Chapter6_solutions

# Chapter6_solutions - 6-1The opportunity cost rate is the...

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Unformatted text preview: 6-1The opportunity cost rate is the rate of interest one could earn on an alternative investment with a risk equal to the risk of the investment in question. This is the value of i in the TVM equations, and it is shown on the top of a time line, between the first and second tick marks. It is nota single rate--the opportunity cost rate varies depending on the riskiness and maturity of an investment, and it also varies from year to year depending on inflationary expectations (see Chapter 5).6-2True. The second series is an uneven payment stream, but it contains an annuity of \$400 for 8 years. The series could also be thought of as a \$100 annuity for 10 years plus an additional payment of \$100 in Year 2, plus additional payments of \$300 in Years 3 through 10.6-3True, because of compounding effects--growth on growth. The following example demonstrates the point. The annual growth rate is i in the following equation:\$1(1 + i)10= \$2.The term (1 + i)10is the FVIF for i percent, 10 years. We can find i as follows:Using a financial calculator input N = 10, PV = -1, PMT = 0, FV = 2, and I = ? Solving for I you obtain 7.18 percent.Viewed another way, if earnings had grown at the rate of 10 percent per year for 10 years, then EPS would have increased from \$1.00 to \$2.59, found as follows: Using a financial calculator, input N = 10, I = 10, PV = -1, PMT = 0, and FV = ?. Solving for FV you obtain \$2.59. This formulation recognizes the “interest on interest” phenomenon.6-4For the same stated rate, daily compounding is best. You would earn more “interest on interest.”6-5False. One can find the present value of an embedded annuity and add this PV to the PVs of the other individual cash flows to determine the present value of the cash flow stream.6-6The concept of a perpetuity implies that payments will be received forever. FV (Perpetuity) = PV (Perpetuity)(1 + i)∞= ∞.Answers and Solutions: 6 - 1Chapter 6: ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS6-10 1 2 3 4 5| | | | | |PV = 10,000 FV5= ?FV5= \$10,000(1.10)5= \$10,000(1.61051) = \$16,105.10.Alternatively, with a financial calculator enter the following: N = 5, I = 10, PV = -10000, and PMT = 0. Solve for FV = \$16,105.10.6-20 5 10 15 20| | | | |PV = ? FV20= 5,000With a financial calculator enter the following: N = 20, I = 7, PMT = 0, and FV = 5000. Solve for PV = \$1,292.10.6-30 n = ?| |PV = 1 FVn= 22 = 1(1.065)n.With a financial calculator enter the following: I = 6.5, PV = -1, PMT = 0, and FV = 2. Solve for N = 11.01 ≈ 11 years.6-4Using your financial calculator, enter the following data: I = 12; PV = -42180.53; PMT = -5000; FV = 250000; N = ? Solve for N = 11. It will take 11 years for John to accumulate \$250,000....
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## This note was uploaded on 05/10/2010 for the course FMT 0438310384 taught by Professor Hung during the Spring '10 term at Aarhus Universitet, Aarhus.

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Chapter6_solutions - 6-1The opportunity cost rate is the...

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