xs95098 - l. MB 101 page Z Midterm 1 Systemic Physiology...

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Unformatted text preview: l. MB 101 page Z Midterm 1 Systemic Physiology éJq.‘ x1 I ,. Spring 1995 5955795 a 0 Conduction velocity will be slowest when membrane . a. leak. capacitance, and axial resistance are all I. b. capacitance is low. but leak is high. v-r n" a. ‘-' U c. capacitance and axial resistance are bOth low. " ‘ ‘ Which of the following statements is gag about action potentials? a. an action pctential will occur ifa neuron is depolarized to threshold. b. the amount of Na‘ influx during one action potential does not significantly change EN. (the Nemst potential of Na‘ ions). ‘ c. rapid conduction velocity is due to diffusion of Na‘ ions through the cytoplasm in the axon. In an experiment. the intracellular concentration of Na‘ in a resting neuron can be mcreased. Compare the amplitude of normal action potentials (before [Na]l is elevated). and 55; action potentials (while (Na)x is elevated). a the ‘test' amplitude would be the same as the ‘normal' amplitude. b. the ‘test' amplitude would be greater than the ‘normal' amplitude. c. the ‘test' amplitnde would be smaller than the ‘normal' amplitude. Which of the follong statemean best describes action potentials? a. at the peak of each action potential, the membrane potential becomes more positive than EN. (the Nerost potential for Na‘). . _ ‘ ‘ h. during repolarization. the membrane potential‘becomes mom negative than Ex (the Nernst porential for K“). c. statements a and b are both true. ' d. statements a and b are both false. “ .4 Which of the following statements desaibes the Nemst and Goldman equations? a. both equations predict that changes in ion permeability will produce changes in membrane potential. b. both equations predict thatan increase in extrafillular concentration of K’ ions will hyperpolan'ze neurons. c. the Goldman equation becomes mathematically equivalent to the Nemst equation under some conditions. d. all of the above statements are true. V I The resung potential ofan interneuron is near 15‘. If you open many ion channels in that cell. and ifeach of these channels is equally permeable to Na' and K‘ ions. which of the foll0wing should happen? K” influx. Na’ efilux. Na‘ influx. with less K’ efflux. K" efflux, but no Na‘ influx. Fermi?" Which of the following Statements best describes chemical synapses? neurons form chemical synapses onto Other neurons, but never onto non-neuronal cells. more than one pre-synaptic cell can synapse onto a single post‘synaptic cell. one way to produce an EPSP is to increase PK (membrane permeability to K' ions in a post-synaptic cell). one way to produce an IPSP is to increase PH. (membrane permeability to Na‘ ions in a post-synaptic cell). e. neurotransmitter relmc requires increases in the concentration of Na‘ and Caz‘ ions inside the axon terminal. 9.0.04» NPB 101 page 3 Midterm 1 Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 8. Which of the following statements best describes Ca“ in the inner car? a. consider one cochlear hair cell at the helicotrema High-frequency sounds increase Ca“ ion concentration iDSidc that hair cell. while low-frequency sounds decrease Ca“ concentration in that same hair cell. b. consider one macular hair cell which senses forward and backward movement. as you drive into and out of a parking space. These movements in opposite directions will result in opposite changes in cytoplasmic Ca“ concentration in that hair cell. c. wnsider one hair cell in one of your semicircular canals. Rotation of your head around the Y-aitis in space increases cytoplasnic Ca“ concentration inside that hair cell. wherms rotation around the Lands decreases the Ca“ concentration inside that same hair cell. 9. Which of the following cells do not use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter? a. parasympathetic pre-ganglionic fibers. b. parasympathetic post-ganglionic fibers. c. sympathetic pre-ganglionic fibers. d. sympathetic post-ganglionic fibers. e. a-motoneurons 10. Synapses in the spinal cord occur in the a. ventral horn only. b. ventral and dorsal horns only. c. dorsal and lateral horns only. d. dorsal, lateral, and ventral horns. ll. Consider the quadriceps muscle in your left leg only. W contraction of extrafusal muscles would occur in response to: a. contraction of intrafusal muscle fibers in your left quadriceps. b. stretch of your left quadriceps muscle. c contraction of your left quadriceps. 12. Which of the following statements best describes neurons, as described in cms? all neurons have dendrites. all neurons produce action potentials. more than one ofthe above statements are true. statements I and 1) me not true. 999‘? 13. Which of the following staments best describes glial cells? glial cells occupy avery mall fruion oftheml volume ofyourbrain. some glial cells decrease the conduction velocity of action potentials. some glial cells remove neurotransmitter from extracellular fluid. all of the above statements are false. 9-9.7?“ 14. Which of the following statements best describes the ATPase discussed in class? a it transports Na‘ and K‘ from the extracellular fluid into the cell cytoplasm. b. it establishes the Na’ and K‘ concentrations which appear in the Goldman equation. c. it reestablishes the Na’ concentration gradient after each action potential. NPB 101 page 4 G) Midterm 1 Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 15. You have discovered a cell whose membrane is permeable to negatively-charged ions (X') only, and has no channels permeable to positively-charged ions. If the Nernst potential of X (Ex) is a negative number, then the resting potential of this cell should be: a. more positive than Ex. b. more negative than Ex. C. [0 Ex. 16. Which of the following stmements best describes the choroid plexus? capillaries of (i.e., inside) the choroid plexus form the blood-brain barrier. the epithelium of the choroid plexus forms the blood-brain barrier. the choroid plexus produces the intracellular fluid of glial cells within the cave-like ventricle of your brain. all of the above statements are true. none of the above statements are true. 9999-96 17. Which of the following statements best describes cerebro-spinal fluid? it is more similar in composition to intracellular fluid than to extracellular fluid. it is more similar in composition to extracellular fluid than to intracellular fluid. it is normally formed rapidly (e.g. 1 gallon per day), and returns to your blood system slowly (e.g. 1 pint per day). d. two of the above statements are true. none of the above statements are true. 99'» .0 18. Which cochlear hair cells respond to low-frequency sounds? a. those nearest the oval window b. those halfway between the oval window and the helicotretna c. those nearest the helicotretna 19. Which of the following statements best describes how hair cells in your magma; organs can be stimulated? [Assume that movements 5 and h involve your head and neck only.] when you gesture ‘no' by moving your face from left to right. when you shake water out of your ear by shaking your head quickly toward either side of your body. you are in an elevator, and it starts moving straight upward. two of the above are true. page 20. Hair cells do not produce Na‘ action potentials because _____, a. they at constantly in relative refractory period. b. they are constantly in absolute refractory period. c. they lack Na+ channels. d. they lack K” channels. NPB 101 page 5 M3de } Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 _________________._______.______—__———————— 21. Which of the following statements best describes the spinal cord? 25. “‘a.‘ efferent axons leave the spinal cord through the dorsal horn. ‘h. efferent axons in dorsal funiculi carry action potentials from the brain to the spinal cord. c; \ afferent axons can be found in dorsal funiculi and in dorsal horn. Frogs ‘jump' by suddenly extending both of their hind legs. Which of the following best explains how this might occur? contraction of flexor muscles in both legs. excitation of a-motoneurons which synapse onto extensor muscles in both legs. inhibition of g-motoneurons which synapse onto inuafusal fibers in the extensor muscles in both legs. contraction of extensor muscles of the left leg, and contractiOn of flexor muscles of the right leg. 9-ng Which of the following statements best describe efferent pathways in the spinal cord? at efferent axons leave the spinal cord through the dorsal root. b. efferent axons leave the spinal cord through the ventral root. c the cell bodies of some efferent axons can be found in the lateral horn, while somata of other efferent axons can be found in the ventral horn. d. two of the above statements are true. As explained in class, which of the following explains why 15,... of a hair cell is -30 mV (rather than -70 mV)? low extracellular Na+ ion concentration. high intracellular Na" ion concentration. high extracellular K“ ion concentration. low extracellular K‘ ion concentration. 9.0.?!» Consider 3 neurons associated with one extrafusal muscle fiber. its 18 afferent neuron, its a-motoneuron, and the inhibitory interneuron. As discussed in class, which of the following statements best describes neurotransmitter release at the synapses between these cells? the inhibitory interneuron can release inhibitory neurotransmitter onto the IB afferent neuron. the IB afferent neuron can release inhibitory neurotransmitter onto the inhibitory interneuron. the inhibitory interneuron can release inhibitory neurotransmitter onto the a-motoneuron. the a-motoneuron can release inhibitory neurotransmitter onto the inhibitory interneuron. more than one of the above statements is true. 9999'? The tension or force developed by skeletal muscle will increase with (Intervention #1) increasing the muscle fiber length up to the optimal overlap of the actin and myosin myofilaments; (Intervention #2) increasing the frequency of stimulation of a motor nerve fiba innervting the skeletal muscle; (Intervention #3) Stimulation of a large motor unit rather than a small one. Only one of the three interventions will increase the force or tension developed by the skeletal muscle. Only two of the three interventions will increase the force or tension developed by the skeletal muscle. All three interventions will increase the force or tension developed by the skeletal muscle. None of the three interventions will increase the force or tension developed by the skeletal muscle. 9-957!” NPB 101 page 6 Midterm I Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 ______________________________—__——__ 27. During an isometric contraction there is neither internal (sacromere) nor external shortening. 29. 30. 31. a. True b. False You give a drug which blocks the synthesis of ATP. The muscle is stimulated to contract until all stored ATP is depleted. When all the ATP is depleted the actin - myosin crossbridges will a. become dissociated. b. remain bound. In this question you are asked to order ( from greatest to least) the magnitude of external shortening of skeletal muscle under three loading conditions. Condition #1 - No load on the muscle. Condition #2 - muscle contracts isownically against a light load. Condition #3 - Muscle contracts isometrically against a heavy load. For each condition the muscle is at its optimal fiber length. (Order the magntiude of external shortening from greatest to least.) a. Condition #3, Condition #2, Condition#l. b. Condition #1 = Condition#2. Condition #3. c. Condition #1. Condition #2. Condition #3. d Condition #2, Condition #1, Condition #3. e Under the three loading conditions. the muscle will undergo the equal external shortening. In this question you are asked to compare smooth muscle with skeletal muscle. (Statement #1) In smooth muscle calcium ions bind to the calmodulin regulatory protein while in skeletal muscle calcium binds to troponin C. (Statement #2) In smooth muscle most of the calcium used for excitation contraction coupling comes from extracellular calcium carried into the cell by calcium current while in skeletal muscle the primary source of calcium is the sarooplasmic reticulum. (Statement #3) Some types of smooth muscle exhibit pammaker activity (intrinsic depolarization to threshold with self initiation of an action potential) while skeletal muscle does not. a. Only one of the three statements is true. h. Only two of the three statements are true. c. All three statements are true. d. None of the three statements is true. What color is your exam? a. white b. blue c.green NPB 101 Page 2 Midterm [1 Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 1. (Statement #1) Both vitamin D and parathyroid hormone will increase plasma calcium and plasma phosphate. (Statement #2) Parathyroid hormone (in the presence of vitamin D) increases plasma calcium more than it increases plasma phosphate. (Statement #3) Vitamin D acting through calcium binding protein equally incremes plasma calcrum and phosphate. 3. All three statements are true. b. Only two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the three statements is true. d. None of the statements are true. 2. (Statement #1) Somatomedins have a negative feedback effect on growth hormone secretion. (Statement #2) Somatomedins inhibit the release of Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH). inhibit the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary, and inhibit somatostatin secretion from within the hypothalamus. The first statement is true. The second statement is true. Both statements are true. Neither statement is true. 999'!» 3. A decrease in cardiac contractility will shift the curve relating venous pressure to ventricular pressure or stroke volume (Frank - Starling Relationship) a up. b. down. c. neither up nor down. 4. According to the equation relating parameters affecting pressure and flow, a flow is directly related to resistance. b. resistance will increase with an increase in radius of the vessel. c. resistance will decrease with an increase in viscosity of the fluid. d. resistance will inaease with an increase in the length a tube. c. all the above correctly describe the relationship between pressure and flow. 5. ADI-l (antidiuretic hormone) secretion will increase in response to an increase in blood osmolality g! a decrease in blood volume. a. True b. False 6. Aortic diastolic pressure will increase with (Condition #1) an increase in sympathetic activity to SA node and (Condition #2) with an increase in sympathetic activity to the arterioles. a. Only one condition will increase aortic diastolic pressure. b. Both condition #1 and #2 will increase aortic diastolic pressure. c. Neither condition will increase aortic diastolic pressure. NPB 101 Page 3 Midterm [1 Systemic Physiology Spring 1995 7. At FRC and at the end of a normal tidal inspiration, 10. 11. 12. there is no net force acting on the total respiratory system. a. b. The elastic recoil force of the chest wall is inward. c. 'lhe elastic recoil/surface tension force of the lung is outward. d. b and c e. none of the above. At the end of a normal tidal inspiration, you make the intrapleural pressure more negative. As a consequence of this more negative intrapleural pressure, the lung will... a not change its volume. b. expand further increasing the tidal volume. c. become smaller and air will be expelled from the lung. d. Now of the above. Both populations of central chemoreceptors will respond to increases in blood P002 and H+ (independent of changes in co2) and increase ventilation. Cutting neurons within the pituitary stalk (infundibulum) will inhibit the release of a. Anterior pituitary hormones. b. Posterior pituitary hormones. c. Both the anterior and posterior pituitary hormones. During the period of isovolumetric relaxation, a. the AV valves are open. b. the aortic valve is closed. c. there is an increase in atrial and ventricular volumes. d two of the above statements are true. e a. b and c are true. NPB 10] Systemic Physiology Midterm 11 Spring 1995 Page 4 13. 14. 15. l6. 17. 18. During the plateau phase of a Purkinje fiber action potential, the movement of calcium ions into the cell generates a depolarizaan effect while movement of potassium ions out of the cell generates a repolarizing effect. a. True b. False Equal quantities of carbon dioxide and oxygen are added to the blood. After equilibration, which gas will have a higher partial pressure? a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. neither, both will produce the same increase in partial pressure. Growth hormone stimulates (Response #1) a decrease in adiposity, (Response #2) an increase in uptake of amino acids by tissue and an increase in protein synthesis, (Response #3) an increase in glucose uptake in muscle but not in adipose tissue. a. All three responses are correct. b. Only two of the three responses are correct. c. Only one ofthethreeresponsesiscorrect. d. None of the responses are correct. In the lung, decreases in P002 increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. In the tissues, increases in Pc02 decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. a. True b. False The active form of thyroxine (Response #1) increases the turnover of carbohydrates and lipids, (Response #2) increases glycogen stores and lipid synthesis, and (Response #3) increases amino acid uptake and protein synthesis. a. All three responses are correct. b. Only two ofthethreeresponssarecorrect. c. Only one ofthe tworesponsesarecorrect. d. None of the three responses are correct. The arterial side of the vascular system contains less blood volume than the venous side. The arterial side has a smaller capacitance than the venous side. The pressure on the arterial side is higher than that on the venous side because the volume on the arterial side is large relative to its capacitance. a. Only one statement is true. b. Two statements are true. c. Three statements are true. d. None of the statements are true. NPB 101 Page 5 Midterm II SyStemic Physiology Spring 1995 _________—______.___.__—_———_——_———_ 19. The formation of active vitamin D over the inactive form is stimulated by it decreases in plasma calcium. b. decreases in plasma phosphate. c. parathyroid hormone. d. a and c. e. a. b and c. 20. The synthesis of thyroxine by the thyroid gland includes (#1) uptake of iodine by the follicle cells, (#2) the oxidation of iodine to iodide. (#3) the incorporation of tyrosine into the thyroglobulin molecule within the follicle cells, (#4) the iodination of tyrosine within the lumen of the follicle and (#5) the coupling the monoiodo and diiodotyrosines to form triiodothyronine and tetraiodothyronine within the lumen of the follicle. All five steps are comect. Only four of the five steps are correct. Only three of the five steps are correct Only two of the five steps are correct. Only one of the five steps is correct 999.0%» 21. There is increase in blood flow to the lung alveoli with no change in ventilation. As a consequence of this intervention. a. alveolar P02 will decrease and alveolar PcoZ will increase. b. alveolar P02 will be unchanged by alveolar P002 will increase. c. pulmonary venous blood P02 will decrease and PcoZ will inaease. d. a and c. e. None of the above. 22. Which hormones will stimulate net breakdown (lipolysis) of triglycerides from fat stores (adipocytes in adipose tissue)?: a. insan b. glucagon c. growth hormone d. b and c. e. a. b and c. 23. Which hormones would be considered neurocrines? Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus. Posterior pituitary hormones. Anterior pituitary hormones. a and b. a. b and c. 9999'? NPB 10] Systemic Physiology Page 6 Midterm 1] Spring 1995 CONTROL _/;‘/\’—/¥——/\—\/\I—KP 24. Which of the above ECG or EKGs show the effect of sympathetic activation on the pacemaker and conducting tissues of the heart? a. Tracing a b. Tracing b c. Tracing c d. none of the above. 25. Which of the following correctly describes the effective refractory period of cardiac muscle? The effective refractory period for cardiac muscle is longer than the absolute (effective) refractory period of skeletal muscle. The duration of the effective period of cardiac muscle is almost as long as the duration of the contractile responsc of cardiac muscle. The duration of the effective refractory provides time for the heart to eject its stroke volume before another contraction is initiated. - a and b. a, b and c. 26. Which of the following statements best describes the baroreceptor reflex? An increase in transmural pressure acting on the carotid sinus will increase afferent impulse traffic going to the medulla. Afferent activity from the baroreceptors activates parasympathtic system and inhibits the sympathetic system. If there was an increase in blood pressure the reflex response would be to decrease heart rate, decrease arteriolar resistance and increase venous capacitance. a and b are true. a, b and c are true. A NPB 101 Systemic Physiology 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. Page 7 Midterm 11 Spring 1995 Which of the following will increase the force for filtration of water across a capillary? An increase in interstitial oncotic pressure. An increase in interstitial hydrostatic (interstitial fluid) pressure. An increase in plasma oncotic pressure. Two of the three conditions. All three conditions. 99.0.6» Which of the following will increase the pressure or stroke volume developed by the heart? a. Increasing contractility. b. Increasing venous pressure. c. Increasing end diastolic volume. d. a and c. e. a. b and c. You have not eaten in twelve hours. You then consume a very large pizza with two regular cokes. Compared to the period of fasting (the twelve hours without food). you will see (Response #1) an increase in insulin. (Response #2) a decease in glucagon. (Response #3) an increase in somatostatin. a. All three responses are correct. b. Only two of the three responses are correct. c. Only one of the three responses are correct. (1. None of the responses are wrrect. You simultaneously increase sympathetic activity to the arterioles in a skeletal muscle bed and increase the metabolic activity to the same muscle. As a consequence of both interventions there will be a net increase in the resistance of the arterioles. a net decrease in resistance of the arterioles. no change in the resistance of the arterioles. There is insufficient information to conclude if there will be any change in resistance. 99 9'!» What color is your exam? 8. white b. blue c. green NPB101 - Spring 1995 Emminmmumm_____aa__4_____________________£fl&g 1. Compare primary and secondary active transport. a. Na* and K‘ tranSport by the ATPase is a combination of secondary active transport of Na*, and primary activate transport of K*. b. Nat-Ca“ exchange is an example of secondary active transport of Cazt. c. Na*-coupled (i.e., Nat-dependent) transport of glucose in the proximal tubule is an example of primary active transport. 2. Which of the following statements best describes Kt secretion across epithelial cells in renal tubules? a. K+ diffuses across both apical and baso-lateml membranes. b. K* is actively transported across apical membrane. c. Kt is actively transported across base-lateral membrane. 3. Which of the following statematts best describes effects of aldosterone in the kidney? ATPase activity, P», and PK are all increased. ATPase activity, PM, and PK are all deceased. ATPase activity inc-eases, but PM. and 1’}: decrease. A'I'Pase activity decreases, but PM, and PK increase. 90?? 4. Certahtsatsoryrtemaismyombmirtareexdtedbyincreasesmtheosmolarityofextracellularfluid. These cells form excitatory synapses on cells which secrete anti-diuretic hormone (ADH). The end result (effect) of action potattials in these sensory neurons would be to __ water permeability of epithelial cells in the collecting duct. 3. increase b. decrease c. have no effect 5. Certain satsory neurms in your heart are excited by increases in the volume of extracellular fluid. These cells form synapsa on cells which secrete anti-diuretic hormcne (ADI-I). Ultimately, action potentials in these sensory neurms would ted to __ water permeability of epithelial cells in the collecting duct. a. increase b. decrease c. have no dfect 6. Which of the following statements best describes the enteric nervous system? a. it consists of sensory cells, interneurons, and efferatt neurons in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract. b. it is never influenced by efferent input from the cattral or autonomic nervous systems. c. both of the above statematts are true. NPB101 - Spring 1995 Emmjxammaflgn—_—____Eage_3 7. Consider 3 neurons (A, B, and C). At rest, all 3 neurons release neurotransmitter m the resting potential of all three neurons is approximately 40 mV. Hyperpolarizafion of neuron A results in a hyperpolarization of neuron C Hypothetically speaking, this mg result from an synapse fromneurmAmtoneurmB,plusan synapsefromneuronBontoneuronC. (Picktheanswer wiiichdeso'ibesallconectpossibilifies,assurnhigfliatfliereisnodirectsynapsefi'omneurmAmto neuron C.) a. excitatory excitatory b. inhibitory c. exdtatory inhibitory :1. both a and b are true. e. both b and c are true. 8. Which of the following phi-ass best describes a moment during which cytoplasmic Nat cmcentration is greater than cyt0plasmic Kt caioentratim? a. at resting potential. b. during absolute refractory period. c. at the peak of the action potential. d. none of the above statements are true. 9. De-myelinatingdiseases cancausethemyelin steam to shorten— in other words, retract from nodes of Ranvier. This would expose axonal membrane in which potassium permeability is higham sodium diarmelsareabsent. Conductimvelodtyintheaxmwillfliereforetaidto . a. increase. b. decrease. ' c. not change. 10. Action potmtialsgeneratedbyfliearrivaloffood inyour shomad'iwouldmjmglybetransnutted to your brain fluough the of your spinal cord. a. ventral fimiculus b. ventral horn c. dorsal funiculus d. lata'al horn 11. Whichofthe following statements is true about body fluids? a. cerebro—spinal fluid is more a'rnilar in chemical composition to cytoplasm than it (cerebro-spinal fluid) is to extracellular fluid. b. lymph is more similar in chemical composition to extracellular fluid than it (lymph) is to cytoplasm. c. the filtrate in Bowman's capsule of a healthy person contains ions and blood cells. NPB101 - Spring 1995 Elna! Examinami .__. . . Rage 4 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. Mickey MOuse wants to run and think faster than Godzilla. How would Mickey MOuse increase the speed at which action potentials travel in his motoneurons and brain? ‘ a. increase axonal diameter. b. increase membrane capacitance of his axons. c. increase resting (leak) K+ permeability of his axons. A fly bites Godzilla, and Godzilla suddenly stops walking. Which of the following mechanisms could best explain the fly's ability to conquor Godzilla. reduced release of acetylcholine at Godzilla's neuromuscular reduced influx of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminals at these synapses. reduced binding of acetylcholine to receptors in the postsynaptic muscle membrane. all of the above 999‘!” Which of the following statements best describes Nat-IO ATPase? a. it transports Na* into the cytoplasm of intestinal epithelial cells, whereas it transports Nat out of the cytoplasm of neurons. b. it lowers Na+ concentration inside reial epithelial cells. c. it creates a Kt concentration gradient that is used to transport solutes out of intestinal epithelial cells. The antibiotic streptomycin can impair (reduce) hearing in some people. Which of the following mechanisms could best explain this? a. hyperpolarization of your macular hair cells. b. disappearance of from your cochlear hair cells. c. anincreaseintl'ienumberof‘hairs'meadihaircellinyourserrficircularcanals. Which of the following begins in your mouth? a. digestion b. absorption c. neither of the above Which of the following statemaits best describes fire role of your stomach in the overall function of your gastrointestinal wstem? a. digestion begins in your stomach. b. peristalsis begins in your stomach c. chyme is formed in your stomach. d. all of the above statements are true. NPB101 - Spring 1995 WWW—Raga 18. Which of the following statements best describes HCl in your stomach? HCl the enzymatic activity of pepsin. HCl maximizes the enzymatic activity of pepsin. HCl protects food protein from the proteolytic activity of pepsin. HCl improves diffusion of fat through the epithelial lining of the stomach. two of the above statements are true. whose» 19. Swallowing, peristalsis, and defecation are reflex responses to stretch of the ,respectively. a. throat, stomach, and small intestine. b. esopl'ugus, large intestine, and pharynx. c. throat, stomach, and rectum. 20. Digestive atzymes (or their precursors) are secreted through ducts into . the small intestine mly (i.e., nowhere else in the gastrointestinal tract). both the small and large intestine. the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. none of the above statements are true. 909’.” 21. Stretch of the duodenum by chyme stimulates release of _. a. gastrin only. b. cholecystokinin only. c. gastrin and cholecystokinin. 22. Which of the following statemaits best describes absorption in the gastrointestinal system? a. absorption of all material across the gastrointestinal epithelium requires active transport. b. nutrients of low molecular weig'tt enter the circulatory system by passive movemmt through fenestrated capillaries. . c. fat is actively transported from the interstitial fluid into the lymph. 23. I Waterisabsorbedfi'omfl'telumoffiteclu'actat . a. the stomach. b. the small intestine only. c. both the small and large intestines. d. the large intestine only. 24. Secretin a. isahonnonesecretedbyS—cellsinyour stomach. b. stimulates secretion of HCl from your gastric pits. c. stimulates release of bicarbonate ions (HCOa') from your panaeas. d. more than one of the above statements are true. NP8101 - Spring 1995 26. 27. I t p issecretedbyanexocrinegland,whereas issecretedbyanendocrinegland, respectively a. BC] b. pepsinogenamylase c. bilegastrin d. gastrinCCK Which of the following statements best describes why filtration occurs at Bowman's capsule? a. filtrate fluid pressure is higher inside Bowman's capsule than the blood pressure inside the capillary bed. b. blood pressure in the capillary bed is greater than the sum of osmotic pmsure and fluid pressure inside Bowman's capsule. c. osmotic pressure inside Bowman's capsule is higher than the capillary bed blood pressure. Your urine volume would tend to increase if a. blood filtration increased at Bowman's capsule. b. water reabsorption increased at proximal tubule. c. K‘ secretion increased at distal tubule. Your urine osmolarity would tend to decrease (that is, you would tend to excrete dilute urine) if . a. thesodiumpermeabilityatthebottomoftheascmdinglimbofyourloopsofl-lenlesuddenly increased. b. your collecting duct became insensitive to anti-diuretic hormme c. your posterior pituitary oversecretied anti-diuretic hormome. Whidiofthefollowingstatementsbestdescribethevasarectaandthecapillarybedat Bowman's capSule? a. Water diffuses out of capillaries at Bowman's capsule whereas it is actively transported into the vasa recta. b. Water and Na” can diffuse out of capillaries at Bowman's capsule, whereas mly water (but not Nat) diffuses into the vasa recta. c. Neither water nor Na* diffuse in and out of capillaries at Bowman's capsule and the vasa recta. d. Neither water nor Na+ are actively transported in and out of capillaries at Bowman's capmle and the vasa recta. Compare the epithelia that immediately face the capillary beds at Bowman's capsule and at the choroid plexus in your brain. a. solutes of low molecular weight freely diffuse through fenestrae in the epithelium surrounding the capillary beds at both Bowman's capsule and the choroid plexus. b. solutes of low molecular weight must be actively transported across the epithelium surrounding the capillaries at both Bowman's capsule and the choroid plexus. c. solutes of low molecular weight diffuse freely across the epithelium surrounding the capillaries at Bowman's capsule, but are actively transported across the epithelium at the choroid plexus. NPB101 - Spring 1995 flnaLExamlnaflan_____—___Egg§_7 31. 32. 35. Which of the following statements best describes the proximal tubule and collecting duct in your kidney? a. water is reabsorbed at a constant rate at both your proximal tubule and collecting duct, regardless of how much fluid you consume. b. water reabsorption is hormonally regulated at both your proximal tubule and collecting duct c. water reabsorption is hormonally regulated at your proximal tubule, and constant (i.e., not adjustable) at your collecting duct d. none of the above statemmts are true. Which of the following correctly decribes vitamin D’s role in calcium/ phosphate metabolism? Vitamin D is required for optimal parathyroid hormone activity. Vitamin D stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone through its action on osteoblasts. The formation of active vitamin D is stimulated by parathryroid hormone, decreases in plasma calcium and decreases in plasma phosphate. a and c are correct. a, b and c are correct. or!» (be. There is a fall in blood glucose levels. Which hormones can increase blood glucose levels through release of glucose from stores or through gluconeogenesis or through decreasing glucose uptake? Glucagon Growth hormone Active form of thyroxine. a and b are correct. a, b and c are correct. (“O-09‘!” Which of the following best describes events occuring with ventricular filling? Ventricular filling occurs after isovolumetric relaxation when the AV valves are open. Under resting conditions most of ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial contraction. Ventricular filling will increase with increases in sympathetic activity to the atrial muscle. a and b. a, b and c. 9999‘!“ Thyroxine has a calorigenic effect, increases amino acid uptake and protein synthesis, increases the turnover of carbohydrates and lipids. a. True. b. False. During fetal development, the absence of any male or female sex steroids will result in the development of a. male genital tract. b. female genital tract. c. it depends upon the genetic sex. NPB‘lO1 - Spring 1995 WMLEEW 37. 39. 41. The zona reticularis synthesizes and releases steroids that become the primary source of estrogens for the male and testosterone for the female. a. True. b. False. Which of the following pairs correctly describes the hormone with its function? a ADI-I - water balance. b. Aldosterone - sodium balance. c. Cortisol - gluconeogenesis. d a and b are correct. e a, b and c are correct. Cortisol has a catabolic action on proteins. Cortisol stimulates lipolysis and decreases glucose uptake in fat cells. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. Only the first statement is true. d. Only the second statement is true. Match the following gonadotropin, target cell and primary function. a. F‘SH - Leydig cells - testosterone production. b. LH - Leydig cells - testosterone production. c. l-ICG - corpus luteum - estrogen and progesterone secretion. d. a and c are correct. e. b and c are correct. There is an autocrine action of testosterone within the testes and an autocrine action of estrogen on the granulosa cells. a. True. b. False. Match the phase of the ovarian cycle with the feedback effects. Follicular phase - positive feedback of estrogen on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. Follicular phase - negative feedback of estrogen on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. Luteal phase - positive feedback of progesterone and estrogen on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. b and c are correct. a and c are correct. .nsre on. NPBlO1 - Spring 1995 43. 47. n l t The hypotheses explaining the changes in gonadotropic hormone and sex steriod hormone levels ‘and the interactions occuring at puberty include (1) a change in responsiveness of the gonads to PSI-l and LE, (2) the gonadostat hypothesis and (3) maturation of the neuroendocine system. The dominant hypothesis is maturation of the neuroendocrine system. a. All the hypotheses are correct but the dominant hypothesis is incorrect. b. Some of the hypotheses are incorrect and the dominant hypothesis is also incorrect. c. Some the the hypotheses are correct and the dominant hypothesis is correct. d. All the hypotheses are correct and the dominant hypothesis is correct. Which of the following is correct? a. During the last two trimesters of gestation estrogen is not synthesized by the corpus luteum but by the placenta from a weak androgen produced by the fetal adrenal cortex. b. Progesterone increases the excitability and stimulates contraction of the uterine muscle while estrogen decreases excitability and inhibits contraction of uterine muscle. c. a and b are correct. d. a and b are incorrect. Suckling . a. stimulates the activation of the oxytocin containing neurons in the hypothamus and the release of oxytocin from the anterior pituitary. b. either stimulates release of a prolactin stimulating hormone or inhibits the release of a prolactin inhibiting hormone from the hypothalamus. Either of these effects stimulates the release of prolactin from the posterior pituitary. Prolactin then stimulates milk secretion from the milk glands. c. a and b are correct. d. a and b are weaned. The magnitude of extemal shortening and the external shortening velocity of a skeletal muscle are both inversely related to the load against which the muscle contracts. a. True. b. False. The force of skeletal muscle contraction will inc-ease 9999‘? if the muscle contracts at a length longer than its physiological length. with an increase in the frequency of stimulation. with recruitment of more motor units. b and c are correct. a, b and c are correct. NPB101 - Spring 1995 WEI—*him 48. 49. 51. 52. 0-9.0"? There is an increase in ventilation over blood flow (perfusion) of the lung alveoli. As a result of this increase in ventilation a. the partial pressure within the alveoli of P02 will increase and FCC: will decrease. b. the partial pressure of oxygen within pulmonary venous blood will increase while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will decrease. c. a and b are correct. d. a and b are incorrect. If the transmural pressure for the lung is greater than its elastic recoil/ surface tension the lung will decrease in volume and alveolar pressure will increase. a. True. b. False. Which 30 Torr increase in partial pressure of oxygen will produce the greatest change in the oxygen content of the blood? a. A 30 Torr increase from an partial pressure of 20 Torr. b. A 30 Torr increase from an partial pressure of 90 Torr. c. Both will produce equal increases in blood oxygen content. There is tonic (mgoing) sympathetic and parasympathetic activity to the heart. The parasympathetic acfivity is increased and the sympathetic activity is decreased. As a consequence of these changes in autonomic input to the heart, you would expect to observe a decrease in heart rate. no change in the P-R interval. an inc-ease in pressure and stroke volume developed by the heart. b and c are correct. a, b and c are correct. waves» The electrocardiogram provides information concerning heart rate, heart rhythm, and cardiac conduction. It does not give information about the ability of the cardiac muscle to develop pressure. Both statements are true. Both statements are false. Only the first statement is true. Only the second statement is true. NPBiOi - Spring 1995 53. 55. 56. 57. 58. I 11 Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between venous pressure and the pressure or stroke volume of the heart? a. an increase in venous pressure alone will produce an increase in stroke volume, and increase in the pressure developed by the heart, but will not change in the systolic reserve volume. b. Assume venous pressure remains constant. An increase in cardiac contractility will produce an increase in stroke volume and an increase in the pressure developed by the heart. c. a and b are correct. d. a and b are incorrect. Stimulation of the carotid sinus by the appropropriate stimulus will __ a. increase sympathetic and decrease parasympathetic activity going to the cardiovascular system. b. lead to an increase in cardiac output, an increase in arteriolar resistance and a decrease in venous capacitance. a and b are correct. d. a and b are L101 correct. 0 Twenty milliliters of blood are added to the arterial and venous sides of the vascular system. The change in pressure will be greatest . a. on the arterial side. b. on the venous side. c. Neither, since the pressure change will be the same for each side. Which of the follong changes will produce the greatest change in blood flow? Doubling the pressure gradient. Reducing the viscosity of the blood by one half. Doubling the radius of the arterioles. Neither a or b or c. All the above will increase blood flow equally. Neither a or b or c. “a” and "c" will equally increase blood flow while b will reduce it. one?!» The link between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is vascular while the link between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary is neural. a. True. b. False. The action of insulin is opposed by that of glucagon. The action of parathyroid hormone on plasma calcium is opposed by that of calcitonin. a. Both statements are true. h. Only one statement is true. c. Both statements are false. NPB101 - Spring 1995 59. Which hormones produce a decrease in lipid stores? Glucagon Active form of thyroxine Growth Hormone a and c are correct. a, b and c are correct. (“O-09‘!” 60. What color is your test? a. white b. blue ogreen ...
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This note was uploaded on 03/15/2010 for the course NPB NPB 101 taught by Professor Weidner/wingfield during the Spring '08 term at UC Davis.

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xs95098 - l. MB 101 page Z Midterm 1 Systemic Physiology...

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