 134. There is a possibility that the culture of the Young Woman’s Club of Williams will be: a. a barrier to change. b. helpful for meeting the needs of diverse women. c. embraced by all the newcomers. d. strengthened by the newcomers. (a; Moderate; pp. 529-530) 135. The culture of the Young Woman’s Club seems to be: a. strong. b. helpful in reducing ambiguity for current members. c. a liability. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 529-530) 136. The culture of the Young Woman’s Club will be a liability if: a. newcomers embrace it. b. it does not further the organization’s effectiveness. c. it reduces ambiguity. d. enhances social system stability. (b; Moderate; pp. 529-530) 420 Application of Socialization You are new to an organization and do not really know what to expect about the socialization process. You are a recent M.B.A. and have an undergraduate degree in computer science. Your new firm is a software development company with an emphasis in the health care industry. 137. The time prior to entry to the organization in which you learned business attitudes and behaviors is termed: a. education. b. prearrival stage. c. encounter stage. d. metamorphosis stage. (b; Moderate; pp. 532-535) 138. The stage in which you will adjust to the organization’s values and norms is termed: a. education. b. prearrival stage. c. encounter stage. d. metamorphosis stage. (d; Moderate; pp. 532-535) 139. Immediately upon entry to the organization, you enter the: a. social facilitation stage. b. prearrival stage. c. encounter stage. d. metamorphosis stage. (c; Moderate; pp. 532-535) Application of Entry Socialization Options Jester Corporation has a training program for all new managers. They spend three weeks in a formal classroom setting with other new managers and are then assigned a mentor. Only MBA’s are hired for management jobs, since this is believed to be the level of qualifications necessary for job success. 140. Jester Corporation’s socialization program appears to be: a. informal. b. individualized. c. serial. d. divestiture. (c; Challenging; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 141. The new managers are on a(n) _____ time schedule. a. fixed b. variable c. random d. individual (a; Moderate; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) 142. When a mentor is assigned, the socialization process is: 421 a. formal. b. collective. c. investiture. d. serial. (d; Challenging; Exh. 18-3; p. 534) Application of How Employees Learn Culture Nunya is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. Every Friday, free lollipops are given out to encourage employees to remember how creative they were when they were children. At the beginning of each quarterly executive meeting, employees are reminded that the founders were three young people who “got lucky” and sold a video game that they invented. Employees are allowed to dress in blue jeans and can set their own working hours. 143. The telling of the founding story at each quarterly meeting is an example of: a. stories. b. material symbols. c. language. d. following the employee handbook. (a; Easy; pp. 535-538) 144. Lollipop day is an example of a: a. story. b. ritual. c. material symbol. d. symbolic food. (b; Moderate; pp. 535-538) 145. Dressing down is an example of a: a. story. b. ritual. c. material symbol. d. symbolic act. (c; Moderate; pp. 535-538) Application of Institutionalization: A Forerunner of Culture Species Specialties is a firm which specializes in sales of birds. Species has been in business for almost sixty years and has been run by members of the Spock family for its entire life. The firm not only places birds for adoption, but carefully screens families to ensure an appropriate match. Species has a reputation for refusing to sell a bird if the adopting family is deemed to be inappropriate. 146. Species Specialties seems to have become institutionalized–to have taken on a life of its own. (True; Moderate; p. 524) 147. Species Specialties has no personality except through its founders and employees. (False; Easy; p. 524) 148. Species Specialties’ culture creates acceptable modes of behavior. 422 (True; Moderate; p. 524) Application of Spirituality and Organizational Culture Jacob has interviewed with the ABC Corporation. He is concerned that during each interview, he was told that the ABC Corporation is a spiritual organization. While he thought he might enjoy the position, he wasn’t sure what to expect of the culture of the firm. 149. Which of the following should you tell Jacob if he asks you about workplace spirituality? a. It is about religious practices. b. It is about theology. c. It recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by the meaningful work that takes place in the context of community. d. It promotes people’s spirits, but not their minds. (c; Challenging; pp. 542-544) 150. What characteristics should Jacob expect to see in this spiritual organization? a. strong sense of purpose b. focus on individual development c. trust and openness d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 542-544) 151. In a spiritual organization, managers: a. aren’t afraid to admit mistakes. b. try to shield employees from information. c. use layoffs to handle temporary downturns. d. make most of the decisions themselves. (a; Easy; pp. 542-544) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 152. What is organizational culture? (Page 525) Organizational culture refers to a system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. This system of shared meaning is, on closer examination, a set of key characteristics that the organization values. 153. Distinguish the dominant culture from a subculture. (Page 526) A dominant culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization’s members. When we talk about an organization’s culture, we are referring to its dominant culture. It is this macro view of culture that gives an organization its distinct personality. Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences that members 423 face. These subcultures are likely to be defined by department designations and geographical separation. 154. What are the functions of culture? (Page 528) Culture performs a number of functions within an organization. First, it has a boundary-defining role. That is, it creates distinctions between one organization and others. Second, it conveys a sense of identity for organization members. Third, culture facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than one’s individual self-interest. Fourth, it enhances social system stability. Culture is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. Finally, culture serves as a sense-making and control mechanism that guides and shapes the attitudes and behavior of employees. 155. When can culture be a liability? (Pages 529-530) Culture is a liability when the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the organization’s effectiveness. This is most likely to occur when an organization’s environment is dynamic. When an environment is undergoing rapid change, an organization’s entrenched culture may no longer be appropriate. So consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a stable environment. It may, however, burden the organization and make it difficult to respond to changes in the environment. These strong cultures become barriers to change when business as usual is no longer effective. 156. What are the three stages of socialization? (Exh. 18-2; Page 533) The three stages of socialization are prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. The prearrival stage recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes, and expectations. These cover both the work to be done and the organization. Upon entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage. Here the individual confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality. Finally, the new member must work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage. This may mean going through changes – hence, this is called the metamorphosis stage. 157. What are rituals? (Page 536) Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important and which are expendable. 158. What are the six key variables in shaping customer-responsive cultures? (Page 540) There are six key variables in shaping customer-responsive cultures. First is the type of employees themselves. Successful, service-oriented organizations hire employees who are outgoing and friendly. Second is low formalization. Service employees need to have the freedom to meet changing customer service requirements. Third is an extension of low formalization – it’s the 424 widespread use of empowerment. Empowered employees have the decision discretion to do what’s necessary to please the customer. Fourth is good listening skills. Employees in customer-responsive cultures have the ability to listen to and understand messages sent by the customer. Fifth is role clarity. Service employees act as boundary spanners between the organization and its customers. Finally, customer-responsive cultures have employees that exhibit organizational citizenship behavior. They are conscientious in their desire to please the customer. And they’re willing to take the initiative, even when it’s outside their normal job requirements, to satisfy a customer’s needs. 159. What is spirituality? (Page 542) Workplace spirituality is not about organized religious practices. It’s not about God or theology. Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community. Organizations that promote a spiritual culture recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit, seek to find meaning and purpose in their work, and desire to connect with other human beings and be part of a community. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 160. What is organizational culture? What are the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization’s culture? (Page 525) Organizational culture refers to a system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. This system of shared meaning is, on closer examination, a set of key characteristics that the organization values. There are seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization’s culture. Innovation and risk taking are the degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks. Attention to detail is the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision, analysis, and attention to detail. Outcome orientation is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve these outcomes. People orientation is the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. Team orientation is the degree to which work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals. Aggressiveness is the degree to which people are aggressive and competitive rather than easygoing. Stability is the degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth. 161. Discuss the difference between strong and weak cultures. (Page 527) Strong cultures have a greater impact on employee behavior and are more directly related to reduced turnover. In a strong culture, the organization’s core values are both intensely held and widely shared. The more members who accept the core values and the greater their commitment to those values is, the stronger the culture is. A strong culture will have a great influence on the behavior of its members because the high degree of sharedness and intensity creates an internal climate of high behavioral control. One specific result of a strong culture should be lower employee turnover. A strong culture demonstrates high agreement among members about what the organization stands for. Such unanimity of purpose builds cohesiveness, loyalty, and organizational commitment. These 425 qualities, in turn, lessen employees’ propensity to leave the organization. 162. Discuss how employees learn culture. (Pages 535-538) Culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms, the most potent being stories, rituals, material symbols, and language. Stories contain a narrative of events about the organization’s founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, reactions to past mistakes, and organizational coping. These stories anchor the present in the past and provide explanations and legitimacy for current practices. Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important and which are expendable. The layout of corporate headquarters, the types of automobiles top executives are given, and the presence or absence of corporate aircraft are a few examples of material symbols. These material symbols convey to employees who is important, the degree of egalitarianism desired by top management, and the kinds of behavior that are appropriate. 163. What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization? (Pages 543-544) There are five cultural characteristics that tend to be evident in spiritual organizations. Spiritual organizations build their cultures around a meaningful purpose. Spiritual organizations recognize the worth and value of people. They seek to create cultures where employees can continually learn and grow. Spiritual organizations are characterized by mutual trust, honesty, and openness. Managers aren’t afraid to admit mistakes. And they tend to be extremely upfront with their employees, customers, and suppliers. The high-trust climate in spiritual organizations, when combined with the desire to promote employee learning and growth, leads to management empowering employees to make most work-related decisions. Managers in spiritually-based organizations are comfortable delegating authority to individual employees and teams. They trust their employees to make thoughtful and conscientious decisions. The final characteristic that differentiates spiritually-based organizations is that they don’t stifle employee emotions. They allow people to be themselves. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 164. How does culture begin and how can an organization keep its culture alive? (Pages 531-533) An organization’s current customs, traditions, and general way of doing things are largely due to what it has done before and the degree of success it has had with those endeavors. The founders of an organization traditionally have a major impact on that organization’s early culture. They have a vision of what the organization should be. They are constrained by previous customs or ideologies. The small size that typically characterizes new organizations further facilitates the founders’ imposition of their vision on all organizational members. The process of culture-creation occurs in three ways. First, founders only hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. Second, they indoctrinate and socialize these employees to their way of thinking and feeling. And finally, the founders’ own behavior acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs, values, and 426 assumptions. Once a culture is in place, there are practices within the organization that act to maintain it by giving employees a set of similar experiences. The selection process, performance evaluation criteria, training and career development activities, and promotion procedures ensure that those hired fit in with the culture, reward those who support it, and penalize those who challenge it. Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining a culture: selection practices, the actions of top management, and socialization methods. 165. What can management do to create a more ethical culture? (Pages 538-539) To create a more ethical culture, management can take a number of steps. Management can be a visible role model. Employees will look to top management behavior as a benchmark for defining appropriate behavior. Management can also communicate ethical expectations. Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating an organizational code of ethics. It should state the organization’s primary values and the ethical rules that employees are expected to follow. Management can also provide ethical training. Training sessions can be used to reinforce the organization’s standards of conduct, to clarify what practices are and are not permissible, and to address possible ethical dilemmas. Finally, management can visibly reward ethical acts and punish unethical ones. Performance appraisals of managers should include a point-by-point evaluation of how his or her decisions measured against the organization’s code of ethics. Appraisals must include the means taken to achieve goals as well as the ends themselves. 166. Discuss some of the reasons for the growing interest in spirituality. (Exh. 18-6; Page 543) There are a number of reasons for the growing interest in spirituality: • • • • • • Spirituality is a counterbalance to the pressures and stress of a turbulent pace of life. Aging baby-boomers, reaching mid-life, are looking for something in their life. Formalized religion hasn’t worked for many people and they continue to look for anchors to replace lack of faith and to fill a growing feeling of emptiness. Job demands have made the workplace dominant in many people’s lives yet they continue to question the meaning of work. The desire to integrate personal life values with one’s professional life. In times of economic plenty, more people have the luxury to engage in a search to reach their full potential. 427 Chapter 19 Organizational Change and Stress Management MULTIPLE CHOICE Forces For Change 1. An example of change in the nature of the work force is: a. increase in college attendance. b. mergers and consolidations. c. more cultural diversity. d. increase in divorce rates. (c; Moderate; Exh. 19-1; p. 556) 2. Which of the following is not cited as a force for change? a. technology b. economic shocks c. decreasing skill sets d. social trends (c; Easy; Exh. 19-1; p. 556) 3. Phrases such as “more cultural diversity,” “many new entrants with inadequate skills,” and “increase in professionals” are all examples of what force for change? a. technology b. world politics c. nature of the work force d. social trends (c; Challenging; Exh. 19-1; p. 556) 4. An example of change in the nature of competition is: a. growth of e-commerce. b. collapse of Enron Corporation. c. more cultural diversity. d. increased interest in urban living. (a; Moderate; Exh. 19-1; p. 556) Managing Planned Change 5. Change activities that are intentional and goal oriented are termed: a. planned change. b. second order change. c. change agents. d. first order change. (a; Moderate; p. 558) 429 6. If an organization used an outside consultant as opposed to an insider as change agent, the result would probably be: a. more cautious and thoughtful. b. more reflective of the organization’s history and culture. c. more objective. d. reflective of the fact that change agents must live with the consequences of their actions. (c; Moderate; p. 558) The most relevant disadvantage of using outside consultants as change agents is: a. the cost. b. internal members do not accept external recommendations. c. they do not have to live with the repercussions after the change. d. they cannot offer an objective perspective. (c; Moderate; p. 558) 7. 8. If an organization used an insider as a change agent as opposed to an outside consultant: a. the change would probably be more cautious. b. the change would probably be more drastic. c. the change would probably be more objective. d. the change would more likely be second order. (a; Moderate; p. 558) Resistance to Change 9. Resistance to change is positive since: a. it provides a degree of stability to behavior and productivity. b. without some resistance, OB would take on characteristics of chaotic randomness. c. resistance can be a source of functional conflict. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 558) 10. It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is: a. overt. b. subtle. c. passive. d. implicit. (a; Moderate; p. 559) 11. An example of individual resistance to change is: a. group inertia. b. structural inertia. c. habit. d. threat to expertise. (c; Moderate; Exh. 19-2; p. 559) 12. Which of the following is not a source of individual resistance to change? 430 a. habit b. security c. fear of the unknown d. structural inertia (d; Moderate; Exh. 19-2; p. 559) 13. Which of the following explains the way an individual keeps his view of the world intact? a. selective information processing b. security c. habit d. fear of the unknown (a; Moderate; p. 560) 14. All of the following are sources of organizational resistance to change except: a. structural inertia. b. security. c. limited focus of change. d. threat to established power relationships. (b; Moderate; Exh. 19-4; p. 561) 15. The built-in mechanisms that an organization has to produce stability are termed: a. structural inertia. b. threat to expertise. c. habit. d. selective information processing. (a; Moderate; p. 561) Which one of the following is not a tactic for dealing with resistance to change? a. cooperation b. manipulation c. participation d. negotiation (a; Moderate; pp. 562-563) 16. 17. Which tactic for overcoming resistance to change basically assumes that the source of resistance lies in misinformation? a. participation b. facilitation and support c. education and communication d. negotiation (c; Moderate; p. 562) 18. Exchanging something of value for a lessening of resistance to change is best defined by which of the following tactics? 431 a. facilitation and support b. negotiation c. participation d. manipulation and cooptation (b; Moderate; pp. 562-563) 19. Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called: a. participation. b. cooptation. c. manipulation. d. coercion. (c; Moderate; p. 563) 20. Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is relatively easy to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware that they are being tricked or used? a. cooptation b. participation c. manipulation d. coercion (c; Moderate; p. 563) 21. If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in name only in an attempt to gain their support, it is called: a. cooptation. b. participation. c. manipulation. d. coercion. (a; Moderate; p. 563) 22. The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called: a. power. b. cooptation. c. manipulation. d. coercion. (d; Moderate; p. 563) 23. Politics suggest that the impetus for change is more likely to come from: a. outside change agents. b. employees who are new to the organization. c. managers slightly removed from the main power structure. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 563) Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 24. _____ is change efforts to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group 432 conformity. a. Freezing b. Unfreezing c. Planned change d. Movement (b; Easy; p. 564) 25. Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and refreezing? a. Mary Parker Follett b. David McClelland c. Kurt Lewin d. Chester Barnard (c; Challenging; p. 564) 26. To direct behavior away from the status quo, one can increase the use of: a. restraining forces. b. refreezing. c. driving forces. d. changing. (c; Easy; p. 564) 27. To move from equilibrium, Lewin suggests: a. decreasing restraining forces. b. increasing restraining forces. c. decreasing driving forces. d. all of the above (a; Moderate; p. 564) 28. _____ is a change process based on systematic collection of data and then selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicate. a. Organizational development b. Action research c. Sensitivity training d. Process consultation (b; Challenging; p. 565) 29. The step in the action research process where information is gathered about problem, concerns, and needed changes from members of the organization is: a. feedback. b. evaluation. c. diagnosis. d. action. (c; Moderate; p. 566) 30. All of the following are steps in the process of action research except: a. diagnosis. b. forming. 433 c. feedback. d. action. (b; Challenging; p. 566) 31. The action research process closely resembles: a. political research. b. scientific method. c. organizational development. d. a lesson plan. (b; Moderate; p. 566) 32. In the process of action research, diagnosis is followed by: a. feedback. b. analysis. c. action. d. evaluation. (b; Easy; p. 566) 33. Which of the following is considered a benefit of action research for an organization? a. Employees can carry out the specific actions to correct the problems identified. b. It is problem focused. c. It is solution centered. d. Employees are not involved in the process. (b; Moderate; p. 566) 34. _____ encompasses a collection of planned-change interventions built on humanistic-democratic values that seek to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. a. Organizational development b. Organizational behavior c. Change management d. Action research (a; Moderate; p. 566) 35. Which of the following is not considered an underlying value in organizational development? a. participation b. confrontation c. control d. power equalization (c; Moderate; p. 566) 36. The deemphasis of hierarchical authority and control in OD is referred to as: a. participation. b. power equalization. c. trust and support. d. respect for people. (b; Moderate; p. 566) 37. Which of the following is not true of OD? a. Effective organizations emphasize hierarchical authority. 434 b. Problems should be openly confronted. c. Effective organizations are characterized by trust. d. People should be treated with dignity and respect. (a; Moderate; p. 566) 38. T-groups are also known as: a. autonomous work teams. b. a structural intervention. c. team building groups. d. training groups. (d; Easy; p. 567) _____ is a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction. a. Autonomous work teams b. A structural intervention c. Team building groups d. Sensitivity training (d; Moderate; p. 567) 40. A tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among member perceptions, and solving these differences is: a. sensitivity training. b. survey feedback. c. process consultation. d. intergroup development. (b; Moderate; p. 567) 41. The purpose of _____ is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, to perceive, understand, and act upon process events with which he or she must deal. a. sensitivity training b. survey feedback c. process consultation d. intergroup development (c; Moderate; p. 568) The activities included in team building include all of the following except: a. goal setting. b. individual/personal development. c. team process analysis. d. role analysis. (b; Moderate; p. 568) 42. 39. 43. When using _____ as a technique to facilitate change, members compile and compare lists of their perceptions of others, how they think others perceive them, and how they perceive themselves. a. intergroup development b. sensitivity analysis c. team building 435 d. process consultation (a; Moderate; p. 569) 44. Rather than looking for problems, _____ seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance. a. appreciative inquiry b. sensitivity analysis c. team building d. process consultation (a; Moderate; p. 570) 45. Which of the following is not a step in the AI process? a. discovery b. dreaming c. mission d. destiny (c; Easy; p. 570) Contemporary Change Issues for Today’s Managers 46. _______ is a new idea applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service. a. A patent b. A learning organization c. Innovation d. Single-loop learning (c; Moderate; p. 571) 47. An organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change is termed a(n): a. learning organization. b. strategic organization. c. mechanistic organization. d. operant organization. (a; Easy; p. 573) 48. Which has been the most studied potential source of innovation? a. technology b. structural variables c. entrepreneurs d. product champions (b; Moderate; p. 571) 49. _____ involves correcting errors using past routines and present policies. a. Strategy b. Single-loop learning c. Double-loop learning d. Organizational redesign (b; Moderate; p. 573) 436 50. Errors that are corrected by modifying the organization’s objectives, policies, and standard routines are part of: a. single-loop learning. b. double-loop learning. c. triple-loop learning. d. traditional learning. (b; Moderate; p. 573) 51. Which of the following is a characteristic of a learning organization? a. People have standard ways of doing their jobs. b. People pursue self interests. c. People communicate over vertical and horizontal boundaries. d. People think in terms of independent relationships. (c; Challenging; Exh. 19-7; p. 574) 52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a learning organization? a. There is a shared vision upon which everyone agrees. b. People sublimate their personal self-interest to work together to achieve the organization’s shared vision. c. Members think of all organizational functions as independent systems. d. People openly communicate with each other. (c; Moderate; Exh. 19-7, p. 574) 53. Which is not a suggestion for managers to make their firms learning organizations? a. Establish a strategy that makes management’s commitment to change explicit. b. Redesign the organization’s structure by flattening the structure and increasing the use of crossfunctional teams. c. Reshape the organization’s culture by emphasizing risk taking and openness. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 574) 54. ______ is a process of organizing and distributing an organization’s collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time. a. Innovation b. Knowledge management c. Learning d. Intellectual assets (b; Moderate; p. 575) Work Stress and Its Management 55. For potential stress to become actual stress, _____ and _____ must be present. a. people; organizations b. certainty; importance c. uncertainty; risk d. uncertainty; importance 437 (d; Challenging; p. 577) Which of the following is most likely to turn potential stress into actual stress? a. An outcome is difficult to achieve. b. An outcome is complex. c. An outcome is uncertain. d. The situation involves competition. (c; Challenging; p. 577) 56. 57. Which of the following is not a factor related to organizational stress? a. economic problems b. task demands c. role demands d. organizational structure (a; Challenging; Exh. 19-10; p. 579) 58. Which of the following is not a category of potential stressors? a. global b. environmental c. organizational d. individual (a; Easy; Exh. 19-10; p. 579) 59. Political uncertainties, economic uncertainties, technological uncertainty, and terrorism are examples of which category of potential stressors? a. economic b. environmental c. organizational d. individual (b; Moderate; Exh. 19-10; p. 579) 60. There are several potential sources of stress. When pressures are created by other employees causing a lack of social support, the factor of stress involved is: a. interpersonal demands. b. organizational leadership. c. role demands. d. organizational structure. (a; Challenging; p. 580) 61. Family issues, economic problems, and inherent personality characteristics are examples of which category of potential stress? a. economic demands b. environmental demands c. organizational demands d. individual demands (d; Moderate; p. 580) 438 62. Symptoms of stress can surface as: a. physiological outcomes. b. psychological outcomes. c. behavioral outcomes. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 582) Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with high stress? a. considerable job experience b. external locus of control c. a high need to achieve d. type B behavior (b; Challenging; p. 581) 63. 64. Symptoms of stress such as increased blood pressure and increased heart rate are _____ symptoms. a. psychological b. physiological c. behavioral d. interactive (b; Moderate; p. 582) 65. Which of the following is not a psychological consequence of stress? a. anxiety b. low self esteem c. frustration d. high blood pressure (d; Moderate; p. 582) 66. Excessive smoking, substance abuse, accident proneness, and appetite disorders are all examples of _____ consequences of stress. a. organizational b. psychological c. behavioral d. physiological (c; Moderate; p. 582) 67. The most widely studied pattern in the stress-performance literature is the _____ relationship. a. XYZ b. U c. inverted U d. V (c; Easy; pp. 582-583) 68. Which of the following is not a time management principle? a. Make daily lists of activities to be accomplished. 439 b. Rank activities from least-liked to best-liked. c. Schedule activities according to priorities. d. Know the most productive parts of your day and schedule accordingly. (b; Moderate; p. 584) 69. An individual approach to reduce stress is: a. selection and placement. b. redesigning jobs. c. goal setting. d. relaxation techniques. (d; Easy; p. 584) 70. Organizationally supported programs that focus on the employee’s total physical and mental condition are called: a. job redesign programs. b. wellness programs. c. employee benefit analysis. d. cafeteria benefit programs. (b; Moderate; p. 584) 71. What do wellness programs focus on? a. mental condition b. physical condition c. both mental and physical condition d. stress reduction (c; Easy; p. 585) TRUE/FALSE Forces For Change 72. “Change or die” is the rallying cry among today’s managers worldwide. (True; Easy; p. 556) 73. Technology is a force that acts as a stimulant for change. (True; Easy; p. 556) The global economy means that competitors are as likely to come from across the ocean as from across town. (True; Easy; p. 557) Managing Planned Change 75. Some organizations treat all change as an accidental occurrence. (True; Moderate; p. 558) 76. Change agents are synonymous with managers. (False; Easy; p. 558) 440 74. 77. Outside consultants are more likely to initiate more drastic changes than internal managers. (True; Moderate; p. 558) Resistance To Change 78. Research demonstrates that all efforts to resist change are dysfunctional in terms of organizational effectiveness. (False; Moderate; p. 559) 79. As human beings, we love change and avoid developing habits. (False; Moderate; p. 559) 80. There is a negative correlation between people’s need for security and their resistance to change. (False; Moderate; p. 560) 81. If an individual believes his/her income will be affected negatively by a particular change, resistance will increase. (True; Moderate; p. 560) 82. Changes substitute ambiguity and uncertainty for the unknown. (True; Moderate; p. 560) 83. Even if the current situation is negative, individuals may resist a change to improve the status quo. (True; Moderate; p. 560) 84. Organizations actively resist change. (True; Easy; p. 561) 85. The built-in mechanisms organizations have to produce stability can be observed in the selection process. (True; Moderate; p. 561) 86. Limited changes in subsystems tend to get nullified by the larger system. (True; Challenging; p. 561) 87. Even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as constraints. (True; Moderate; p. 561) 88. Changes in organizational patterns seldom threaten the expertise of specialized groups. (False; Moderate; p. 561) 89. Cooptation is a form of both manipulation and participation. (True; Moderate; p. 563) 90. Internal change agents typically are individuals high in the organization who have a lot to lose from the change. (True; Moderate; p. 563) 441 91. You should expect that long-time career executives will not be sources of resistance to change. (False; Moderate; pp. 563-564) Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 92. According to Lewin’s model, refreezing is required if changes are to be permanent. (True; Moderate; p. 564) 93. Restraining forces are those which hinder movement from the existing equilibrium. (True; Moderate; p. 564) 94. Driving forces direct behavior away from the status quo. (True; Easy; p. 564) 95. Action research refers to a change process based on systematic collection of data and then selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicates. (True; Moderate; p. 565) 96. In the process of action research, the gathering of information about problems occurs in the analysis stage. (False; Moderate; pp. 565-566) 97. The diagnosis step of action research is analogous to the physician’s search to find what specifically ails a patient. (True; Moderate; p. 566) 98. Organizational development (OD) is not a readily definable concept, but a convenient term used to encompass a variety of activities for managing change. (True; Moderate; p. 566) 99. Organizational development is a collection of change techniques or interventions built on humanisticdemocratic values. (True; Easy; p. 566) 100. Sensitivity training emphasizes changing behavior through structured group interaction. (False; Easy; p. 567) The objectives of survey feedback are to provide the subjects with increased awareness of their own behavior and how others see them. (False; Easy; p. 567) 102. Process consultants work with the clients in jointly diagnosing what processes need improvement. (True; Moderate; pp. 567-568) 103. All group activity in team building has interdependence of functions. (False; Moderate; p. 568) 104. Intergroup development seeks to change attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions that groups have of 442 101. each other within the organization. (True; Moderate; p. 569) Rather than looking for problems to fix, appreciative inquiry seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization. (True; Moderate; p. 570) Contemporary Change Issues for Today’s Managers 106. Three of the two major issues in business today are organizational innovation, creating knowledge management systems, and building a learning environment. (True; Easy; pp. 570-571) 107. All innovations involve change. (True; Easy; p. 571) 108. Organic structures positively influence innovation. (True; Moderate; p. 571) 109. Innovation is nurtured where there are slack resources. (True; Moderate; p. 571) 110. Innovative organizations tend to have similar cultures. (True; Moderate; pp. 571-572) 111. Innovative organizations punish employees who make mistakes as they are costly and nonproductive. (False; Moderate; p. 572) 112. Idea champions have extremely high self confidence, persistence, energy, and a tendency to take risks. (False; Easy; p. 572) 113. Idea champions display characteristics associated with transactional leadership. (False; Moderate; p. 572) 114. Double-loop learning is an error correction process that relies on past routines and present policies. (False; Moderate; p. 573) You should think of a learning organization as an ideal to strive toward rather than a realistic description of structured activity. (True; Challenging; p. 573) 116. An excellent illustration of a learning organization is the U.S. Army. (True; Moderate; p. 574) 117. More knowledge is definitely better knowledge. (False; Challenging; p. 575) 118. An idea champion in Germany will be more effective by closely following budgets and procedures. 443 115. 105. (True; Moderate; p. 576) Work Stress and Its Management 119. Stress may offer an individual the opportunity for potential gain. (True; Easy; p. 577) 120. Conditions that cause stress are universal in effect. (False; Easy; p. 577) 121. Computers are a threat to many people and cause them stress. (True; Easy; p. 579) 122. Autonomy on the job tends to increase stress. (False; Moderate; p. 579) 123. People who make $80,000 a year have fewer financially created stress problems than do employees who earn $18,000 a year. (False; Moderate; p. 580) 124. Stress symptoms expressed on the job may actually originate in the person’s personality. (True; Moderate; p. 580) 125. A single stressor, in and of itself, may be harmless, but when added to an already high level of stress, it can be disastrous. (True; Easy; p. 580) 126. A high need for achievement has been found to moderate the relationship between potential stressors and experienced stress. (False; Moderate; p. 581) 127. Social support can buffer the impact of stress. (True; Easy; p. 581) 128. Experience on the job tends to be positively related to work stress. (False; Moderate; p. 581) 129. Evidence indicates that individuals with an internal locus of control perceive their jobs as less stressful than do externals. (True; Moderate; p. 581) 130. Low to moderate levels of stress can be functional and lead to higher employee performance from the organization’s standpoint. (True; Easy; p. 583) 131. Several of the factors that cause stress are controlled by management. (True; Easy; p. 584) 132. Most firms that have introduced wellness programs have found costs to exceed the benefits. 444 (False; Easy; p. 585) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Resistance To Change Your supervisor has restructured the jobs within your division and some of your colleagues are not pleased. Don is concerned that he will not be able to perform the new tasks. Since he is paid by the amount he produces, his pay might be reduced. Tony is afraid that his job may be in jeopardy and he may be laid off. Doug dislikes uncertainty and has developed a negative attitude. 133. The source of Don’s resistance is: a. habit. b. economic. c. security. d. fear of the unknown. (b; Moderate; pp. 559-560) 134. The source of Tony’s resistance is: a. habit. b. economic. c. security. d. fear of the unknown. (c; Moderate; pp. 559-560) 135. The source of Doug’s resistance is: a. habit. b. economic. c. security. d. fear of the unknown. (d; Moderate; pp. 559-560) Application of Overcoming Resistance to Change Johnson Farm Products has decided to expand its traditional business with farmers in order to include home gardeners. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers. You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and get their cooperation. 136. You have decided to involve the sales personnel in planning for the change and in stocking appropriate new items. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is: a. education and communication. b. participation. c. negotiation. d. manipulation and cooptation. (b; Moderate; pp. 562-563) 137. You have brought in the local extension agent to explain demographics and the changing nature of 445 the area in which you live. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is: a. education and communication. b. participation. c. negotiation. d. manipulation and cooptation. (a; Easy; pp. 562-563) You have threatened to eliminate positions and even to close down the company if your employees don’t change their attitudes. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is: a. education and communication. b. participation. c. negotiation. d. manipulation and cooptation. (d; Moderate; pp. 562-563) Application of Lewin’s Three-Step Model Mintz’s Motor Repair is moving its location to a larger community 100 miles away. Mintz would like for its mechanics to move with the company but realizes that there will be some hardships associated with the move. Mintz has decided to use Lewin’s three-step model in order to make the change. 139. You are offering a $2,000 moving bonus for any employee who will go to the new location. In Lewin’s terms, you are attempting to: a. unfreeze the status quo. b. move the process along. c. refreeze the change. d. bribe them. (a; Moderate; pp. 564-565) 140. You have imposed a permanent upward adjustment of salaries. You are attempting to: a. unfreeze the status quo. b. move the process along. c. refreeze the change. d. change a driving force. (c; Moderate; pp. 564-565) 141. You are counseling each employee individually and trying to lessen their fears. This is an example of: a. removing driving forces. b. increasing driving forces. c. removing restraining forces. d. brainwashing. (c; Moderate; pp. 564-565) Application of Understanding Stress and Its Consequences TNT Net is in the computer industry, where innovations are common. The employees are highly trained, well educated, and hard working. They are under a great deal of stress and TNT Net is concerned that productivity and job satisfaction will decline. 446 138. 142. The technological uncertainty that employees are dealing with is a(n) _____ factor. a. organizational b. environmental c. individual d. company (b; Moderate; pp. 578-580) 143. One of your employees is very stressed out as a result of being asked to assume too many roles in his job. This source of stress is: a. organizational. b. environmental. c. individual. d. imaginary. (a; Easy; pp. 578-580) 144. In an attempt to recognize stress early, you should be aware that symptoms may be: a. physiological. b. psychological. c. behavioral. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 582) Application of Action Research You have decided to use action research to manage a planned change in your department. You have carefully mapped out the five steps of the process. 145. You ask questions and interview your employees in which step of the process? a. diagnosis b. analysis c. feedback d. action (a; Moderate; pp. 565-566) 146. In which stage of the process do you synthesize the information into primary concerns, problem areas, and possible actions? a. diagnosis b. analysis c. feedback d. action (b; Moderate; pp. 565-566) 147. In which stage do you share with employees what you have found and develop action plans? a. diagnosis b. analysis c. feedback d. action 447 (c; Moderate; pp. 565-566) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 148. What are the goals of change? (Page 558) Essentially there are two goals of planned change. First, it seeks to improve the ability of the organization to adapt to changes in its environment. Second, it seeks to change employee behavior. 149. What are the three steps in Lewin’s model for change. (Pages 564-565) Kurt Lewin argued that successful change in organizations should follow three steps: unfreezing the status quo, movement to a new state, and refreezing the new change to make it permanent. 150. What is action research? (Page 565) Action research refers to a change process based on the systematic collection of data and then selection of a change agent based on what the analyzed data indicate. Their importance lies in proving a scientific methodology for managing planned change. The process of action research consists of five steps: diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation. These steps closely parallel the scientific method. 151. List six interventions that change agents might consider using. (Pages 567-570) Sensitivity training refers to a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction. Members are brought together in a free and open environment in which participants discuss themselves and their interactive processes, loosely directed by a professional behavioral scientist. One tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among member perceptions, and solving these differences is the survey feedback approach. The purpose of process consultation is for an outside consultant to assist a client to perceive, understand, and act upon process events with which he or she must deal. These might include work flow, informal relationships among unit members, and formal communication channels. Team building utilizes high-interaction group activities to increase trust and openness among team members. Intergroup development seeks to change the attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions that groups have of each other. Appreciative inquiry seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance. That is, it focuses on an organization’s successes rather than its problems. 152. What is innovation? (Page 571) Innovation is a more specialized kind of change. It is a new idea applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service. So all innovations involve change, but not all changes necessarily involve new ideas or lead to significant improvements. 448 153. What is a learning organization? (Page 573) A learning organization is an organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change. Just as individuals learn, so too do organizations. 154. What is the difference between single-loop learning and double-loop learning? (Page 573) Most organizations engage in what has been called single-loop learning. When errors are detected, the correction process relies on past routines and present policies. In contrast, learning organizations use double-loop learning. When an error is detected, it is corrected in ways that involve the modification of the organization’s objectives, policies, and standard routines. Double-loop learning challenges deep-rooted assumptions and norms within an organization. It provides opportunities for radically different solutions to problems and dramatic jumps in improvement. 155. What is knowledge management? (Page 575) Knowledge management is a process of organizing and distributing an organization’s collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people a the right time. When done properly, KM provides an organization with both a competitive edge and improved organizational performance because it makes its employees smarter. 156. What is stress? (Page 577) Stress is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, constraint, or demand related to what he or she desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important. Stress is not necessarily bad in and of itself. MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 157. List the six specific forces for change. (Exh. 19-1; Page 556) The six specific forces for change are: the nature of the workforce, technology, economic shocks, competition, social trends, and world politics. The nature of the workforce includes more cultural diversity, increase in professionals, and many new entrants with inadequate skills. Technology includes faster and cheaper computers, new mobile communication devices, and deciphering of the human genetic code. Economic shocks include the rise and fall of dot.com stocks, the decline in the value of the Euro, and the collapse of Enron Corporation. Competition includes global competitors; mergers and consolidations; and the growth of e-commerce. Social trends include Internet chat rooms, the retirement of Baby Boomers, and the increased interest in urban living. World politics 449 includes the escalation of hostilities in the Middle East, the opening of markets in China, and the war on terrorism. 158. What are the five steps of the action research process? (Pages 565-566) The process of action research consists of five steps: diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation. The change agent begins by gathering information about problems, concerns, and needed changes from members of the organization. The change agent asks questions, interviews employees, reviews records, and listens to the concerns of employees. In the diagnosis stage, the change agent synthesizes this information into primary concerns, problem areas, and possible actions. Action research includes extensive involvement of the change targets. Feedback requires sharing with employees what has been found from steps one and two. The employees, with the help of the change agent, develop action plans for bringing about any needed change. The employees and the change agent carry out the specific actions to correct the problems that have been identified. The final step is evaluation of the action plan’s effectiveness. 159. What can managers do to make their firms learning organizations? (Page 574) Managers can make their firms learning organizations through a number of suggestions. Management can establish a strategy. Management might also redesign the organization’s structure. In addition, they can reshape the organization’s culture. 160. Discuss some of the psychological consequences of stress? (Page 582) Stress can cause dissatisfaction. Job-related stress can cause job-related dissatisfaction. Other psychological states include tension, anxiety, irritability, boredom, and procrastination. 161. What are some individual approaches to managing stress? (Page 584) Individual strategies that have proven effective include implementing time management techniques, increasing physical exercise, relaxation training, and expanding the social support network. COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 162. Discuss five reasons why individuals may resist change. (Pages 559-560) Five reasons why individuals may resist change are: habit, security, economic factors, fear of the unknown, and selective information processing. To cope with complexity, we all rely on habits or programmed responses. But when confronted with change, this tendency to respond in our accustomed ways becomes a source of resistance. People with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feelings of safety. Changes in job tasks or established work routines also can arouse economic fears if people are concerned that they won’t be able to perform the new tasks or routines to their previous standards, especially when pay is closely tied to productivity. Change substitutes ambiguity and uncertainty for the known. Employees in 450 organizations dislike uncertainty. Individuals are guilty of selectively processing information in order to keep their perceptions intact. They hear what they want to hear. They ignore information that challenges the world they’ve created. 163. Discuss resistance to change in term of its organizational sources. (Pages 561-562) There are six major sources of organizational resistance to change. Organizations have built-in mechanisms to produce stability. Formalization provides job descriptions, rules, and procedures for employees to follow. Organizations are made up of a number of interdependent subsystems. You can’t change one without affecting the others. Even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint. Changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups. Any redistribution of decision-making authority can threaten long-established power relationships within the organization. Those groups in the organization that control sizable resources often see change as a threat. They tend to be content with the way things are. 164. Discuss stress and its consequences. Include potential sources of stress and both individual and organizational approaches to managing stress. (Pages 578-580) Stress is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, constraint, or demand related to what he or she desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important. Stress is not necessarily bad in and of itself. Environmental sources of stress include economic uncertainty, political uncertainty, and technological uncertainty. Organizational sources of stress include: task demands, role demands, interpersonal demands, organizational structure, organizational leadership, and an organization’s life cycle. Individual factors include family problems, financial problems, and personality. Stress can cause dissatisfaction. Job-related stress can cause job-related dissatisfaction. Other psychological states include: tension, anxiety, irritability, boredom, and procrastination. Behaviorally related stress symptoms include changes in productivity, absence, and turnover, as well as changes in eating habits, increased smoking or consumption of alcohol, rapid speech, fidgeting, and sleep disorders. Individual strategies that have proven effective include: implementing time management techniques, increasing physical exercise, relaxation training, and expanding the social support network. Strategies that management might want to consider include: improved personnel selection and job placement, training, use of realistic goal setting, redesigning of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organizational communication, offering employee sabbaticals, and establishment of corporate wellness programs. 451 Appendix A The Historical Evolution of Organizational Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE Early Practices 1. The roots of organizational behavior can be found in: a. prehistoric times. b. the twelfth century. c. the sixteenth or seventeenth century. d. the eighteenth or nineteenth century. (d; Challenging; p. 594) 2. Which of the following was not important in shaping the boundaries of OB? a. Adam Smith b. Henry Ford c. Charles Babbage d. Robert Owen (c; Easy; p. 594) 3. The Wealth of Nations was written by: a. Adam Smith. b. Charles Babbage. c. Robert Owen. d. Frederick Herzberg. (a; Easy; p. 504) 4. The Wealth of Nations included an argument in favor of: a. redistribution of capital. b. division of labor. c. education. d. participative management. (b; Moderate; p. 594) 5. Which industry did Adam Smith use for his examples? a. automobile b. steam engine c. pin manufacturing d. airline (c; Moderate; p. 594) 6. The development of _____ during the 20th century was stimulated by the economic advantages of work specialization cited by Adam Smith. a. assembly-line production processes b. flexible manufacturing c. mass customization d. cell manufacturing (a; Moderate; p. 594) 453 7. Charles Babbage included a list of advantages of division of labor in his On the Economy of Machinery and Manufactures. This list included all of the following except: a. it reduces the time needed for learning a job. b. it increases worker satisfaction. c. it allows for the attainment of high skill levels. d. it reduces the waste of material during the learning stage. (b; Moderate; p. 594) 8. _____ expanded on the virtues of division of labor articulated by Adam Smith. a. Robert Owen b. Elton Mayo c. Charles Babbage d. Frederick Taylor (c; Easy; p. 594) 9. _____ was a Welsh entrepreneur who bought his first factory in 1789, at the age of eighteen. a. Adam Smith b. Charles Babbage c. Robert Owen d. Frederick Taylor (c; Moderate; p. 595) 10. ____ chided factory owners for treating their equipment better than their employees. a. Adam Smith b. Charles Babbage c. Robert Owen d. Frederick Taylor (c; Moderate; p. 595) 11. Robert Owen argued for: a. regulated hours of work. b. public education. c. business involvement in community projects. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 595) The Classical Era 12. The classical era covered the period from about _____to _____. a. 1800; 1850 b. 1900; mid 1930s c. 1940; 1975 d. 1950; present (b; Challenging; p. 595) 13. All of the following were writers during the “Classical Era” except: 454 a. Max Weber. b. Henri Fayol. c. Mary Parker Follett. d. Adam Smith. (d; Moderate; p. 595) 14. Today, UPS drivers are following principles laid down by: a. Adam Smith. b. Frederick Taylor. c. Robert Owen. d. Charles Babbage. (b; Moderate; p. 595) 15. Frederick Taylor was a(n) _____ at Midvale and Bethlehem Steel Companies. a. accountant b. shift supervisor c. mechanical engineer d. first-line supervisor (c; Challenging; p. 595) Which of the following was not included in Taylor’s four principles of management? a. Develop a science for each element of an individual’s work. b. Scientifically select and then train, teach, and develop the worker. c. Lay down the law to workers to make sure that all work is done as you instruct. d. Divide work and responsibility almost equally between management and workers. (c; Moderate; pp. 595-596) 16. 17. Who wrote The Principles of Scientific Management? a. Adam Smith b. Frederick Taylor c. Robert Owen d. Charles Babbage (b; Moderate; p. 595) 18. The early acceptance of _____ techniques by U.S. manufacturing companies gave them a comparative advantage over foreign firms. a. division of labor b. administrative theory c. scientific management d. coordinating (c; Challenging; p. 597) 19. Fayol proposed that managers perform all of the following except: a. planning. b. organizing. c. coordinating. d. motivating. (d; Moderate; p. 597) 455 20. _____ stated 14 principles of management. a. Max Weber b. Henri Fayol c. Mary Parker Follett d. Adam Smith (b; Moderate; p. 597) 21. Which of the following is not true about the work of Max Weber? a. He looked at management and organizational behavior from a structural perspective. b. He viewed the ideal organization as a bureaucracy. c. He did not believe in division of work. d. He viewed esprit de corps as important. (c; Moderate; p. 598) 22. Which of the following did not forget human beings are the central core of every organization? a. Frederick Taylor b. Henri Fayol c. Max Weber d. Chester Barnard (d; Easy; p. 598) 23. _____ felt that organizations should be based on a group ethic rather than individualism. a. Mary Parker Follett b. Max Weber c. Henri Fayol d. Frederick Taylor (a; Moderate; p. 598) Which of the following was not a part of Weber’s ideal bureaucracy? a. career orientation b. hire relatives c. authority hierarchy d. formal rules and regulations (b; Moderate; p. 598) 24. 25. Who wrote The Functions of the Executive, expressing his views of organizations as social systems that require human cooperation? a. Frederick Taylor b. Henri Fayol c. Max Weber d. Chester Barnard (d; Moderate; p. 599) The Behavioral Era 26. _____ created the field of industrial psychology with the publication of his text Psychology and 456 Industrial Efficiency. a. Max Weber b. Hugo Munsterberg c. Henri Fayol d. Frederick Taylor (b; Challenging; p. 599) 27. The _____ was passed in 1935 and recognized unions as the authorized representatives of workers. a. Warren Commission b. Civil Rights Act c. Wagner Act d. Hawthorne Act (c; Moderate; p. 599) 28. The _____ were performed at Western Electric Company facilities by Elton Mayo. a. welfare studies b. Carnegie Studies c. Hawthorne Studies d. job core dimensions studies (c; Moderate; p. 600) The essence of the human relations movement was the belief that the key to higher productivity in organizations was: a. increasing employee satisfaction. b. reducing conflict. c. scientific principles. d. all of the above (a; Challenging; p. 600) 30. Mayo’s conclusion(s) about the Hawthorne studies was (were) that: a. behavior and sentiments were closely related. b. group influences significantly affected individual behavior. c. group standards established individual worker output. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 600) 31. _____ wrote the book, How to Win Friends and Influence People. a. Douglas McGregor b. Dale Carnegie c. Henri Fayol d. Jack Welch (b; Easy; p. 601) 29. 32. Carnegie’s essential theme was that the way to success was through: a. winning the cooperation of others. b. making others feel unappreciated. c. changing people by criticism. 457 d. disregarding first impressions. (a; Moderate; p. 601) 33. _____ created Theory X and Theory Y. a. Douglas McGregor b. B. F. Skinner c. David McClelland d. Frederick Taylor (a; Challenging; p. 601) 34. _____ rests on an essentially negative view of people. a. Administrative theory b. Bureaucracy c. Theory X d. Theory Y (c; Moderate; p. 602) 35. Which of the following is not considered a behavioral science theorist? a. Joseph Moreno b. David McClelland c. Frederick Herzberg d. Frederick Taylor (d; Easy; p. 602) 36. _____ researched operant conditioning and behavior modification. a. B.F. Skinner b. Elton Maylo c. David McClelland d. Frederick Herzberg (a; Moderate; p. 602) 37. _____ tested the strength of individual achievement motivation. a. B.F. Skinner b. Elton Maylo c. David McClelland d. Frederick Herzberg (c; Moderate; p. 602) 38. The importance of the situational aspects of leadership was developed into the contingency model by: a. Fred Fiedler. b. Frederick Herzberg. c. Hackman and Oldham. d. David McClelland. (a; Moderate; p. 602) 39. _____ concluded that people preferred jobs that offered opportunity for recognition, achievement, responsibility, and growth. a. B.F. Skinner 458 b. Elton Maylo c. David McClelland d. Frederick Herzberg (d; Moderate; p. 603) Hackman and Oldham developed a theory which uncovered: a. motivators. b. hygiene and motivator factors. c. core job dimensions. d. contingency theory. (c; Moderate; p. 603) OB Today: A Contingency Perspective 41. Today, organizational behavior focuses mostly on the _____ approach. a. scientific management b. need theory c. contingency d. laboratory experiment (c; Moderate; p. 603) TRUE/FALSE Early Practices 42. Frederick Taylor wrote The Wealth of Nations, in which he argued that organizations and society would benefit from the division of labor. (False; Easy; p. 594) 43. Division of labor is also called work specialization. (True; Easy; p. 594) 44. Charles Babbage expanded on the work of Adam Smith. (True; Moderate; p. 594) Babbage proposed that the economies from specialization should be as relevant to doing mental work as physical labor. (True; Moderate; p. 594) 46. Robert Owen argued that money was better spent on equipment than on improving labor. (False; Moderate; p. 595) 45. 40. 47. Robert Owen was one of the first industrialists to recognize how the growing factory system was demeaning to workers. (True; Moderate; p. 595) 48. Robert Owen argued for child labor laws over 150 years ago. 459 (True; Challenging; p. 595) The Classical Era 49. The classical period of organizational behavior covered the period 1850 to 1900. (False; Moderate; p. 595) 50. The classical contributors included Taylor, Fayol, and Smith. (False; Moderate; p. 595) 51. UPS drivers today are using principles laid down by Taylor. (True; Easy; p. 595) Taylor sought to create a mental revolution among both the workers and management by defining clear guidelines for improving production efficiency. (True; Moderate; p. 595) Taylor observed that management and workers viewed themselves as a team and wanted to work together for the good of their company. (False; Moderate; p. 595) 54. Taylor’s principles of management included the idea that management and workers should cooperate with one another. (True; Moderate; p. 596) 55. Taylor wrote The Wealth of Nations. (False; Easy; p. 597) 56. Taylor achieved consistent improvements in productivity in the range of 200 percent or more. (True; Challenging; p. 597) 57. Taylor was able to define the one best way for each job. (True; Challenging; p. 597) 58. Taylor favored wage incentive plans to motivate workers. (True; Moderate; p. 597) 59. Fayol argued that management was an activity common to all human undertakings. (True; Moderate; p. 597) 60. Fayol stated 14 principles of management. (True; Moderate; p. 597) 61. Weber was a pioneer in scientific management. (False; Moderate; p. 598) 62. Weber described an ideal type of organization that he called a bureaucracy. (True; Easy; p. 598) 53. 52. 460 Mary Parker Follett and Chester Barnard were pioneers in studying the social aspects of organizations. (True; Moderate; p. 598) 64. Weber’s ideal bureaucracy advocated impersonality. (True; Moderate; p. 598) Mary Parker Follett thought that organizations should be based on a group ethic rather than individualism. (True; Challenging; p. 598) 66. Chester Barnard viewed organizations as made up of people who have interacting social relationships. (True; Moderate; pp. 598-599) 67. The “people side” of organizations came into its own during the behavioral era. (True; Moderate; p. 599) 68. Hugo Munsterberg saw a link between scientific management and industrial psychology. (True; Moderate; p. 599) 69. The Wagner Act forbade labor unions. (False; Easy; p. 599) The essence of the human relations movement was the belief that the key to higher productivity in organizations was the use of scientific management techniques. (False; Moderate; p. 600) Mayo’s conclusions about the Hawthorne experiments were that behavior and sentiments are closely related, group influences significantly affect individual behavior, group standards establish individual worker output, and money is less a factor in determining output than group standards, group sentiments, and security. (True; Challenging; p. 600) 72. Dale Carnegie wrote How to Win Friends and Influence People. (True; Moderate; p. 601) 73. Carnegie’s essential theme was that the way to success was through winning in competition with others. (False; Challenging; p. 602) 74. Abraham Maslow proposed a theoretical hierarchy of five needs. (True; Easy; p. 601) 75. Douglas McGregor is best known for his formulation of two sets of assumptions – Theory X and Theory Y – about human behavior. (True; Easy; p. 601) 76. Skinner demonstrated that behavior is a function of its consequences. 461 71. 70. 65. 63. (True; Easy; p. 602) 77. The work of Fiedler is significant for its emphasis on the situational aspects of leadership. (True; Moderate; p. 602) 78. Herzberg’s research undermined the recommendations of scientific management. (True; Challenging; p. 602) 79. Herzberg studied the core job dimensions. (False; Easy; p. 603) 462 Appendix B Research in Organizational Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A basic understanding of research design is useful for: a. developing skills in evaluating OB studies encountered in business journals. b. managing the financial affairs of the organization. c. developing interpersonal skills. d. coping with a changing environment. (a; Easy; p. 606) 2. As defined in your text, the purpose of research is to: a. expose inconsistencies in nature. b. publish papers. c. help us in our search for truth. d. teach academic skills. (c; Moderate; p. 606) 3. Research is best defined as: a. developing hypotheses. b. the systematic gathering of information. c. finding the ultimate truth. d. developing theories. (b; Moderate; p. 606) 4. A _____ is any general characteristic that can be measured and that changes in either amplitude, intensity, or both. a. variable b. hypothesis c. correlation d. theory (a; Easy; p. 607) 5. The variable the researcher is interested in explaining is the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. constraint. d. hypothesis. (b; Moderate; p. 607) 6. A hypothesis is only a tentative explanation until it: a. has stood the test of time. b. is published in a research journal. c. is disputed by experts. d. is confirmed by empirical research. (d; Easy; p. 607) 463 7. According to the text, a hypothesis implies: a. a statement. b. research is in progress or soon to be in progress. c. a cause and effect relationship. d. an arbitrary estimation. (c; Moderate; p. 607) 8. Which one of the following is a popular dependent variable in OB? a. return on investment b. increase in market share c. employee stress d. employee productivity (d; Moderate; p. 607) 9. A(an) _____ is the presumed cause of some changes in the dependent variable. a. means b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. cause (b; Moderate; p. 607) 10. If employees who have background music playing at their work station are more productive than employees who do not have such music, then the background music may be said to be: a. an independent variable. b. a dependent variable. c. a moderating variable. d. a relationship. (a; Challenging; p. 607) 11. In the statement, “Increases in job satisfaction lead to reduced turnover,” the independent variable is: a. job satisfaction. b. turnover. c. the individuals in question. d. the action that caused the increase in job satisfaction. (a; Challenging; p. 607) 12. In the statement “Increases in money lead to higher job satisfaction,” job satisfaction becomes a: a. means. b. independent variable. c. dependent variable. d. cause. (c; Challenging; p. 607) 13. Job satisfaction can be described as: a. an independent variable. b. a dependent variable. c. a moderating variable. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 607) 464 14. Suppose, as plant manager, you increase the amount of direct supervision in the work area. You expect a change in worker productivity. Which of the following is most likely a moderating variable in this situation? a. worker productivity b. the amount of supervision in other work areas within the same company c. the complexity of the tasks being performed d. the degree of change in worker productivity (c; Challenging; p. 607) 15. College grades tend to be higher for students who spend more hours studying, but the evidence indicates that some students have exceptional natural intelligence and make high grades with little time spent studying. If we model this statement, intelligence would be: a. an independent variable. b. a dependent variable. c. a moderating variable. d. none of the above (c; Challenging; p. 607) 16. Changes in the independent variable are assumed to: a. cause changes in the dependent variable. b. necessitate an alteration to the research methods. c. facilitate productive research. d. occur rarely, if ever. (a; Easy; p. 607) 17. Causality is: a. used to describe the cause of a change in the dependent variable. b. the effect caused by changes in a system. c. influenced by the independent variable. d. the direction of cause and effect. (d; Moderate; p. 607) 18. The correlation coefficient: a. will be zero if two variables vary inversely. b. will be expressed as a positive number when two variables vary inversely. c. implies causality. d. measures the strength of association between two variables. (d; Moderate; p. 607) 19. When two variables vary directly with one another, there is a: a. positive correlation. b. negative correlation. c. zero correlation. d. consistent correlation. (a; Moderate; p. 607) 20. If the two variables vary independently of each other, the correlation between them is: a. positive. 465 b. negative. c. zero. d. none of the above (c; Moderate; p. 607) Correlation does not imply: a. association. b. causality. c. a relationship. d. all of the above (b; Moderate; p. 608) 21. 22. _____ describes a set of systematically interrelated concepts or hypotheses that purports to explain and predict phenomena. a. A theory b. Relevance c. Validity d. A system (a; Moderate; p. 608) 23. In OB, theories are also frequently referred to as: a. systems. b. models. c. hypotheses. d. universal truths. (b; Easy; p. 608) 24. Multiple theories attempting to explain common phenomenon attest that OB as a discipline is: a. active. b. still growing. c. evolving. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 608) 25. Which is not one of the three questions you should ask in evaluating any research study? a. Is it valid? b. Is it reliable? c. Is it reasonable? d. Is it generalizable? (c; Moderate; p. 608) 26. When asking the question, “Is the study actually measuring what it claims to be measuring?” we are evaluating research in terms of its: a. generalizability. 466 b. validity. c. relevance. d. worth. (b; Moderate; p. 608) 27. If you get a consistent measurement after weighing yourself three times consecutively on a particular set of scales, the scales are said to be: a. valid. b. effective. c. reliable. d. weighted. (c; Moderate; p. 608) Reliability is best described as a measure of: a. consistency. b. accuracy. c. dependability. d. quality. (a; Moderate; p. 608) 28. 29. A survey is administered to college students to measure their degree of job satisfaction with their part-time jobs. The results are used to make assumptions about the U.S. work force. This is an example of: a. general application. b. research application. c. common research procedure. d. faulty generalization. (d; Moderate; p. 608) 30. Which of the following is not one of the five popular research designs? a. case studies b. field surveys c. field experiments d. focus groups (d; Easy; p. 609) 31. Drawn from real-life situations, ______ present an in-depth analysis of one setting. a. case studies b. field surveys c. field experiments d. focus groups (a; Easy; p. 609) 32. In case studies there is a trade-off between: a. generalizability and richness of detail. b. detail and interest. c. fact and fiction. 467 d. validity of material and quantity of studies available for educational purposes. (a; Challenging; p. 609) Perceptual bias by the observer is most likely to be a problem with which one of the following research designs? a. field survey b. laboratory experiment c. case study d. field experiment (c; Moderate; p. 609) 33. 34. Which one of the following is not a weakness of a field survey? a. Mailed questionnaires rarely obtain 100 percent returns. b. The format is better at tapping respondents’ attitudes and perceptions than behaviors. c. They are designed to get a depth of information and, therefore, they don’t focus on specific issues. d. The quality of the generalizations is largely a factor of the population chosen. (c; Challenging; p. 609) 35. The research of Stanley Milgram is a classic example of: a. field experiment. b. case study. c. field survey. d. laboratory experiment. (d; Challenging; p. 610) 36. In which type of research design is control typically highest? a. field experiment b. case study c. field survey d. laboratory experiment (d; Challenging; p. 610) 37. In a _____, an artificial environment is created by the researcher and then the researcher manipulates an independent variable under controlled conditions. a. field experiment b. case study c. field survey d. laboratory experiment (d; Moderate; p. 610) 38. The type of research design that provides the most valid and generalizable findings is the: a. field experiment. b. case study. c. field survey. d. laboratory experiment. 468 (a; Moderate; p. 611) 39. One major drawback of the field experiment is: a. low generalizability. b. low reliability. c. low validity. d. organizational selection bias. (d; Easy; p. 611) 40. Which of the following is not descriptive of meta-analysis? a. It is a quantitative form of literature review. b. It allows an opportunity to check generalizability. c. Its use is declining. d. It checks for consistency among individual studies. (c; Challenging; p. 611) TRUE/FALSE Research in Organizational Behavior 41. Managers need to be researchers to understand OB theories. (False; Easy; p. 606) 42. Research can help you to find the ultimate truths underlying human behavior. (False; Easy; p. 606) 43. Ongoing research sometimes develops contradictory results. (True; Easy; p. 606) 44. This book uses “variable” and “hypothesis” as interchangeable terms. (False; Moderate; p. 607) 45. Until confirmed by empirical research, a hypothesis remains a tentative explanation. (True; Easy; p. 607) 46. In OB research, the most popular dependent variables are productivity, absenteeism, turnover, job satisfaction, and organizational commitment. (True; Challenging; p. 607) 47. A hypothesis implies a relationship. (True; Moderate; p. 607) 48. In a cause-effect relationship, the presumed cause is the dependent variable. (False; Moderate; p. 607) 49. A change in the independent variable is assumed to be caused by a change in the dependent variable. (False; Moderate; p. 607) 469 50. If X implies Y, we can say that Y is the dependent variable. (True; Moderate; p. 607) 51. If X then Y occurs, but only under conditions Z, Z is a moderating variable. (True; Challenging; p. 607) 52. A correlation coefficient is expressed as a number between -1.00 and +1.00. (True; Moderate; p. 607) 53. A correlation coefficient of 10 indicates a perfect positive relationship. (False; Easy; p. 607) 54. If older workers make more money than younger workers, we would be correct to say that age and money income are positively correlated. (True; Moderate; p. 607) 55. Any correlation above .30 should be considered a strong association. (False; Moderate; p. 608) 56. Correlation proves causation. (False; Moderate; p. 608) 57. In OB, theories are also frequently referred to as models. (True; Easy; p. 608) 58. There are definite shortages of theories in OB. (False; Moderate; p. 608) 59. Reliability is a measure of consistency. (True; Easy; p. 608) 60. Validity assesses effectiveness, while reliability measures efficiency. (False; Moderate; p. 608) 61. Validity asks if the study is actually measuring what it claims to be measuring. (True; Easy; p. 608) 62. A research design must have high precision and generalizability to have any value to practicing managers. (False; Moderate; p. 608) 63. Good research designs are not perfect. (True; Challenging; p. 609) 64. Case studies provide richness of information at the price of limited generalizability. (True; Moderate; p. 609) 65. A company sends out an attitude questionnaire to all its 400 employees. This is an example of a case study. (False; Moderate; p. 609) 470 66. In a field survey, the quality of the generalizations is largely dependent on the population chosen. (True; Moderate; p. 609) 67. The field experiment is similar to the laboratory experiment, except it is conducted in a real organization. (True; Moderate; pp. 609-610) 68. In a laboratory experiment, the researcher manipulates an independent variable under controlled conditions. (True; Moderate; p. 610) 69. Any field study with more than 1,000 individuals is termed a meta-analysis. (False; Moderate; p. 611) Ethics in Research 70. Researchers are not always tactful or candid with subjects when they perform their studies. (True; Moderate; p. 612) 471 ...
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mgmt3720 - Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior...

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