220-301 HardWare

220-301 HardWare - Exam : 220-301 Title : A+ Hardware...

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Unformatted text preview: Exam : 220-301 Title : A+ Hardware Technologies Ver : 06-14-07 220-301 QUESTION 1: Which of the following components found on a motherboard is the most visible? A. Keyboard connector B. BIOS chip C. Expansion slots D. Power connectors Answer: C Explanation: "The most visible part of any motherboard is the expansion slots." Incorrect answers: A: This connector is an attachment for the keyboard and is not as visible as the expansion slots. B: The BIOS chip holds the POST sequence and is not as visible as the expansion slots. D: This connector is an attachment for the power cable and is not as visible as the expansion slots. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63. QUESTION 2: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between the "baby" AT and ATX motherboards? A. The "baby" AT motherboard allows for the installation of more than two full-length expansion cards whereas the ATX motherboard allows for only one or two. B. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are all in line with each other on a "baby" AT motherboard, whereas the ATX motherboard has the processor and memory slots at right angles to the expansion cards. C. The ATX motherboard allows for the installation of more than two full-length expansion cards, whereas the "baby" AT allows for only one or two. D. The "baby" AT motherboard has a 20-pin power connector while the ATX has a 12-pin power connector. Answer: B, C Explanation: On the AT motherboards the processor, memory, and expansion slots are all in line with each other. Because the processor and memory were in line with the expansion slots, only one or two full-length cards could be used. Also, the processor was far from the power supply's cooling fan and would therefore tend to overheat unless a heat sink or processor CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 fan was directly attached to it. To overcome the limitations of the "baby" AT design, the ATX motherboard was designed. The ATX has the processor and memory slots at right angles to the expansion cards. This puts the processor and memory in line with the fan output of the power supply, allowing the processor to run cooler. And, because those components are not in line with the expansion cards, you can install full-length expansion cards in an ATX motherboard machine. Incorrect Answers: A: Because the processor and memory were in line with the expansion slots, only one or two full-length cards could be used. Also, the processor was far from the power supply's cooling fan and would therefore tend to overheat unless a heat sink or processor fan was directly attached to it. D: The ATX motherboard has a 20-pin power connector that accepts a single power connector while the AT motherboard has a 12-pin power connector for the P8 and P9 connectors. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 61 QUESTION 3: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know what the length of a typical memory slot is. How will you reply? A. 1 inch B. 2 inches C. 3 inches D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Memory slots are easy to identify on a motherboard. They are usually white; around 3 inches ling; and placed very close together. Incorrect answers: A: This would be too short. B: This option is incorrect since it will also prove to be of inadequate length. D: This is incorrect. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 66. QUESTION 4: Which of the following memory module form factors are commonly used for laptops? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Dual Inline Memory Modules (DIMMs) B. Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) C. Single Inline Memory Modules (SIMMs) D. Rambus Inline Memory Modules (RIMMs) Answer: B Explanation: Laptop memory comes in smaller form factors known as Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs). Incorrect answers: A & C: These are memory chips used on normal PCs depending on if there are chips on one side of the circuit board or on both sides, respectively. D: This is a type of memory module that uses Rambus memory and is not used in laptop computers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65. QUESTION 5: Which of the following are the three MOST popular socket types? (Choose three) A. Socket 7 B. SECC C. Socket 6 D. Socket 5 Answer: A, B, D Explanation: The three most popular are the Socket 5, Socket 7, and the Single Edge Contact Card (SECC). Incorrect Answers: C: Socket 6 was a paper standard only and was never actually implemented in any systems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 6: Which two of the following connector types support Pentium 75+ OverDrive? (Choose two) A. SECC (Type II) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Socket 7 C. Socket 1 D. Socket 5 Answer: B, D Explanation: A Pentium 75+ processor can be inserted into a Socket5 or Socket 7 connector. Incorrect Answers: A: SECC (Type II) was used for early Pentium III processors C: Socket 1 was used for early 486 processors Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 7: Which of the following connector types support 486 SX/SX2 and 486 DX/DX2 processors? (Choose three) A. Socket 7 B. Socket 3 C. Socket 2 D. Socket 5 E. Socket 1 Answer: B, C, E Explanation: A Pentium 75+ processor can be inserted into a Socket5 or Socket 7 connector. Incorrect Answers: A, D: Socket 5 was used for the early Pentium processors while Socket 7 was used for later model Pentium processors. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 8: Which of the following is the connector type that supports the Pentium Pro processor? A. Socket 7 B. Socket 5 C. Socket 8 D. SECC (Type I) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: The Pentium Pro processor is supported by a Socket 8 connector. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Socket 5 was used for the early Pentium processors while Socket 7 was used for later model Pentium processors D: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 9: Which of the following is the connector type that supports the Pentium II processor? A. Socket 5 B. SECC (Type I) C. Socket 7 D. SECC (Type II) E. Socket 8 Answer: B Explanation: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. Incorrect Answers: A, C: Socket 5 was used for the early Pentium processors while Socket 7 was used for later model Pentium processors D: SECC (Type II) was used for early Pentium III processors E: Socket 8 was used for Pentium Pro processors Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 10: Which of the following is the type of connector that supports the Pentium III processor? A. Socket 5 B. SECC (Type I) C. Socket 7 D. SECC (Type II) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 E. Socket 8 Answer: D Explanation: SECC (Type II) was used for Pentium III processors Incorrect Answers: A, C: Socket 5 was used for the early Pentium processors while Socket 7 was used for later model Pentium processors B: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. E: Socket 8 was used for Pentium Pro processors Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 11: Which of the following uses a Socket 3 connector type? A. 486 DX4 B. Pentium II C. Pentium 60 D. Pentium 133 Answer: A Explanation: Socket 3 was used for 486 SX, 486 SX2, 486 DX, 486 DX2, and 486 DX4 processors. Incorrect Answers: B: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. C: Socket 4 was used for the early Pentium processors including Pentium 60 and Pentium 66. D: Socket 5 and Socket 7was used for Pentium 133 processors. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 12: Besides 72-pin SIMMs, which of the following describes another size that it comes in? A. 30-pin B. 144-pin C. 168-pin D. 184-pin CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A Explanation: Single Inline Memory Modules (SIMMs) come in 30 and 72 pin versions. Incorrect Answers: B: Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) come in 72, 144, and 200 pin versions. C, D: DIMMs are available in 168 and 184 pin versions. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 13: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know which of the following represents the sizes of Single Inline Memory Modules (SIMMs). How will you reply? A. 30-pin B. 168-pin C. 184-pin D. 144-pin E. 72-pin Answer: A, E Explanation: SIMMs come in both 30-pin and 72-pin versions. The 30-pin module is an 8-bit chip, with 1 optional parity bit. The 72-pin SIMM is a 32-bit chip, with 4 optional parity bits. Incorrect Answers: B, C: DIMMs are available in 168 and 184 pin versions. D: Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) come in 72, 144, and 200 pin versions. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 136. QUESTION 14: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know what the amount of connector pins found on a Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM). How will you reply? A. 30 B. 72 C. 184 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 144 E. 168 Answer: C Explanation: RIMMs come in 184-pin versions. Incorrect Answers: A, B: SIMMs comes in 30 and 72 pin versions. D: Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) come in 72, 144, and 200 pin versions. E: DIMMs are available in 168 and 184 pin versions. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 15: Which two of the following describes the number of pins normally associated with Dual Inline Memory Modules (DIMMs)? (Choose two) A. 30 B. 72 C. 144 D. 168 E. 184 Answer: D, E Explanation: DIMMs are available in 168 and 184 pin versions. Incorrect Answers: A: Single Inline Memory Modules (SIMMs) come in 30 and 72 pin versions. B: Single Inline Memory Modules (SIMMs) and Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) come in 72 pin versions. C: Small Outline DIMMs (SODIMMs) come in 72, 144, and 200 pin versions. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 16: How wide is a 72-pin SIMM module? A. 8-bits B. 16-bits C. 32-bits CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 64-bits Answer: C Explanation: The 72-pin SMM and the 72-pin SODIMM is 32-bits wide and can be installed singularly in 32-bit systems. Incorrect Answers: A: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide and is commonly found on 386 and early 486 computers. B: The 184-pin RIMM is 16-bits wide. D: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 17: How wide is a 30-pin SIMM module? A. 8-bits B. 16-bits C. 32-bits D. 64-bits Answer: A Explanation: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide and is commonly found on 386 and early 486 computers. Incorrect Answers: B: The 184-pin RIMM is 16-bits wide. C: The 72-pin SMM and the 72-pin SODIMM is 32-bits wide and can be installed singularly in 32-bit systems. D: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 18: What is the bandwidth supported by a RIMM module? A. 8-bits B. 16-bits C. 32-bits D. 64-bits CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: The 184-pin RIMM is 16-bits wide. Incorrect Answers: A: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide and is commonly found on 386 and early 486 computers. C: The 72-pin SMM and the 72-pin SODIMM is 32-bits wide and can be installed singularly in 32-bit systems. D: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 19: What is the bandwidth supported by a DIMM module? A. 8-bits B. 16-bits C. 32-bits D. 64-bits Answer: D Explanation: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Incorrect Answers: A: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide and is commonly found on 386 and early 486 computers. B: The 184-pin RIMM is 16-bits wide. C: The 72-pin SMM and the 72-pin SODIMM is 32-bits wide and can be installed singularly in 32-bit systems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 20: What is the bandwidth supported by a 200-pin SODIMM module? A. 8-bits B. 16-bits C. 32-bits D. 64-bits CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Incorrect Answers: A: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide and is commonly found on 386 and early 486 computers. B: The 184-pin RIMM is 16-bits wide. C: The 72-pin SMM and the 72-pin SODIMM is 32-bits wide and can be installed singularly in 32-bit systems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 21: Which of the following has 184-pins and is 16-bits wide? A. SIMMs B. DIMMs C. RIMMs D. SODIMMs Answer: C Explanation: RIMM is the only memory module that is 16-bits wide. In addition, RIMM is only available in 184-pin version. Incorrect Answers: A: A 30-pin SIMM is 8-bits wide while 72-pin SMM is 32-bits wide. B: The 168- and 184-pin DIMM is 64-bits wide. D: The 72-pin SODIMM SMM is 32-bits wide and the 144- and 200-pin SODIMM is 64-bits wide. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 65-67, 120-122. QUESTION 22: Which of the following are different types of Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)? A. Direct Rambus (RIMM). B. Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM). C. Extended Data Out (EDO). CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM). E. Fast Page Mode (FPM). F. All of the above. Answer: F Explanation: Most PCs today use DRAM of one type or another. Some of the different types of DRAM are: * Fast Page Mode (FPM) * Extended Data Out (EDO) * Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) * Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) * Direct Rambus (RIMM) Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 115. QUESTION 23: Which of the following is the Color-Code used for the keyboard Port on a new PC that uses a mini-DIN 6 Connector? A. Pink B. Blue C. Green D. Purple Answer: D Explanation: The purple mini-DIN 6 pin is used for the PS/2 keyboard. Incorrect Answers: A: The monitor connector is usually color-coded blue but it takes a high density DB-15 connector, not a mini-DIN 6 connector. B: The parallel port connector is usually color-coded pink but it takes a DB-25 connector, not a mini-DIN 6 connector. C: The green mini-DIN 6 pin is used for the PS/2 mouse. QUESTION 24: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know what is the Color-Code used for the mouse Port on a new PC that uses a mini-DIN 6 Connector. How will you reply? A. Pink CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Blue C. Green D. Purple Answer: C Explanation: The green mini-DIN 6 pin is used for the PS/2 mouse. Incorrect Answers: A: The monitor connector is usually color-coded blue but it takes a high density DB-15 connector, not a mini-DIN 6 connector. B: The parallel port connector is usually color-coded pink but it takes a DB-25 connector, not a mini-DIN 6 connector. D: The purple mini-DIN 6 pin is used for the PS/2 keyboard. QUESTION 25: You are the Certkiller .com technician required to do troubleshooting in an environment that promotes static electricity. Which two of the following could you do in addition to wearing an antistatic wrist strap? A. You should use an ESD mat in conjunction with an ESD strap. B. Touch the ground of the workshop. C. Touch the metal case of the power supply that is plugged into a properly grounded outlet. D. None of the above. Answer: A, C Explanation: A: The ESD mat will drain excess charge away from any item that comes into contact with it C: If an ESD strap or mat is not available, it is possible to discharge excess static voltage by touching the metal case of the power supply. However, the power supply must be plugged into a properly grounded outlet for this to work as intended. Incorrect answers: B: Touching the ground of the workshop will not necessarily prevent the hazards associated with static electricity. D: Irrelevant. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 36 - 38. QUESTION 26: What are the first two steps that you as the Certkiller .com technician should take CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 when disassembling a customer's computer? A. Remove the case cover. B. Remove all cables that are attached to the computer. C. Move the computer to the work surface. D. Shut down any running programs and turn the computer off. Answer: B, D Explanation: Things you need to do prior to moving the computer to your work area. Shut down any running programs and turn the computer off. Remove all cables that are attached to the computer. Remove any floppy disks from their respective drives to prevent damage to either the disk or the drive. After checking once more to see that all the prerequisites have been dealt with, move the computer to the work surface. Incorrect answers: A: This is not as essential as the list mentioned in the explanation. C: Moving the computer to the work surface is not as essential as the steps mentioned in the explanation. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 348 QUESTION 27: When should you replace the CMOS Battery? (Choose two) A. If the incorrect date is displayed after each start-up. B. When the CD-ROM does not work properly. C. If the time is wrong every time you switch your computer on. D. If there is no power going to your power supply. Answer: A, C Explanation: Your PC has to keep certain settings when it's turned off and its power cord unplugged. These settings include: Date, Time, Hard drive configuration and Memory. Your PC keeps these settings in a special memory chip called the Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip. Thus when an incorrect date is displayed after startup and if the time displayed is wrong when switching on the computer, you should replace the battery. Incorrect answers: B: CD-ROM functionality is not the purpose of the CMOS battery. D: Power provision for the power supply is not the function of the CMOS battery CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 73 QUESTION 28: You are the technician on call at Certkiller .com. A client complains that her time and date on her desktop computer is constantly wrong, even though she resets it. Which of the following should repair the problem? A. A new system board. B. A hard disk. C. An installation disk to re-install her operating system. D. A new CMOS battery. Answer: D Explanation: These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS is losing the time, date, and hard disk settings. The CMOS is able to keep this information when the system is shut off because there is a small battery powering this memory. Because it is a battery, it will eventually lose power and go dead. Incorrect answers: A: The symptoms exhibited are not characteristic of a faulty system board. B: A faulty hard disk in need of replacement does not show the symptoms described in the question. C: It is not the operating system that is responsible for the symptoms that the client is experiencing. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 402. QUESTION 29: Which FRU will you take with you to fix a computer that is not powering on? (Choose all that apply) A. A system board. B. A power supply. C. A monitor. D. A power cable. E. A multi-meter. Answer: B, D Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 If nothing happens when you flip the switch, open the case, remove the power supply, and replace it with a new one. But before you do that replace the old power cable with one that you know works, it might fix the problem. Incorrect answers: A: A system board cannot troubleshoot a computer that does not power on. C: A monitor will not troubleshoot a computer that does not power on. E: A multi-meter will not solve the problem of a computer that does not power on. It is used to measure current. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 410. QUESTION 30: Which of the following two questions you would ask a customer first when he reports a blank monitor? (Choose two) A. Is the monitor switched on? B. Did you check the color settings? C. Have you checked whether the contrast or brightness is turned down? D. What type of computer do you have? Answer: A, C Explanation: Any number of things can cause a blank screen. The first two are the most common: either the power is off or the contrast or brightness is turned down. Incorrect answers: B: A blank monitor will not register any color to enable the customer to check color settings. D: The type of computer is irrelevant in the troubleshooting of a blank monitor. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 407. QUESTION 31: You are employed as a technician at Certkiller .com. One of the other employees asks you to take a look at her monitor that has a dead screen. After establishing that the monitor is turned on and that the contrast and brightness are turned up, you switch the computer and screen on and immediately touch the screen. Which of the following describes why you would do this? A. To check if the screen is getting warm. B. To check for a static charge. C. To clean the screen. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Its part of your ritual preparations when performing repairs. Answer: B Explanation: The high voltage used to charge the monitor will leave a static charge on a working monitor, and it's a charge that can be felt. Incorrect answers: A: Checking whether a screen is getting warm is not the conventional way of troubleshooting a dead screen. C: A dead screen cannot be fixed by merely cleaning it. D: Rituals are irrelevant tin this case. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 408. QUESTION 32: Which of the following is indicated by a static charge on a blank monitor's screen? (Choose all that apply) A. That the monitor cannot be repaired. B. That the flyback transformer is blown. C. That the monitor cable could be defective. D. That there is a problem with the video card. Answer: C, D Explanation: If there is a charge on the screen then the video card or cable are suspect. Incorrect answers: A: Repair status is not indicated by a static charge. B: Blown transformers are not indicated by static charges. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 408. QUESTION 33: A client calls reporting a blank screen. After establishing that the monitor is switched on, that the brightness and contrast are turned up, and that there is no static charge on the screen, which of the following items would you take with you to the site? A. A new flyback transformer. B. A new video card. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. A working monitor. D. A new monitor cable. Answer: A Explanation: If there's no charge, there's a good chance the flyback transformer has blown and the monitor needs to be repaired. Incorrect answers: B: The no-static charge is not a symptom of a faulty video card. C: A working monitor will not produce a blank screen. D: The monitor is switched on which is indicative that there is a monitor cable already and further more a blank screen is not indicative of a blank screen Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 408. QUESTION 34: Which of the following is considered a field replaceable unit (FRU)? A. CPU fan B. PCI bridge C. Hard drive D. Onboard SCSI controller Answer: A, C Explanation: Field replacement units are the individual parts or whole assemblies that can be replaced to repair a computer. This means that components like a CPU fan and a hard drive can be considered FRUs. Incorrect answers: B: A PCI bridge is not a part or whole assembly that can be replaced for repair purposes. D: An onboard SCSI controller is not a part or whole assembly that can be replaced for repair purposes. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 411 QUESTION 35: Which of the following would you take with you to the repair site when a customer complains that he is receiving a "No fixed disk present" error? A. A brand new hard drive. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. A power supply. C. A new IDE cable. D. A CD-ROM containing the appropriate drivers. Answer: C Explanation: "No fixed disk present" means that according to the motherboard, you have no hard drive at all. The most common cause for this type of problem is a bad IDE cable or its connectors. Incorrect answers: A: According to the symptoms described in the question it is not a hard drive that is required, but rather an IDE cable to ensure that there is a connection to the existing hard drive. B: The symptoms described are not indicative of a faulty power supply. D: This is not a driver error. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 768. QUESTION 36: Which of the following is a task you can ask a customer, who is experiencing problems with his display, to perform so that you can determine whether it is a video card or monitor fault? A. Replace the monitor with a working monitor from another computer. B. Replace the IDE cables. C. Replace the video card with one from a working computer. D. Replace the VRAM. Answer: A Explanation: In some instances, the monitor's image controls have been dimmed down to point where you can't see anything on the screen. Check the brightness controls and monitor indicator lights, but in a worst case, you might have to try a different monitor. When we refer to the process of using a different piece of equipment that we know works, we speak of switching out the problem piece of equipment. Incorrect answers: B: The IDE cable is used to attach the disk drives to the motherboard. It is not related to the display system. C: A customer should not be asked to replace internal components in a computer system as there is always a risk of electrostatic discharge that could cause damage to the system. D: The VRAM is not a field replaceable unit and hardwired to the video card Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 768. QUESTION 37: Which of the following tools are specially designed to bleed electrical charges away protecting your computer components? A. Multi-meter B. Wire Strippers C. Antistatic Wrist Strap D. Soldering Iron Answer: C Explanation: The purpose of an anti-static wrist strap is to ground your body and keep it at a zero charge. Incorrect Answers: A: The multi-meter can be used to measure the components current in amperes and volts. B: This is a special tool that is used to strip the wiring of a wire. D: This tool is hardly used any more as the chips these days are much easier to install. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 35 & 70 QUESTION 38: Which of the following products are designed so static charges collect on its surroundings not inside it keeping electronic components safe? A. Static Bags B. Antistatic Bags C. Antistatic Wrist Strap D. ESD Static Mats Answer: B Explanation: Antistatic bags are important tools to have when it comes to servicing the electronic components, Antistatic bags protects the sensitive electronic devices from stray static charges. Incorrect Answers: A: Using a Static bag is not what is required your components will be fried. C: The wrist strap has its own use but is not used to store your components. D: The ESD Static Mats has its own use but is not used to store your components. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 37 & 71 QUESTION 39: In which troubleshooting scenario will working with an ESD strap on increase your chances of experiencing a lethal shock? A. Hard Drive B. Inside Monitor C. Mouse D. CPU Answer: B Explanation: When it comes to servicing a monitor while wearing an ESD strap, you increase your chances of having a lethal shock. Incorrect Answers: A: The hard drive can not be used to discharge upon. C: The computer mouse can not be used to discharge upon. D: The CPU can not be used to discharge upon as you will destroy it. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 71 QUESTION 40: Which of the following methods can you use if you do not have ESD strap or mat when servicing a computer? A. Touch metal case of properly grounded power supply B. Touching your CD\DVD ROM drive while working C. The CMOS battery D. Touching the monitor Answer: A Explanation: There is one instance where not having an ESD strap or better can be helped it is possible to discharge excess static voltage by touching the metal case of the power supply. Incorrect Answers: B: The CD\DVD ROM drive can not be used to discharge upon. C: The CMOS battery itself promotes some ESD so it can not be used to discharge upon. D: The monitor cannot be used to discharge upon you will only pickup more static. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 72 QUESTION 41: What is the first and most important thing that must be done when repairing a monitor? A. Turn of the power B. Discharge the high-voltage using a high-voltage probe C. Use your ESD strap D. Use your ESD mat Answer: B Explanation: The first and most important step for servicing a monitor is to have the huge amount of current discharged by using a high-voltage probe to make it safe to work on. Incorrect Answers: A: Turning off will help but the monitor still have a huge amount of current stored even when turned off. C: Your ESD strap will only increase your chance of a lethal shock. D: Your ESD mat will be useless here in this scenario. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 76 QUESTION 42: Which type of memory error normally occurs once and disappears after the computer is rebooted? A. 201 BIOS Error B. Hard Memory Error C. Parity Error D. Soft Memory Error Answer: D Explanation: This type of error is known as soft errors and they usually occur once and disappear after the computer is rebooted and are normally caused by power fluctuations or single bit errors. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: This other errors mention in the question are hard memory errors related to CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 hardware failure and are reproducible normally when these errors occur the computer might issue either a "Parity Error" or a "201 BIOS Error" or a series of beeps on start up. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 174 QUESTION 43: Which of the following IRQ;s will be used for modems;COM3,COM4? A. 8 B. 11 C. 2 D. 0 Answer: C Explanation: The IRQ 2 will be used for modems, COM 3 and COM 4 but is also cascaded to the lower IRQ's. Incorrect Answer: A: The IRQ 8 will be used by the real time clock. B: The IRQ 11 will be used by the third or fourth IDE channel, SCSI controllers, PCI cards, and just about anything else. D: The IRQ 0 will be used by the system timer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 44: Which of the following IRQ's are mostly used for COM 1? A. 11 B. 8 C. 4 D. 0 Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 4 is used by COM 1 and COM 3, network interface cards, sound cards, and just about anything else. Incorrect Answers: A: IRQ 11 will be used by the third or fourth IDE channel, SCSI controllers, PCI cards, CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 and just about anything else. B: IRQ 8 will be used by the real time clock and nothing else. D: IRQ 0 will be used for the system timer and nothing else. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390 QUESTION 45: Which of the following is the VGA monitor connector? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B The VGA monitor uses a DB-15 connector that consists of three rows of five pins each and is usually color coded blue. Incorrect Answers: A: The serial port is a DB-9 male connector. C: The games controller is a DB-15 female connector with two rows of pins. D: The parallel port is a DB-25 female connector and is usually color coded pink. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 196-216. QUESTION 46: Which of the following is a serial port connector? A. A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. B C. C D. D Answer: A The serial port is a DB-9 male connector. Incorrect Answers: B: The VGA monitor uses a DB-15 connector that consists of three rows of five pins each and is usually color coded blue. C: The games controller is a DB-15 female connector with two rows of pins. D: The parallel port is a DB-25 female connector and is usually color coded pink. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 196-216. QUESTION 47: Which of the following is a RS-232 connector? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: A RS-232 is the serial port, which is a DB-9 male connector. Incorrect Answers: B: The VGA monitor uses a DB-15 connector that consists of three rows of five pins each and is usually color coded blue. C: The games controller is a DB-15 female connector with two rows of pins. D: The parallel port is a DB-25 female connector and is usually color coded pink. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 196-216. QUESTION 48: Which of the following is a parallel port connector? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: D The parallel port is a DB-25 female connector and is usually color coded pink. Incorrect Answers: A: The serial port is a DB-9 male connector. B: The VGA monitor uses a DB-15 connector that consists of three rows of five pins each and is usually color coded blue. C: The games controller is a DB-15 female connector with two rows of pins. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 196-216. QUESTION 49: Which of the following is used to connect a game controller, such as a joystick? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: C The games controller is a DB-15 female connector with two rows of pins. Incorrect Answers: A: The serial port is a DB-9 male connector. B: The VGA monitor uses a DB-15 connector that consists of three rows of five pins CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 each and is usually color coded blue. D: The parallel port is a DB-25 female connector and is usually color coded pink. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 196-216. QUESTION 50: Exhibit: Refer to the exhibit. To which of the following would you attach an AT keyboard? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: E The AT keyboard is attached to a 180° DIN 5 connector on the motherboard. Incorrect Answers: A: The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. B: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. C: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. D: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 51: To which of the following would you attach a PS/2 keyboard? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: B The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. Incorrect Answers: A: The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. C: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. D: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. E: The AT keyboard is attached to a 180° DIN 5 connector on the motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 52: Which of the following are keyboard connectors? (Choose all that apply) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: B, E The keyboard can be attached to a 180° DIN 5 connector or a mini-DIN 6 connector on the motherboard. The mini-DIN 6 connector to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. Incorrect Answers: A: The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. C: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. D: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 53: To which of the following would you attach a PS/2 mouse? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: C The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. Incorrect Answers: A: The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. B: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. D: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. E: The AT keyboard is attached to a 180° DIN 5 connector on the motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 54: Which of the following is the S-Video connector? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E Answer: A The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. Incorrect Answers: B: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. C: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. D: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. E: The AT keyboard is attached to a 180° DIN 5 connector on the motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 55: Which of the following a serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: C The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. Incorrect Answers: A: The S-Video connector is usually located to the graphics card and is a mini-DIN 4 connector. B: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. D: The serial port on an IBM PC computer is a DB-9 male connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 56: To which of the following would you attach a serial mouse on an IBM laptop? A. A B. B C. C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. D Answer: D The serial mouse is attached to a serial port on an IBM laptop. This would be a DB-9 male connector. Incorrect Answers: A: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. B: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. C: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 57: To which of the following could you attach a mouse on an IBM PC? (Choose all that apply) A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B, D The mouse can be attached to a DB-9 connector or a mini-DIN 6 connector on the motherboard. The mini-DIN 6 connector to which a mouse is connected is usually color coded green. Incorrect Answers: A: The PS/2 port on the motherboard is a mini-DIN 6 connector. The PS/2 port to which a keyboard is connected is usually color coded purple. C: The serial port on an Apple Macintosh computer is a mini-DIN 8 connector. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 58: Where on the following exhibit would you insert an AGP graphics card? Answer: The AGP graphics expansion slot is brown and is located above the white PCI expansion slots and a bit further in. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 59: Where on the following exhibit would you insert a PCI graphics card? Answer: The PCI expansion slot is white in color and is located above the black ISA expansion slots and a bit further in. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 60: Where on the following exhibit would you insert an ISA graphics card? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: The ISA expansion bus is black in color and is lowest located expansion slot. It is also the longest. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 61: Where on the following exhibit would you insert Random Access Memory (RAM)? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: On an ATX motherboard, the RAM expansion slots are located at 90° to the ISA and PCI expansion slots. They can also be identified by their retaining clips. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 62: Where on the following exhibit would you insert Central Processing Unit (CPU)? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: The CPU is usually white in color, square shaped, has a retaining level and a number of pins. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 63: Where on the following exhibit is the keyboard connector located? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: The keyboard connector is located near the top of the motherboard, near the power supply. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 64: Where on the following exhibit would you attach an AT power supply unit (PSU)? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: An AT power supply has two connectors named the P8 and P9 connectors that attach to a 12 pin socket on the motherboard. This is usually located near the power supply unit. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 63-72. QUESTION 65: Where on the following exhibit would you attach a hard drive? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: The hard disk drive attaches to an IDE connector on the motherboard. This connector is a 40 pin socket of which there are usually two. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 66: Where on the following exhibit would you attach the floppy drive? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: The floppy drive attaches to an IDE connector on the motherboard. This connector is a 34 pin socket of which there is only one. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 92, 196-216. QUESTION 67: When you print with your dot matrix printer you notice the printout prints lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. What could the cause of this be? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Print head pin stuck inside the print head B. Worn-out print ribbon C. A broken, loose, or shorting print head cable D. Print ribbon advance gear slipping Answer: D Explanation: This type of problem normally prints lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. Incorrect Answers: A: With this type of problem the print out will have a small, dark line running through a line of print. B: With this type of problem the print out will be consistently faded or light characters. C: With this type of problem the print out will have a small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 68: Which of the following can be caused by a worn-out print ribbon? A. A small, blank line running through a line of print (consistently) B. Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page C. A small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently) D. Consistently faded or light characters Answer: D Explanation: When the print ribbon is worn-out you will notice that the printout are consistently faded or has light characters. Incorrect Answers: A: This type of problem is caused by the print head pin stuck inside the print head. B: This type of problem is caused by the print ribbon advance gear slipping. C: This type of problem is caused by a worn-out ribbon. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 69: Which of the following can be caused by the print ribbon advance gear slipping? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. A small, blank line running through a line of print (consistently) B. A small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently) C. Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page D. Consistently faded or light characters Answer: C Explanation: The print ribbon advance gear slipping problem normally causes print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. Incorrect Answers: A: This type of problem is caused by the print head pin stuck inside the print head. B: This type of problem is caused by a broken, loose, or shorting print head cable. D: This type of problem is caused by a worn-out ribbon. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 70: Which of the following can be caused if the print head pin stuck in the "out" position? A. Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page B. A small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently) C. A small, dark line running through a line of print D. Printer makes printing noise, but no print appears on page Answer: C Explanation: This type of problem can easily be identified by the small, dark line running through a line of print. Incorrect Answers: A: This type of problem is caused by the print advance gear slipping. B: This type of problem is caused by a broken, loose, or shorting print head cable. D: This type of problem is normally caused by a worn, missing, or improperly installed ribbon cartridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 71: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following can be caused by a worn, missing, or improperly installed ribbon cartridge? A. Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page B. A small, dark line running through a line of print C. A small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently) D. Printer makes printing noise, but no print appears on page Answer: D Explanation: This type of problem is normally caused by a worn, missing or improperly installed ribbon cartridge. Incorrect Answers: A: This type of problem is caused by the printer advance gear slipping. B: This type of problem is caused by the print head pin stuck in the "out" position. C: This type of problem is caused by a broken, loose, or shorting print head cable. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 72: Which of the following can be caused by a cable that is partially unhooked, or has the wrong driver selected, or bad printer control board (PCB)? A. Consistently faded or light characters B. Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page C. Printer makes printing noise, but no print appears on page D. Printer prints "garbage" Answer: D Explanation: The problem caused by a cable that is partially unhooked, or has the wrong driver selected, or bad printer control board normally results with rubbish printed out. Incorrect Answers: A: This type of problem is caused by a worn-out ribbon. B: This type of problem is caused by the print advance gear slipping. C: This type of problem is caused by a worn, missing or improperly installed print ribbon cartridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 73: Which of the following IRQ's can be used for SCSI controllers, PCI cards, and just about anything else? A. 11 B. 2 C. 8 D. 9 Answer: D Explanation: IRQ 9 will be used for SCSI controllers, PCI cards, and just about anything else. Incorrect Answers: A: IRQ 11 will be used by the third or fourth IDE channel, SCSI controllers, PCI cards, and just about anything else. B: IRQ2 will be used by the Modems;;COM3,COM4 C: IRQ 8 will be used by the real time clock. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390 QUESTION 74: When you print with your dot matrix printer you notice the printout is consistently faded or has light characters what could the cause of this be? A. A broken, loose, or shorting print head cable B. Print head pin stuck inside the print head C. Worn-out print ribbon D. Print ribbon advance gear slipping Answer: C Explanation: The cause of this problem is a worn-out print ribbon and should be replaced with a new vendor recommended ribbon. Incorrect Answers: A: With this type of problem the print out will have a small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently). B: With this type of problem the print out will have a small, dark line running through a line of print. D: With this type of problem the print out will Print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 446 QUESTION 75: You work for a network company and ask your system administrator how many different PC Card types there are for laptop and notebook computers? A. 12 B. 6 C. 4 D. 7 Answer: C Explanation: Laptops and Notebook computers generally either use one of the four PC Card types which are differentiated into types according to card thickness in millimeters. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: There are only four types of PC Cards for laptops and notebook computers which are differentiated into types according to card thickness in millimeters. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 76: You are in the process of purchasing a type I PC Card for your Laptop or notebook and need to know how thick the type I PC Card is in millimeters? A. 5mm B. 10.5mm C. Thicker than 10.5mm not yet standardized D. 3.3mm Answer: D Explanation: The type I PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 3.3mm thick. There are only four types of PC Cards for laptops and notebook computers which are differentiated into types according to card thickness in millimeters. Incorrect Answers: A: The type II PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is 5mm thick. B: The type III PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is 10.5mm thick. C: The type IV PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is thicker then 10.5mm but is not yet standardized. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 77: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with upgrading the Certkiller .com laptops' PC Cards to a newer supported Type II PC Card. What is the thickness of the Type II PC Card? A. 3.3mm B. 10.5mm C. 5mm D. Thicker than 10.5mm not yet standardized Answer: C Explanation: The type II PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 5mm thick there are only four types of PC Cards for laptops and notebook computers which are differentiated into types according to card thickness in millimeters Incorrect Answers: A: The type I PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 3.3mm thick. B: The type III PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is 10.5mm thick. D: The type IV PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is thicker then 10.5mm but is not yet standardized. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 78: Certkiller .com recently hired you to upgrade all their laptop and notebook computers. The laptops and notebooks currently have type II PC Cards installed. The Certkiller .com CEO wants to know how thick the type III PC Card you are about to install. What would your reply be? A. Thicker than 10.5mm not yet standardized B. 3.3mm C. 10.5mm D. 5mm Answer: C Explanation: The type III PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 10.5mm thick there are only CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 four types of PC Cards for laptops and notebook computers which are differentiated into types according to card thickness in millimeters Incorrect Answers: A: The type IV PC Card for Laptops or notebooks is thicker then 10.5mm but is not yet standardized. B: The type I PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 3.3mm thick. D: The type II PC Card for laptop or notebook computers is 5mm thick. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 79: Which of the following is not the best cause of action to take if you will be replacing the PC Cards for laptops and notebooks? A. Installing a PC Card that is thicker than 10.5mm and is not yet standardized B. Installing a PC Card that is 10.5mm thick C. Installing a PC Card that is 3.3mm thick D. Installing a PC Card that is 5mm thick Answer: A Explanation: You may use the technology now but it may be better to wait till the technology is standardized. Incorrect Answers: B: The type III PC Card is already standardized. C: The type I PC Card is already standardized. D: The type II PC Card is already standardized. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 80: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with setting up a Wireless network on some laptops and notebooks for ten users. You must decide whether it is better to operate the wireless network in ad-hoc mode or infrastructure mode. The wireless network must be able to bridge to wired networks or routing to the Internet? A. Create an Ad-hoc network B. Create 2 Ad-hoc networks 5 users each C. Create an infrastructure network D. Create 2 infrastructure networks 5 users each CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: The Ad-hoc networks performs well in a situation were there is a few stations but problems may arise as your user number increases so it is better to use an infrastructure network which is meant for networks of five or more stations. Incorrect Answers: A: There are too much users here for an Ad-hoc network problems may occur. B: Creating two Ad-hoc networks cost too much administration time. D: Creating two infrastructure networks is out of the question as one will do in this scenario. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 435 QUESTION 81: Which of the following methods may be used to easily clean LCD Computer screens? A. A soft cloth with window cleaner sprayed on it to gently wipe the surface B. A special antistatic vacuum must not touch screen C. Compressed air to avoid touching the screen D. A soft cloth with a little water sprayed on it to gently wipe the surface Answer: D Explanation: The usage of water is the best way to ensure no damage to your LCD if water does not help it is recommended that you use specialized products. Incorrect answers: A: The usage of window cleaner might damage your LCD screen. B, C: The methods mentioned here are not recommended and may lead to your LCD screen being damaged. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 79 QUESTION 82: Which of the following different types of power sources can be used to power a laptop or notebook computer (Choose all that apply?) A. Standard AA batteries B. AC power C. Docking station CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Batteries Answer: B, D Explanation: Most of the portable computers produced require either batteries or AC power. Incorrect Answer: A: Hewlett-Packard produced a palmtop that can use standard AA batteries. C: The docking station is used to allow portable computers to function as desktop computers when it is physically attached. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 137 QUESTION 83: Which of the following methods properly describes how to replace the RAM of a Laptop or notebook computer? A. Physically open B. Removing the specially attached panel C. The BIOS D. The Operating system Answer: B Explanation: Most of the laptops and notebooks purchased normally have a special panel which you open to get to the RAM. Incorrect Answers: A: Physically opening the laptop or note book will make the guarantee void and you might not be able to repair the damages. C: The BIOS stores the settings of the system and has nothing to do with replacing RAM. D: The Operating system can not be used to replace the RAM of a laptop or notebook. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 155 QUESTION 84: How many different types of pointing devices are there to choose from for your laptop or notebook computer? A. 6 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. 8 C. 12 D. 4 Answer: D Explanation: The computer mouse is the most popular device but not the only one there are Trackballs, Drawing Tablets and Touch Screens. Incorrect Answers: A: There are only four types of pointing devices to choose from for your laptop or notebook. B: There are only four types of pointing devices to choose from for your laptop or notebook. C: There are only four types of pointing devices to choose from for your laptop or notebook. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 272 QUESTION 85: Which of the following features are incorrect regarding the types I, II, III, and IV PC Cards for laptop or notebook computers? A. The type I, II, and III form factors share an identical bus connector B. The ability to combining the device and its I/O card on the card itself C. The PC Cards are included in the plug-and-play (PnP) specification D. The equipment is not hot swappable Answer: D Explanation: The PC Card types I, II, III and IV are hot-swappable which means it is possible to remove one or more cards and insert another without turning off the machine. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other features mentioned of the PC Card types I, II, III and IV are correct. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 91 QUESTION 86: The Mini PCI specification is implemented by which of the following devices (Choose all that apply?) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Laptop B. Server C. Notebook D. Workstation Answer: A, C Explanation: The Mini PCI specification will most likely be implemented in devices such as laptop and notebook computers, docking stations, and printers. Incorrect Answers: B, D: These are full size computers and won't use Mini PCI specifications they may have PCI Express. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 84 QUESTION 87: Which of the following modes would be the safest to use when connecting to an 802.11 Wireless access point? A. Ad-hoc B. Remote C. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) D. Infrastructure Answer: C Explanation: The purpose of the WEP(Wired Equivalent Privacy) security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs) is to protect against intrusion as defined in the 802.11b standard. Incorrect Answers: A: Ad-hoc mode does not require any access point and uses only interface cards which mean that the computers can communicate directly with each other, using the wireless network cards. B: Remote mode won't guarantee safer browsing than WEP which is configured properly. D: The Infrastructure networks make use of one or more access points which is used to provide a central point of connectivity to the users. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, pp. 437 QUESTION 88: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following laptop or notebook pointing devices looks like an opto-mechanical mouse turned upside down? A. Mouse B. Trackball C. Touch Screen D. Drawing Tablet Answer: B Explanation: A trackball is basically an opto-mechanical mouse turned upside down. Instead of moving the mouse on a table, you move the track ball. The device otherwise remains stationary. Incorrect Answers: A: Your normal computer mouse does not look like an opto-mechanical mouse turned upside down. C: Your computer touch screen does not look like an opto-mechanical mouse turned upside down. D: Your computer drawing tablet does not look like an opto-mechanical mouse turned upside down. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 239 QUESTION 89: Which of the following laptop or notebook pointing devices looks like a flat piece of plastic covered with a rubberized coating? A. Trackball B. Touch Screen C. Drawing Tablet D. Mouse Answer: C Explanation: The drawing tablet looks like a flat piece of plastic covered with a rubberized coating and a pen-shaped tool called a stylus is used to "draw" on the surface. Incorrect Answers: A: Your computer drawing tablet does not look like a flat piece of plastic covered with a rubberized coating. B: Your computer touch screen does not look like a flat piece of plastic covered with a rubberized coating. D: Your computer mouse does not look like a flat piece of plastic covered with a CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 rubberized coating. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 273 QUESTION 90: Which of the following laptop or notebook pointing devices has a screen that responds to touch? A. Trackball B. Mouse C. Touch Screen D. Drawing Tablet Answer: C Explanation: The touch screen monitors have a film over them that is sensitive to touch and works as effectively as if you're using a mouse. Incorrect Answers: A: Your computer trackball is not covered in a touch sensitive film. B: Your computer mouse is not covered in a touch sensitive film. D: Your computer drawing tablet is not covered in a touch sensitive film. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 273 QUESTION 91: Which of the following is the IRQ that can be used by either COM 1, or COM 3? A. 0 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3 Answer: C Explanation: COM 1 and COM 3 use IRQ 4. Incorrect Answers A: The system timer use IRQ 0. B: The keyboard use IRQ 1. D: COM 2 or COM 4 use IRQ 3. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 92: Which of the following is the default IRQ for COM 2 and COM 4? A. 0 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3 Answer: D Explanation: COM 2 and COM 4 use IRQ 3. Incorrect Answers A: The system timer use IRQ 0. B: The keyboard use IRQ 1. C: COM 1 or COM 3 use IRQ 4. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 93: Of the following devices, which is the one that IRQ 1 is assigned to by default? A. System timer B. Keyboard. C. COM 1 or COM 3 D. COM 2 and COM 4 Answer: B Explanation: The keyboard use IRQ 1. Incorrect Answers A: The system timer use IRQ 0. C: COM 1 or COM 3 use IRQ 4. D: COM 2 and COM 4 use IRQ 3. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 94: Which of the following is the device that IRQ 5 is allocated to by default? A. Real Time Clock (RTC) B. Math Co-processor C. LPT2 D. Mouse (PS/2 port) Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 5 is used by LPT2. Incorrect Answers A: Real Time Clock (RTC) uses IRQ 8. B: Math Co-processor uses IRQ 13. D: Mouse (PS/2 port) uses IRQ 12. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 95: Which of the following is the default IRQ for the Primary Hard Drive Controller? A. IRQ 10 B. IRQ 11 C. IRQ 14 D. IRQ 15 Answer: C Explanation: Primary Hard Drive Controller uses IRQ 14. Incorrect Answers A, B: IRQ 10 and IRQ 11 are classified as open. D: IRQ 15 is assigned to the Secondary Hard Drive Controller. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 96: Which of the following is the IRQ also used for PCI steering? A. 9 B. 1 C. 3 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 14 Answer: A Explanation: IRQ 9 is reserved for Redirected Cascade to IRQ 2, as well as for PCI steering. Incorrect Answers B: IRQ 1 is used for the keyboard. C: COM 2 and COM 4 use IRQ 3. D: IRQ 14 is used by the Primary Hard Drive Controller. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 97: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following are commonly associated with DMA channel number 1. How will you reply? (Choose three) A. SDLC controller B. Floppy Drive controller C. LAN D. Audio sound card Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The SDLC controller, Audio sound card as well as the LAN can be associated with DMA channel 1 with an 8- to 16-bit bus width. Incorrect answers: B: The floppy drive controller is the device associated with DMA channel 2 with a bus width of 8- or 16-bit. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 187. QUESTION 98: Which of the following is the DMA channel that is assigned to the Floppy Drive controller by default? A. 0 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: The Floppy drive controller is the device that the DMA channel 2 is assigned to be default. Incorrect answers: A: This DMA channel is the reserved open channel. B: DMA channel 4 cascades to channels 0 through 3. C: DMA channel 5 is assigned to a LAN. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 187 QUESTION 99: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following I/O addresses is assigned to the Hard disk controller. How will you reply? A. 278-27F B. 200-207 C. 1F0-1F8 D. 000-0FF Answer: C Explanation: The common I/O address assignment for the Hard disk Controller is 1F0-1F8 Incorrect answers: A: The common I/O address assignment for the Second parallel port (LPT2) is 278-27F B: The common I/O address assignment for the game port is 200-207 D: The common I/O address assignment for the item itself is 000-0FF Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 360 and 361. QUESTION 100: The I/O address, 000-0FF, is assigned to which one of the following? A. Game port B. Second parallel port (LPT2) C. Second serial port (COM 2). D. Reserved for the system itself. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The common I/O address 000-0FF is reserved for the item itself. Incorrect answers: A: The common I/O address assignment for the game port is 200-207 B: The common I/O address assignment for the Second parallel port (LPT2) is 278-27F C: The common I/O address assignment for the second serial port (COM 2) is 2F8-2FF Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 360 and 361. QUESTION 101: Which of the following is the I/O address reserved for LPT2? A. 278-27F B. 200-207 C. 1F0-1F8 D. 000-0FF Answer: A Explanation: A: The common I/O address assignment for the Second parallel port (LPT2) is 278-27F Incorrect answers: B: The common I/O address assignment for the game port is 200-207 C: The common I/O address assignment for the Hard disk Controller is 1F0-1F8 D: The common I/O address 000-0FF is reserved for the item itself. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 360 and 361. QUESTION 102: I/O (input/output) addresses are also known as which of the following? (Choose all that apply) A. Hardware ports B. I/O ports C. COM ports D. LPT ports Answer: A, B Explanation: The I/O addresses, also called I/O ports, or hardware ports. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect answers: C, D: COM ports and LPT ports are types of I/O ports. The original Input/Output (I/O) ports-like the Communications (COM ports), as well as the Line Printer Terminal, or Line Printer (LPT ports)-were all separate devices on the motherboard. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 197. James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 81. QUESTION 103: Which of the following terms BEST describes the process whereby IRQ 9 on the second controller passes certain requests to IRQ 2 on the original controller? (Choose all that apply) A. Cascading. B. PCI steering. C. Redirecting. D. Vectoring. Answer: A, C. D Explanation: The AT controllers began using interrupts 8-15 but kept the original XT lines 0-7. Therefore, the newer IRQ 9 often borrowed the old IRQ 2 in a process called "cascading." IRQ 9 is cascading, vectoring, or redirecting to IRQ 2. All three words refer to the same process of pointing to somewhere else. Incorrect Answers B: PCI steering is where the bus itself directs data traffic to specific IRQs, based on their availability. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 181 - 182. QUESTION 104: Which of the following BEST describes the term bus mastering? A. When the bus itself directs data traffic to specific IRQs, based on their availability. B. When a device takes control of a bus during a throughput operation. C. To write directly to memory, with the permission of the microprocessor. D. None of the above. Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: Bus mastering means that a particular device can take over the entire bus throughput, at any given time, to move priority information across the bus. Incorrect Answers A: PCI steering is where the bus itself directs data traffic to specific IRQs, based on their availability. C: Another feature of the bus is that it allows devices to bypass the processor and write their information directly into main memory. This feature is known as direct memory access, or DMA. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 181 - 182. James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 77. QUESTION 105: Which two of the following are NOT FRUs? (Choose two) A. Monitors. B. ROM. C. Keyboards. D. Ziff socket. E. Power supplies. Answer: B, D Explanation: B: ROM is not easily replaceable. D: A Ziff socket cannot be replaced. They are used to insert CPUs and they are integrated into the motherboard. Incorrect Answers: A, C: Field replaceable units (FRU) can be replaced out in the field. FRUs include monitors, keyboards, and power supplies. QUESTION 106: Which of the following is the I/O address reserved for COM2? A. 378-37F B. 2F8-2FF C. 3F0-3F7 D. 000-0FF Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The common I/O address assignment for the Second serial port (COM 2) is 2F8-2FF Incorrect answers: A: The common I/O address assignment for the first parallel port (LTP1) is 378-37F C: The common I/O address assignment for the Floppy disk Controller is 3F0-3F7 D: The common I/O address 000-0FF is reserved for the item itself. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 360 and 361. QUESTION 107: Which of the following is cascaded to provide interrupts 9 through 15? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: B Explanation: IRQ2 cascades to IRQ9. Incorrect answers: A: IRQ1 default assignment is the keyboard. C: IRQ3 default assignment is COM 2 and COM 4. D: IRQ4 default assignment is COM 1 and COM 3. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 203 QUESTION 108: Which of the following represents the I/O address and IRQ of the second parallel port? A. 278-27F and IRQ 5 B. 378-37F and IRQ 7 C. 2F8-2FF and IRQ 3 D. 3F0-3F7 and IRQ 6 Answer: A Explanation: The 278-27F I/O address and IRQ 5 is assigned to the second parallel port LPT2. Incorrect answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: The 378-37F I/O address and IRQ 7 is assigned to LPT1. C: The 2F8-2FF I/O address and IRQ 3 is assigned to COM 2 or COM 4. D: The 3F0-3F7 I/O address and IRQ 6 is assigned to the Floppy drive controller. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 360 and 361. James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 184. QUESTION 109: You work as a system technician at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller .com system has a four port USB hub to which a flash drive is connected. How many IRQ numbers would you require to add another three USB devices to the hub? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Explanation: USB hubs are designed to assign 247 devices to a single IRQ. In reality, however, you can connect only 127 devices because some devices reserve USB bandwidth, thus you will not need extra IRQs. Incorrect answers: B, C & D: The question mentions that the USB hub is already connected which means that you will not need any extra IRQ numbers to be assigned. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 183-184. QUESTION 110: Which of the following IRQs is assigned to the system's real time clock by default? A. 0 B. 1 C. 8 D. 3 Answer: C Explanation: The real time clock uses IRQ 8. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The system timer use IRQ 0. B: The keyboard use IRQ 1. D: COM 2 or COM 4 use IRQ 3. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 184. QUESTION 111: Which of the following is the standard I/O address of the game port? A. 278-27F B. 378-37F C. 3F8-3FF D. 200-207 Answer: D Explanation: This option represents the default game port address assignment. Incorrect answers: A: This option is the default I/O address assignment for the Second parallel port (LPT2). B: This option is the default I/O address assignment for the First parallel port (LPT1). C: This option is the default I/O address assignment for the First serial port (COM 1). Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 361 QUESTION 112: Which of the following will determine the drive letter's of two diskette drives that you are planning to install? A. A twist in the cable. B. The BIOS. C. Software CD. D. I/O Address of the controller. Answer: A Explanation: The twist in the ribbon cable that attaches the diskette drive to the system determines which is the A: drive and which the B: drive. The section of the cable that has a twist is for the A: drive. The section of the cable without the twist is for the B: drive. Incorrect answers: B, C, D: The twist in the cable, and not the BIOS, controller or software, determines the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 drive letters for the diskette drives. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 170 QUESTION 113: Which IRQs are classified as open interrupts? (Choose two) A. IRQ 6 B. IRQ 7 C. IRQ 8 D. IRQ 11 E. IRQ 10 Answer: D, E Explanation: IRQ 10 and 11 are by default the available IRQs and as such is considered open. Incorrect answers: A: IRQ 6 default assignment is floppy B: IRQ 7 default assignment is LPT1 C: IRQ 8 default assignment is the Real Time Clock. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 203. QUESTION 114: Which of the following is normally assigned for a serial mouse? A. IRQ 4 B. IRQ 5 C. IRQ 6 D. IRQ 7. Answer: A Explanation: The IRQ 4 default assignment is for COPM 1 and COM 3. These are the communication ports for serial I/O devices of which a serial mouse is an example. Incorrect answers: B: IRQ 5 default assignment is LPT2. C: IRQ 6 default assignment is floppy. D: IRQ 7 default assignment is LPT1. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 203. QUESTION 115: Which interrupts can possibly be assigned to a printer? (Choose all that apply) A. IRQ 3. B. IRQ 4. C. IRQ 7. D. IRQ 5. E. All of the above. Answer: E Explanation: There are four major types of printer interfaces: serial, parallel, Universal Serial Bus (USB), and network. IRQ 3 and 4 are reserved for serial ports. IRQ 5 and 7 are reserved for parallel ports. In all these cases you could possibly have a printer assigned to them. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 286. James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 184. QUESTION 116: Which of the following is TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. In a system with 16 IRQ lines, there are two DMA controllers in use. B. There are no DMA controllers used in a system with 16 interrupts. C. In an 8-bit bus system there are 4 DMA channels, with 8 interrupts. D. In a system with 16 IRQ lines, there are 8 DMA controllers in use. Answer: A, C Explanation: A: computer numbering begins with 0 before moving higher. There are sixteen IRQ lines, but the largest number is IRQ-15. There are eight DMA channels, but the largest number is 7. We're speaking of the physical lines, built into the interrupt controllers on the motherboard, and the actual channels provided by the two DMA controllers. C: In the 8-bit bus, there are only eight interrupts and four DMA channels. Incorrect answers: B: This is incorrect. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: The option should mention 8 DMA channels not 8 DMA controllers. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 79, 152 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 199 QUESTION 117: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which IRQ is used when installing a CD-ROM drive. How will you reply? A. IRQ 13 B. IRQ 14 C. IRQ 15 D. IRQ 12 Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 15 is used by the secondary hard drive controller, which is often used for CD or DVD drives. Incorrect Answers A: Math Co-processor uses IRQ 13. B: IRQ 14 is used by the primary hard drive controller. D: Mouse (PS/2 port) uses IRQ 12. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 184. QUESTION 118: While in the process of configuring the ISA bus of a Certkiller .com computer, the new Certkiller .com trainee technician asks you how many DMA channels are normally available for this particular bus. How will you reply? A. 3 B. 4 C. 7 D. 6 Answer: D Explanation: There are 8 ISA Bus DMA channels of which 6 have a default assignments status that is available. DMA channel 2 is assigned to the Floppy Controller and DMA channel 4 is CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 assigned to the Second DMA controller. Incorrect answers: A, B & C: DMA channels are numbered 0 through 7 and of the resultant eight channels only 2 are assigned to the Floppy controller and the Second DMA controller respectively which leaves only 6 available DMA channels. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 204. QUESTION 119: How are ISA cards configured for interrupts, memory addresses, DMA channels, and I/O ports? A. Configuration is done automatically. B. Using software. C. Using jumpers and DIP switches. D. Using a Reference disk. Answer: C Explanation: The same procedures that are used to configure the 8-bit expansion cards are used to configure ISA cards. You set the configuration on each card using jumpers and Dual Inline Package (DIP) switches so that the settings are the way you want them. The first step in the procedure is to take the case off the computer. Next, you configure the card using the aforementioned jumpers. After that, you install the card in a free slot (assuming you have one). Finally, you boot the computer and install the software drivers to activate the card. Incorrect answers: A: This is incorrect. B: Software is not required in the configuration of ISA cards. D: You do not need a Reference disk. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 200, 201, and 204. QUESTION 120: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know which of the following permits the CPU to send instructions to the devices installed in the bus slots. How will you reply? A. IRQ B. Protocol C. IP address CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. I/O address E. MAC address Answer: D Explanation: When the CPU wants a device to do something, it sends a signal to a particular I/O address telling the device what to do. The device then responds via the data bus or DMA channels. Incorrect answers: A: The IRQ does not permit the CPU to send instructions to bus-installed devices. B: The Protocol does not permit the CPU to send instructions to bus-installed devices. C: The IP address does not permit the CPU to send instructions to bus-installed devices. E: The MAC address does not permit the CPU to send instructions to bus-installed devices. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 197. QUESTION 121: The new Certkiller .com trainee-technician wants to know which of the following allows a device to send data directly to the computer's memory, bypassing the CPU. How will you reply? A. IRQ. B. Bus mastering. C. I/O addresses D. DMA. Answer: D Explanation: DMA or direct memory access is a method of transferring information directly from a mass-storage device such as a hard disk or from an adapter card into memory or vice versa, without the information passing through the processor. Incorrect answers: A: IRQ is hardware interrupt signals that an event has taken place that requires the processor's attention, and may come from the keyboard, the input/output ports, or the system's disk drives. In the PC, the main processor does not accept interrupts from hardware devices directly; instead interrupts are routed to an Intel 8259A Programmable Interrupt Controller. B: Bus Mastering is a technique that allows certain advanced bus architectures to delegate control of data transfers between the Central Processing Unit (CPU) and associated peripheral devices to an add-in board. C: I/O addresses are lines on a bus used to allow the CPU to send instructions to the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 devices installed in the bus slots. Each device is given its own communication line to the CPU. These lines function like one-way (unidirectional) mailboxes. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 824. QUESTION 122: Which of the following coaxial cables has an impedance of 75 ohms? (Choose two) A. RG58 B. RG8 C. RG6 D. RG59 Answer: C, D Explanation: C: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms. D: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms. Incorrect answers: A: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms. B: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 471. QUESTION 123: Which of the following coaxial cables has an impedance of 52 ohms? A. RG58 B. RG8 C. RG6 D. RG59 Answer: B Explanation: B: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms. Incorrect answers: A: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms. C: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms. D: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 124: Which of the following coaxial cables has an impedance of 75 ohms, and a diameter of 0.332 inches? A. RG58 B. RG8 C. RG6 D. RG59 Answer: C Explanation: C: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.332 inches. Incorrect answers: A: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.195 inches. C: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.405 inches. D: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.242 inches. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 125: Which of the following coaxial cables has an impedance of 50 ohms, and a diameter of 0.195 inches? A. RG58 B. RG8 C. RG6 D. RG59 Answer: A Explanation: A: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.195 inches. Incorrect answers: B: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.405 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 inches. C: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.332 inches. D: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.242 inches. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 126: Which of the following coaxial cables has an impedance of 75 ohms, and a diameter of 0.242 inches? A. RG58 B. RG8 C. RG6 D. RG59 Answer: D Explanation: D: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.242 inches. Incorrect answers: A: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.195 inches. B: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.405 inches. C: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.332 inches. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 127: Which of the following is a common type of coaxial cable that replaced the RG8 cable? A. RG58 B. RG212 C. RG213 D. RG59 Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: C: The RG8 cable was replaced by a RG 213 cable that has an impedance of 50 ohms and has a 0.405 inch diameter. Incorrect answers: A: RG58 was replaced by RG 212 cable. B: RG 212 is the replacement for RG58 D: RG59 did not get replaced. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 128: Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable that was replaced by the RG212 cable? A. RG58 B. RG6 C. RG213 D. RG59 Answer: A Explanation: A: The RG58 cable was replaced by a RG 212 cable that has an impedance of 50 ohms and has a 0.332 inch diameter. Incorrect answers: B: RG6 did not get replaced. C: RG 213 is the replacement for RG8 D: RG59 did not get replaced. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 129: Which of the following has an outside dimension of 0.405 inches, and an impedance of 50 ohms? (Choose two) A. RG213 B. RG212 C. RG59 D. RG58 E. RG8 F. RG6 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A Explanation: A: The characteristic impedance of RG213 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.405 inches. Incorrect answers: B: The characteristic impedance of RG212 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.332 inches. C: The characteristic impedance of RG59 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.242 inches. D: The characteristic impedance of RG58 cable is 50 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.195 inches. E: The characteristic impedance of RG8 cable is 52 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.405 inches. F: The characteristic impedance of RG6 cable is 75 ohms and it has a diameter of 0.332 inches. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 471. QUESTION 130: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which cable standard stipulates that the cable and hardware must be able to maintain a transmission rate of 550 MHz or more. How will you reply? (Choose all that apply) A. CAT3 B. CAT6 C. CAT5 D. CAT4 E. CAT7 Answer: B, E Explanation: CAT6 and CAT7 Standard - Categories 6, 6e, and 7 represent emerging capabilities of UTP cable and equipment. Cable and hardware must be able to maintain a transmission rate at or above 550MHz. Incorrect Answers A: CAT3 Standard (1988) - UTP cable and hardware must be able to maintain a transmission rate of 16MHz. C: CAT5 Standard (1992) - UTP cable and hardware must be able to maintain a transmission rate of 100MHz. D: CAT4 Standard - UTP cable and hardware must be able to maintain a transmission rate of 20MHz. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 473 & 474 QUESTION 131: Which of the following connectors are used for serial ports? (Choose all that apply) A. A female DB-9 B. A male DB-25 C. A female DB-15 D. A male DB-9 E. A female DB-25 Answer: B, D Explanation: Both the DB-25 and DB-9 MALE connectors are used for serial ports. Incorrect answers: A: A Female DB-9 connector is used for EGA/CGA video ports. C: A Female DB-15 connector is used for VGA/SVGA video adapters. E: A female DB-25 connector is used for parallel ports. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 17and18. QUESTION 132: A female DB-25 connector is commonly used for which of the following applications? A. A parallel cable. B. A SCSI connector. C. A parallel port. D. An EGA/CGA video port. E. A VGA/SVGA video adapter. Answer: C Explanation: C: The DB-25 connector is most commonly used on a parallel port. Incorrect answers: A: A parallel cable makes use of a Centronics 36 connector B: A SCSI connector makes use of a Centronics 50 connector. D: An EGA/CGA video port makes use of a DB-9 connector. E: A VGA/SVGA video adapter makes use of a DB-15 connector. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 17and18. QUESTION 133: A female DB-15 socket with three rows of five sockets is used for _______________. A. an EGA/CGA video port B. a network transceiver port C. a VGA/SVGA video adapter D. a joystick port Answer: C Explanation: If there are three rows of five, it's probably a VGA/SVGA video adapter. Incorrect Answers A: An EGA/CGA video port uses a female DB-9 connector. B, D: If it's one row of eight and one row of seven, it might be a network transceiver port or, more commonly, a joystick port. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 17. QUESTION 134: Which two of the following is associated with telephones? (Choose two) A. PS/2 B. RJ-12 C. RJ-45 D. RJ-11 Answer: B, D Explanation: RJ12 is the cord used on telephone handset cords. RJ11 is the telephone wall jack phone. Incorrect answers: A: PS/2 is used as a mouse port. C: RJ45 is used for 10BaseT Ethernet cable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 17and18. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 135: Which of the following is the port that allows for the highest data transfer rate? A. Standard Parallel Port B. Standard Serial port C. Enhanced Parallel Ports D. USB 2.0 port E. IEEE 1394 (FireWire) port Answer: D Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) port transmits at 480 Mbps. Incorrect answers: A: The standard Parallel Port transfer rate is 150KB/second. B: The standard Serial Port transfer rate is 57KBps. C: Enhanced Parallel port transfer rate is from 600KBps to 1.5MBps. E: FireWire transfer rate is 400Mbps. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 403. QUESTION 136: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following could be used for connecting a mouse to the computer. How will you reply? (Choose three) A. 6-pin MINI-DIN connector plug. B. DIN-5 connector plug. C. DB-9-to-25-pin adapter. D. DIN-9 connector plug. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: A: A 6-pin MINI-DIN connector plug is more commonly known as a PS/2 connector. PS/2 mouse interface is a type of mouse interface that uses a round, DIN-6 connector that gets its name from the first computer it was introduced on, the IBM PS/2. C: All computers came with at least one serial port that the mouse could use with its female DB-9 connector. If the serial port was of the 25-pin variety, the user could plug the mouse's DB-9 connector into the adapter that was usually included with the mouse to allow it to work. D: A DIN-9 connector plug is used to connect to a bus mouse port. Incorrect answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: A DIN-5 connector plug is used for older keyboards. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 232, 236, 237, 238, and 856. QUESTION 137: Which of the following can connect up to 127 peripheral devices while still maintaining a high data transfer rate? A. Parallel Port. B. Serial Port. C. FireWire D. USB. Answer: D Explanation: Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports are used for connecting multiple peripherals (up to 127) to one computer via a single port and the use of multi-port peripheral "hubs". USB supports data transfer rates as high as 1.5MBps. Incorrect answers: A: A parallel port cannot support 127 peripheral devices while maintaining a high transfer rate. B: A serial port cannot support 127 peripheral devices while maintaining a high transfer rate. C: FireWire is not designed to support 127 peripheral devices while maintaining a high transfer rate. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 96. QUESTION 138: Which of the following is more commonly known as a FireWire Port? A. The ISO 1284 port. B. The IEEE 1394 port. C. The IEEE 1284 port. D. The ISO 1394 port. Answer: B Explanation: The IEEE 1394 port is more commonly known as a FireWire port Incorrect answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The ISO 1284 port is not known as FireWire. C: The IEEE 1284 port is not known as FireWire D: The ISO 1394 port is not known as FireWire. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 97. QUESTION 139: Which of the following is the connector used for 10Base-T Ethernet cables? A. RJ-11 B. BNC C. RJ-58 D. RG-45 Answer: D Explanation: RJ-45 is the eight-pin connector used for data transmission over twisted-pair wiring. RJ-45 is the connector used on 10Base-T Ethernet cables. Incorrect answers: A: The connector on the end of the cord that runs from the phone to the wall is an RJ-11 connector. B: BNC connectors are used for Thinnet (10Base-2) Ethernet connections. C: RG-58 is coaxial cable. It is not a connector. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 17, 18, and 260. QUESTION 140: You are a trainee technician at Certkiller .com. The trainer gives you a piece of RS-232-C cable, 25 feet long, as well as the following connectors: 1. A DB-9F and a DB-25M. 2. Two DB-9F connectors. 3. Two DB-25F connectors. 4. Two DB-15M connectors. Of the connectors above, which could you use to construct a null modem cable? (Choose all that apply) A. 2 and 3 B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4 E. 2 only CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 F. 1 and 2 G. 4 only H. 2 and 4 I. 1 only J. 3 and 4 Answer: A Explanation: Two DB-9F or two DB-25F connectors can be attached to either end of a short piece of RS-232-C cable to create a null modem cable, depending on which type of serial port exists on the computer. A null modem is short RS-232-C cable that connects two personal computers so that they can communicate without the use of modems. The cable connects the two computers' serial ports, and certain lines in the cable are crossed over so that the wires used for sending data by one computer are used for receiving data by the other computer and vice versa. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 260. QUESTION 141: Which of the following is a cable that has a DB-25M connector at each end? A. A Null modem cable. B. A RS-232 modem cable. C. A VGA extension cable. D. A Parallel printer cable. Answer: A Explanation: A: a Null Modem cable has a DB-25M connector on each end. Incorrect answers: B: The RS-232 modem cable has either a DB-25F connector on either end or in some cases a DB-9F connector on the one end. C: A VGA extension cable DB-15M connectors on each end. D: A parallel printer cable has DB-25M connector and a Male Centronics 36 connector on the ends. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 260. QUESTION 142: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following describes the maximum length that a UTP Ethernet cable can be, and still successfully transmit data? A. 25 feet B. 10 feet C. 100 meters D. 10 miles Answer: C Explanation: C: The UTP Ethernet cable maximum length is 100 meters. Incorrect answers: A: 25 feet is the maximum length of null modem- and RS 232 modem cables. B: 10 feet is the maximum length of parallel printer cables. D: 10 mile cables are usually fiber optic cables. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 260. QUESTION 143: Which of the following describes the maximum length of a 10Base-2 Ethernet? A. 100 meters B. 3 feet C. 25 feet D. 10 feet Answer: A Explanation: 100 meters is the maximum length of 10Base-2 Ethernet cable. Incorrect answers: B: 3 feet is the length of VGA extension cables. C: 25 feet is the length of RS-232 (modem cable) and null modem cables. D: 10 feet is the length of parallel printer cables. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 260. QUESTION 144: A parallel printer cable has a DB-25M connector at one end, and a _________________ at the other. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. DB-9F connector. B. Male Centronics 50 connector. C. Male Centronics 36 connector. D. DB-15M connector. Answer: C Explanation: C: A Parallel printer cable has DB-25M and Male Centronics 36 connectors on either end respectively and can be up to 10 feet in length. Incorrect answers: A: A DB9 F connector goes with a null modem. B: A Male Centronics 50 Connector goes with an external SCSI cable. D: A DB-15M connector goes with a VGA extension cable Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 260. QUESTION 145: Which of the following denotes the amount of pins found in an IEEE 1394 connector? (Choose all that apply) A. 5 B. 6 C. 4 D. 9 Answer: B, C Explanation: FireWire connectors can be either 4-pin or 6-pin connectors, with either 4 or 6 leads in the actual cables. Incorrect answers: A & D: FireWire connectors have either 4- or 6 pins and not 5 or 9. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 407. QUESTION 146: Which of the following is TRUE with regard to USB cables? A. USB cables are made up of 6 leads. B. USB cables are made up of 5 leads. C. USB cables are made up of 4 leads. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. USB cables are made up of 8 leads. Answer: C Explanation: FireWire connectors can be either 4-pin or 6- pin connectors, with either 4 or 6 leads in the actual cables. USB cables are 4-lead cables. Incorrect answers: A, B & D: USB cables are made up of 4 leads and not 5, 6 or 8 leads. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 407. QUESTION 147: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know the DIFFERENCES between FireWire and USB. How will you reply? (Choose all that apply) A. The computer sends power through FireWire's two extra leads, whereas USB powers the devices in a long chain through the hubs. B. The USB connector is rectangular in shape, and the FireWire connector is square. C. FireWire was designed for high-speed multimedia and video, whereas USB was developed with slower, less expensive devices in mind. D. USB has a transfer rate of 480 Mbps, whereas IEEE 1394 (FireWire) has a rate of 400Mbps. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: A: USB powers the devices in a long chain through the hubs, whereas the computer is sends power to the devices along the extra leads in the IEEE-1394 cables. C: FireWire was designed around video applications, particularly video cameras and video software. Motion video requires extremely high processing speed and bandwidth. Although the architecture is also designed for linking many devices together, we typically see an IEEE-1394 cable used to connect a camera or video-editing equipment to a PC. D: The existing FireWire specification is 400 Mbps whereas USB 2 has a transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Incorrect answers: B: USB specification includes both A and B type connectors. Type A is thin and flat. Type B is squarer and somewhat larger. FireWire cables can be either 4-pin or 6-pin, depending on their implementation. The connectors are somewhat square, but they're still thinner and smaller than USB type B connectors. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 404, 409 & 463 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 148: Which statement regarding Universal Serial Bus (USB) hubs is FALSE? A. USB powers the devices in a long chain through the hubs. B. USB was developed with slower, less expensive devices in mind. C. USB is a networking protocol. D. USB has a transfer rate of 480 Mbps. Answer: C Explanation: USB is not a networking protocol. It is a serial interface that allows for chaining devices through the use of special USB hubs. Incorrect answers: A: USB can power the devices in the USB chain. Some come with a separate power supply. B: Originally USB was developed for slower devices such as mice, keyboards. D:.USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 404. QUESTION 149: Which two of the following companies developed Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)? A. IBM B. Compaq C. Apple D. Western Digital Answer: B, D Explanation: B: Compaq together with Western Digital developed IDE. D: Enhanced IDE was developed by Western Digital. Incorrect answers: A: IBM did not develop IDE C: Apple did not develop IDE. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 295 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 150: Which of the following determines the master or slave in a system that supports two IDE devices? A. A twist in the cable. B. Which device was installed first. C. The jumper settings. D. The BIOS. Answer: C Explanation: You implement the master/slave setting by jumpering a set of pins. Incorrect Answers: A: Determines the drive letter for Floppy drives. B: When you install a second drive, you have to configure it so that the controller on one drive is active and the other drives use the controller on this drive for their instructions. D: the BIOS come into play only after configuring the devices as master/slave. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 170, 174, 175, and 176. QUESTION 151: Which of the following is the interrupt reserved for the primary IDE hard drive controller? A. IRQ 10 B. IRQ 11 C. IRQ 14 D. IRQ 15 Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 14 is the line reserved for the Primary Hard drive controller. Incorrect answers: A: IRQ 10 is the open line. B: IRQ 11 is the open line. D: IRQ 15 is the line reserved for the Secondary Hard Drive Controller. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 184. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 152: Which of the following is an interface that allows non-hard disk devices to be attached to an ATA interface? A. Small Computer Systems Interface (SCSI) B. Parallel Interface C. Network Interface D. ATA Packet Interface (ATAPI) E. Serial Interface Answer: D Explanation: ATA Packet Interface (ATAPI) allows other non-hard disk devices like tape drives and CD-ROMs to be attached to an ATA interface and coexist with hard disks. Incorrect Answers: A: The SCSI interface is used for connecting SCSI devices, not ATA devices. B: IEEE 1294 and Enhanced Capabilities Port (ECP) are considered parallel standards. Parallel interfaces are designed to carry data at high speeds. C: The network interface card is connected to the network cabling (twisted-pair, coaxial or fiber-optic cable), which in turn connects all the network interface cards in the network. E: The three main types of serial interfaces are Standard serial, Universal Serial Bus (USB), and FireWire. Serial interfaces handle small continuous streams of data. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 173. QUESTION 153: Which of the following is the IDE technology that can transfer data at 33 MBps? A. ATAPI B. ATA-2 C. EIDE D. The original IDE specification. E. UDMA Answer: E Explanation: UDMA can transfer data at 33MBps. Incorrect Answers: A: ATAPI allows other non-hard disk devices to be attached to an ATA interface and coexist with hard disks. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B, C: EIDE is another name for ATA-2, which has data transfer rates of 11.1MBps. D: The original IDE specification can support drives of up to 528MB and speeds of 3.3MBps. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 173. QUESTION 154: Which of the following is the number of IDE devices that your system supports if it is employing ATA-2 technology or higher? A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: B Explanation: Most computer systems currently use ATA-2 technologies or above, which means that they can support four IDE drives. Incorrect Answers: A, C & D: ATA-2 and higher technology is capable of supporting four IDE devices and not 1, 2 or 3. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 174. QUESTION 155: Which of the following is the interrupt reserved for the secondary IDE hard drive controller? A. IRQ 10 B. IRQ 11 C. IRQ 14 D. IRQ 15 Answer: D Explanation: The IRQ 15 line is reserved for the secondary hard drive controller. Incorrect Answers: The IRQ 10 line is open. The IRQ 11 line is open. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The IRQ 14 line is reserved for the Primary Hard drive controller. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 184. QUESTION 156: Which of the following occurs when two devices on the same IDE controller is set to "master"? A. Neither device will work, because they won't know where to receive instructions from. B. Neither device will work, because they will be fighting one another for control. C. The devices will function properly. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: When you install a second drive, you need to configure it so that the controller on one drive is active and the other drives use the controller on this drive for their instructions. You do this by setting the first drive to be the master and the other to be the slave. Incorrect Answers: A: This is incorrect since this situation will occur only when both devices are set to "slave". C: The devices will not function properly since they will be fighting for control of the disks when both are set to "master". D: This is incorrect since both are set as master they will compete for control over the disks. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 176. QUESTION 157: Which of the following occurs when two devices on the same IDE controller is set to "slave"? A. Neither device will work, because they won't know where to receive instructions from. B. Neither device will work, because they will be fighting one another for control. C. The devices will function properly. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: When you install a second drive, you need to configure it so that the controller on one CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 drive is active and the other drives use the controller on this drive for their instructions. You do this by setting the first drive to be the master and the other to be the slave. Incorrect Answers: A: This is incorrect since this situation will occur only when both devices are set to "master". C: The devices will not function properly since they will be fighting for control of the disks when both are set to "slave". D: This is incorrect since both are set as slave they will not have anywhere to receive instructions from. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 176. QUESTION 158: Which of the following is TRUE with regard to the EIDE interface system? A. You are only allowed to have one master drive. B. You could always connect a CD-ROM to this interface. C. You are allowed to have two master drives as long as the drives are on two separate IDE buses. D. EIDE can transmit data at 33 MBps. Answer: C Explanation: Each EIDE channel can host two IDE devices. One of them must be configured as master and the other one must be configured as slave. Master and slave configuration are done by jumpers in the IDE devices. Incorrect Answers A: The original IDE specification supported only two drives, of which one had to be configured as the master. B: ATAPI allows other non-hard disk devices to be attached to an ATA interface and coexist with hard disks. D: UDMA can transfer data at 33MBps. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 172 to 174. QUESTION 159: Which of the following is the FIRST thing you should check when a new drive is not recognized? A. The BIOS. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. The cabling. C. The jumper settings. D. The drive. Answer: C Explanation: Jumper settings are the first thing to check when a new drive isn't being recognized. Make sure you've opened up access to the new drive by changing the first drive's jumper switches. Incorrect Answers: A: The BIOS settings check is not the first place to check in the event of a new drive not being recognized. B: When experiencing this kind of problem, checking the cabling is normally the second area to check after checking the jumper settings. D: This is a new drive that is check so it will not make sense to check the drive first, but rather check the jumper settings first. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 803. QUESTION 160: Which of the following is the largest drive size that LBA allows the BIOS to access? A. 504 MB. B. 150 GB. C. 2 GB. D. 8 GB. Answer: D Explanation: Logical Block Addressing (LBA) allows the BIOS to access drives up to 8GB. Incorrect Answers: A: 594 MB is too low a figure since LBA allows the BIOS to access drives of up to 8 GB. B: This figure is too high since LBA only allows the BIOS to access drives of up to 8 GB. C: This incorrect since the LBA allows the BIOS to access drives of up to 8 GB. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 176. QUESTION 161: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what a major feature of the original IDE drive system is. How will you reply? A. The dimensions of the drive. B. That it could transmit at 3.3 Mbps. C. That the controller is located on the actual drive. D. That it was cheaper than SCSI drives. Answer: C Explanation: The technology developed as an alternative to SCSI, is known as Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) because its most important attribute was a controller located right on the disk Incorrect Answers: A: The dimension of the drive is not as crucial as the location of the controller. B. The transmission speed is not the major feature; rather it is the location of the controller. D: The pricing will vary from supplier to supplier thus is does not translate to a major feature. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 172. QUESTION 162: Which of the following gives the proper sequence for installing master and slave IDE drives? A. Mount the drive in the carrier, connect the cable to the drive, install the drive in the computer, and configure the drive B. Mount the drives in the carrier, connect the 40-pin cable to the drives, set the drive at the end of the cable to master, set the drive in the middle of the cable to slave, install the drives in the computer, and configure the drives. C. Mount the drive in the carrier, connect the master drive after the twist in the cable, connect the slave drive before the twist in the cable, install the drives in the computer, and configure the drives. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: B: The basic steps for installing IDE Drives are: Mount the drive in the carrier, connect the cable to the drives, set the drive at the end of the cable to master, set the drive in the middle of the cable to slave, install the drives in the computer, and configure the drives. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The sequence is plausible except that it does not make provision for the installation of master and slave drives. C: The sequence is not correct since you need to first mount the drives in the carrier, then connect the cable to the drives and not as suggested by this option. D: This is irrelevant. You got to have a basic sequence to install drives. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 173 & 174. QUESTION 163: Which of the following are the Programmed Input/Output (PIO) modes assigned to the ATA-1 specification? (Choose all that apply) A. PIO Mode 0 B. PIO Mode 1 C. PIO Mode 2 D. PIO Mode 3 E. PIO Mode 4 Answer: A, B, C Explanation: The first three PIO modes (0, 1, and 2) were assigned to the ATA-1 specification. Incorrect Answers: D & E: PIO modes 3 and 4 were added by ATA-2. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 321. QUESTION 164: Which of the following are the Programmed Input/Output (PIO) modes assigned to the ATA-2 specification? (Choose all that apply) A. PIO Mode 0 B. PIO Mode 1 C. PIO Mode 2 D. PIO Mode 3 E. PIO Mode 4 Answer: D, E Explanation: ATA-2 added PIO modes 3 and 4. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A, B & C: PIO Mode 0, 1 and 2 are assigned to ATA - 1 Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 321. QUESTION 165: Which of the following is used by PIO Modes to bypass the CPU when transferring data to system memory? A. IRQ B. IDE C. DMA D. EIDE Answer: C Explanation: PIO Modes use DMA to bypass the CPU when transferring data to system memory. Incorrect Answers: A: IRQ is a hardware interrupt generated by a device that requires service from the CPU. The request is transmitted through one of 8 to 16 physical lines on the system board, with one device typically allowed per line. B: IDE is a popular hardware interface used to connect hard drives to a PC. D: EIDE is an extension of the IDE interface that is compatible with more devices and offers increased transfer rates. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 321. QUESTION 166: You are the Certkiller .com trainee technician currently installing 6 IDE devices in a computer. Which of the following is the minimum amount of IDE channels needed to accomplish this objective? A. 1 B. 6 C. 4 D. 3 Answer: D Explanation: Each IDE channel can support two IDE devices. Thus if you are installing 6 IDE devices you need 3 IDE channels. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: 1 IDE channel is inadequate if you want to install 6 IDE devices. B: 6 Channels would be too many since each channel is able to support two IDE devices. C: 4 Channels would be too many since each IDE channel can support two IDE devices. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 321. QUESTION 167: While installing an IDE device, you find that the cable to connect the IDE device is not keyed. Which of the following should you do? (Choose all that apply) A. Locate the red stripe on the cable, and connect to the device with the red stripe lining up to pin #1. B. Attach cable any way that fits. C. If there is also no red stripe, Locate the blue stripe on the cable, and connect to the device with the blue stripe lining up to pin #1. D. Purchase a new cable. Answer: A, C Explanation: When connecting the drives to the controller, you need to make sure that the red stripe is oriented so the wire it represents is connected to pin #1 on the drive and pin #1 on the controller. In cases where there is no red stripe then you would need to locate the blue stripe and follow the same procedure. Incorrect Answers: B: Attaching the cable any way that fits will not necessarily ensure that the computer will read the IDE device since it might then not communicate with the controller. D: Purchasing a new cable is unnecessary when all that is required is to make sure that the red stripe on the cable corresponds to pin#1. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 171. QUESTION 168: Which of the following is LBA an acronym for? A. Logical Binary Addressing B. Large Bus Addressing C. Logical Block Addressing D. Logical Bus Addressing CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C LBA is short for logical block addressing. (It is also short for large block addressing.) Incorrect Answers: A: LBA is not short for Logical Binary Addressing. B: LBA is short for large BLOCK addressing and not large Bus Addressing. D: LBA is short for Logical BLOCK not BUS addressing. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 876. QUESTION 169: Which of the following is the number of heads found on the hard drive produced by Western Digital soon after ATA became a standard? A. 16 B. 48 C. 128 D. 256 Answer: D Explanation: Soon after ATA became a standard, Western Digital produced a hard drive with 256 heads. Incorrect Answers: A: IDE drives began with 16 heads. B & C: 16, 48 and 128 are the incorrect number of heads found on the Western Digital hard drives. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 309. QUESTION 170: Which of the following is what the hard drives with 256 heads later became known as? A. IDE drives B. SCSI drives C. EIDE drives D. CD-ROM drives Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Soon after ATA became a standard, Western Digital produced a hard drive with 256 heads that became Extended IDE, or EIDE drives. Incorrect Answers: A: IDE drives are incorrect. The hard drives became known as extended IDE. B: SCSI drive is not the term used to refer to the hard drive with 256 heads. D: CD-ROM drive is not the term used to refer to any hard drive. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 309. QUESTION 171: Which of the following is the technology that BIOS manufacturers use to enable drive sizes larger than 1024 cylinders? A. CHS B. Sector translation C. DMA D. Low-level format Answer: B Explanation: Sector translation, used by BIOS manufacturers to enable hard drives sizes in excess of 1024 cylinders, is the remapping of standard CHS layout of a drive in favor of a matrix that will allow the full capacity to be used. Incorrect Answers: A: CHS is the layout of the hard drive. C: DMA (direct memory access) is specialized circuitry, often including a dedicated microprocessor that allows data transfer between memory locations without using the CPU. D: Low-level format will not extend the hard drive size. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 176. QUESTION 172: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following transfer data at a rate of 11.1 Mbps. How will you reply? A. ATAPI B. Ultra DMA C. EIDE D. IDE CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: ATA-2 can transfer data at 11.1MBps. ATA-2 drives are known as Enhanced IDE, or EIDE. Incorrect Answers: A: ATAPI is also called ATA - 2 B: Ultra DMA can transfer data at 33MBps. D: IDE is a type of hard drive with integrated electronics. EIDE is the extended IDE. ATA is a specification for how data transfers from a disk to the motherboard. ATA comes in Fast-ATA and Ultra-AT A. UDMA is just another name for the ATA specification. So is ATA/ATAPI. ATA is like SCSI, and both are specifications. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 173. QUESTION 173: Which of the following could have caused your two new IDE devices that is installed on the second IDE controller, not to function? (Choose all that apply) A. Both devices are jumpered as master. B. The ribbon cable does not have a twist in it. C. Both devices are jumpered as slave. D. The red striped cable is connected to pin # 1. Answer: A, C. Explanation: If you have two drives on a bus and both are set to master, neither drive will work because they will be fighting each other for control of the disks. If you have two drives on a bus and both are set to slave, neither drive will work because the disks won't know where to get their instructions from. Incorrect Answers: B: The twist in the cable will not result in non-functionality. D: This symptom will not have non-functionality as a consequence. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 176. QUESTION 174: Which of the following is indicated by the error number "17**"? A. Keyboard error. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Hard disk problems. C. Color video problems D. Floppy disk error. Answer: B Explanation: Hard disk problems are indicated by error number 17**. Incorrect Answers: A: Keyboard errors are indicated by number 301. C: Color video problems are indicated by number 5** D: Floppy disk errors are indicated by number 601. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401. QUESTION 175: Which of the following is indicated by the error number "1780"? A. Memory size error. B. Drive 0 drive failure. C. Memory test failed. D. Drive 1 drive failure. Answer: B Explanation: Error number 1780 indicates Drive 0 drive failure. Incorrect Answers: A: Number 164 indicates a memory size error. C: Number 201 indicates a memory test failure. D: Number 1781 indicates a Drive 1 drive failure. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 176: The error number "1781" indicates which of the following? A. Memory size error. B. Drive 0 drive failure. C. Memory test failed. D. Drive 1 drive failure. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: Number 1781 indicates a Drive 1 drive failure. Incorrect Answers: A: Number 164 indicates a memory size error. B: Error number 1780 indicates Drive 0 drive failure. C: Number 201 indicates a memory test failure. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 401. QUESTION 177: Which of the following components on the motherboard usually house the IDE connectors? A. PCI bus. B. North Bridge. C. ISA bus. D. South Bridge. Answer: D Explanation: The South Bridge is generally used for slower devices such as USB ports, IDE drives, and ISA slots. Incorrect Answers: A: The PCI bus is a sort of bridge between the processor and ISA bus. B: The North Bridge is generally used for high-speed interface cards, such as video accelerators, Synchronous RAM (SRAM), and memory. C: The ISA bus does not house the IDE connectors. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 80. QUESTION 178: A null modem cable should be used to connect two computers via which one of the following ports? A. Parallel. B. USB. C. Serial. D. IEEE 1394. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: The null modem cable is used to allow two computers to communicate with each other via a serial port without using a modem. Incorrect Answers: A: Parallel ports are used to connect parallel printers. B: USB ports are used to connect peripheral devises to the computer. D: IEEE 1394 ports are used to transfer data between digital cameras and computers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 261. QUESTION 179: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which amount of IDE hard drives can be used on RAID level 0. How will you reply? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: B Explanation: RAID Level 0 (RAID 0) is the no-fault-tolerance process of using 64KB block storage areas in a striped set. Striped sets mean using multiple partitions all of the same size. Striped partitions are partitions of equal size on one or more physical disks, joined into a logical area called a set. Incorrect Answers: A, C & D: RAID - O makes use of 2 IDE hard drives and not 1, 3 or 4. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 731. QUESTION 180: Of the following options, which one is the only RAID level that uses disk mirroring? A. RAID-0 B. RAID-5 C. RAID-3 D. RAID-1 Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: RAID 1 is the most common form of RAID at the moment and is often used in disk mirroring and disk duplexing. Incorrect Answers: A: RAID Level 0 (RAID 0) is the no-fault-tolerance process of using 64KB block storage areas in a striped set. B: RAID-5 is a fault-tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. C: RAID 3 is disk striping with parity, with data being moved at the bit level rather than the block level. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 731 and 732. QUESTION 181: Which of the following is the IDE interface more commonly known as? A. Shugart Drive Interface B. The Peripheral Component Interface C. Component Interface (CI) D. AT Attachment interface (ATA) Answer: D Explanation: IDE is more commonly known as AT Attachment interface, or ATA. Incorrect Answers: A: The Shugart Technology just formed the base of the IDE interface technology. B: The Peripheral Component Interface was originally called the PCI Local Bus C: The Component Interface the boundary between the Service Layer and Manageable Products, such as hardware peripherals and software components (word processors, spreadsheets, and so on). Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 897 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 172. QUESTION 182: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to replace a faulty "slave" IDE hard drive. Which of the following should you do before installing the new drive? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Make sure that all jumpers are removed from the drive. B. Make sure that the drive is jumpered as slave. C. Make sure that the drive is jumpered as master. D. Make sure that the drive speeds are the same. Answer: B Explanation: You implement the master/slave setting by jumpering a set of pins. The first part of the sequence when installing more than one IDE hard drives is to check the jumper settings. Thus if you are asked to replace a faulty "slave" IDE hard drive, then you should first set the jumper as slave before installing it. Incorrect Answers: A: Removing the jumpers from the drive will not enable you to replace the fault slave drive. C: If you jumper the drive as master then it will not work as a slave drive and will even clash with the existing master drive for control. D: The drive speed is irrelevant at this time in the process. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 176. QUESTION 183: Which of the following would you NOT need to do if you have only one IDE drive in your computer? (Choose all that apply) A. Jumper it as a master drive. B. Acquire a three - way IDE cable. C. Jumper it as a slave drive. D. All of the above. Answer: D Explanation: You can leave all jumpers off with one drive installed. You need a three-way connector for installing a second drive, so if your drive came with only a two-way connector you won't need the former. All options A, B and C would thus be considered unnecessary when you only have one IDE drive in your system. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 174 and 175. QUESTION 184: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following best describes the throughput supported by SCSI when it was first introduced? A. 3.3 MBps B. 33 MBps C. 133 MBps D. 5 MBps Answer: D Explanation: At its introduction, SCSI supported a throughput of 5MB/sec (5 to 10 times faster than previous buses). Incorrect Answers: A: IDE and ATA are essentially the same technology and can transfer data at 3.3MBps. B: UDMA is able to transfer data at 33MBps. C: Local bus can achieve a maximum data rate of 133 megabytes per second with a 33MHz bus speed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 177. QUESTION 185: Which of the following connectors would be at the end of a thick, shielded cable that connects an external SCSI device to the computer? (Choose all that apply) A. DB-25F B. DB-25M C. Male Centronics 36 D. Male Centronics 50 Answer: B, D Explanation: If SCSI devices are external, they use a thick, shielded cable with Centronics-50 or male DB-25 connectors on it. Incorrect Answers: A: Normal parallel interfaces use a DB-25 female connector on the computer to transfer data to peripherals. C: The second connector on a parallel printer is usually a Male Centronics 50 connectors Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 178 & 260 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 186: Which of the following is the cable used to connect SCSI devices to the computer internally? A. 40-pin ribbon cable. B. USB cable. C. 50-pin ribbon cable D. Parallel printer cable Answer: C Explanation If the SCSI devices are internal, they use a 50-pin ribbon cable. Incorrect Answers: A: The 40-pin ribbon cable, though similar in function to the 50-pin ribbon cable is used externally. B: USB cable is used to connect external USB devices. D: Parallel printer cable is used externally. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 178. QUESTION 187: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following are devices are supported by SCSI. How will you reply? (Choose all that apply) A. Scanners B. CD-ROM Drives C. Tape drives D. Modems E. Printers Answer: A, B, C, E Explanation: SCSI-2 included the original 18 commands (rewriting some of them) and added new commands, including specific support for drives other than hard drives (for example, CD -ROM, DAT, floptical, removable disk, standard QIC tape, magneto-optical, WORM drives, and scanners). Incorrect Answers: D: Modems are not supported by SCSI. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 327. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 188: Which of the following is a task that you have to perform when installing SCSI devices? A. Set the jumpers for master/slave. B. Perform a low-level format the SCSI drive C. Assign each SCSI device a unique ID number. D. Set the drive type in the CMOS setup. Answer: C Explanation: To properly configure SCSI devices, the ends of the chain(s) must be properly terminated and each device must have a unique ID. Thus once your SCSI devices are correctly connected, you need to assign each device a unique SCSI ID number. Incorrect Answers: A: This is done when hard drives are installed. They might also be SCSI devices, but the question pertinently asks for SSI devices and not only pertaining to hard drives. B: Formatting is done after installation. D: This is not done when installing SCSI devices. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 183. QUESTION 189: Which of the following is TRUE with regard to SCSI devices? A. You need to terminate the SCSI bus at the motherboard only. B. You must terminate the SCSI bus at both ends. C. You should only terminate the SCSI bus at the last device in the chain. D. You should not terminate the SCSI bus at all. Answer: B Explanation: A SCSI bus must be terminated at both ends, with the host adapter (card) usually acting as the motherboard termination point. The last device in the SCSI chain must also be properly terminated. Incorrect Answers: A: The termination of the SCSI bus has to occur at both ends and not just at the motherboard termination point. C: The termination of the SCSI bus has to occur at both ends and not just at the last device in the chain. D: The termination of the SCSI bus has to occur at both ends. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 417. QUESTION 190: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following describes the length of the cable connecting SCSI devices. How will you reply? A. Less than 0.5 meters. B. 1.5 meters. C. 5 meters. D. 2.5 meters. Answer: A Explanation: You connect the devices in the same manner you connected internal devices, but in this method you use several very short (less than 0.5 meters) "stub" cables to run between the devices in a daisy chain (rather than one, long cable with several connectors). Incorrect Answers: B, C & D: All these lengths are too long when taking cable lengths connecting SCSI devices into consideration. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 181. QUESTION 191: You are the Certkiller .com trainee technician and have just completed installing and configuring your new SCSI drive. Which of the following can be done next? A. You can now install the operating system. B. You can install games. C. You can read your E-mails. D. You can now high-level format the media. Answer: D Explanation: Once you have the drive installed and talking to the computer, you can high-level format the media, and then install the operating system. Incorrect Answers: A: Installing the operating system is done after the media has been formatted. B: Installing games is done after formatting and the installation of the operating system. C: E-mail facilities is only available after the SCSI hard drive has been formatted, all CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 necessary software has been installed and after dialing-up to the ISP, etc. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 184. QUESTION 192: After completing the installation of your internal and external SCSI devices that connects to an Adaptec AHA-1542s SCSI adapter, you find that none of the devices works. Which of the following should you do first to try and fix the problem? A. Disconnect all devices and start over. B. Remove the adapter and replace with a new one. C. Change the SCSI ID's D. Enable termination on the adapter. Answer: D Explanation: Some adapter cards like the Adaptec AHA-1542s still need to have terminators installed. If you set up both internal and external devices and none of them work, try enabling termination on it to see if that fixes the problem. Incorrect Answers: A: Disconnecting all the devices and starting over will not solve the problem as you need to enable termination on the adapter. B. You do not have to remove and replace the adapter; you need to enable termination on it to make it function properly. C: Changing the SCSI IDs will not solve the problem when all that is necessary is to enable termination on the adapter to enable proper functioning of the SCSI devices. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 182. QUESTION 193: If an 8-bit SCSI system's adapter card is assigned ID 7, how many more IDs are available for other devices? A. 6 B. 5 C. 7 D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 An 8-bit SCSI bus can hold up to eight devices, each with a unique identification (ID) number. The ID number can be from 0 to 7. Incorrect Answers: A & B: If an 8-bit SCSI bus can hold up to eight devices numbered from 0 to 7 then 6 and 5 are both wrong. D: This is incorrect since option C is the correct answer. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 325. QUESTION 194: Which of the following is generally recommended for SCSI devices? (Choose all that apply) A. Give slower devices higher priority. B. Give slower devices lower priority. C. Set the first hard disk to ID 0. D. Set the first hard disk to ID 7. Answer: A, C Explanation: There are some recommendations that are commonly accepted by the PC community. These are guidelines, not rules: (i) Generally speaking, give slower devices higher priority so they can access the bus whenever they need it. And (ii) set the bootable (or first) hard disk to ID 0. Incorrect Answers: B: It is not advisable to give the slower devices lower priority since it will affect performance. D: The first hard disk should preferably be set to ID 0 and not 7. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 183. QUESTION 195: Which of the following is the SCSI ID number generally recommended for the CD-ROM? A. ID 0. B. ID 5. C. ID 2. D. ID 3. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: Every other device can be set to any number as long as it's not in use. It is a recommended practice in IT community to set the SCSI ID number for CD-ROM drives to 3. Incorrect Answers: A: Setting the bootable (or first) hard disk to ID 0 is the accepted IT community recommendation. B: ID 3 would be the better choice to assign to the CD-ROM drive. C: ID 2 is usually set aside for the Floppy drive. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 183. QUESTION 196: Which of the following are SCSI types that allow for 16 devices, including the adapter, to be connected on a single shared cable? A. Ultra Wide SCSI B. Fast SCSI C. Ultra SCSI D. Fast Wide SCSI E. Ultra 2 SCSI Answer: A, D Explanation: Wide SCSI buses support 16 devices, rather than the 8 devices specified in regular SCSI. Incorrect Answers: B: Fast SCSI supports a maximum of eight devices. C: Ultra SCSI is capable of supporting a maximum of eight devices. E: Ultra 2 SCSI can only support 8 devices. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 326. QUESTION 197: Which the following BEST describes the transfer rate and maximum cable length of SCSI-2? A. 5 MBps, 1.5 meters. B. 10 MBps, 3 meters. C. 40 MBps, 1.5 meters. D. 5 MBps, 6 meters. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: The maximum transfer rate of SCSI 2 is 5 Mbps. The maximum length of SCSI 2 cabling is 6 meters. Incorrect Answers: A: Both SCSI 1 and 2 has a maximum transfer rate of 5 Mbps. However, the maximum cabling length of Wide Ultra SCSI is 1.5 meters. B: The maximum transfer rate of 10 Mbps is handled by FAST SCSI and the maximum cabling length of 3 meters is handled by both FAST and WIDE SCSI. C: A maximum transfer rate of 40 Mbps is handled by Wide Ultra SCSI and the maximum cabling length of 1.5 meters is handled by Wide Ultra SCSI. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 182 and 183. QUESTION 198: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following has a transfer rate of 40 MBps and a maximum cable length of 12 meters. How will you reply? A. SCSI-2 B. Ultra 2 SCSI C. Ultra Wide SCSI D. Fast SCSI E. Ultra SCSI F. Fast Wide SCSI Answer: B Explanation: Ultra2 SCSI (8-bit) is capable of 40MB/s transfers, with a maximum cable length of 12 meters (39 feet), also used the same connectors as Fast-10. Incorrect Answers: A: SCSI 2 has a transfer rate of 5Mbps and a maximum cable length of 6 meters C: Ultra Wide SCSI has a transfer rate of 40Mbps and a maximum cable length of 1.5 meters D: Fast SCSI has a transfer rate of 10Mbps and a maximum cable length of 3 meters E: Ultra SCSI has a transfer rate of 20Mbps and a maximum cable length of 3 meters F: Fast Wide SCSI has a transfer rate of 20Mbps and a maximum cable length of 1.5 meters Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 327. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 199: Which of the following are the transfer rate, bus width, and maximum cable length of Fast Wide SCSI? A. 5 MBps, 8 bits, and 6 meters. B. 40 MBps, 16 bits, and 1.5 meters. C. 20 MBps, 16 bits, and 1.5 meters. D. 10 MBps, 8 bits, and 3 meters. Answer: C Explanation: Fast Wide SCSI (16-bit) is capable of 20MB/s transfers, with a maximum cable length of 1.5 meters (4.9 feet), using a new 68-pin internal and external connector (halfpitch DB68) for newer hard drives. Incorrect Answers: A: These are the specifications for both SCSI 1 and SCSI 2. B: This is the specifications for Wide Ultra SCSI. D: This is the specifications for Fast SCSI. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 327. QUESTION 200: Which statement regarding the differences between SCSI-1 and SCSI-2 is TRUE? A. SCSI-1 differs from SCSI-2 in that it supports hard drives only. B. SCSI-1 differs from SCSI-2 in that it includes support for drives other than hard drives. C. SCSI-2 differs from SCSI-1 in that it supports hard drives only. D. SCSI-2 differs from SCSI-1 in that it includes support for drives other than hard drives. Answer: A, D Explanation: A: SCSI-1 introduced the seven-device limit to a daisy chain-setting aside the host adapter-where the remaining devices could only be different types of hard drives. D: SCSI-2 included the original 18 commands (rewriting some of them) and added new commands, including specific support for drives other than hard drives (for example, CD-ROM, DAT, floptical, removable disk, standard QIC tape, magneto-optical, WORM drives, and scanners). Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: This is incorrect since SCSI 1 only supports hard drives. C: This is incorrect since SCSI 2 included support for drives other than hard drives. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, pp. 326 and 327. QUESTION 201: You work as a system technician at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller .com has a computer that has become sluggish after months of use. What should you do to improve performance? A. Add more RAM. B. Upgrade the CPU. C. Defragment the hard drive. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Due to read a write processes on a hard drive, fragmentation of data occurs after time. This causes slower read/writes and can be resolved by regularly deframenting the hard drive. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: Upgrading the RAM or CPU would increase system performance but a fragmented hard disk is best optimized by deframentation. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 74-86, 114-116, 172-177. QUESTION 202: After months of use, a hard drive on computer has become sluggish. What can be done to improve the disk's performance? A. Add more RAM. B. Reformat the hard drive. C. Defragment the hard drive. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Due to read a write processes on a hard drive, fragmentation of data occurs after time. This causes slower read/writes and can be resolved by regularly deframenting the hard drive. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers A, C: Upgrading the RAM or CPU would increase system performance but a fragmented hard disk is best optimized by deframentation. B: Reformatting the hard drive would wipe the disk clean. This would overcome fragmentation but will result in loss of data. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 74-86, 114-116, 172-177. QUESTION 203: A Certkiller .com customer has a Pentium computer with an ISA graphics card and a CRT monitor. She wants to improve her display performance. What should she do? A. Replace the monitor with an LCD screen. B. Replace the graphics card with a PCI graphics card. C. Add more Video RAM. D. Run the computer in VGA mode. Answer: B Explanation: The ISA bus is only 8 to 16 bits wide while the PCI bus is 32 bits wide. Thus the PCI graphics card will provide better performance. Incorrect Answers: A: LCD screens have slower response times than CRT screens. C: Video RAM is usually not upgradeable. D: Because of its limitations, the highest resolution that an ISA graphics cards would produce is 800x600 which is VGA mode. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 94, 121, 198-217. QUESTION 204: A Certkiller .com customer has a Pentium III computer with a PCI graphics card and a CRT monitor. She wants to improve her display performance. What should she do? A. Replace the monitor with an LCD screen. B. Replace the graphics card with an AGP graphics card. C. Add more Video RAM. D. Run the computer in VGA mode. Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The PCI bus is PCI is limited to data transfers of 127MBps while the AGP is limited to 508.6MBps. Thus the AGP graphics card will provide better performance. Incorrect Answers: A: LCD screens have slower response times than CRT screens. C: Video RAM is usually not upgradeable. D: The highest resolution of VGA mode is 800x600. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 94, 121, 198-217. QUESTION 205: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with building a computer for optimized display performance. Which of the following would you use? A. An LCD screen with an AGP graphics card. B. An LCD screen with a PCI graphics card. C. An LCD screen with an ISA graphics card D. A CRT display screen with an AGP graphics card. E. A CRT display screen with a PCI graphics card. F. A CRT display screen with an ISA graphics card. Answer: D Explanation: The PCI bus is PCI is limited to data transfers of 127MBps while the AGP is limited to 508.6MBps. In addition, the ISA bus is 16 bits wide while the AGP is 32 bit wide. Thus the AGP graphics card will provide better performance. Also, LCD screens have slower response times than CRT screens. Incorrect Answers: A, B & C: LCD screens have slower response times than the CRT screens. This will thus not optimize display performance. E: Thought the CRT screen would be faster than the LCD screen, the PCI graphics card has limited data transfer capabilities. F: The ISA bus is 16 bits wide where as the AGP bus is 32 bit wide making the AGP the logical choice for optimal display performance. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 94, 121, 198-217. QUESTION 206: What does DEFRAGMENTATION refer to? A. Deleting unnecessary files. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Reformatting C. Putting files together D. Adding a partition Answer: C Explanation: Fragmentation occurs when blocks of files are spread over a hard drive. This slows disk performance as that read head has to read the file from different locations. Deframentation is the process of putting all blocks of a file together in one contiguous place on the hard drive. Incorrect Answers: A: Deleting unnecessary files is more a case of making space and not defragmenting existing files. B: Reformatting is a different process where all files are "destroyed". D: Adding a partition will result in further fragmentation. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 74-86, 114-116, 172-177. QUESTION 207: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following provides better performance. How will you reply? A. ISA. B. PCI C. AGP D. VESA Answer: C Explanation: The PCI bus is PCI is limited to data transfers of 127MBps while the AGP is limited to 508.6MBps. In addition, the ISA bus is 16 bits wide while the AGP is 32 bit wide. Thus the AGP graphics card will provide better performance. Also, LCD screens have slower response times than CRT screens. Incorrect Answers: A: The ISA bus is 16 bits wide where as the AGP bus is 32 bit wide. B: The PCI graphics card has limited data transfer capabilities. D: VESA got replaced by PCI bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 198-218. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 208: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following SCSI drives must be used if you want a computer with optimized disk performance. How will you reply? A. SCSI-1. B. SCSI-2. C. Wide SCSI D. Fast SCSI. Answer: C Explanation: Wide SCSI has a maximum transfer rate of 20 MBps. Incorrect Answers: A, B: SCSI- and SCSI-2 has a maximum transfer rate of 5 MBps. D: Fast SCSI has a maximum transfer rate of 10 MBps. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 177-184. QUESTION 209: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following SCSI drives offers the best speed. How will you reply? A. SCSI-1. B. SCSI-2. C. Wide SCSI D. Fast SCSI. Answer: C Explanation: Wide SCSI has a maximum transfer rate of 20 MBps. Incorrect Answers: A, B: SCSI- and SCSI-2 has a maximum transfer rate of 5 MBps. D: Fast SCSI has a maximum transfer rate of 10 MBps. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 177-184. QUESTION 210: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with performing a hardware upgrade CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 on a PC. What will you do before performing the procedure? A. Back up all the data. B. Determine the amount of RAM available. C. Scan the hard disk for errors. D. Download the Latest BIOS and drivers for the existing components. Answer: A Explanation: You should always backup data to ensure that no user data would be lost. Incorrect Answers: B: The available RAM should not affect the upgrade. C, D: Disk errors, the BIOS and drivers for the existing components would not affect the upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 177-184. QUESTION 211: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following components can be upgraded. How will you reply? A. CPU B. Video RAM C. Memory Modules D. L1 Cache Answer: A, C Explanation: The CPU and Memory Modules can be replaced. Incorrect Answers: B: Video RAM is embedded in the graphics card and cannot be upgraded. D: L1 cache is embedded on the processor and cannot be upgraded. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001. QUESTION 212: A Certkiller .com customer with a 386 computer wants to upgrade his memory. Which memory modules would the customer use? A. 30-pin SIMMs CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. 72-pin SIMMs. C. 168-pin DIMMs. D. 72-pin SODIMMs. Answer: A Explanation: 386 and early 486 computers used 30-pin SIMMs. Incorrect Answers: B: 72-pin SIMMs are used on later model 486 and early modle Pentium computers. C: DIMMs are used on late model Pentium and later compouters. D: SODIMs are small outline DIMMs and are used on Laptops. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 120-122. QUESTION 213: A Certkiller .com customer wants to upgrade the RAM on her laptop. Which memory modules would the customer use? A. SIMMs B. DIMMs C. RIMMs. D. SODIMMs. Answer: D Explanation: SODIMs are small outline DIMMs and are used on Laptops. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: SIMMs, DIMMs and RIMMS are all used on PCs, not on laptops. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 120-122. QUESTION 214: Which of the following memory modules must be installed in pairs? A. 72-pin SIMMs B. 168-pin DIMMs C. 184-pin DIMMs. D. 184-pin RIMMs. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: RIMMs are 16 bit wide and must be installed in pairs. Incorrect Answers: A: 72-pin SIMMs are 32 bits wide and can be installed singularly. B, C: DIMMs are 64 bit wide and can be installed singularly. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 120-122. QUESTION 215: A Certkiller .com customer has a computer with a Socket 7 connector. She wants to upgrade the processor. Which of the following processors can the customer use? A. Pentium II B. Pentium Pro C. Pentium 66 D. Pentium 133 Answer: D Explanation: The Socket 7 connector can accept a Pentium processor of 75 MHz or more. Incorrect Answers: A: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. B: Socket 8 used for Pentium Pro processors. C: Socket 4 was used for the early Pentium processors including Pentium 60 and Pentium 66. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 216: A Certkiller .com customer has a computer with a Socket 8 connector. She wants to upgrade the processor. Which of the following processors can the customer use? A. Pentium II B. Pentium Pro C. Pentium 66 D. Pentium 133 Answer: B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Socket 8 used for Pentium Pro processors. Incorrect Answers: A: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. C: Socket 4 was used for the early Pentium processors including Pentium 60 and Pentium 66. D: The Socket 7 connector can accept a Pentium processor of 75 MHz or more. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 217: A Certkiller .com customer has a computer with a Socket 3 connector. She wants to upgrade the processor. Which of the following processors can the customer use? A. 486 DX4 B. Pentium II C. Pentium 60 D. Pentium 133 Answer: A Explanation: Socket 3 was used for 486 SX, 486 SX2, 486 DX, 486 DX2, and 486 DX4 processors. Incorrect Answers: B: SECC (Type I) was used for Pentium II processors. C: Socket 4 was used for the early Pentium processors including Pentium 60 and Pentium 66. D: Socket 5 and Socket 7was used for Pentium 133 processors. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 67. QUESTION 218: What does the term 'clean boot' refer to? (Choose all that apply) A. You take everything of the computer. B. Starting the computer with no software drivers loading. C. The necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: Booting it "clean" means starting the computer with no software drivers loading. The CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 AUTOEXEC.BAT or CONFIG. SYS (the two DOS configuration) files are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running should be the only files present. Incorrect Answers: A: Taking everything off the computer is not what clean boot is about. D: This is incorrect since options B and C both refer to clean boot. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 219: What will happen if your system encounters a major problem? A. Your system will restart with only the necessary memory managers and settings. B. Your system will display an error message for the software or hardware component that caused the problem. C. Your system will go into DOS mode. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: If there is a major problem, the operating error message system routines will display an error message for the software or hardware component that caused the problem. Incorrect Answers: A: The system will not restart automatically with the required memory managers and settings. This only happens with safe booting. C: The system will not go into DOS mode upon stumbling over a major problem. D: This is incorrect since the system will display an error message to alert you of the error. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 220: When you boot a DOS/Windows computer "clean", what files is necessary to start the system? A. The LPT1. B. The DOS configuration files. C. The software related files. D. None of the above Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The AUTOEXEC.BAT or CONFIG.SYS (the two DOS configuration files) is the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. Incorrect Answers: A: The LPT1 is the primary parallel port for the printer. C: Booting it "clean" means starting the computer with no software drivers loading. The only things that should be in the AUTOEXEC.BAT or CONFIG.SYS are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. D: The AUTOEXEC.BAT or CONFIG.SYS (the two DOS configuration files) is the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 221: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The ATZ command answers an incoming call manually. B. The ATS6-x command waits x rings before answering a call. C. The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. D. The ATDT xxxxxxx command is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary dialing. E. The ATZ command answers waits x seconds for a dial tone before dialing. Answer: C Explanation: The ATA command does indeed answer an incoming call manually. Incorrect Answers: A: The ATZ command resets modem to power-up defaults. B: The ATS6-x command waits x seconds for a dial tone before dialing. D: The ATDT xxxxxxx command dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. E: The ATZ command resets modem to power-up defaults. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405 QUESTION 222: What is the function of the Windows 2000 Intellimirror? (Choose two) A. It tells you about the missing files that may be required by the application. B. It automatically maintains applications C. It replacing missing files. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: Intellimirror and its associated tools can automatically maintain applications, replacing missing files, updating INI or Registry files, or doing a complete installation, automatically Incorrect Answers: A: Intellimirror goes one step further by replacing those missing files as well. D: This is incorrect since Intellimirror automatically maintains applications and replaces missing files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 223: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The LPT1 is the primary parallel port for the printer. B. Booting it "clean" means starting the computer with software drivers loading. C. Intellimirror tells you about the missing files that may be required by the application. D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The LPT1 is the primary parallel port for the printer. Incorrect Answers: B: Booting it "clean" means starting the computer with no software drivers loading. C: Intellimirror actually replaces the missing files and not just tell you about it. D: The LPT1 is the primary parallel port for the printer. Thus one of the above is true. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 391 QUESTION 224: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with making a bootable diskette. In the DOS prompt you will type FORMAT A: /S. what does the /S stands for? A. It tells you to go to safe mode. B. It tells you were the floppy drive is. C. The /S parameter instructs DOS to include the DOS "system files". D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: The /S parameter instructs DOS to include the DOS "system files" on the floppy after formatting it. Incorrect Answers: A: This has nothing to do with safe mode. B: The "A:" tells us where the floppy drive is. D: Option C is correct. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 225: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what will appear on the screen when the DOS bootable diskette is finished. How will you reply? A. The screen will go blank. B. The "System Transferred" message will appear. C. The system will restart. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: When the computer is done, the "System Transferred" message will appear, telling you that the computer has finished making the disk bootable. Incorrect Answers: A: The screen will not go blank. C: The system will not restart. D: This is incorrect since a System Transferred message does appear. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 226: How do you add the system files to a disk and make it bootable? A. You put the formatted disk in the computer and restart the computer. B. You must type "system files" in the DOS prompt. C. At the DOS prompt you type the following: SYS A: D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: If the disk is already formatted, you can add the system files to a disk and make it bootable by typing the following at a DOS prompt: SYS A: When the computer is done, the "System Transferred" message will appear, telling you that the computer has finished making the disk bootable. Incorrect Answers: A: Putting a formatted disk in the computer and starting it is not the procedure to use to make a disk bootable. B: This is the incorrect syntax to use when making a bootable disk. D: This is incorrect since you should type SYS A at the DOS prompt to add system files to a disk to make it bootable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 390 QUESTION 227: Which of the following files can solve most DOS problems? (choose two). A. SYSTEM.INI. B. AUTOEXEC.BAT. C. WIN.INI D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: B, D Explanation: The two DOS configuration files are AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS which are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running thus allowing one to solve most DOS problems with them. Incorrect Answers: A: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. C: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 228: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. When you finish making a bootable disk the screen will go blank. B. When you finish making a bootable disk the "System Transferred" message will appear. C. When you finish making a bootable disk the system will restart. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: When the computer is done, the "System Transferred" message will appear, telling you that the computer has finished making the disk bootable. Incorrect Answers: A: A bootable disk creation does not result in a blank screen. C. The system will not restart when making a bootable disk; instead you will get a message. D: This is incorrect since you will see a message that will inform you that the bootable disk is ready. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 387-388 QUESTION 229: The CONFIG.SYS file is the main configuration file that DOS uses. What problems does this file handle? (Choose all that applies) A. It handles batch file that executes automatically at system startup. B. Insufficient conventional memory. C. Incorrect drivers loading D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: The CONFIG.SYS file is the main configuration file that DOS uses. It can be the source of several problems with DOS. The problems that are normally experienced are things like insufficient conventional memory, incorrect drivers loading, and not enough file handles. Incorrect Answers: A: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. This configuration file establishes the user environment and loads system drivers. D: This is incorrect since options B and C provides the answers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 387-431. QUESTION 230: The CONFIG.SYS plays a role in the mapping of the PC's memory. Which drivers does it load? (Choose two) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. EMM386.EXE. B. AUTOEXEC.BAT. C. HIMEM.SYS D. None of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: The CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers like EMM386.EXE and HIMEM.SYS as well as specifying the location of the DOS files Incorrect Answers: B: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. D: This in incorrect since options A and C provides the answers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 231: What are the tools that you will advise the new Certkiller .com trainee to use incase the CONFIG.SYS and the AUTOEXEC.BAT becomes corrupted? A. EMM386.EXE. B. REM statements. C. HIMEM.SYS D. Backup files Answer: B, D Explanation: If the CONFIG.SYS and the AUTOEXEC.BAT becomes damaged or corrupt with incorrect entries, the best two tools you have are the REM statement and backup files. Incorrect Answers: A, C: The EMM386.EXE and HIMEM.SYS are memory drivers Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 232: What is the function of the REM statement in an Autoexec.bat file? A. It handles batch file that executes automatically at system startup. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. It loads memory drivers. C. It inserts remarks or comments into batch files D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The initial purpose for the REM command was to insert remarks or comments into batch files, so that the programmer or curious user could annotate what was going on in different sections of the file without requiring the computer to "run" the comment. Incorrect Answers: A: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. This configuration file establishes the user environment and loads system drivers. B: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers D: This is incorrect since the REM statement is responsible for inserting comments and remarks in the batch files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 233: The computer is locking up inconsistently. When you boot "clean" with a boot diskette, the computer functions normally. What kind of problem is the system likely to have? A. A software related problem. B. A hardware related problem. C. A software and hardware related problem. D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The problem is software related, because when you boot "clean" with a boot diskette, the computer functions normally. This would mean that one of the statements in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT is causing the problem. Thus it is software related. Incorrect Answers: B: A hardware related problem would not exhibit the same symptoms when clean booting. C: The system does not have both hardware and software related problems since the system can boot normally with the aid of a boot diskette. D: The symptoms described are characteristic of a software problem. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 387-388 QUESTION 234: If a line in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT is causing the problem, how would you find the line? A. You need to check every line and require the computer to "run" the comment. B. By placing the REM command it at the beginning of any command line, you ensure that DOS will skip that line when running the file. C. Rewrite all the line in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: By editing both the CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT and "REMming out" one command at a time (and rebooting between each change), you can progressively eliminate statements that might be the cause of the problem. This will afford you the opportunity to locate the faulty line. Incorrect Answers: A: This is not the procedure to locate a faulty line in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT. C: Rewriting all the lines is not the same as locating faulty lines it is merely replacing every line. D: This is incorrect since running the REM command will afford you the opportunity to locate the faulty line. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 235: After you have installed drivers for your hardware device, the computer has encountered a problem. What is the best thing to do? A. Rewrite all the lines in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT. B. Check if the hardware device is plugged in properly. C. Reboot using the backup files. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Whenever you install drivers for a hardware device, the installation program will ask you CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 if you want it to modify the CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT for you or if you would like to modify the files yourself. When the installation program modifies these files, it makes duplicates, or backups, of them just in case the drivers it installs cause problems. These are the backups that can be used in this case. Incorrect Answers: A: Rewriting the lines in the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT would be unnecessary when all that has to be done would be to reboot with the backup files. B: If the hardware devise was not properly plugged in it would not even go on in the first place. It is obviously plugged in properly already. D: This is incorrect since the best action that can be taken is to reboot with the backup files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 236: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. REM statement handles batch file that executes automatically at system startup. B. REM statement loads memory drivers. C. REM statement inserts remarks or comments into batch files D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The initial purpose for the REM command was to insert remarks or comments into batch files. Incorrect Answers: A: The REM statement does not handle batch files. It only inserts comments into the batch files. B: The REM statement does not load memory. D: This is incorrect since the REM statement does insert remarks and comments into batch files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 390-392 QUESTION 237: Which of the following will cause a keyboard error message? (Choose all that apply) A. Soft-drinks spilling on the keyboard. B. A key that is stuck. C. The keyboard that is not connected to the system. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above. Answer: B, C Explanation: A key that is stuck or a keyboard that is not plugged in would cause a keyboard error message. Incorrect Answers A: Soft-drinks cause the key to get sticky, which creates the sticky effect on the keys. D: This is incorrect since sticky keys are caused by soft-drinks spilling on the keyboard resulting in a keyboard error message. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001p. 425 QUESTION 238: Besides the system resources, which are the other areas where you can check for troubleshooting information in the Windows? (Choose all that apply) A. The Windows configuration files. B. HIMEM.SYS. C. General Protection Faults D. None of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: There are three primary areas you can check for finding troubleshooting information in Windows: system resources, General Protection Faults, and the Windows configuration files Incorrect Option B: The HIMEM.SYS is a memory driver. D: This is incorrect since you can troubleshoot Windows by checking the configuration files as well as General Protection Faults. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 394 QUESTION 239: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how much system resources are needed for optimal Windows 3.1 performance. How will you reply? A. 50% B. 100% C. 80% CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 33.3% Answer: C Explanation: For optimal Windows performance, the available system resources should be above 80 percent. Incorrect Answers: A & D: Both 50% and 33.3% is too low for optimal Windows 3.1 performance. B: 100 % system resources would mean that there is no space for applications to be loaded onto the operating system on the computer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 396 QUESTION 240: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to take action when a Windows 3.1 system runs out of system resources. What is the best thing to do? (Choose all that apply) A. Upgrade BIOS B. Add RAM C. Add disk space D. Upgrade the motherboard E. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: For optimal Windows performance, the available system resources should be above 80 percent. If they are below 80 percent you will need to add RAM, disk space, or both. Incorrect Answers: A: Upgrading the BIOS will not address resource problems. D: Upgrading the motherboard does not result in the addition of the necessary resources. E: This is incorrect since one should add disk space and RAM to address the system resource shortage. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 396 QUESTION 241: What causes a Windows 95 computer to display an error called General Protection Fault (GPF)? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The BIOS B. A Windows program that oversteps its bounds and try to take memory from another application. C. The motherboard D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: These errors are usually due to nonstandard programming. In these cases the programmer took shortcuts in their programming and left out the "safety nets" that would prevent a program from taking memory away from another, running program. Incorrect Answers: A: The BIOS does not result in a GPF error. C: The motherboard does not result in a GPF error. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 394 QUESTION 242: A Certkiller .com Windows 95 system has very little space available. It is then likely that it will cause problems. What kind of problems could occur? (Choose all that apply) A. The system will restart by it self. B. It will try to take memory from another application. C. An error called a General Protection Fault will occur. D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: In a system with only a little space available, the likelihood is relatively great that a program will use another program's memory when it goes looking for more memory, and thus cause a GPF. Incorrect Answers: A: In case of little space you do not encounter a problem of a system restarting itself, but rather a GPF error. D: This is incorrect since the system will try to take memory from another application of a GPF error will occur. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 394 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 243: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how one can make a system almost GPF free. How will you reply? (Choose all that apply) A. The system must have plenty of memory. B. Upgrade the BIOS. C. The system must have enough free space available. D. None of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: When Windows starts running out of available memory it means the programs that are running are tightly packed in memory. In a system with only a little space available, the likelihood is relatively great that a program will use another program's memory when it goes looking for more memory, and thus cause a GPF. Thus to prevent these problems you should make sure there is sufficient memory as well as free disk space. Incorrect Answers: B: Upgrading the BIOS will not prevent GPF errors from happening since GPF errors result from insufficient diskette space and insufficient RAM. D: This is incorrect since options A and C are the answers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 394 QUESTION 244: What are the three steps of development that the software goes through? A. Alpha B. Omega C. Beta D. Release Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Software goes through three major steps of development: Alpha, Beta, and Release. Incorrect Answers: B: Omega is not a stage in software development. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 395 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 245: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what it means when the software is in the Alpha stage. How will you reply? A. They only begin with the development of the software. B. The program is intended only for testing within the software company itself. C. The software is basically ready for release. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: In the Alpha release, the program is intended only for testing within the software company itself, and it may not include all the features that are intended to be included in the eventual release. Incorrect Answers: A: This is not alpha stage yet. C: This is not the alpha stage, but rather the release stage. D: This is incorrect since the alpha stage means that the software is meant for testing within the company itself. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 395 QUESTION 246: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what it means when the software is in the BETA stage. How will you reply? A. They only begin with the development of the software. B. The program is intended only for testing within the software company itself. C. The software is basically ready for release. D. The Beta release includes all the features that will be included in the software. Answer: D Explanation: The Beta release includes all the features that will be included in the Release version, as well as the installation program (often missing in the Alpha version), and is ready for consumer testing. Incorrect Answers: A: This is not even the alpha stage yet. B: This is characteristic of the alpha stage. C: This is characteristic of the release stage. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 395 QUESTION 247: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. In the Alpha stage the software is basically ready for release. B. In the Alpha stage the software is only for testing within the software company itself. C. In the Beta stage, the software is only in the beginning with the development of the software. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: In the Alpha release, the program is intended only for testing within the software company itself, and it may not include all the features that are intended to be included in the eventual release. Incorrect Answers: A: This is incorrect since this is not what alpha stage is. It is release stage. C: This is incorrect since this is not a stage yet. It is only the beginning of software development. The Beta stage is when the software is ready for consumer testing. D: This is incorrect since option B is true. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 395 QUESTION 248: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. In the Beta stage, the software is only in the beginning with the development of the software. B. The Beta release includes all the features that will be included in the software. C. In the Alpha stage the software is basically ready for release D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: In the Alpha release, the program is intended only for testing within the software company itself, and it may not include all the features that are intended to be included in the eventual release. Incorrect Answers: A: This is not characteristic of the Beta stage. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C: This is what is called the Release stage and not the Alpha stage. D: This is incorrect since option B represents a true statement. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 395 QUESTION 249: When you install programs in a Windows 3.x system, where does it copy its files? A. In the BIOS. B. On the hard disk. C. In the software. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: When Windows 3.x programs are installed, their files are copied to the hard disk. Incorrect Answers: A: The BIOS does not keep that type of information. C: The program IS software that needs to be installed on the hardware. D: This is incorrect since the files are copied to the hard disk as suggested by option B. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 398 QUESTION 250: Which of the following are the Windows configuration files? A. INI files and the System Registry B. AUTOEXEC.BAT. C. CONFIG.SYS. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: When Windows 3.x programs are installed, their files are copied to the hard disk and entries are made into the Windows configuration files: the INI files and the System Registry. Incorrect Answers: B: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. This configuration file establishes the user environment and loads system drivers. C: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 loads memory drivers. D: This is incorrect since the Windows Configuration files consists of INI files and the System Registry. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 251: What kind of file does the installation program create when a new application is installed in Windows? A. CONFIG.SYS. B. INI file C. AUTOEXEC.BAT. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: When a new application is installed, the installation program will create an INI file that contains the new application's settings. Incorrect Answers: A: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers. C: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. This configuration file establishes the user environment and loads system drivers. D: This is incorrect since the installation program does create an INI files upon installation. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 252: What are the three main INI files that Windows uses on a Windows 3.x system? A. SYSTEM.INI B. CONFIG.SYS. C. WIN.INI D. PROGMAN.INI E. AUTOEXEC.BAT. F. None of the above. Answer: A, C, D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The three primary INI files that Windows uses are: SYSTEM.INI, WIN.INI, and PROGMAN.INI. Each of them should be backed up before changes are made. Incorrect Answers: B: CONFIG.SYS also has a definite role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers. E: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. This configuration file establishes the user environment and loads system drivers. F: This is incorrect since the SYSTEM.INI, WIN.INI and PROGMAN.INI files are used in the process. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 253: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The AUTOEXEC.BAT has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. B. The SYSTEM.INI controls the Windows operating environment C. CONFIG.SYS loads memory drivers D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers. Incorrect Answers: A: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is a special batch file that executes automatically at system startup. B: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. D: This is incorrect since the option C represents a true statement. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 254: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to explain the purpose of the SYSTEM.INI file. How will you reply? A. It controls the Windows operating environment. B. It has settings for the drivers that Windows uses C. It controls the BIOS settings D. None of the above. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. It is probably the most critical of the three INI files. Incorrect Answers: A: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. C: The CMOS controls the BIOS settings. D: This is incorrect since option B is the correct answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 255: What is the purpose of the WIN.INI file? A. It controls the Windows operating environment. B. It has settings for the drivers that Windows uses C. It controls settings for the Program Manager D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. Incorrect Answers: B: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. C: The PROGMAN.INI contains settings for the Program Manager. D: This is incorrect since option A is the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 256: Which of the following files contains the entries for the programs that Windows starts automatically, screensaver settings, desktop color schemes, wallpaper, and system compatibility information? A. SYSTEM.INI B. Program Manager C. PROGMAN.INI D. WIN.INI CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. There are entries for the programs that Windows starts automatically, screensaver settings, desktop color schemes, wallpaper, and system compatibility information. Changes made to this file can be critical Incorrect Answers: A: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. B, C: the PROGMAN.INI contains settings for the Program Manager. The settings control the number and file names of the program groups in the Program Manager. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 257: An inexperienced Certkiller .com technician worked on a Certkiller .com client's system. The client now has the problem that some of the resources are not available. Which of the following files did the technician modify? A. CONFIG.SYS B. SYSTEM.INI C. HIMEM.SYS D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. It is probably the most critical of the three. Changes made to this file affect Windows' resource usage as well as resource availability. Incorrect Answers: A, C: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers. The HIMEM.SYS is a memory driver. D: This is incorrect since the trainee technician must have modified the SYSTEM.INI files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 258: The client said that her system is functioning properly, but she cannot see her programs groups in the Program Manager. Where in the system should she search? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. SYSTEM.INI B. PROGMAN.INI C. WIN.INI D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The PROGMAN.INI contains settings for the Program Manager. The settings control the number and file names of the program groups in the Program Manager. Changing these settings modifies which program groups appear in the Program Manager. Incorrect Answers: A: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. C: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. D: This is incorrect since option B contains the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 259: In the Windows 95/98 systems, where would you find the configuration and program setting information? A. SYSTEM.INI B. In the Registry C. PROGMAN.INI D. WIN.INI Answer: B Explanation: With the introduction of Windows 95, Microsoft did away with the practice of using several INI files to contain program configuration information. They introduced a special database called the Registry to provide a single common location for all configuration and program setting information. Incorrect Answers: A C, D: These are all INI files Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 260: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know where the settings for the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Windows programs are kept. How will you reply? A. CONFIG.SYS B. SYSTEM.INI C. HIMEM.SYS D. In the Registry Answer: D Explanation: The Registry can be viewed and edited with REGEDIT.EXE. Each folder represents a section or "key" that contains specific information. It is within these keys that the settings for the Windows programs are kept. Incorrect Answers: A: CONFIG.SYS also has a detailed role in the logical mapping of the PC's memory. It loads memory drivers. B: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. C: The HIMEM.SYS is a memory driver. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 397 QUESTION 261: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding IBM systems? A. When the POST runs a test on the processor and it fails, the system will stop with an error message. B. When the POST runs a test on the processor and it fails, the system will stop with no error message C. When the POST runs a test on the processor and it fails, the system will reboot. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: POST runs checks on the CPU. If the tests fail, the system stops with no error message (usually). Incorrect Answers: A: There will not be any error message. C: The system will not reboot. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 400 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 262: What will happen if the POST checks the ROMs and it is does not match? A. The system will stop with an error message. B. The system will restart and the POST will try to match the ROMs. C. The system will stop with no error message D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: If the BASIC ROMs fail the POST test, it does another long beep, then a short beep, and then halts. Incorrect Answers: A: You will first encounter a number of beeps before it halts. B: The system will not restart in an effort to match the ROMs. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 399 QUESTION 263: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the function of the timing chip is. How will you reply? A. It tests the processor B. The chip that provides timing signals for the bus and processor. C. It tests the BIOS ROMs D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: This is not the chip that tells time, but rather the chip that provides timing signals for the bus and processor. If this chip fails the system will halt. Incorrect Answers: A, C: All of these are tested with the POST D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 399 QUESTION 264: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, the system will the system will give a long beep, then the system will stop. B. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, the system will the system will give a short beep, then the system will stop. C. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, the system will the system will give a long beep, then a short beep, then the system will stop D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: When the Interrupt controller is checked, and if there is a problem with this component, the system will give a long beep, then a short beep, then the system will stop. Incorrect Answers: A: The system will also give a short after right after the long beep. B: The system will give a ling beep before the short beep. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 399-401. QUESTION 265: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what happens when the cassette interface on an IBM system fails during POST. How will you reply? A. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, the system will the system will give a long beep, then the system will stop. B. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, a "131 -Cassette Interface" error is generated, then the system will stop. C. When the POST runs a test on the Interrupt controller and it fails, a "131 -Cassette Interface" error is generated, the system will not halt. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: If the cassette interface doesn't work, a "131 - Cassette Interface" error is generated. The system does not halt. Incorrect Answers: A: The system will not give a long beep and then stop. B: This is correct, but the system will not stop. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 399, 402-403. QUESTION 266: A Certkiller .com admin worker complained about a monitor that has a green display and when the monitor is shifted the display corrects. What could be the cause of the problem? A. The LCD of the monitor is faulty. B. It has a faulty data cable. C. You need to replace the monitor. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Bad cabling on monitor usually manifests itself in a display with blue (or red, or green) tints. If you can wiggle the cable and the problem is "fixed" then you actually ascertained that the cable is faulty. This is what happened in this case where the monitor was shifted. Thus you only need to replace the data cable. Incorrect Answers: A: The problem described is indicative of a faulty data cable and not the monitor itself. C: The monitor is working since there is a display. Thus there is no need to replace the monitor. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the correct answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 408 QUESTION 267: A Certkiller .com admin worker is complaining that her IBM system has a continuous beep. You need to go and fix the system. What should you take with you? A. A multi tester B. Another monitor C. New sound drivers D. Nothing Answer: D Explanation: This means that the power supply is bad. It can be that the mother board is not plugged in correctly or the keyboard is stuck. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: You do not need to take a multi-tester since a long continuous beep indicates a power supply that is bad due to a possible keyboard that might be stuck, or a motherboard that Is not plugged in. B: The monitor does not make a long continuous beep. C: Faulty sound drives do not make a continuous beep. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 400 QUESTION 268: A Certkiller .com customer worked at home and took a floppy to save her work. The next day at work her PC cannot read the floppy. What could be the cause of this problem? A. The mechanical arm in the floppy drive is out of position. B. Floppy drive cable connection is bad of her PC at work. C. Replace the bad data cable of her PC at home. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: One of the most common problems that develop with floppy drives is misaligned read/write heads. The symptoms are fairly easy to recognize-you can read and write to a floppy on one machine but not on any others. This is usually caused by the mechanical arm in the floppy drive becoming misaligned so that the format it creates is not properly positioned on the disk Incorrect Answers: B: The floppy drive and disk as well as cable worked at her house thus it is not a case of a bad drive cable. C: The cable is not the problem rather it is the mechanical arm of the floppy drive that needs to be shifted into the proper position. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 409 QUESTION 269: What is the function of the ATS6-x command? A. Waits x rings before answering a call. B. Answers an incoming call manually. C. Waits x seconds for a dial tone before dialing. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: The ATS6-x command instructs the modem to wait x amount of seconds for a dial tone before dialing. Incorrect Answers: A: The ATS0-x command waits x rings before answering a call. B: The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 404-405 QUESTION 270: Any POST error codes of the IBM system that starts with the number 1XX, indicates what kind of error? A. Keyboard error. B. Memory test failure. C. A system board problem D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Any number starting with 1XX usually indicates a system board problem. Incorrect Answers: A: If the keyboard is malfunctioning, the error message will with the number 3XX. B: A memory related problem is indicated, starting with the number 2XX. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 400-401. QUESTION 271: A Certkiller .com client is reporting that her screen show a 161 error message. What does this message mean? A. Memory test failure. B. CMOS battery failure. C. Keyboard error. D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: A CMOS battery failure is indicated by a 161 error code. Incorrect Answers: A: A memory test failure is indicated by a 201 error code. C: A keyboard error failure is indicated by a 3XX error code. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401. QUESTION 272: What does the 164 error message indicate? A. CMOS battery failure. B. Memory size error. C. Keyboard error. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: It always happens after memory has been added. Running the BIOS setup program will allow the system to recognize the memory and the error should go away. Incorrect Answers: A: The screen shows a 161 error message. C: The screen shows an error code that starts with the number 3XX. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401. QUESTION 273: When a Certkiller .com client starts her system it shows a 201 error message. What does this indicate? A. Memory test failed. B. Memory size error. C. Keyboard error. D. None of the above Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: One or more portions of RAM were found to be bad. Any numbers following this error code may indicate which RAM chip is bad. Incorrect Option B: This is shown with a 164 error message. C: The screen shows an error code that starts with the number 3XX. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 274: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. A 161 error indicates a memory size error. B. A 161 error indicates a CMOS battery failure. C. A 161 error indicates a memory test failed. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: A 161 error code does indeed indicate a CMOS battery failure. Incorrect Answers: A: A memory size error is indicated with a 164 error code. C: A memory test failed is indicated with a 201 error code. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 275: A Certkiller .com customer is reporting that the screen shows a 301 error. What does this error indicate? A. Memory test failed. B. Memory size error. C. Keyboard error. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 It indicates a keyboard error. It usually means a missing or malfunctioning keyboard or a key has been pressed too long during startup Incorrect Answers: A: A memory test failed is indicated with a 201 error code. B: A memory size error is indicated with a 164 error code. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 276: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what could be the problem if the Certkiller .com system indicates a 4XX error code. How will you reply? A. CMOS battery failure B. Monochrome video problems C. Memory size error D. Keyboard error E. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Monochrome video problems are indicated by a 4XX error code. Incorrect Answers: A: CMOS battery failure is indicated with a 161 error code C: A memory size error is indicated with a 164 error code. D: A keyboard error is indicated with a 301 error code E: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 277: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what could be the problem if the Certkiller .com system indicates a 5XX error code. How will you reply? A. CMOS battery failure B. Monochrome video problems C. Color video problems. D. Memory size error E. None of the above Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: Color video problems are indicated with a 5XX error code. Incorrect Answers: A: CMOS battery failure is indicated with a 161 error code. B: A monochrome video problem is indicated with an error code starting with 4XX. D: A memory size error is indicated with a 164 error code. E: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401. QUESTION 278: Which of the following statements are FALSE? A. CMOS battery failure is indicated with 161 error code B. A monochrome video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. C. A color video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. D. Memory size error is indicated with 164 error code Answer: B Explanation: A monochrome video problem is indicated with 4XX error code and not a 5XX error code. Incorrect Answers: A: CMOS battery failure is indeed indicated with a 161 error code. C: A color video problem is indeed indicated with a 5XXX error code. D: A memory size error is indeed indicated with a 164 error code. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p.401 QUESTION 279: Upon start-up the Certkiller .com IBM system indicates a 601 error. What could be the problem on the system? A. Monochrome video problems B. Floppy disk error. C. Color video problems. D. None of the above Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: Either the floppy adapter or the floppy drive failed. Check to see that the floppy cable isn't on upside down and that the power to the floppy drive(s) is hooked up correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: A monochrome video problem is indicated with an error code starting with 4XX. C: A color video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 280: After switching on the IBM system, it generates a 17XX error code. What does this indicate? A. Monochrome video problems B. Floppy disk error C. Hard disk problems D. Color video problems Answer: C Explanation: 17XX indicates a hard disk problem. The hard disk geometry might not be set correctly or the disk adapter can't communicate with the hard disk. Incorrect Answers: A: A monochrome video problem is indicated with an error code starting with 4XX. B: A floppy disk problem is indicated with an error code starting with 601. D: A color video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 281: A Certkiller .com client starts up her IBM system, it indicates a 1780 error. What could be the problem? A. Monochrome video problems B. Drive 0 (C:) drive failure C. Color video problems D. None of the above Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The C: drive or controller isn't functioning. The disk might not be configured or the adapter isn't installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: A monochrome video problem is indicated with an error code starting with 4XX. C: A color video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. D: This is incorrect since the symptoms described are indicative of a C: drive failure which is suggested by option B. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 282: A Certkiller .com client starts up his IBM system, it indicates a 1781 error. What could be the problem? A. Color video problems B. Drive 0 (C:) drive failure C. Drive 1 (D:) drive failure. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Drive 1 (D:) drive failure. The D: drive or controller isn't functioning. The disk might not be configured or the adapter isn't installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: A color video problem is indicated with 5XX error code. B: The C: drive or controller isn't functioning indicated a 1780 error code. D: This is incorrect since the symptoms is indicative of a Drive1 (D:) failure which is suggested by option C. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 401 QUESTION 283: You set the clock of the system. When you reboot the system, the clock needs to be reset again. What could this indicate? A. The CMOS battery is flat B. Drive 0 (C:) drive failure C. Drive 1 (D:) drive failure. D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A Explanation: As soon as you turn off the computer and turn it back on, the time has been lost. These symptoms indicate that the system's CMOS is losing the time, date, andhard disk settings. The CMOS is able tokeep this information when the system is shut off because there is a small battery powering this memory. Because it is a battery, it will eventually lose power and go dead. Incorrect Answers: B: A Drive 0 (C:) failure means that the C: drive or controller isn't functioning. C: A Drive 1 (D:) failure means that the D: drive or controller isn't functioning. D: This is incorrect since the symptoms indicate a CMOS battery that is flat. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 402. QUESTION 284: Which of the following causes a non-functioning drive? (Choose two) A. The CMOS battery is flat B. A configuration problem C. A bad disk adapter D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: A bad or mis-configured disk adapter can result in a non-functioning drive. Incorrect Answers: A: A flat CMOS battery manifests itself in loss of clock-time upon startup, not non-functioning drives. D: This is incorrect since a bad disk adapter and even a configuration problem can result in a non-functioning drive. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 402. QUESTION 285: Which of the following can cause hard disk system problems? (Choose all that apply) A. Monochrome video problems B. Floppy disk error C. A bad disk CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Color video problems E. A bad adapter Answer: C, E Explanation: Hard disk system problems usually stem from one of three causes which is a adapter; a bad disk or the adapter and disk are connected incorrectly. Incorrect Answers: A & D: Video problems do not translate into hard disk problems. B: Floppy disk errors do not cause hard disk problems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 402 & 403. QUESTION 286: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to troubleshoot a modem that cannot dial. What could the problem be? A. A bad disk B. The IRQ setting is correct C. The modem is wrongly configured D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: If the modem won't dial, first check that it has been configured correctly, including its IRQ setting Incorrect Answers: A: A bad disk does not result in a non-dialing modem. B: If the IRQ setting is correct then one should check the configuration of the modem. D: This is irrelevant since the modem will not dial due to the wrong configuration as suggested by option C. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 407. QUESTION 287: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. A bad disk will cause the modem to malfunction. B. You do not need IRQ setting for a modem. C. The modem use the Hayes-compatible" command set D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: Other modem manufacturers began using the "Hayes-compatible" command set. This set of modem initialization commands became known as the "Hayes command set." Incorrect Answers: A: Bad disks to not result in modem malfunctioning. B: An IRQ setting is required to set up a modem. D: This is incorrect since option C represents a true statement. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 407 QUESTION 288: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. If the modem is wrongly configured it will not dial B. The modem also needs the correct initialization commands C. You do not need IRQ setting for a modem. D. The modem uses the Hayes-compatible" command set Answer: C Explanation: If the modem won't dial, first check that it has been configured correctly, including its IRQ setting. Incorrect Answers: A: This is in fact true since the modem will not dial is wrongly configured. B: You do need the correct initialization commands for the modem to function. D: The modem does make use of the Hayes-compatible command-set. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 407. QUESTION 289: What is the function of the AT command? A. Answers an incoming call manually. B. Dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. C. Tells the modem that what follows the letters "AT" is a command that should be interpreted. D. Tells modem to hang up immediately. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: The AT commands instructs the modem as to what follows the letters AT as the command and how it should be interpreted. Incorrect Answers: A: ATA command answers an incoming call manually. B: The ATDT xxxxxxx command dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. D: The ATH0 command tells modem to hang up immediately. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 406. QUESTION 290: You are the Certkiller .com technician charged with setting up the modem. Which command is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for tone dialing? A. ATDT xxxxxxx B. AT C. ATDP xxxxxxx D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The ATDT xxxxxxx command dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number Incorrect Answers: B: It tells the modem that what follows the letters "AT" is a command that should be interpreted. C: The ATDP xxxxxxx command is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary dialing. D: This is incorrect as the ATDT xxxxxxx is used to dial the number of another modem in case of the phone line being set up for tone dialing. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405. QUESTION 291: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the function of the ATDP xxxxxxx command is. How will you reply? A. Answers an incoming call manually B. It is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 dialing. C. It tells modem to hang up immediately D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The ADTDP xxxxxxx command is used to dial the number of another modem when the phone line is set to rotary dialing. Incorrect Answers: A: The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. C: The ATH0 command tells modem to hang up immediately. D: This is incorrect since option B is the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405. QUESTION 292: What is the function of the ATH0 command with regard to the modem? A. Answers an incoming call manually B. It is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary dialing. C. It tells modem to hang up immediately D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The ATH0 command instructs the modem to hang up immediately. Incorrect Answers: A: The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. B: ATDP xxxxxxx command is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary dialing. D: This is incorrect since option C is the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 406. QUESTION 293: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which command is used to reset the modem to factory default settings. How will you reply? A. ATDT xxxxxxx CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. AT&F C. ATDP xxxxxxx D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: This setting works as the initialization string when others don't. If you have problems with modems hanging up in the middle of a session, or failing to establish connections, use this string by itself to initialize the modem. Incorrect Answers: A: The ATDT xxxxxxx command dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. C: ATDP xxxxxxx command is used to dial the number of another modem if the phone line is set up for rotary dialing. D: This is incorrect since option B is the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405. QUESTION 294: What is the function of the ATZ command? A. It resets the modem to power-up defaults B. It answers an incoming call manually C. It tells modem to hang up immediately D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The ATZ command resets the modem to power-up defaults. Incorrect Answers: B: The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. C: The ATH0 command tells modem to hang up immediately. D: This is incorrect because option A represents the ATZ command function. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405. QUESTION 295: What is the function of the ATS0-x command? A. Waits x rings before answering a call. B. Answers an incoming call manually. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. Dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. D. Tells modem to hang up immediately. Answer: A Explanation: The ATS0-n command function is to waits n rings before answering a call. Incorrect Answers: B: The ATA command answers an incoming call manually. C: The ATDT xxxxxxx command dials the number xxxxxxx as a tone-dialed number. D: The ATH0 command tells modem to hang up immediately. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 405. QUESTION 296: Which of the following questions would you ask Certkiller .com clients when troubleshooting their systems? (Choose all that apply) A. Can you show me the problem? B. How much did your computer cost? C. Has any new software been installed recently? D. Where did you buy your computer? E. Have any other changes been made to the computer recently? Answer: A, C, E Explanation: A: It allows the user to show you exactly where and when they experience the problem. C: New software can mean incompatibility problems with existing problems. This is especially true for Windows programs. A new Windows program can overwrite a required DLL file with a newer version of the same name, which an older program may not find useful. E: If the answer is "Yes," ask if they can remember approximately when the change was made. Then ask them approximately when the problem started. If the two dates seem related, there's a good chance that the problem is related to the change. Incorrect Answers: B: The price of the computer is irrelevant. D: The place of purchase is irrelevant. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 427 QUESTION 297: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A Certkiller .com customer called in on the help-line to report a non-functioning PC. What question s will you ask the customer? A. Is the system ready? B. Is it turned on? C. Where did you buy your computer? D. Is it plugged in? E. Have any other changes been made to the computer recently? Answer: A, B, D Explanation: A: Computers must be ready before they can be used. "Ready" means that the system is ready to accept commands from the user. An indication that a computer is ready is when the operating system screens come up and the computer presents you with a menu or a command prompt. If that computer uses a graphical interface, the computer is ready when the mouse pointer appears. Printers are ready when the "On Line" or "Ready" light on the front panel is lit. B: Computers and their peripherals must be turned on in order to function. Most have power switches that have LEDs that glow when the power is turned on. D: Cables must be plugged in on both ends in order to function correctly. Cables can be easily tripped over and inadvertently pulled from their sockets. Incorrect Answers: C: The place of purchase is irrelevant. E: This question should rather be asked when defining the problem Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 427-428 QUESTION 298: What is the best course of action to take when a Certkiller .com user encounters a problem with one of the application files on a DOS/Windows computer? A. Boot the system clean. B. Reinstall the application over the existing one. C. Uninstall and then reinstall the application that's having problems. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: This ensures that you have the correct version of all the application's components and that there are no missing files that may be required by the application. Incorrect Answers: A: Clean booting a system will not address the problem. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: Reinstalling the application is not going to solve the application files problem that the user is experiencing. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 429 QUESTION 299: A user reports that his Windows computer is having software-related problems. Where would the user locate the problem? A. In the CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT. B. Check if the hardware device is plucked in properly. C. System resources D. You must check the EMM386.EXE Answer: C Explanation: There are three primary areas you can check for finding troubleshooting information in Windows. One of these areas is the system resources. Incorrect Answers: A: The two DOS configuration files are AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS which are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. B: This has nothing to do with the problem. D: The EMM386.EXE is a memory driver. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 430 QUESTION 300: A Certkiller .com client has an IBM system. She phone to report that the system is dead and there is no beep. What will you advise her to do? A. Open the casing and see if there are any loose wires. B. Replace the monitor. C.There is no power;the system is not plugged in. D. Bring the system in for a service. Answer: C Explanation: A dead system indicates that there is no power connected to the system. Thus it is obvious that the system is not plugged in. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: There is no need to open the casing to check for loose wires since the client reported a dead system B: It is the system that is dead and not the monitor. D: A dead system with no beep indicates a lack of power, it is thus not necessary to bring in a system for a service. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 427 QUESTION 301: One of the Certkiller .com systems in your office worked fine the day before, now you have a problem that there is one short beep and nothing on the screen. What could be the problem? A. Check any loose wires. B. Replace the monitor. C. There is a Video card failure D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: A video card failure is indicated by one short beep, nothing on screen. Incorrect Answers: A: Loose wiring is not indicated by one short beep and nothing on the screen. B: A faulty monitor is not indicated by one short beep and nothing on the screen. It is the video card that failed. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 400 QUESTION 302: One of the Certkiller .com systems has a blank monitor and the fan on the power supply is not working. What is the cause of this problem? A. The BIOS on the motherboard needs to be upgraded. B. The monitor is malfunctioning. C. The computer is unplugged. D. The power supply is bad. E. None of the above Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The first thing to check is the plug because nothing is going on with the system. You can only ascertain if something is faulty with the system once it is plugged in and switched on. Incorrect Answers: A: You first need to switch the system on to se whether it is indeed the motherboard that needs upgrading. B: Since the fan on the power supply is not working, you can know for sure that the system is not plugged in. D: It is not a case of the power supply that is bad, there is absolutely no power since the fan does not even work. E: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 426 QUESTION 303: What visual components does the high-voltage probe have? A. Two electrical wires with a gauge. B. A needle with a gauge. C. A very large needle, a gauge, and a wire with an alligator clip. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: This probe has a very large needle, a gauge that indicates volts, and a wire with an alligator clip. Incorrect Answers: A: A high voltage probe does not have electrical wires with a gauge. B: A high voltage probe does not have a needle with a gauge only. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 42 QUESTION 304: The fan in the power supply stopped working but the computer is still running. How would you repair the computer? A. Replace the fan. B. Replace the power supply. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. Replace the transformer. D. Lubricate the fan with oil. Answer: B Explanation: When a power supply malfunctions it should be replaced. One should not attempt to replace parts of it, or try to repair it. Incorrect Answers: A, C & D: One should not attempt to repair or replace parts on a power supply. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 38-42. QUESTION 305: Inside which of the following components is it advisable NOT to do your own repairs? (Choose all that apply) A. Computer B. Display monitors C. Mouse D. Printers E. The power supply Answer: A, B, D, E Explanation: A: They store electrical charge after they're turned off. B: They store electrical charge after they're turned off. D: The printer runs at extremely high temperatures, and you can get burned if you try to handle them. E: They store electrical charge after they're turned off. This makes the power supply and the monitor pretty much off-limits. Incorrect Answers: C: A Mouse is not as dangerous to work with when repairing it, unlike the other components of a computer system Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 38-42. QUESTION 306: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the danger is when opening the power supply. How will you reply? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. You can break the circuit board. B. You can electrocute yourself. C. You can connect the wires wrong. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The current flowing through the power supply normally follows a Complete circuit; when your body breaks that circuit, your body becomes a part of the circuit. Incorrect Answers: A: The danger to yourself involves electrocution. C: Electrocution is a greater danger in this case. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 38-42. QUESTION 307: Besides electrocuting you, what is the other danger involved when opening the power supply? A. You can break the circuit board. B. You can burn yourself. C. You can connect the wires wrong. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The two biggest dangers with power supplies are burning you and electrocuting yourself. These usually go hand in hand. Incorrect Answers: A: The greater danger involved in this case is burning. C: Connecting the wires wrong is not as great a danger as burning and electrocuting oneself in this case. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 38-42. QUESTION 308: If you touch a bare wire that is carrying current, you may get electrocuted. Except burning, it can result in which of the following? (Choose all that apply) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. It can also cause your heart to stop. B. It can cause your muscles to seize. C. It can cause your brain to stop functioning. D. None of the above. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: A large enough current passing through the wire (and you) can cause severe burns. It can also cause your heart to stop, your muscles to seize, and your brain to stop functioning. In short, it can kill you. Incorrect Answers: D: This is incorrect since all the other options are applicable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 38-42. QUESTION 309: Which of the following should you avoid if you attempt to open the power supply? A. The capacitors. B. The circuit board. C. A bare wire that is carrying current D. None of the above. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: Power supplies contain several capacitors that can hold lethal charges long after they have been unplugged. If you touch a bare wire that is carrying current, you may get electrocuted. Incorrect Answers: D: This is incorrect since all the options are applicable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 40-41 QUESTION 310: What is the best thing to do if your power supply is not functioning? A. Send it to an electrical technician. B. Try to fix it yourself C. Replace the power supply. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: It is extremely dangerous to open the case of a power supply. Besides, power supplies are inexpensive, so it would probably cost less to replace them than to try to fix them, and it would be much safer. Incorrect Answers: A: It would be more expensive for you. B: Although it is possible to work on a power supply, it is not recommended. Power supplies contain several capacitors that can hold lethal charges long after they have been unplugged. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 40 QUESTION 311: Which of the following is used as a component in the power supply circuit to resist the flow of the electric current? A. Multi meter B. Capacitors C. Resistors D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: A component that is used in a power supply is the resistor. It resists the flow of electricity. Incorrect Answers: A: A multi meter is used to test the circuit. B: Capacitors can hold lethal charges long after they have been unplugged! D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 40 QUESTION 312: Which of the following rated fire-extinguishers should be used in case of electrical fire? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. "A-rated," extinguisher. B. "B-rated," extinguisher C. ABC-rated," extinguisher. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: If you don't have an extinguisher that is specifically rated for electrical fires, you can use an ABC-rated extinguisher Incorrect Answers: A: A for wood and paper fires B: B for flammable liquids D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 40 QUESTION 313: Which of the following fire extinguishers would you use if your computer caught fire? A. "A-rated," extinguisher. B. "B-rated," extinguisher C. "C-rated," extinguisher. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: A class "C-rated," extinguisher is used for electrical fires. Incorrect Answers: A: A for wood and paper fires B: B for flammable liquids D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 40 QUESTION 314: Which of the following will you advise the new Certkiller .com trainee technician NOT to do when repairing a printer. (Choose all the apply) A. If you examine the toner cartridge, you should shake it to hear if there is any toner CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 left. B. You should turn the toner cartridge upside down to see if there is any toner left. C. Put an object into the feeding system in an attempt to clear the path as the printer is running. D. None of the above. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: A, B: When handling a toner cartridge from a laser printer or page printer, do not shake or turn the cartridge upside down. You will find yourself spending more time cleaning the printer and the surrounding area than you would have spent to fix the printer. C: You can damage the parts of the feeding system. Incorrect Answers: D: All the options mentioned are applicable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 41 QUESTION 315: What could damage the EP cartridge? A. The toner. B. If been touch by your hand. C. The cleaning blade. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Some parts of a laser printer (like the EP cartridge) will be damaged if touched. Your skin produces oils and has a small surface layer of dead skin cells. These substances can collect on the delicate surface of the EP cartridge and cause malfunctions. Incorrect Answers: A, C: The drum contains a cleaning blade that continuously scrapes the "used" toner off the photosensitive drum to keep it clean. D: This is incorrect since option B is applicable. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 41 QUESTION 316: Except the power supply, which of the following also has a high voltage warning? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Cathode Ray Tube. B. Mouse. C. Key board. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: Other than the power supply, one of the most dangerous components to try to repair is the monitor, or Cathode Ray Tube (CRT). Incorrect Answers: B & C: Both the keyboard and mouse do not have a high voltage warning. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 42 QUESTION 317: What will you advise the Certkiller .com trainee technician to use to discharge high voltage from a Cathode Ray Tube? A. High-voltage probe. B. Multi meter. C. Capacitors. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: If you have to open a monitor, you must first discharge the high-voltage charge on it using a high-voltage probe. This probe has a very large needle, a gauge that indicates volts, and a wire with an alligator clip. Incorrect Answers: B: A multi meter is used to test the circuit. C: Capacitors are used to hold electrical charges. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 42 QUESTION 318: What is the voltage of the Cathode Ray Tube? A. 220 volts. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. 5 volts. C. 1,000 volts. D. Around 15,000 volts. Answer: D Explanation: You will see the gauge spike of the high-voltage probe will go to 15,000 volts and slowly reduce to zero. When it reaches zero, you may remove the high-voltage probe and service the high-voltage components of the monitor. Incorrect Answers: A, B & C: All these values are too low to describe the voltage that runs through a cathode ray tube. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 42 QUESTION 319: Which of the following carries hazardous chemicals and lubricants? (Choose all that apply) A. Computer B. Monitors C. Printers D. None of the above Answer: A, B, C Explanation: Monitors contain several carcinogens and phosphors, as well as mercury and lead. The computer itself may contain several lubricants and chemicals as well as lead. Printers contain plastics and chemicals like toners and inks Incorrect Answers: D: This is incorrect since all the other options represent components that have hazardous chemicals and lubricants. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 43 QUESTION 320: How will you advise the Certkiller .com trainee technician to dispose of old computer equipment? A. Check with the manufacturer. Some manufacturers will take back outdated equipment CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 for parts. B. Take to a dumping site C. Through it in the trash D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Some manufacturers will take back outdated equipment for parts and may even pay you for them. Incorrect Answers: B, C: By throwing it away is not correct because this equipment has hazardous chemicals and lubricants. D: This is incorrect since option A is correct. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 43-44. QUESTION 321: What should be done to outdated computers that are not in use? A. Break & Discard Pieces B. Disassemble the machine and reuse the "parts" that are good. C. Check with local nonprofit or education organizations interested in using the equipment. D. Through it in the trash Answer: B, C Explanation: Dissembling and reusing the usable parts as well as checking with local appropriate organizations regarding recycling is recommended practices. Incorrect Answers: A, D: By throwing it away is not correct because this equipment has hazardous chemicals and lubricants. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 43-44. QUESTION 322: What should be done to ink cartridges or printer ribbons that do not work any more? A. Give them to organizations that recycle so they can have some fresh "cores." CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Take to a dumping site. C. Through it in the trash D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: When you are through with the old cartridges, give them to organizations that recycle so they can have some fresh "cores." That way, you can safely dispose of your cartridge and benefit the environment at the same time. Incorrect Answers: B, C: Throwing it away or taking it to a dump site is not correct because this equipment has hazardous chemicals and lubricants. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 43-44. QUESTION 323: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following socket types is used by the Pentium Pro processor. How will you reply? A. Socket 2 B. Socket 8 C. Socket 6 D. Socket 7 Answer: B Explanation: The Socket 8 motherboard supported the Pentium Pro processor. Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 2 was used by 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. C: Socket 6 was used by DX4, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. D: Socket 7 was used by Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 324: Which socket type supports the 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Socket 7 B. Socket 8 C. Socket 2 D. Socket 6 Answer: C Explanation: The Socket 2 motherboard supports the 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 7 was used by Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors. B: Socket 8 was used by the Pentium Pro processor. D: Socket 6 was used by DX4, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 325: Which socket type supports the Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors? A. Socket 2 B. Socket 8 C. Socket 6 D. Socket 7 Answer: D Explanation: The Socket 7 Motherboard supports the Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors. Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 2 was used by 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. B: Socket 8 was used by the Pentium Pro processor. C: Socket 6 was used by DX4, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 326: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which socket type supports the Pentium II processor. How will you reply? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Socket 7 B. SECC (Type I) C. Socket 8 D. Socket 2 Answer: B Explanation: The SECC (Type I) motherboard supports the Pentium II processor. Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 7 was used by Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors. C: Socket 8 was used by the Pentium Pro processor. D: Socket 2 was used by 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive processors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 327: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which socket type supports the Pentium III processor. How will you reply? A. Socket 8 B. SECC (Type I) C. SECC (Type II) D. Socket 7 Answer: C Explanation: The SECC (Type II) motherboard supports the Pentium III processor Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 8 was used by the Pentium Pro processor. B: SECC (Type I) was used by the Pentium 2 motherboard. D: Socket 7 was used by Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive processors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 328: The SECC (Type II) motherboard is capable of handling which processor? A. Pentium Pro CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Pentium II C. Pentium III D. 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive Answer: C Explanation: The SECC (Type II) motherboard is capable of handling the Pentium III processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Pentium Pro is supported by the Socket 8 motherboard. B: The Pentium II is supported by the SECC (Type I) mother board. D: The 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive is supported by the Socket 2 motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 329: The SECC (Type I) motherboard is capable of handling which processor? A. Pentium III B. DX4, 486 Pentium OverDrive C. Pentium II D. Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive Answer: C Explanation: The SECC (Type I) motherboard is capable of handling the Pentium II processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Pentium III is supported by the SECC (Type II) mother board. B: The DX4, 486 Pentium OverDrive is supported by the Socket 6 motherboard. D: The Pentium 75-200, Pentium 75+ OverDrive is supported by the Socket 7 motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 100 QUESTION 330: Which of the following Intel Processors ran at a speed of 8 to 12 MHz? A. 486DX B. 386DX C. 80286 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 486DX2 Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 80286 chipset ran at 8 to 12 MHz speed. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel 486DX chipset ran at 25 to 50 MHz speed. B: The Intel 386DX chipset ran at 16 to 33 MHz speed. D: The Intel 486DX2 chipset ran at 33 to 66 MHz speed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 QUESTION 331: Which of the following Intel Processors ran at a speed of 33 to 66 MHz? A. 80286 B. 486DX C. 386DX D. 486DX2 Answer: D Explanation: The Intel 486DX2 chipset ran at a speed of 33 to 66 MHz. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel 80286DX chipset ran at 8 to 12 MHz speed B: The Intel 486DX chipset ran at 25 to 50 MHz speed C: The Intel 386DX chipset ran at 16 to 33 MHz speed References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 QUESTION 332: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how many transistors are housed by the Intel Pentium II processor. How will you reply? A. 3.3 million B. 1.2 million C. 134,000 D. 7.5 million Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The Intel Pentium II processor houses 7.5 million transistors. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium processor houses 3.3 million transistors. B: The Intel 487SX processor is houses 1.2 million transistors. C: The Intel 80286 processor houses 134,000 transistors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 QUESTION 333: Which of the following Intel chipsets was the first to use PGA? A. 486SX B. 80286 C. Pentium D. Celeron Answer: B Explanation: The Intel 80286 chipset was the first build with PGA. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel 486SX came standard build with Math coprocessor disabled. C: The Intel Pentium came standard build with Superscalar. D: The Intel Celeron came standard build with "Value" version of Pentium II. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 QUESTION 334: Which of the following Intel chipsets is the Multiprocessor version of the Pentium III? A. Pentium III B. Pentium II Xeon C. Pentium II D. Pentium III Xeon Answer: D Explanation: The Intel Pentium III Xeon chipset is the multiprocessor version of the Pentium III. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium III chipset is not the multiprocessor version of the Pentium III. B: The Intel Pentium II Xeon chipset is the chipset that is the Multiprocessor version of Pentium II. C: The Intel Pentium II chipset is the chipset with 32KB of level 1 cache, dynamic execution, and MMX technology. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 114 QUESTION 335: Which of the following Intel processors has only 273 pins? A. Pentium-P55C B. Pentium Pro C. Pentium-P5 D. Pentium-P54C Answer: C Explanation: The Intel Pentium-P5 processor has 273 pins. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium-P55c processor has 320 or 321 pins. B: The Intel Pentium Pro processor has 387 pins. D: The Intel Pentium-P54C processor has 321 pins. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 114 QUESTION 336: How many pins are there on the Intel Pentium Pro processor? A. 320 or 321 B. 321 C. 387 D. 273 Answer: C Explanation: The Intel Pentium Pro processor has 387 pins on it. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium-P54C processor has 320 or 321 pins. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: The Intel Pentium-P55C processor has 321 pins. D: The Intel Pentium-P5 processor has 273 pins. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 114 QUESTION 337: Under which socket class does the Intel Pentium-P5 processor fall? A. 5 or 7 B. SECCII C. 4 D. 8 Answer: C Explanation: The Intel Pentium-P5 processor is a socket 4 class processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium-P54C processor is a socket 5 or 7 class processor. B: The Intel Pentium III processor is a socket SECCII class processor. D: The Intel Pentium Pro processor is a socket 8 class processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 114 QUESTION 338: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know at which voltage the Intel Pentium-P5 processor operates. How will you reply? A. 3.4V B. 2.5V C. 3.3V D. 5V Answer: D Explanation: The Intel Pentium-P5 processor operated at 5V of power. Incorrect Answers: A: There are no CPU's that operate at 3.4V of power. B: The Intel Pentium Pro processor operated at 2.5V of power. C: The Intel Pentium-P54C, Pentium-P55C, Pentium II and Pentium III operated at 3.3V of power. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 114 QUESTION 339: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following chipset is a socket 7 class processor. How will you reply? A. K5 PR133 B. K5 PR100 C. K6-166 D. Am486DX4-120 Answer: C Explanation: The AMD K6-166 processor is a socket 7 class processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The AMD K5 PR133 processor is a socket 5 class processor. B: The AMD K5 PR100 processor is a socket 5 class processor. D: The AMD Am486DX4-120 processor is a socket 5 class processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 115 QUESTION 340: Which of the following Intel chipsets has the math coprocessor disabled? A. Pentium-P54C B. Pentium II Xeon C. 486SX D. Pentium Pro Answer: C Explanation: The Intel 486SX chipset has the math coprocessor disabled. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium-P54C chipset does not have the math coprocessor disabled. B: The Intel Pentium II Xeon chipset does not have the math coprocessor disabled. D: The Intel Pentium Pro chipset does not have the math coprocessor disabled. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 341: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which Cyrix processor runs at a clock speed of 188 MHz. How will you reply? A. 6x86MX-PR200 B. 6x86MX-PR166 C. 6x86MX-PR233 D. 6x86-PR200 Answer: C Explanation: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 processor from Cyrix ran at a clock speed of 188 MHz. Incorrect Answers: A: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR200 processor from Cyrix ran at 166 MHz. B: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR166 processor from Cyrix ran at 150 MHz. D: The Cyrix 6x86-PR200 processor from Cyrix ran at 150 MHz. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 116 QUESTION 342: What socket type processor is the Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 processor? A. Socket 8 B. Socket 2 C. SECCII D. Socket 7 Answer: D Explanation: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 processor is a socket 7 class processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium Pro is a socket 8 class processor. B: The Intel Pentium 486 SX/SX2, 486 DX/DX2, 486 DX4, OverDrive, 486 Pentium OverDrive is a socket 2 class processor. C: The Intel Pentium III is a SECCII class processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 116 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 343: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which AMD processor runs at a clock speed of 400-450 MHz. How will you reply? A. K6-233 B. K6-III C. K5 PR120 D. K6-II Answer: B Explanation: The AMD K6-III processor from AMD runs at a clock speed of 400-450 MHz. Incorrect Answers: A: The AMD K6-233 processor runs at a clock speed of 233 MHz. C: The AMD K5 PR120 processor runs at a clock speed of 90 MHz. D: The AMD K6-II processor runs at a clock speed of 500-550 MHz. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 115 QUESTION 344: Which of the following Cyrix processors is the equivalent of an Intel Pentium II processor? A. 6x86-PR166 B. 6x86-PR133 C. 6x86MX-PR233 D. 6x86-PR150 Answer: C Explanation: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 processor is the equivalent of an Intel Pentium II processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Cyrix 6x86-PR166 processor is the equivalent of an Intel Pentium processor. B: The Cyrix 6x86-PR133 processor is the equivalent of an Intel Pentium processor. D: The Cyrix 6x86-PR150 processor is the equivalent of an Intel Pentium processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 115 QUESTION 345: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which AMD processor is considered the equivalent of an Intel Pentium II processor? (Choose two) A. K5 PR166 B. K6-200 C. Am5x86 D. K6-III Answer: B, D Explanation: The AMD K6-200 and AMD K6-III processors are considered to be the equivalent of an Intel Pentium II processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The AMD K5 PR166 processor is the equivalent of a Intel Pentium processor. C: The AMD Am5x86 processor is the equivalent of a Intel Pentium Over-drive processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 115 QUESTION 346: Which of the AMD chipsets is the equivalent of a Citrix 6x86MX-PR200 chipset? A. K6-166 B. K6-III C. K6-200 D. K5 PR166 Answer: A Explanation: The AMD K6-166 and the Citrix 6x86MX-PR200 both run at a clock speed of 166 MHz. Incorrect Answers: B: The AMD K6-III chipset runs at a clock speed of 400-450 MHz. C: The AMD K6-200 chipset runs at a clock speed of 200 MHz. D: The AMD K5 PR166 chipset runs at a clock speed of 116.66 MHz. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 115 QUESTION 347: What is the socket type of the Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 chipset? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Socket 4 B. Socket 5 C. Socket 8 D. Socket 7 Answer: D Explanation: The Cyrix 6x86MX-PR233 chipset is a socket 7 class processor. Incorrect Answers: A: The Intel Pentium 60/66, Pentium 60/66, OverDrive chipset is a socket 4 class processor. B: The Intel Pentium 75-133, Pentium 75+ OverDrive chipset is a socket 5 class processor. C: The Intel Pentium Pro chipset is a socket 8 class processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 116 QUESTION 348: Which of the following modules can be associated with Read-Only Memory? A. DRAM B. Synchronous DRAM C. BIOS D. Double Data Rate SDRAM Answer: C Explanation: The function of Read-only memory (ROM) is storing information permanently for easy and quick retrieval. Incorrect Answers: A: This ram type can be used to store changing information whereas the ROM modules can only be read from. B: This ram type can be used to store changing information whereas the ROM modules can only be read from. D: This ram type can be used to store changing information whereas the ROM modules can only be read from. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 149 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 349: At which block number in the MS-DOS Memory Map will you find the Hex Range of 50000 to 5FFFF? A. 9 B. 12 C. 6 D. 3 Answer: C Explanation: The first 1024 KB of the memory map is divided up into 16 blocks of 64KB which in turn is further divided into four "pages" of 16KB each, the memory will be allocated by the processor to those applications or devices requesting it. Incorrect Answers: A: The block number 9 points to the hex range of 80000-8FFFF. B: The block number 12 points to the hex range of B0000-BFFFF. D: The block number 3 points to the hex range of 20000-2FFFF. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 157 QUESTION 350: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know in which byte range the block number 6 of the MS DOS memory map is. How will you reply? A. 320 to 383KB B. 576 to 639KB C. 960 to 1024KB D. 64 to 127KB Answer: A Explanation: The first 1024 KB of the memory map is divided up into 16 blocks of 64KB which in turn is further divided into four "pages" of 16KB each, the memory will be allocated by the processor to those applications or devices requesting it. Incorrect Answer: B: The byte range of 576 to 639KB points to block number 10. C: The byte range of 960 to 1024KB points to block number 16 D: The byte range of 64 to 127KB points to block number 2 References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 157 QUESTION 351: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the byte range and hex range of the block number 13 of the MS DOS memory map is. How will you reply? A. 768 to 831KB and C0000 to CFFFF B. 576 to 639KB and 90000 to 9FFFF C. 320 to 383KB and 50000 to 5FFFF D. 448 to 511KB and 70000 to 7FFFF Answer: A Explanation: The first 1024 KB of the memory map is divided up into 16 blocks of 64KB which in turn is further divided into four "pages" of 16KB each, the memory will be allocated by the processor to those applications or devices requesting it. Incorrect Answers: B: The byte range of 576 to 639 and hex range of 90000 to 9FFFF is block number 10. C: The byte range of 320 to 383 and hex range of 50000 to 5FFFF is block number 6. D: The byte range of 448 to 511 and hex range of 70000 to 7FFFF is block number 8. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 157 QUESTION 352: What is the hex range of the block number 12 with a byte range of 704 to 767KB? A. E0000 to EFFFF B. 50000 to 5FFFF C. B0000 to BFFFF D. 60000 to 6FFFF Answer: C Explanation: The first 1024 KB of the memory map is divided up into 16 blocks of 64KB which in turn is further divided into four "pages" of 16KB each, the memory will be allocated by the processor to those applications or devices requesting it. Incorrect Answers: A: The hex range of E0000 to EFFFF is block number 15. B: The hex range of 50000 to 5FFFF is block number 6. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: The hex range of 60000 to 6FFFF is block number 7. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 157 QUESTION 353: What may be mapped at address range D0000 to FFFFF (192KB)? A. Video RAM B. System ROMs C. Adapter ROMs D. Video adapter Answer: C Explanation: At the address range of D0000 to FFFFF (192KB) is where adapter ROMs may be mapped. Incorrect Answer: A: Video RAM is mapped at address range A0000 to BFFFF (128KB) depending on the type of video card. B: The System ROMs is mapped at address range E0000 to FFFFF (128K) and BIOS and BIOS "echo" may be mapped here. D: The Video adapter is the physical media itself. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 160 QUESTION 354: What video card is using the Video Card Memory Addresses of the Memory Address Range B0000 to B1000 (4KB)? A. Color Graphics Adapter (CGA) B. Enhanced Graphics Adapter (EGA) C. Monochrome Display Adapter (MDA) D. Video Graphics Adapter (VGA) Answer: C Explanation: The Monochrome Display Adapter (MDA) makes use of the memory address range of B0000 to B1000 (4KB). Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The memory address range of the Color Graphics Adapter (CGA) is B8000 to BC000 (16KB). B: The memory address range of the Enhanced Graphics Adapter (EGA) is A0000 to BFFFF (128KB). D: The memory address range of the Video Graphics Adapter (VGA) is A0000 to BFFFF (128KB). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 161 QUESTION 355: Which of the following mem.exe switches is used to display the amount of free memory? A. /C B. /P C. /F D. /D Answer: C Explanation: The mem.exe /F command is used to display the amount of free memory available. Incorrect Answers: A: The mem.exe /C command is the classify switch. B: The mem.exe /P command is used to pause the proceedings. D: The mem.exe /D command is used for debugging. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 168 QUESTION 356: Which of the mem.exe switches can be used to pause the proceedings? A. /D B. /F C. /C D. /P Answer: D Explanation: The mem.exe /P command can be used to pause the amount of pages displayed on a single page. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: The mem.exe /D command is used for debugging. B: The mem.exe /F command is used to display the amount of free memory available. C: The mem.exe /C command is the classify switch. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 168 QUESTION 357: Which of the mem.exe command switches can be used when debugging? A. /P B. /D C. /C D. /F Answer: B Explanation: The mem.exe /D command is used when debugging the first 640KB of memory (conventional memory) in detail. Incorrect Answers: A: The mem.exe /P command can be used to pause the amount of pages displayed on a single page. C: The mem.exe /C command is the classify switch. D: The mem.exe /F command is used to display the amount of free memory available. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 168 QUESTION 358: Which of the following mem.exe command switches can be used to classify? A. /D B. /P C. /C D. /F Answer: C Explanation: The mem.exe /C command is the command line switch used to classify. Incorrect Answers: A: The mem.exe /D command is used when debugging the first 640KB of memory CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 (conventional memory) in detail. B: The mem.exe /P command can be used to pause the amount of pages displayed on a single page. D: The mem.exe /F command is used to display the amount of free memory available. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 168 QUESTION 359: Which of the following mem.exe command line switches can be used to show the starting addresses of the data, program, and free memory allocated to the specified module? A. /F B. /P C. /D D. /M Answer: D Explanation: The mem.exe /m <module> switch can be used to shows the starting addresses of the data, program, and free memory allocated to the specified module. Incorrect Answers: A: The mem.exe /F command is used to display the amount of free memory available. B: The mem.exe /P command can be used to pause the amount of pages displayed on a single page. C: The mem.exe /D command is used when debugging the first 640KB of memory (conventional memory) in detail. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 168 QUESTION 360: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how many pins there are on the Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) RAMS. How will you reply? (Choose two)? A. 30 B. 168 C. 72 D. 128 Answer: A, C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) RAMs which are available are produced with 30 pin and 72 pin modules. Incorrect Answers: B: The DIMM Ram was produced with a 168 pin module. D: There is no known RAM produced with a 128 pin module. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 153 QUESTION 361: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how many pins there are on the DIMM (Dual Inline Memory Module) RAM. How will you reply? (Choose two)? A. 128 B. 72 C. 30 D. 168 Answer: B, D Explanation: The Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM) RAMs which are available are produced with 72 pin and 168 pin modules. Incorrect Answers: A: There is no known RAM produced with a 128 pin module. C: The Single Inline Memory Module (SIMM) RAM was produced with 30 pins. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 153 QUESTION 362: Which of the following RAM is used to store image data for processing? A. Windows RAM (WRAM) B. Portable Memory C. Video RAM D. Cache Memory Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Video memory which is also called video RAM or VRAM can be used to store image data for processing by video adapters. Incorrect Answers: A: This Windows RAM (WRAM) was produced by Samsung as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards and is similar to video RAM, except that it's much faster. B: The memory styles for portable computers memory styles are many and varied with each portable computer manufacturer with their own specification for portable memory. D: Some computer systems have a small amount of very fast SRAM memory, called cache memory between the processor and main memory used to store the most frequently accessed information. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 154 QUESTION 363: Which of the following RAM types is used as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards? A. Portable Memory B. Video RAM C. Windows RAM (WRAM) D. Cache Memory Answer: C Explanation: This Windows RAM (WRAM) was produced by Samsung as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards and is similar to video RAM, except that it's much faster. Incorrect Answers: A: The memory styles for portable computers memory styles are many and varied with each portable computer manufacturer with their own specification for portable memory. B: Video memory which is also called video RAM or VRAM can be used to store image data for processing by video adapters. D: Some computer systems have a small amount of very fast SRAM memory, called cache memory between the processor and main memory used to store the most frequently accessed information. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 154 QUESTION 364: Which of the RAM types are varied and come in different styles and specifications? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Portable Memory B. Windows RAM (WRAM) C. Cache Memory D. Video RAM Answer: A Explanation: The memory styles for portable computers memory styles are many and varied with each portable computer manufacturer with their own specification for portable memory. Incorrect Answers: B: This Windows RAM (WRAM) was produced by Samsung as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards and is similar to video RAM, except that it's much faster. C: Some computer systems have a small amount of very fast SRAM memory, called cache memory between the processor and main memory used to store the most frequently accessed information. D: Video memory which is also called video RAM or VRAM can be used to store image data for processing by video adapters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 154 QUESTION 365: Which of the following RAM types are located between the processor and the main RAM and is used to store the most frequently accessed information? A. Video RAM B. Cache Memory C. Portable Memory D. Windows RAM (WRAM) Answer: B Explanation: Some computer systems have a small amount of very fast SRAM memory, called cache memory between the processor and main memory used to store the most frequently accessed information. Incorrect Answers: A: Video memory which is also called video RAM or VRAM can be used to store image data for processing by video adapters. C: The memory styles for portable computers memory styles are many and varied with each portable computer manufacturer with their own specification for portable memory. D: This Windows RAM (WRAM) was produced by Samsung as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards and is similar to video RAM, except that it's much faster. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 154 QUESTION 366: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following RAM types are known as volatile RAM. How will you reply? A. Magnetic disks B. Memory cards C. ROM BIOS D. Rambus DRAM - main memory Answer: D Explanation: The term volatile RAM means that information "flies away" when no electricity is present to keep it in place. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: Compact memory cards, smart memory cards, and memory sticks used in digital photography are examples of nonvolatile memory but requires small amount of current to change information. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 99 QUESTION 367: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following is known as permanent storage but also requires some electrical current. How will you reply? A. Rambus DRAM - main memory B. Magnetic disks C. Memory cards D. ROM BIOS Answer: B Explanation: Fixed disks, optical disks, and card media are known as nonvolatile but are capable of retaining information without electrical current and is referred to as permanent storage, not "memory." Incorrect: Answers: A, C, D: Compact memory cards, smart memory cards, and memory sticks used in digital photography are examples of nonvolatile memory. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 99 QUESTION 368: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which non-volatile memory type can be updated when required by the computer. How will you reply? A. RAM B. Flash ROM C. Double Data Rate SDRAM - main memory D. Static RAM Answer: B Explanation: The Flash ROM is nonvolatile memory that occasionally can be changed, such as when a BIOS chip must be updated or an update is required to read larger disk drives. Incorrect Answers: A: The RAM starts out empty and information is written on it, read from it, and maybe even erased from the RAM. C, D: When you turn off the power to a computer the RAM will no longer have the necessary electrical current to sustain the data in its memory cells. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 101 QUESTION 369: Which of the following can be erased by an electrical charge and written to by using higher-than-normal voltage? A. PROM B. EPROM C. EEPROM D. CMOS Answer: C Explanation: The Electrically erasable programmable ROM (EEPROM) can be erased by an electrical charge and written to using higher-than-normal voltage. EEPROM can be erased one byte at a time rather than erasing the entire chip with UV light. Incorrect Answers: A: The PROM Requires a special type of machine called a PROM programmer or PROM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 burner (like a CD burner) and can be changed only one time. B: The EPROM uses the PROM burner, but can be erased by shining ultraviolet (UV) light through a window in the top of the chip. D: The CMOS is used to store the settings of the available devices in the BIOS. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 105 QUESTION 370: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know in which mode Dynamic RAM originally came in. How will you reply? A. Fast Page Mode B. Extended Data Out C. Synchronous DRAM D. Direct Rambus Answer: A Explanation: The Fast Page Mode (FPM) DRAM chips, at the time of the 486/Pentium transition was the most common type of DRAM. Incorrect Answer: B: The EDO DIMM RAM first became popular in 1995 and increased the performance by 10 to 15 percent. C: The SDRAM was produced the fourth quarter of 1996 to match the speed of Pentium systems. D: The Direct Rambus (RIMM) is a relatively new and runs extremely fast with speeds (up to 800MHz) technology that uses a new methodology in memory system design. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 148 QUESTION 371: Which of the RAM types can currently reach speeds of 667 MHz and is being evolved further for running speeds of 800 MHz? A. Direct Rambus B. DDR-II C. Synchronous DRAM D. Extended Data Out Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The DDR-II was developed to extend the original DDR concept, taking on some of the advantages developed by Rambus. Incorrect Answers: A: The Direct Rambus ran at speeds of 800MHz. C: The SDRAM ran at speeds of 66MHz and 133MHz. D: The EDO DIMM ran at speeds 10 to 15 percent faster that the Fast Page Mode RAM. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 130 QUESTION 372: What is the RAM speed of the RAM project code named "yellow stone" and has a throughput of 12.4GB/s? A. 667MHz B. 800MHz C. 3.2GHz D. 330MHz Answer: C Explanation: The speed of the RAM of the project codenamed "yellow stone" is 3.2GHz. Incorrect Answer: A, B: The first type of DDR-II RAM ran at clock speeds of 800MHz and 667MHz. D: The RDRAM ran at the clock speed of 330MHz. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 130 QUESTION 373: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following RAM types runs at a speed of 33MHz to 66MHz. How will you reply? A. RDRAM B. EDO C. DDR SDRAM D. SDRAM Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. Incorrect Answers: A: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system, data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! B: EDO memory referred to as hyper-page mode allows a timing overlap between successive read/writes and the data output buffers aren't turned off when the memory controller finishes. C: The memory chip is capable of performing reads and writes on both sides of any clock cycle doubling the effective memory executions per second. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 149 QUESTION 374: How many blocks of the Memory map are used by the Conventional memory? A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 Answer: D Explanation: The first 10 blocks (00000 to 9FFFF) is known as the conventional memory and is used for running programs. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The blocks 2, 6 and 8 all fall under the first 10 blocks meaning it is a part of the reserved memory. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 158 QUESTION 375: Which type of RAM was invented specifically for use in graphics cards, and differs substantially in design from other types of video memory? A. Standard (FPM) DRAM B. SGRAM C. WRAM D. MDRAM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: The Multibank DRAM was invented by MoSys, specifically for use in graphics cards and MDRAM breaks its memory up into multiple 32KB banks accessable independently meaning instead of the entire bandwidth being devoted to a single frame, smaller pieces can be processed in an overlapped system. Incorrect Answers: A: The Fast Page Mode (FPM) DRAM chips was the most common type of DRAM at the time of the 486/Pentium transition. B: The SGRAM is a type of video memory that is used for video processing. C: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual-ported and uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 134 QUESTION 376: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following RAM types is 1 inch longer at the pins than the 72 pin SIMM. How will you reply? A. SDRAM B. Rambus C. DIMM D. EDO Answer: C Explanation: The DIMMs began to be used in computers supporting 64-bit or wider memory bus. Pentium MMX, Pentium Pro, and Pentium II boards use 168-pin modules all of which are 1 inch longer than 72-pin SIMMs. Incorrect Answers: A, D: The SDRAM and EDO is a different version of DIMMs. B: The RIMMs make use of a looped system with everything going in one direction (uni-directional) all the time. In a looped system, data moves forward from chip to chip and module to module. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 137 QUESTION 377: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which memory module types are a specialization of DDR SDRAM and Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM). How will you reply? A. EDO DRAM B. VRAM C. Standard (FPM) DRAM D. SGRAM Answer: D Explanation: Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) makes use of very fast memory transfers and incorporates specific design changes for certain acceleration features built into video cards. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: EDO, VRAM and Standard (FPM) DRAM modules were created and are not a specialization of DDR SDRAM or SGRAM. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 134 QUESTION 378: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following memory types are dual ported. How will you reply? (Choose two)? A. VRAM B. EDO DRAM C. MDRAM D. WRAM Answer: A, D Explanation: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs. Incorrect Answers: B, C: These RAM module types are all single ported. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 134 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 379: Which of the following modules can be used to store information permanently for easy and quick retrieval? A. PROM B. EPROM C. ROM D. EEPROM Answer: C Explanation: The Read-only memory (ROM) is used to store information permanently for easy and quick retrieval and this type of memory chip contains transistors that are manufactured permanently in the on or off position. Incorrect Answers: A: The PROM is a ROM manufactured with all of its circuits as logical 1s, when the PROM is to be programmed, the connections that need to be set to 0 are destroyed, using a high voltage electrical pulse. B: The EPROMs were manufactured erasable and able to be reprogrammed, making them more flexible than ROMs. D: Electrically Erasable PROM (EEPROM) chips can be erased by sending a special sequence of electric signals to the chip while still in the circuit. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 151 QUESTION 380: Which of the following Ram modules required 8 ns DRAM chips and was capable of operating at 125MHz? A. PC66 B. PC100 C. PC133 D. PC800 Answer: B Explanation: The PC100 SDRAM modules required 8 ns DRAM chips and was capable of operating at 125MHz, the SDRAM modules prior to the PC100 standard used either 83MHz chips (12 ns) or 100MHz chips at 10 ns. Incorrect Answers: A: The PC66 chip ran at a clock speed of 66MHz. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C: The PC133 chip ran at a clock speed of 133MHz. D: The PC800 chip ran at a clock speed of 800Mhz. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 381: The Certkiller .com administrator wants to know which amount of nano seconds is required for the PC100 SDRAM module. How will you the Certkiller .com trainee technician reply? A. 12 ns B. 10 ns. C. 7 ns D. 8 ns Answer: D Explanation: The PC100 SDRAM modules required 8 ns DRAM chips and was capable of operating at 125MHz, the SDRAM modules prior to the PC100 standard used either 83MHz chips (12 ns) or 100MHz chips at 10 ns. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The SDRAM modules prior to the PC100 standard used 12ns or 83MHz, 10ns 100MHz chips. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 382: Which of the following RAM types have built-in refresh and address-control circuitry? A. VRAM B. SDRAM C. RDRAM D. PSRAM Answer: D Explanation: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs. B: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. C: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system, data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 383: Which of the following RAM types makes use of an narrow channel system? A. VRAM B. SDRAM C. RDRAM D. PSRAM Answer: C Explanation: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! Incorrect Answers: A: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs. B: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. D: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 384: Which of the following RAM types makes use of large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. PSRAM B. VRAM C. RDRAM D. SDRAM Answer: B Explanation: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs. Incorrect Answers: A: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. C: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system, data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! D: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 385: Which of the following memory modules have a built-in refresh and address-control circuitry and behaves similarly to SRAM? A. SGRAM B. WRAM C. PSRAM D. SDRAM Answer: C Explanation: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. Incorrect Answers: A: Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) makes use of very fast memory transfers and incorporates specific design changes for certain acceleration features built into video cards. B: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 at lower manufacturing costs. D: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 386: Which of the following memory modules transfer data at a maximum of 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time? A. WRAM B. SDRAM C. SGRAM D. RDRAM Answer: D Explanation: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! Incorrect Answers: A: WRAM, like VRAM, is dual ported making uses large block addressing to achieve higher bandwidth with additional features providing better performance than video RAM at lower manufacturing costs. B: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. C: Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) makes use of very fast memory transfers and incorporates specific design changes for certain acceleration features built into video cards. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 387: Which of the following memory modules were specially created for Windows Accelerator cards? A. PSRAM B. RDRAM C. WRAM D. SDRAM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: This Windows RAM (WRAM) was produced by Samsung as a specialized memory for Windows accelerator cards and is similar to video RAM, except that it's much faster. Incorrect Answers: A: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. B: The RDRAM is known as a narrow channel system data is transferred only 2 bytes (16 bits) at a time meaning the 2 bytes move extremely fast! D: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 388: What does the processor first look at when booting up a PC? A. CMOS B. BIOS C. RAM D. Fixed Disks Answer: B Explanation: When booting up a system the processor first looks at the basic input/output system to determine the machine's fundamental configuration and environment. Incorrect Answers: A: The CMOS is used to store device settings you have setup in the BIOS. C: The RAM is volatile meaning the device startup info cannot be kept here. D: This is permanent storage and the fixed disk must first be read in the BIOS before the system is booted. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 116 QUESTION 389: Which of the following RAM modules were developed for ever increasing system speeds? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. PSRAM B. SIMM C. SDRAM D. CMOS Answer: C Explanation: The SDRAM was developed for matching ever-increasing processing speeds of the Pentium systems, Synchronous DRAM is synchronized to the speed of the systems it will be used. Incorrect Answers: A: The PSRAM is DRAM with built-in refresh and address-control circuitry to make it behave similarly to SRAM thus combining the high density of DRAM capacitors with the speed of SRAM. B: The SIMMs was developed because the DIPs take up too much room on the logic board. D: The CMOS is used to store device settings you have setup in the BIOS. References: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (Exams 220-301 and 220-302), Second Edition, QUE, Alameda, CA, 2004, p. 103 QUESTION 390: Which of the following is known as a computers spine? A. BIOS B. CMOS C. Motherboard D. RAM Answer: C Explanation: The spine of the computer is the system board, otherwise known as the motherboard and it is the olive green or brown fiberglass sheet that lines the bottom of the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: With regard to the processor the most important chip on the motherboard is the basic input/output system (BIOS) chip. B: Your computer stores settings in a special memory chip called the Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip and it is a type of memory chip. D: RAM or Random Access Memory is the most important component in the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 93 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 391: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how many SIMM Memory module slots are present on a typical system board. How will you reply? A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: C Explanation: The motherboards manufactured then had about four SIMM memory module slots. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other amounts of physical slots for memory were not possible when the SIMM era started. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 93 QUESTION 392: Which of the following is the most likely number of 8 bit slots on a typical 486 motherboard? A. 4 B. 3 C. 7 D. 2 Answer: D Explanation: The typical 486 motherboard contained only two 8 bit slots. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other amounts mentioned were not created on the typical 486 motherboards back in the time. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 93 QUESTION 393: What is the correct number of ISA slots that are available on a typical 486 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 motherboard? A. 4 B. 6 C. 2 D. 3 Answer: D Explanation: The typical 486 motherboard back in the day was manufactured with only three available ISA slots. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The typical motherboards produced back in the day were manufactured containing only three ISA slots. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 93 QUESTION 394: The Certkiller .com administrator asks you how many VESA slots are available on the typical 486 motherboard. How will you reply? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 2 Answer: A Explanation: The typical 486 motherboards produced back in the day have only three available VESA slots. Incorrect Answers: B, C & D: The 486 motherboards produced back in the day contained space for only three VESA cards. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 93 QUESTION 395: What are the two most major types of motherboards produced? A. Semi Integrated CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. Nonintegrated C. Semi Nonintegrated D. Integrated Answer: B, D Explanation: The Nonintegrated system boards have each major assembly installed in the computer as expansion cards and the Integrated system boards have the major assembly integrated into the motherboard circuitry. Incorrect Answers: A, C: There was never any Semi Integrated or Semi Nonintegrated system boards produced. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 94 QUESTION 396: The Certkiller .com technician wants to know with nonintegrated system boards what are the most common form factors (choose all that apply)? A. XT B. AT C. NLX D. ATX Answer: B, C, D Explanation: The most common mother board form factors were the AT, ATX and NLX motherboards. Incorrect Answers: A: The most common mother board form factors were the AT, ATX and NLX motherboards and not the XT motherboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 94 QUESTION 397: How many components are found on a typical system board? A. 5 B. 7 C. 3 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 10 Answer: D Explanation: The components found on an typical motherboard includes Expansion slots, Memory slots, Processor slots or sockets, Power connectors, On-board disk drive connectors, Keyboard connector, Peripheral port connectors, BIOS chip, CMOS battery and Jumpers and DIP switches. Incorrect Answer: A, B, C: The other amounts mentioned in the question are false because typical motherboards contain 10 components. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 95 QUESTION 398: What is the amount of expansion slots types are available on the typical motherboard? A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 3 Answer: D Explanation: A typical motherboard contains expansion slots for AGP, PCI and ISA devices that may require those connection slots. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The mother boards produced even the new ones have AGP, PCI and some ISA slots for backward compatibility with older devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 96 QUESTION 399: How many different memory module form factors exist? A. 3 B. 6 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. 8 D. 5 Answer: D Explanation: There are 5 different types of memory modules available they are 30 pin SIMM, 72 PIN SIMM, 168 pin DIMM, 144 pin SODIMM and 72 pin SODIMM. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: There are 5 different types of memory modules available they are 30 pin SIMM, 72 PIN SIMM, 168 pin DIMM, 144 pin SODIMM and 72 pin SODIMM. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 98 QUESTION 400: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the speed in MHz of the ISA bus is. How will you reply? A. 16 MHz B. 32 MHz C. 4 MHz D. 8.33 MHz Answer: D Explanation: The ISA bus was manufactured with the bus speed of 8.33 MHz back in the day. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other bus speeds mentioned does not fit the criteria of the ISA bus speed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 234 QUESTION 401: Which of the following port types can only transmit data out of your computer? A. Bidirectional Parallel Ports B. Enhanced Parallel Ports C. Standard Serial D. "Standard" Parallel Ports Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The "standard" parallel port is a parallel port that is used to only transmits data OUT of the computer and is incapable of receiving data. Incorrect Answers: A: The bidirectional parallel port has one advantage over standard parallel ports and it is the ability to both transmit and receive data. B: The parallel ports were being used for interfacing with devices other than printers, people started to notice the speed wasn't good enough. C: Since the IBM PC almost every computer made has at least one serial connection port. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 128 QUESTION 402: Which of the following port types can transmit and receive data out of your computer? A. "Standard" Parallel Ports B. Enhanced Parallel Ports C. Bidirectional Parallel Ports D. Standard Serial Answer: C Explanation: The bidirectional parallel port has one advantage over standard parallel ports and it is the ability to both transmit and receive data. Incorrect Answers: A: The "standard" parallel port is a parallel port that is used to only transmits data OUT of the computer and is incapable of receiving data. B: The parallel ports were being used for interfacing with devices other than printers, people started to notice the speed wasn't good enough. D: Since the IBM PC almost every computer made has at least one serial connection port. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 129 QUESTION 403: What is the transfer rate of the parallel ports on the system board? A. 300 KB/s B. 150 KB/s C. 200 KB/s D. 100 KB/s CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: The parallel port can transmit data at a maximum speed of 150KB/second and is commonly used to transmit data to printers. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other speeds mentioned are not the proper maximum connection speeds of the parallel port. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 128 QUESTION 404: Which of the following are standard types of serial connections on the system board (Choose two)? A. Standard parallel B. Enhanced parralel C. IEEE 1394 (FireWire) D. USB Answer: C, D Explanation: The IEE 1394 standard and the USB are types of serial connections which can be made to the system board. Incorrect Answers: A: The "standard" parallel port is a parallel port that is used to only transmit data OUT of the computer and is incapable of receiving data. B: The parallel ports were being used for interfacing with devices other than printers, people started to notice the speed wasn't good enough. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 130 QUESTION 405: The power supply converts 110 Volts to which of the following amounts (Choose all that apply)? A. +7 volts B. +5 volts C. -7 volts D. -5 volts CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 E. +10 volts F. +12 volts G. -10 volts H. -12 volts Answer: B, D, F, H Explanation: A power supply is used to convert 110 volt AC current into the four voltages that a computer needs to operate and these are +5 volts DC, -5 volts DC (ground), +12 volts DC, and -12 volts DC (ground). Incorrect Answer: A, C, E & G: The other mentioned voltages would either blow your motherboard or the system would not operate. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 130 QUESTION 406: What is the clock speed of the 8 bit expansion bus? A. 8 MHz B. 12 MHz C. 4.77 MHz D. 23 MHz Answer: C Explanation: The 8-bit bus has a maximum bus clock speed of 4.77 (approximately 5) MHz and 4 DMA channels. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The clock speeds mentioned are not the accurate speed of the 8 bit bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 231 QUESTION 407: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the maximum connection speed of the standard Serial connection is. How will you reply? A. 300 KB/s B. 57 KB/s CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. 150 KB/s D. 100 KB/s Answer: B Explanation: The Standard serial ports produced have a maximum data transmission speed of 57KBps and a maximum cable length of 50 feet. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other mentioned speeds are not the correct speed of the standard serial connection. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 129 QUESTION 408: How many different types of power connectors are used to power your devices? A. 4 B. 6 C. 3 D. 8 Answer: C Explanation: The power supply has three types of connectors that are used to power the various devices within the computer and with each power connector having a different appearance and way of connecting to the device. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned options are not the proper amount of power connectors available to power your devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 131 QUESTION 409: What are the three power connectors named that are used to power your peripheral devices? A. Molex connector B. Berg connector C. BNC connector D. System connector CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A, B, D Explanation: The typical power supply produced has the Molex connector, Berg connector and system connector. Incorrect Answers: C: The BNC connector was used with your Network Interface Cards or (NIC) and transmits data at a maximum speed of 10 MBps. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 131 QUESTION 410: What is the speed at which some of the USB bus devices may operate? A. 1.5MBps B. 3MBps C. 6MBps D. 10MBps Answer: A Explanation: The modern USB supports data transfer rates as high as 1.5MBps and USB cables can be a maximum length of 5 meters. Incorrect Answers: B, C & D: The other mentioned speeds are incorrect as USB supports data transfer rates as high as 1.5MBps. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 129 QUESTION 411: Which of the following is not a power connector of a power supply used to power your devices? A. System connector B. Berg connector C. BNC connector D. Molex connector Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The BNC connector was used with your Network Interface Cards or (NIC) and transmits data at a maximum speed of 10 MBps. Incorrect Answers: A, B & D: The typical power supply produced has the Molex connector, Berg connector and system connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 131 QUESTION 412: What is the transfer rate of the IEEE 1394 standard? A. 100Mbps B. 400Mbps C. 300Mbps D. 1GBs Answer: B Explanation: The IEEE 1394 port commonly known as the FireWire port has a very high (400Mbps) transmission rates. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other mentioned speeds are not the proper speeds that the IEEE 1394 fire wire provides. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 130 QUESTION 413: What is the amount of DMA channels available on the 8 bit bus? A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 1 Answer: C Explanation: The 8 bit bus was given the DMA channels DMA 0, DMA 1, DMA 2 and DMA 3. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned DMA channels are not given on the 8 bit bus. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 414: What is the default IRQ assigned to the hard disk controller on the 8 bit bus? A. 7 B. 4 C. 1 D. 5 Answer: D Explanation: On the 8 bit bus the hard disk is given IRQ 5 by default. Incorrect Answers: A: IRQ 7 is assigned to the LPT 1 port. B: IRQ 4 is assigned to the COM 1 port. C: IRQ 1 is assigned to the Keyboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 415: Which controller on the system board is given DMA 2 on the 8 bit bus? A. COM 1 B. Hard Disk Controller (XT) C. Dynamic RAM Refresh D. Floppy Controller Answer: D Explanation: The floppy disk controller is given to DMA 2 by default on the 8 bit bus. Incorrect Answers: A: The COM 1 port is not assigned to any DMA channel. B: The Hard Disk Controller (XT) is assigned DMA 1 by default. C: The Dynamic RAM Refresh is assigned DMA 0 by default. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 416: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which of the following DMA channels have a status of available. How will you reply? A. DMA 0 B. DMA 2 C. DMA 3 D. DMA 1 Answer: C Explanation: The DMA 3 channel has a status of available by default meaning you may assign a device that DMA channel. Incorrect Answer: A: DMA 0 is assigned to the Dynamic RAM refresh. B: DMA 2 is assigned to the Floppy controller. D: DMA 1 is assigned to the Hard Disk Controller (XT). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 417: To which of the following IRQ's are the LPT 1 port assigned? A. 7 B. 4 C. 1 D. 0 Answer: A Explanation: The LPT 1 port by default is assigned to IRQ7. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mention IRQ's are assigned to other devices or services. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 418: Which of the following IRQ's do not have a default assignment? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. 0 B. 7 C. 2 D. 5 Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 2 is not assigned to anything by default meaning you may assign a device to that particular IRQ. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned IRQ's have devices assigned to them by default. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 419: To which of the following IRQs are the system timer assigned? A. 7 B. 2 C. 5 D. 0 Answer: D Explanation: IRQ 0 is the first and is assigned to the system timer by default. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned IRQ's are all but IRQ 2 are assigned to other devices by default. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 233 QUESTION 420: To which of the following IRQ's is the Real Time Clock (RTC) assigned? A. 15 B. 12 C. 5 D. 8 Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The real time clock of the system board is assigned to IRQ 8 by default. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned IRQ's are either available for assignment or are in use by other devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 236 QUESTION 421: To which of the following IRQ's is the usually available LPT2 port assigned? A. 15 B. 13 C. 5 D. 1 Answer: C Explanation: The LPT 2 port which is usually available is assigned to IRQ 5 by default. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned IRQ's are either available for assignment or are in use by other devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 236 QUESTION 422: To which of the following is IRQ 12 assigned? A. Math Coprocessor B. Hard Disk Controller Board C. Bus Mouse port D. Real Time Clock (RTC) Answer: C Explanation: IRQ 12 is assigned to the bus mouse port if the hardware is available. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned options are assigned to other IRQ's and not to IRQ 12. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 236 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 423: The math co processor is assigned to which of the following IRQ's? A. 15 B. 10 C. 13 D. 7 Answer: C Explanation: The math coprocessor is assigned to IRQ 13 by default. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned IRQ's are either available for assignment or are in use by other devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 236 QUESTION 424: Which of the following DMA channels are available for assigning by default (Choose two)? A. 2 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: B, D Explanation: The DMA channels of 5 and 6 are available for assignment by default. Incorrect Answers: A: The DMA 2 channel is assigned to the floppy disk controller by default. C: The DMA 4 channel is assigned to the secondary DMA controller by default. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 237 QUESTION 425: What is the maximum speed of the ISA 16bit bus? A. 33 MHz B. 66 MHz CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. 8 MHz D. 8MHz and 10MHz for turbo Answer: D Explanation: The maximum bus speed of the ISA 16bit bus is 8MHz and 10MHz for the turbo. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned speeds are the speeds of different bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 426: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the maximum speed of the VL-Bus is. How will you reply? A. 66MHz B. 10MHz C. 33MHz D. 8MHz Answer: C Explanation: The maximum bus speed of the VL-Bus is 33Mhz. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned speeds are the speeds of different bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 427: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the maximum speed of the AGP bus is. How will you reply? A. 8MHz B. 10MHz C. 33MHz D. 66MHz Answer: D Explanation: The maximum bus speed of the AGP expansion slot is 66MHz. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A, B, C: The other mentioned speeds are the speeds of different bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 428: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the maximum speed of the PC card bus is. How will you reply? A. 33MHz B. 8MHz C. 66MHz D. 10MHz Answer: A Explanation: The maximum bus speed of the PC Card bus is 33MHz. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned speeds are the speeds of different bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 429: Which of the following busses does not make use of bus mastering (Choose two)? A. MCA B. EISA C. AGP D. PC Card Answer: C, D Explanation: The AGP expansion slot and the PC Card do not make or require any bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: A, B: The mentioned busses here make use of or require bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 430: What is the width of the 8 bit bus in bits? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 Answer: A Explanation: The 8 bit bus was designed with a bus width of only 8 bits wide. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the 8 bit bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 431: Which of the following is the ISA bus width in bits? A. 16 B. 8 C. 32 D. 64 Answer: A Explanation: The ISA bus was designed originally with a bus width of 16 bits. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the ISA bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 432: What is the bus width of the MCA bus in bits? A. 8 B. 64 C. 128 D. 16 or 32 Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The MCA bus was originally designed with a bus width of 16 or 32 bits. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the MCA bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 433: What is the bus width of the EISA bus in bits? A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 8 Answer: A Explanation: The EISA bus was originally designed with a bus width of 32 bits. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the EISA bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 434: What is the bus width of the VL-Bus in bits? A. 8 B. 32 C. 64 D. 16 Answer: B Explanation: The VL-Bus bus was originally designed with a bus width of 32 bits. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the VL-Bus bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 435: What is the bus width of the PCI bus in bits? A. 64 B. 8 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: A Explanation: The PCI bus was originally designed with a bus width of 64 bits. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the PCI bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 436: What is the bus width of the AGP bus in bits? A. 32 B. 16 C. 64 D. 8 Answer: C Explanation: The AGP bus was originally designed with a bus width of 64 bits. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the AGP bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 437: What is the bus width of the PC Card bus in bits? A. 8 B. 64 C. 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 32 Answer: C Explanation: The PC Card bus was originally designed with a bus width of 16 bits. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned bus widths are not for the PC Card bus but belong to the other bus types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 438: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the AGP bus (choose all that apply)? A. 64 B. 16 C. 32 D. 8 Answer: B, C, D Explanation: The AGP bus was originally designed with a bus width of 64 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: A: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the AGP bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 439: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the ISA bus? A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 8 Answer: A, B, D Explanation: The ISA bus was originally designed with a bus width of 64 bits and not the other CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: C: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the ISA bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 440: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the 8 bit bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 8 Answer: A, B, C Explanation: The 8 bit bus was originally designed with a bus width of 8 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: D: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the 8 bit bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 441: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the MCA bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 32 B. 16 C. 8 D. 64 Answers: C, D Explanation: The MCA bus was originally designed with a bus width of 16 or 32 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: A, B: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the MCA bus. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 442: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the EISA bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 64 B. 8 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: A, B, D Explanation: The EISA bus was originally designed with a bus width of 32 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: C: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the EISA bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 443: Which of the following bus widths are not correct for the VL-Bus bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 32 B. 64 C. 8 D. 16 Answer: B, C, D Explanation: The VL-Bus bus was originally designed with a bus width of 32 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: A: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the VL-Bus bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 444: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the PCI bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 8 B. 64 C. 16 D. 32 Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The PCI bus was originally designed with a bus width of 64 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: B: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the PCI bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 445: Which of the following bus widths are NOT correct for the PC Card bus (Choose all that apply)? A. 64 B. 16 C. 32 D. 8 Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The PC Card bus was originally designed with a bus width of 16 bits and not the other mentioned widths. Incorrect Answers: B: The other mentioned bus width is the correct bus width of the PC Card bus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 446: The 8 bit bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. True B. False Answer: B Explanation: The 8 bit bus was not known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: A: The 8 bit bus was never known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 447: The ISA bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: B Explanation: The ISA bus was not known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: A: The ISA bus was never known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 448: The MCA bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: A Explanation: The MCA bus was known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: B: The MCA bus was always known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 449: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The EISA bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: A Explanation: The EISA bus was known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: B: The EISA bus was always known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 450: The VL-Bus bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: A Explanation: The VL-Bus bus was known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: B: The VL-Bus bus was always known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 451: The PCI bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: A Explanation: The PCI bus was known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: B: The PCI bus was always known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 452: The AGP bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: B Explanation: The AGP bus was not known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: A: The AGP bus was never known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 453: The PC Card bus is known for using bus mastering (true or false)? A. True B. False Answer: B Explanation: The PC Card bus was not known for making use of bus mastering. Incorrect Answers: A: The PC Card bus was never known for the usage of bus mastering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 252 QUESTION 454: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the correct clock speed of AGP4x expansion Slot is. How will you reply? A. 33 Mhz B. 66 Mhz C. 256 Mhz D. 266 Mhz Answer: D Explanation: AGP4x is also known as AGP 2.0 is capable of transferring data at a maximum CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 bandwidth of 1.06GB/s. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned speeds are not the correct speed of the AGPx4 expansion slot. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 236. QUESTION 455: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the correct clock speed of the AGPx8 expansion slot is. How will you reply? A. 266MHz B. 128MHz C. 533MHz D. 1024MHz Answer: C Explanation: The AGpx8 clock speed is a staggering 533MHz meaning bandwith is doubled that of AGPx4 and has a transfer rate of about 2.1GB/s. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned clock speeds do not do justice to the AGPx8 expansion slot. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 236. QUESTION 456: Which of the following computer standard supports a data transfer rate of 400 Mbps and up to 63 devices? A. USB 1.1 B. USB 2.0 C. IEEE 1394 D. Ultra SCSI 2 Answer: C Explanation: The IEEE 1394 standard also known as FireWire supports data transfer speeds of 400 Mbps, although IEEE 1894b has a data transfer speed of 800 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The maximum data transfer rate speed of USB 1.1 is 12 Mbps. B: The maximum data transfer rate speed of USB 2.0 is 480 Mbps. D: The maximum data transfer rate speed of Ultra SCSI 2 is 80 Mbps. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 130 QUESTION 457: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the purpose of the CMOS memory is. How will you reply? A. Store BIOS settings B. Configure devices C. Configure IRQ's D. Configure DMA's Answer: A Explanation: The function of the CMOS memory is to store the BIOS settings and the CMOS memory is battery backed to save the settings when power is turned off. Incorrect Answers: B, C & D: The other mentioned settings could be correct but the question states what the purpose of the CMOS memory is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 138 QUESTION 458: Why should you back up your CMOS settings to a floppy or equivalent (Choose two)? A. The battery loses it charge B. To restore settings if CMOS battery fails C. Incase of forgetting your settings D. Incase of BIOS loading defaults Answer: B, C Explanation: Because the BIOS settings can eventually be lost when the CMOS battery finally loses its charge you should record their BIOS settings so that they may be reset if replacing the CMOS battery. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A, D: The other options could also be correct but the main thing is to record your settings if you must replace the CMOS battery. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 151 QUESTION 459: What will most of the CMOS setup programs display for you (Choose all that apply)? A. IDE buses B. Which devices connected in which positions C. Bus designations (master or slave) D. Jumpering a set of pins Answer: A, B, C Explanation: Most of the available CMOS setup programs will display all the IDE buses and which devices are connected in which positions. Incorrect Answers: D: The jumper settings are set to modify the device it self but may also be configured in some cases in the CMOS. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 208 QUESTION 460: When is it possible to have two master drives on an EIDE controller? A. Drives on the same bus B. Drives on different buses C. Drives with no jumper settings D. Drives with jumper settings set to slave Answer: B Explanation: It is possible to have two masters as long as the drives are on two separate IDE buses. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned options will not let the drives works because they will be competing with each other. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 209 QUESTION 461: Which of the following are considered to be basic CMOS settings? A. Battery B. Type I card C. Type II card D. Boot sequence Answer: D Explanation: The boot sequence is a basic setting in the CMOS setting program and not the other options. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The boot sequence is a basic setting in the CMOS setting program and not the other options. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 378 QUESTION 462: Where does the IDE hard disk get their configuration Information? A. The Jumpers B. Motherboard C. Transistors D. BIOS CMOS Answer: D Explanation: The IDE hard disks get their configuration information from the BIOD CMOS memory. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other mentioned options does not accurately depict where the IDE hard disks received their configuration information from. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 401 QUESTION 463: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 What is checked during the system boot of a computer (Choose all that apply)? A. Hardware settings in the CMOS B. Hardware actually installed C. DMA configuration D. IRQ tables Answer: A, B Explanation: When you boot up your system, during the system boot, the computer checks what hardware settings are in the CMOS against the actually installed hardware in the computer. Incorrect Answers: C, D: The other mentioned options are incorrect as the DMA configuration and IRQ table settings are stored in the CMOS memory. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 401 QUESTION 464: Which of the following will cause long-term data damage or loss? A. Changing the drive geometry B. Physical resources used by parallel ports C. Physical resources used by serial ports D. Physical resources used by USB ports Answer: A Explanation: The changing of the drive geometry unnecessarily can cause long-term data damage or loss. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other mentioned option will not be able to cause long-term data damage or loss. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 401 QUESTION 465: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer beeps continuously. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Power supply problem B. Video card failure C. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller D. Power supply bad, not plugged into motherboard correctly, or keyboard stuck Answer: D Explanation: When your computer beeps continuously it means that you either have a Power supply bad, not plugged into motherboard correctly, or keyboard stuck problem. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 466: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer has a continuous short beep. A. Video card failure B. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller C. Power supply problem D. Power supply bad, not plugged into motherboard correctly, or keyboard stuck Answer: D QUESTION 467: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes one short beep and displays nothing. A. Power supply problem B. Video card failure C. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller D. Power supply bad, not plugged into motherboard correctly, or keyboard stuck Answer: B Explanation: When your computer makes a short beep and nothing is displayed it means that you have a Video card failure. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 468: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes two short beeps. A. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller B. Video card failure C. Configuration error (on most PS/2 systems) D. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller Answer: C Explanation: When your computer makes two short beeps it means that you have a Configuration error (on most PS/2 systems). Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 469: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes one long and one short beep. A. Video card failure B. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller C. Power supply problem D. System board bad Answer: D Explanation: When your computer makes one long and one short beep it usually means you have a bad system board. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 470: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes no beep and the system is dead. A. Video card failure B. System board bad C. Power supply bad, system not plugged in, or power not turned on D. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller Answer: C Explanation: When your computer makes no beep or the system is dead it usually means that the Power supply is bad or system is not plugged in or the power is not turned on. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 471: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes one short beep and the video is present but the system won't boot. A. System board bad B. Video card failure C. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller D. Power supply bad, system not plugged in, or power not turned on Answer: B Explanation: A video card failure is indicated by one short beep, nothing on screen. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: The other options have different ways of letting you know what the problem is. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 472: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer makes one long and two short beeps? Select two. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Bad floppy drive, cable, or controller B. System board bad C. Video card failure D. Power supply bad, system not plugged in, or power not turned on Answer: B, C Explanation: Possibly causes: System board failure; Video adapter problem; LCD assembly failure. QUESTION 473: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 1** POST error. A. Monochrome video problems B. Color video problems C. Floppy disk system problems D. System board problem Answer: D Explanation: Any POST error codes number starting with 1 usually indicates a system board problem. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for monochrome video problems is 4**. B: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. C: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems is 6**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 474: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 161 POST error. A. Color video problems B. Monochrome video problems C. Floppy disk system problems D. CMOS battery failure Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code 161 normally indicates a CMOS battery failure. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. B: The POST error code for monochrome video problems is 4**. C: The POST error code for floppy disk problems is 6**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 475: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 164 POST error. A. System board problem B. CMOS battery failure C. Memory size error D. Color video problems Answer: C Explanation: This POST error normally happens after memory has been added, running the BIOS setup program will allow the system to recognize the memory. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for system board problems is 1**. B: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. D: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 476: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 2** POST error. A. CMOS battery failure B. System board problem C. Color video problems D. Memory related problem Answer: D Explanation: Any POST error codes number starting with 2 usually indicates a memory related problem. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. B: The POST error code for System board problems is 1**. C: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 477: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 201 POST error. A. CMOS battery failure B. Monochrome video problems C. Floppy disk system problems D. Memory test failed Answer: D Explanation: The error code 201 means that one or more portions of RAM were found to be bad and that any numbers following this error code may indicate which RAM chip is bad. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. B: The POST error code for monochrome video problems is 4**. C: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems 6**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 478: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 3** POST error. A. Floppy disk system problems B. CMOS battery failure C. Color video problems D. Keyboard problems Answer: D Explanation: Any POST error code number starting with 3 usually indicates a problem with the keyboard. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems 6**. B: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. C: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 479: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 301 POST error. A. Color video problems B. CMOS battery failure C. Keyboard error D. System board problem Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code of 301 usually means a missing or malfunctioning keyboard or a key has been pressed too long during startup. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. B: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. D: The POST error code for system board problems is 1**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 480: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 4** POST error. A. Floppy disk system problems B. Color video problems C. CMOS battery failure D. Monochrome video problems Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 4** normally indicates a monochrome video problem. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems 6**. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. C: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 481: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 5** POST error. A. Monochrome video problems B. Floppy disk system problems C. Keyboard error D. Color video problems Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 5** normally indicates that you have a color video problem. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for monochrome video problems is 4**. B: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems is 6**. C: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 482: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 6** POST error. A. Floppy disk system problems B. CMOS battery failure C. Keyboard error D. Color video problems Answer: A Explanation: The POST error code of 6** normally indicates that your computer has a floppy disk system problem. Incorrect Answers: B: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. C: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 483: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 601 POST error. A. Keyboard error B. Floppy disk error C. CMOS battery failure D. Color video problems Answer: B Explanation: The POST error code of 601 normally indicates that either the floppy adapter or the floppy drive failed. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. C: The POST error code for CMOS battery failure is 161. D: The POST error code for color video problems is 5**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 484: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 17** POST error. A. Floppy disk system problems B. Keyboard error C. Hard disk problems D. Memory test failed Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code of 17** normally means hard disk problems which could be caused by the hard disk geometry not being set correctly or the disk adapter can't communicate with the hard disk. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems is 6**. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. D: The POST error code for memory test failed errors is 201. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 485: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 1780 POST error. A. Hard disk problems B. Keyboard error C. Floppy disk system problems D. Drive 0 (C:) drive failure Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 1780 normally means Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be cause by the C: drive or controller not functioning or the disk might is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for Hard disk problems is 17**. B: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. C: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems is 6**. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 486: A Certkiller .com client wants to know what the problem is because her computer gives her a 1781 POST error. A. Floppy disk system problems B. Hard disk problems C. Keyboard error D. Drive 1 (D:) drive failure Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 1781 normally means Drive 1 (D:) drive failure which could be cause by the C: drive or controller not functioning or the disk might is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code for floppy disk system problems is 6**. B: The POST error code for Hard disk problems is 17**. C: The POST error code for keyboard errors is 301. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 487: What is the difference between an EPP (Enhanced Parallel Port) and ECP (Enhanced Capsulation Port) parallel ports? A. EPP requires device driver B. EPP requires more RAM C. EPP uses 8-bits and EPP uses 4-bits D. ECP uses DMA Answer: D Explanation: The difference between the two is that ECP uses DMA and EPP does not use DMA. Incorrect Answers: A: Both EPP and ECP does not require a device driver. B: Both EPP and ECP does not require much RAM. C: 8-bits is used by both EPP and ECP. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 129 QUESTION 488: Which of the following settings won't be stored in the CMOS? A. COM/serial port B. Boot sequence C. Time Zone D. Memory Answer: C Explanation: The operating system is used when configuring the Time zone not CMOS. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other mentioned settings are stored in the BIOS. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 401 QUESTION 489: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a motherboard problem error? A. 161 B. 201 C. 1** D. 301 Answer: C Explanation: When you receive motherboard problem errors the POST error code is 1**. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. D: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 490: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive an error stating that the CMOS battery failed and the BIOS will be restored to the defaults? A. 161 B. 201 C. 301 D. 1** Answer: A Explanation: The POST error code used to indicate a CMOS battery failure is 161. Incorrect Answers: B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. C: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: The POST error code of 1** indicates a system board problem. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 491: Which of the following POST error codes will be received if a key of a keyboard is depressed to long during start up? A. 201 B. 161 C. 301 D. 1** Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code of 301 indicates a Keyboard error usually caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard or perhaps a key has been pressed too long during startup. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. B: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. D: The POST error code of 1** indicates a system board problem. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 492: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a memory size error after installing additional RAM? A. 301 B. 201 C. 164 D. 161 Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code for memory size errors is 164, memory size errors always happens after memory has been added. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 missing or malfunctioning keyboard. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. D: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 493: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive memory related problems? A. 1** B. 301 C. 201 D. 2** Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code for any memory related problems is 2**. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 1** indicates a system board problem. B: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard. C: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 494: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a memory test failure error? A. 164 B. 2** C. 301 D. 201 Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code for Memory test failed errors is caused by one or more portions of RAM found to be bad. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 164 indicates a memory size error which is normally caused after memory has been added. B: The POST error code of 2** indicates that it is a memory related problem. C: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 495: Which of the following POST error codes would be received when you boot up a system and receive an error about a malfunctioning keyboard? A. 161 B. 201 C. 1** D. 301 Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code for Keyboard error is 301 and is usually caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard or a key has been pressed too long during startup. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. C: The POST error code of 1** indicates a system board problem. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 496: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a keyboard error? A. 1** B. 164 C. 3** D. 161 Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The POST error code of 3** usually indicates a problem like a missing or malfunctioning keyboard, as well as stuck keys. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 1** indicates a system board problem. B: The POST error code of 164 indicates a memory size error which is normally caused after memory has been added. D: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 497: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a monochrome video problem? A. 601 B. 301 C. 161 D. 4** Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code for monochrome video problems is 4**. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 601 indicates a Floppy disk error which could be caused by either a failed floppy adapter or floppy drive. B: The POST error code of 301 indicates a keyboard error which could be caused by a missing or malfunctioning keyboard. C: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 498: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a error of a color video problem? A. 1780 B. 201 C. 161 D. 5** Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The POST error code for color video related problems is 5**. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 1780 indicates that Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. C: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 499: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive errors about floppy disk system problems? A. 1780 B. 201 C. 6** D. 164 Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code for floppy disk system errors is 6**. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 1780 indicates that Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. D: The POST error code of 164 indicates a memory size error which is normally caused after memory has been added. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 500: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a floppy disk error? A. 5* B. 1781 C. 6** CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 201 Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code of 6** indicates a floppy disk system problem. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 5** indicates a color video problem. B: The POST error code of 1781 indicates that Drive 1 (D:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. D: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 501: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive hard disk problem errors? A. 1780 B. 201 C. 17** D. 161 Answer: C Explanation: The POST error code of 17** is for Hard disk problems which could be caused by the hard disk geometry not being set correctly or the disk adapter can not communicate with the hard disk. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 1780 indicates that Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. B: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. D: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 502: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive a error stating Drive 0 (C:) drive failure? A. 201 B. 161 C. 1781 D. 1780 Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 1780 indicates that Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 201 indicates the memory test failed and that one or more portions of RAM were found bad. B: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. C: The POST error code of 1781 indicates that Drive 1 (D:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 503: Which of the following POST error codes will be received when you boot up a system and receive Drive 1 (D:) drive failure errors? A. 5** B. 1780 C. 161 D. 1781 Answer: D Explanation: The POST error code of 1781 indicates that Drive 1 (D:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not installed correctly. Incorrect Answers: A: The POST error code of 5** indicates a color video problem. B: The POST error code of 1780 indicates that Drive 0 (C:) drive failure which could be caused by a controller not functioning or the disk is not configured or the adapter is not CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 installed correctly. C: The POST error code of 161 indicates a CMOS battery failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 434 QUESTION 504: Which of the following POST beep codes will be received when you boot up a system and the screen remains blank nothing happens? A. Continuous beeps B. Repeating short beep C. 1 short beep, nothing on screen D. No Beep, system dead Answer: D Explanation: This type of error could be caused by a bad power supply or the system is not plugged in or you forgot to turn on the power. Incorrect Answer: A: If your computer makes a Continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. B: If your computer makes a Repeating short beep it means you have a Power supply problem. C: If your computer makes 1 short beep, nothing on screen it means you have a video card failure. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 505: Which of the following POST beep codes would be received when you boot up a system with a bad power supply installed? A. Continuous beeps B. 1 long, 2 short C. No Beep, system dead D. 2 short beeps Answer: A Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 If your computer makes a Continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. Incorrect Answers: B: If your computer makes 1 long and 2 short beeps it means you have a video card failure. C: If your computer makes No Beep, system dead it means bad power supply or the system is not plugged in or you forgot to turn on the power. D: POST/initialization error. Error code is displayed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 506: Which of the following POST beep codes would be received when you boot up a system that experiences power supply problems? A. 1 long, 2 short B. One beep. C. Repeating short beep D. No Beep, system dead Answer: C Explanation: If your computer makes a continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. Incorrect Answers: A: If your computer makes 1 long and 2 short beeps it means you have a video card failure. B: One beep indicates that everything is OK. D: If your computer makes No Beep, system dead it means bad power supply or the system is not plugged in or you forgot to turn on the power. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 507: Which of the following POST beep codes will be received when you boot up a system known to have a video card that is about to fail? A. Repeating short beep B. Continuous beeps C. 1 short beep, nothing on screen D. 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: If your computer makes 1 short beep, nothing on screen it means you have a video card failure. Incorrect Answers: A: If your computer makes a repeating short beep it means that the power supply has problems. B: If your computer makes a Continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. D: If your computer makes 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot it means that you have a bad floppy drive, cable, or controller. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 508: Which of the following POST beep codes will be received when you boot up a system and you have a bad floppy drive, cable, or controller? A. 1 long, 2 short B. Repeating short beep C. Continuous beeps D. 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot Answer: D Explanation: If your computer makes 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot it means that you have a bad floppy drive, cable, or controller. Incorrect Answers: A: If your computer makes 1 long and 2 short beeps it means you have a video card failure. B: If your computer makes a repeating short beep it means that the power supply has problems. C: If your computer makes a Continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 509: Which of the following POST beep codes will be received when you boot up a system CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 with configuration errors? A. 1 short beep, nothing on screen B. Repeating short beep C. 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot D. 2 short beeps Answer: D Explanation: If your computer makes 2 short beeps it indicates that you have Configuration errors (on most PS/2 systems). Incorrect Answers: A: If your computer makes 1 short beep, nothing on screen it means you have a video card failure. B: If your computer makes a repeating short beep it means that the power supply has problems. C: If your computer makes 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot it means that you have a bad floppy drive, cable, or controller. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 510: Which of the following POST beep codes would be received when you boot up a system with a bad system board? A. 2 short beeps B. 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot C. 1 long, 1 short D. Continuous beeps Answer: C Explanation: If your computer makes 1 long, 1 short it means that you have a bad system board. Incorrect Answers: A: If your computer makes 2 short beeps it means that you have configuration errors (on most PS/2 systems). B: If your computer makes 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot it means that you have a bad floppy drive, cable, or controller. D: If your computer makes a Continuous beep it means the power supply is bad or not plugged into motherboard correctly, or the keyboard is stuck. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 511: Which of the following POST beep codes will be received when you boot up a system and you have a failing video card installed? A. 1 short beep, video present, but system won't boot B. 2 short beeps C. 1 long, 1 short D. 1 long, 2 short Answer: D Explanation: If your computer makes 1 long and 2 short beeps you could have a video card failure. The following are possibly causes; system board failure; Video adapter problem; LCD assembly failure Incorrect Answers: A: With a failing video card you would not have video present. ." 1 short beep, system won't boot" would be a correct answer. B: If your computer makes 2 short beeps it means that you have configuration errors (on most PS/2 systems). C: If your computer makes 1 long, 1 short it means that you have a bad system board. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 433 QUESTION 512: You start up a Windows 9x system after adding new hardware and the computer fails to successfully detect the new devices that were added, what must be checked first? A. BIOS settings in the CMOS for Plug and Play B. CMOS settings in the BIOS for Plug and Play C. Plug and Play settings in Control Panel D. Device manager for DMA assignments Answer: A Explanation: The first step would be to check that the BIOS has settings for Plug and Play for any possible inconsistencies. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: The BIOS has its settings stored in the CMOS not vice versa. C: Control Panel does not have Plug and Play settings to configure. D: The IRQ not DMA is mission critical for detecting new devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 488 QUESTION 513: When booting up a computer what is the first program to run during a system boot sequence? A. CONFIG.SYS B. AUTOEXEC.BAT C. BIOS D. RAM Answer: C Explanation: The first program to run during a system boot sequence is the BIOS, the OS starts to load after the BIOS have finished its startup process. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT are loaded with the starting with the operating system and is not the first program to execute, the RAM is a physical computer resource that is important. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 514: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to install a 4 GB IDE drive on a Certkiller .com system. Upon running FDISK you notice the drive is reported to have only 540MB. What is the problem? A. Hard drive has no power cable B. IDE cable on backwards C. Partition is not set active D. The BIOS/Disk Manager was not updated Answer: D Explanation: The BIOS should be upgraded if possible to support hard drives larger than 540MB. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: With no power cable the hard drive will not function. B: With the IDE cable backwards the drive will not function.. C: Setting the partition only makes the disk bootable. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 515: Which of the following devices contains its own BIOS? A. SDRAM B. Hard drive C. Drive A D. Video adapter Answer: D Explanation: Most of the video cards manufactured comes with it's own BIOS onboard. Incorrect Answers: A: SDRAM does not have BIOS. B: The hard drive has no BIOS but the hard drive settings are saved in the BIOS. C: The A: drive has no BIOS. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 112. QUESTION 516: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to install a PCI network interface. Where could you check IRQ availability? A. DIP switches. B. Config.sys. C. Jumper settings. D. Motherboard BIOS. Answer: D Explanation: To check IRQ availability the BIOS can be used. Incorrect Answers A, C: The optioned mentioned can be used for IRQ configuration but holds no info on which IRQ is free. B: Configuration files do not contain information on available IRQs. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 517: When changing the system start-up boot sequence which of the following is modified? A. BIOS/CMOS. B. CONFIG.SYS C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. COMMAND.COM Answer: A Explanation: The boot sequence is a BIOS setting and is saved in the CMOS memory as this is where the BIOS settings are held. Incorrect Answers B, C & D: The Operating system is not used to configure the startup boot sequence. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 518: From where are the first instructions for a microcomputer powering up received? A. CPU B. Boot.ini C. ROM BIOS D. Config.sys Answer: C Explanation: The first instructions are received from the ROM BIOS. Incorrect Answers A: The CPU only contains microcode for the CPU itself. B, D: The first instructions are not fetched from the hard drive. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 519: Where is the system date and time saved when you turn off your computer? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. In RAM B. In the CMOS C. On the hard drive D. In the power supply Answer: B Explanation: CMOS memory is used to store the system settings by the BIOS. Incorrect Answers A: RAM is volatile any information stored in RAM is lost when the system is turned off. C: The hard drive does not store BIOS information. D: The power supply is not used. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 520: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to upgrade the computer's BIOS, what is the most important step? A. Shut off the UPS. B. Unplug all connectors. C. Write down all the settings. D. Save the BIOS upgrade files on to a floppy disc. Answer: C Explanation: All your important settings should be written down before you attempt to upgrade the BIOS. Incorrect Answers A: UPS usage has nothing to do with upgrading the BIOS. B: Not all connections need to be unplugged. D: The files won't help if reverting to the previous state. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 521: Which of following components is the first critical component that a failed motherboard battery affects? A. BIOS CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. ROM C. CMOS D. RAM Answer: C Explanation: The CMOS memory makes use of the motherboard battery when it comes to keeping your settings. Incorrect Answers A: The BIOS handles the settings in CMOS and is stored in ROM and it is not affected by the failed battery. B: ROM would not be affected. D: The motherboard battery is not used by RAM. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 522: What should you do when a computer user places a BIOS password on a computer and forgot the password (Choose two)? A. CMOS battery must be removed temporarily B. Clear CMOS by shortening the CMOS jumper C. Holding down <CTRL> key boot down the computer D. Enter BIOS setrup and delete the password E. FDISK the frive by booting with a floppy Answer: A, B Explanation: The BIOS settings must be reset, if the motherboard supports this it could be done by removing the CMOS battery or shortening the CMOS jumper. Incorrect Answers C: It is impossible to reset the BIOS by simply pressing different key strokes. D: The BIOS setup cannot be entered without the password. E: The drive does not need to be repartitioned to reset the password. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 523: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to start up a Certkiller .com computer when you notice that you receive a CMOS Checksum error during boot CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 up. What is the most likely cause? A. Hard Drive types defined incorrectly B. CMOS battery almost out C. Update the BIOS D. Bad power supply Answer: B Explanation: This type of error means there id an error in the configuration which in most cases are caused by the CMOS being erased or when the battery life is used up. Incorrect Answers: A: This setting has nothing to do with the CMOS checksum error. C: Updating the BIOS will not let the Checksum error go away. D: The system will not be suffering from a bad power supply because of a checksum error. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 524: You newly trained Certkiller .com technician wants to know what the first critical component is that a failed motherboard battery affects. How will you reply? A. CMOS B. RAM C. ROM D. BIOS Answer: A Explanation: The motherboard battery makes use of the CMOS memory when it comes to keeping your settings. Incorrect Answers B: The motherboard battery is not used by RAM. C: ROM would not be affected. D: The BIOS handles the settings in CMOS and is stored in ROM and it is not affected by the failed battery. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 525: The BIOS version ID can be located where? A. Computer back B. Motherboard manual C. System properties D. BIOS setup screens Answer: D Explanation: When you enter any of the BIOS setup screens the BIOS version ID can be seen. Incorrect Answers A, B: The other mentioned options are incorrect as you can flash certain BIOS. C: The system properties are incorrect as this is within the operating system. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 106 QUESTION 526: As a trainee technician at Certkiller .com, you are asked to replace the CMOS battery. What must be done directly after replacing the CMOS battery? A. Format Hard drive B. Flash the BIOS C. Use FDISK D. Set date and time Answer: D Explanation: The date and time will be lost if you replace the CMOS battery. Incorrect Answers A, B, C: It is not required to use FDISK, flash the BIOS or format the hard drive after replacing the CMOS battery. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 106 QUESTION 527: The daisy wheel is part of which of the following printers? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. Impact printers D. Electro-photographic printers Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: The electro-photographic printers have an intricate, complicated method of image formation other than a daisy wheel. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 528: The toner powder is part of which of the following printers? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. Incorrect Answers: B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. C: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 529: Which is part of the impact printer? A. Ink jets B. Ink ribbon C. Toner powder CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. C: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 530: Which of the following is TRUE about the impact printer? A. It consists of a print-head B. It consists of toner powder C. It consists of an ink ribbon D. It consists of an ink cartridge Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. B: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. D: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 531: Which of the following printers use ink cartridges? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder. C: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 246 QUESTION 532: Which of the following printers use the Dot matrix? A. Bubble jet printers B. Laser printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The Impact printer uses the daisy wheel and dot matrix. Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge. B: The laser uses the toner powder. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 533: Which of the following printers use a print-head and ink supply? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. C: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 246 QUESTION 534: Which of the following is TRUE about the bubble jet printers? (Choose two) A. The bubble jet consists of a print-head B. The bubble jet consists of toner powder C. The bubble jet consists of a ink ribbon D. The bubble jet consists of a ink cartridge Answer: A, D Explanation: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. Incorrect Answers: B: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. C: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 246 QUESTION 535: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which printer has a daisy wheel as a mechanical part. How will you reply? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 536: Under which category of printer does the dot matrix printer fall? A. Impact printers B. Laser printers C. Bubble jet printers D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The impact printer includes the daisy wheel printer and dot matrix printer. Incorrect Answers: B: The laser uses the toner powder. C: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 537: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which printer uses ink ribbon. How will you reply? A. Bubble jet printers B. Laser printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. B: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 538: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which printer uses a hitting action. How will you reply? A. Impact printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Laser printers D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. C: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 539: The daisy wheel and the dot matrix fall under which of the printer categories? A. Direct thermal printers B. Color printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer includes the daisy wheel and dot matrix Incorrect Answers: A: The Direct thermal printers include some fax machines. B: The color printers include inkjet and bubble jet. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 540: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know which printer uses a mechanical device. How will you reply? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 541: Which of the following is a characteristic of the impact printer? A. Making use of the print-head B. It uses organic material C. It has a hitting action D. It uses toner powder Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head. B: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. D: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 542: Which of the following printers uses a hitting action? A. Impact printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Laser printers D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. C: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 245-248, 270-286. QUESTION 543: Which of the following would you find in the laser printer? (Choose two) A. Laser scanner B. Ink ribbon C. Toner cartridge D. Daisy wheel Answer: A, C Explanation: The laser printer consists of toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner; high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly (including paper pickup rollers and paper registration rollers), corona, and printer controller circuitry. Incorrect Answers: B: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon. D: The Impact printer uses the daisy wheel Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 544: Which of the following can be associated with the laser printer? A. Ink cartridge B. Ink ribbon C. Toner cartridge D. Daisy wheel Answer: C Explanation: The laser printer consists of toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner ;high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly (including paper pickup rollers and paper registration rollers), corona, and printer controller circuitry. Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head. B, D: The Impact printer uses the daisy wheel or the dot matrix Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 545: Which of the following does NOT form part of the laser printer? A. Ink jets B. Toner cartridge C. Corona D. Printer controller circuitry Answer: A Explanation: The color printers use the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. Incorrect Answers: B. The laser printer consists of toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner; high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly, corona, and printer controller circuitry. C. The laser printer consists of toner cartridge fusing assembly, laser scanner; high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly, corona, and printer controller circuitry. D. The laser printer consists of toner cartridge fusing assembly, laser scanner; high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly, corona, and printer controller circuitry. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 546: The toner cartridge of the laser printer consists of which of the following? A. A ribbon with ink B. Ink C. Toner D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The toner cartridge as its name suggests, holds the toner. Incorrect Answers: A: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 547: Which of the following substance in the toner cartridge makes the toner "flows" better? A. Ink supply B. Polyester resins C. Iron oxide particles D. Carbon substance Answer: B Explanation: The polyester resin makes the "flow" of the toner better. Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. C: An iron oxide particle makes the toner sensitive to electrical charges. D: This gives the color to the toner. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 548: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what the purpose of the iron oxide particle is in the toner. How will you reply? A. Its makes the toner flows better. B. To make the toner sensitive to electrical charges C. To give the toner its color D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The iron oxide particles make the toner sensitive to electrical charges. Incorrect Answers: A: The polyester resin makes the "flow" of the toner better. C: The carbon substance gives the toner its color. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 549: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what is responsible for the color in the toner. How will you reply? A. Ink supply B. Polyester resins C. Iron oxide particles D. Carbon substance Answer: D Explanation: The carbon substance gives the toner its color. Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. B: The polyester resin makes the "flow" of the toner better. C: In the toner cartridge the iron oxide particles to makes the toner sensitive to electrical charges. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 550: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 In which of the following printer would you find the paper registration rollers? A. Daisy wheel printer B. Dot matrix printer C. Laser printer D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The laser printer consists of toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner ;high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly (including paper pickup rollers and paper registration rollers), corona, and printer controller circuitry. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Impact printers include the daisy wheel printer and dot matrix printer. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 551: Which of the following components carries the toner, before it is used by the EP process? A. The drum B. Developer C. Toner cartridge D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The toner contains a medium called the developer (carrier), which "carries" the toner until it is used by the EP process. Incorrect Answers: A: This drum is coated with a photosensitive material that can hold a static charge C: The EP toner cartridge holds the toner. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 552: Where in the laser printer is the images created? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The EP drum B. Developer C. Toner cartridge D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The EP is short for "electro-photographic." The EP drum is where images are created. Incorrect Answers: B: The developer (carrier), which "carries" the toner until it is used by the EP process. C: The toner cartridge holds the toner of the laser printer. D: This is incorrect since option A represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247. QUESTION 553: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what type of printer makes use of a daisy wheel. How will you reply? A. Laser printers B. Bubble jet printers C. Impact printers D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The impact printer uses a mechanical device the drive forward until it hits unto the surface of the ink ribbon Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder, which is made of plastic, metal, and organic material. B: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink supply. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 554: Which statements regarding laser printers are TRUE? (Choose two) A. It has a toner cartridge B. It has a ink cartridge CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. It use a high-voltage power supply D. It uses a print head Answer: A, C Explanation: The laser printer consists of toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner ;high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly (including paper pickup rollers and paper registration rollers), corona, and printer controller circuitry. Incorrect Answers: B, D: The bubble-jet uses the ink cartridge, which consists of the print-head and ink Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 147 QUESTION 555: Which of the following printers has a spinning, character-imprinted wheel? A. Laser printer B. Dot matrix printer C. Color printer D. Daisy wheel printer Answer: D Explanation: The daisy-wheel printer has a spinning, character-imprinted wheel. Incorrect Answers: A: The EP drum is where images are created. B: The dot matrix printer has pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers. C: The color printer uses its ink jets. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 556: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know under which category of printing devices the fax machine resort. How will you reply? A. Impact printers B. Direct thermal printers C. Bubble jet printers D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: Direct thermal printers includes some fax machines and inexpensive and high-portability printers Incorrect Answers: A: The impact printer uses dot matrix or the daisy wheel. C: The bubble-jet is an example of the color printers. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 557: Which of the following forms part of Bubble jet printers? A. Toner powder B. Ink ribbon C. Ink cartridge D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The Bubble jet printers use the ink cartridge. Incorrect Answers: A: The laser uses the toner powder. B: Impact printer uses the ink ribbon. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 558: Which of the following parts are coated with a photosensitive material in laser printers? A. The toner cartridge B. Corona wire C. Pressure roller D. Drum Answer: D Explanation: This drum is coated with a photosensitive material that can hold a CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 static charge. Incorrect Answers: A: This is where the toner is kept. B: The corona wire is a small diameter wire that is charged by the high-voltage power supply. C: Dot matrix printers use either a tractor-feed or pressure roller (friction) method of pulling paper through the printer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 559: Which of the following printers uses a blade for cleaning? A. Impact printer B. Color printer C. Laser printer D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The drum contains a cleaning blade that continuously scrapes the "used" toner off the photosensitive drum to keep it clean. Incorrect Answers: A: Cleaning an impact printer is usually a preventative maintenance measure. Naturally, vacuuming out dust and debris periodically, or using a can of compressed air to blow out dust, is a simple process. B: Cartridges should also be purged occasionally, using the printer's purge function. In this process, the jets are heated and cleaned. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 560: What is the function of the transfer corona assembly in the laser printer? A. It charges the paper, which pulls the toner from the photosensitive drum. B. It holds the toner of the laser printer. C. It makes the toner sensitive to electrical charges D. It helps the drum keep its charge even if the drum is exposed to light. Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The transfer corona assembly is charged with a high-voltage electrical charge. This assembly charges the paper, which pulls the toner from the photosensitive drum. Incorrect Answers: B: The EP toner cartridge, as its name suggests, holds the toner. C: The iron oxide particles make the toner sensitive to electrical charges. D: This drum is coated with a photosensitive material that can hold a static charge when not exposed to light but cannot hold a charge when it is exposed to light. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 561: Which printer has a row of pins that are activated in patterns that form letters and numbers? A. Bubble-jet printer B. Dot matrix printer C. Daisy-wheel printer D. Laser printer Answer: B Explanation: A dot matrix printer uses a print head, housing a number of very small pins. The pins in the print head are pushed toward the ribbon and paper in various combinations to form characters. Incorrect Answers: A: The bubble-jet printer contains a special part called an ink cartridge. This part contains the print head and ink supply C: When daisy wheel printer needs to print a character, it sends a signal to the mechanism that contains the wheel. This mechanism is called the print head. The print head rotates the daisy wheel until the required character is in place. D: A laser printer also puts dots on a piece of paper, but they're made up of tiny pieces of plastic toner, heated until they bond with the paper. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 QUESTION 562: Which part of the laser printer gives the voltage for the charge and the transfer corona assemblies? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Controller circuitry B. High-voltage power supply (HVPS) C. DC power supply (DCPS) D. Transfer corona Answer: B Explanation: The high-voltage power supply supplies the voltages for the charge and transfer corona assemblies. Incorrect Answers: A: This large circuit board converts signals from the computer into signals for the various assemblies in the laser printer, using the process known as rasterizing. C: This is the power supply for the Printer it selves. D: The transfer corona assembly is charged with a high-voltage electrical charge. This assembly charges the paper, which pulls the toner from the photosensitive drum. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 276 QUESTION 563: Which of the following printers has a character-imprinted wheel? A. Bubble-jet printer B. Dot matrix printer C. Daisy-wheel printer D. Laser printer Answer: C Explanation: When daisy wheel printer needs to print a character, it sends a signal to the mechanism that contains the wheel. This mechanism is called the print head. The print head rotates the daisy wheel until the required character is in place. Incorrect Answers: A: At the bottom of each chamber is a small pinhole. These pinholes are used to spray ink on the page to form characters and images as patterns of dots. B: A dot matrix printer uses a print head, housing a number of very small pins. The pins in the print head are pushed toward the ribbon and paper in various combinations to form characters. D: A laser printer also puts dots on a piece of paper, but they're made up of tiny pieces of plastic toner, heated until they bond with the paper. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 245 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 564: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how the bubble jet gets its characters on the paper. How will you reply? A. The print head contains a row of pins that are triggered. B. The print head rotates the daisy wheel until the required character is in place. C. The pinholes are used to spray ink on the page to form characters and images as patterns of dots. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: At the bottom of each chamber is a small pinhole. These pinholes are used to spray ink on the page to form characters and images as patterns of dots. Incorrect Answers: A: The impact printer has a print head that contains a row of pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers as the print head moves across the paper B: When daisy wheel printer needs to print a character, it sends a signal to the mechanism that contains the wheel. The print head rotates the daisy wheel until the required character is in place. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 565: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how the bubble jet keeps it ink jets free from blocking. How will you reply? A. You must vacuum the dust and debris periodically, or using a can of compressed air to blow. B. The maintenance station contains a small suction pump and an ink-absorbing pad. C. The cleaning blade gently scrapes it clean of any residual toner. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: When the printer is done printing, the print-head moves back to its maintenance station. The maintenance station contains a small suction pump and ink absorbing pad. To keep the ink flowing freely, before each print cycle, the maintenance station pulls ink through the ink nozzles using vacuum suction. This expelled ink is absorbed by the pad in the maintenance station. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: Cleaning a dot-matrix printer is usually a preventative maintenance measure. You must vacuum the dust and debris periodically, or using a can of compressed air to blow out dust. C: After the erase unit returns the EP surface to a neutral charge, a rubber cleaning blade gently scrapes it clean of any residual toner. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 247 QUESTION 566: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The EP laser printer contains eight standard assembly parts. B. The charging corona gets a high voltage from the HVPS. C. The HVPS uses a high voltage to apply a strong, uniform positive charge to the surface of the photosensitive drum. D. None of the above Answer: A, B Explanation: A: Any printer that uses the EP process contains eight standard assemblies, which is the following: toner cartridge, fusing assembly, laser scanner, high-voltage power supply, DC power supply, paper transport assembly, corona, and printer controller circuitry. B: The charging corona gets a high voltage from the HVPS. The HVPS uses a high voltage to apply a strong, uniform negative charge to the surface of the photosensitive drum. Incorrect Answers: C: This is not the purpose of the HCPS. D: This is incorrect since and EP laser printer does have eight components. And the charging corona does get high voltage from the HVPS Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 276 QUESTION 567: What is used to drain the charge in the paper when printing with a laser printer? A. Static-charge eliminator strip. B. The rubber cleaning blade. C. The iron particles in the toner. D. None of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A Explanation: In the corona assembly is a static-charge eliminator strip that drains away the charge imparted to the paper by the corona. If you do not drain away the charge, the paper would stick to the EP cartridge and jam the printer. Incorrect Answers: B: A rubber cleaning blade scrapes of any residual toner C: The iron oxide particles are used to make the toner sensitive to electrical charges. D: This is incorrect since one makes use of a static-charge eliminator strip to drain static charges in the paper. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 568: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The bubble jet consists of a ink ribbon B. The iron oxide particles are used to make the toner its black color. C. The printer cable is a 25-pin male DB25 connector on one end, and a 36-pin male Centronics connector on the back panel. D. A rubber cleaning blade scrapes of any residual toner for the color printer. Answer: C Explanation: The most common printer cable is a 25-pin male DB25 connector on one end, and a 36-pin male Centronics connector on the back panel of the PC's chassis. Incorrect Answers: A: There is no ink ribbon in the bubble jet printer. B: The iron oxide particles are used to make the toner sensitive to electrical charges. D: The Rubber cleaning blade is used by the laser printer. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 369 QUESTION 569: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what function the AC/DC power supply performs in laser printers. How will you reply? A. It produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge. B. It converts AC from the main power supply to the voltages typically used on an CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 integrated circuit board. C. It charges the paper below the EP drum to draw toner particles away from the drum. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The DC power supply converts AC from the main power supply to the voltages typically used on an integrated circuit board. Incorrect Answers: A: The high-voltage power supply produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge, which pulls toner particles into position. C: The transfer corona wire charges the paper below the EP drum to draw toner particles away from the drum. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 570: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The AC/DC powers up the printer to a 1,000 volts in relation to the +5 and +24Vdc of the HVPS. B. High-voltage power supply produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge. C. If you didn't drain away the charge, the paper would stick to the EP cartridge and anyone operating it would get an electrical shock. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The high-voltage power supply produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge, which pulls toner particles into position. Incorrect Answers: A: The DC power supply converts AC from the main power supply to the voltages typically used on an integrated circuit board, which is about +5 and +24 Vdc. C: In the corona assembly is a static-charge eliminator strip that drains away the charge imparted to the paper by the corona. If you didn't drain away the charge, the paper would stick to the EP cartridge and jam the printer. D: This is incorrect since HVPS is capable of producing 1,000 volt or more charges when necessary as option B suggests. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 276 QUESTION 571: Which of the following is responsible to store an electrical image of a page to be printed? A. Writing mechanism B. High-voltage power supply C. The EP drum D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The EP drum is a large cylinder coated with electro-photographic material that stores an electrical image of a page to be printed. Incorrect Answers: A: The writing mechanism moves the laser beam to write an electrical image. B: High-voltage power supply produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge, which pulls toner particles into position. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 572: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what function the primary corona wire performs. How will you reply? A. Writing mechanism B. High-voltage power supply C. It conditions the EP drum with an exact negative surface charge. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Primary corona wire conditions the EP drum with an exact negative surface charge. Incorrect Answers: A: An image in RAM must first be written on the drum as a latent electrical image. The writing mechanism moves the laser beam to write an electrical image. B: High-voltage power supply produces 1,000 volts or more needed to create a static-electricity charge, which pulls toner particles into position. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 248 QUESTION 573: Which of the following BEST describes the scanner motor? A. It provides the mechanical energy needed by the many small motors that move various rollers. B. It charges the paper below the EP drum. C. It is made up of a mirror and motor. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: The scanner motor is made up of a mirror and motor, used to move a beam of reflected laser light across the photosensitive drum. Incorrect Answers: A: Main motor provides the mechanical energy needed by the many small motors that move various rollers, the drum, and mechanical processes. B: The transfer corona wire charges the paper below the EP drum to draw toner particles away from the drum. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 279 QUESTION 574: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what function the erase lamp assembly performs. How will you reply? A. It removes left-over toner particles. B. It displays error and problem codes. C. It removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: After the image is developed and transferred to paper, the erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: Cleaning unit and scraper blade removes leftover toner particles from the EP drum, after the image has been fused to paper. B: Control panel assembly is the user interface where the printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. Also displays error and problem codes. D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 575: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what function the Control panel assembly performs. How will you reply? A. It removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. B. It is where printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. C. It removes left-over toner particles. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The control panel assembly is the user interface where the printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. Also displays error and problem codes. Incorrect Option A: After the image is developed and transferred to paper, the erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. C: Cleaning unit and scraper blade removes leftover toner particles from the EP drum, after the image has been fused to paper. D: This is incorrect since option B represents the answer. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 576: Which of the following does not move when the print command is given? (Choose two) A. Pickup roller B. Feed rollers C. EP drum D. Registration rollers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A, D Explanation: When you send a print command to the laser printer, the main motor begins to turn. This starts the EP drum, the fusing assembly, and the feed rollers that move the paper along. However, there are three mechanical rollers that aren't part of this process: the paper pickup roller, and a pair of registration rollers. Incorrect Answers: B, C: When you send a print command to the laser printer, the main motor begins to turn. This starts the EP drum, the fusing assembly, and the feed rollers that move the paper along. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 577: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. B. The erase assembly is the user interface where the printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. C. The erase assembly is where the printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: After the image is developed and transferred to paper, the erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. Incorrect Answers: B, C: Control panel assembly is the user interface where the printer control codes can be entered for configuration or manual paper operations. Also displays error and problem codes. D: This is incorrect since the function of the erase assembly involves removing the latent image and clearing as well as resetting the EP drum, as option A suggests. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 578: Which of the following statements is TRUE? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The function of the erase lamp assembly is to erase and clean toner particles. B. The fusing assembly has a thermal sensor to prevent overheating and fires. C. If a page comes out of the printer completely black, it means that the toner cartridge has given to much toner. D. Problems associated with poor-quality output do not involve the transfer corona, cheap paper, or problems with the high-voltage power supply. Answer: B Explanation: Fusing assembly provides the heat and pressure necessary to bond plastic toner particles to paper. It also has a thermal sensor to prevent overheating and fires. Incorrect Answers A: After the image is developed and transferred to paper, the erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. It does not erase and clean toner particles. C: If a page comes out of the printer completely black, the most likely culprit is a problem with the primary corona wire. This may also be a failure in the internal electronics of the writing assembly. D: A black or dark streak would more likely mean that the EP surface isn't being correctly erased. Other problems associated with poor-quality output involve the transfer corona, cheap paper, or problems with the high-voltage power supply. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 579: Which is the latest type of printer interface? A. Serial B. SCSI C. USB D. Parallel Answer: C Explanation: The USB interface is the latest of the serial interface and parallel interfaces. Incorrect Answers A: The serial interface is slower than the parallel interface, so the serial is not preferably used. B: The SCSI bus interface is a type of device management system. It was designed to attach peripheral devices to a PC's motherboard. D: The parallel interface is the standard interface. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 286 QUESTION 580: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The function of the erase lamp assembly is to erase and clean toner particles. B. The fusing assembly has a thermal sensor to prevent overheating and fires. C. If a page comes out of the printer completely black, it means that the toner cartridge has given to much toner. D. Problems associated with poor-quality output do not involve the transfer corona, cheap paper, or problems with the high-voltage power supply. Answer: B Explanation: Fusing assembly provides the heat and pressure necessary to bond plastic toner particles to paper. It also has a thermal sensor to prevent overheating and fires. Incorrect Answers A: After the image is developed and transferred to paper, the erase assembly removes the latent image, clears, and resets the EP drum. It does not erase and clean toner particles. C: If a page comes out of the printer completely black, the most likely culprit is a problem with the primary corona wire. This may also be a failure in the internal electronics of the writing assembly. D: A black or dark streak would more likely mean that the EP surface isn't being correctly erased. Other problems associated with poor-quality output involve the transfer corona, cheap paper, or problems with the high-voltage power supply. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 378 QUESTION 581: What is the most common cause of a paper jams in a laser printer? A. When the feed roller moves the paper along. B. When the mechanical rollers is not part of this process. C. When more than one piece of paper moves between the registration rollers and tries to go through the printer. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: One of the most common causes of paper jams in laser printers is when more than one CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 piece of paper moves between the registration rollers and tries to go through the printer. This is also called a "misfeed" or "paper feed" error. Incorrect Answers: A: When you send a print command to the laser printer, the main motor begins to turn. This starts the EP drum, the fusing assembly, and the feed rollers that move the paper along. B: When you send a print command to the laser printer, the main motor begins to turn. This starts the EP drum, the fusing assembly, and the feed rollers that move the paper along. There are three mechanical rollers that aren't part of this process: D: This is incorrect since option C represents the answer. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 379 QUESTION 582: What problem can be cause by the fusing assembly? A. It can cause a worn pickup assembly. B. The paper comes out with a smudged image, and toner rubs off. C. It causes a "misfeed" or "paper feed" error. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: When the paper comes out with a smudged image, and toner rubs off, the problem is in the fusing assembly. Incorrect Answers: A: A worn pickup assembly can cause a paper jams. C: Paper jams in laser printers is when more than one piece of paper moves between the registration rollers and tries to go through the printer. This is also called a "misfeed" or "paper feed" error D: This is incorrect since the fusing assembly can cause smudged images as suggested by option B. Reference: James G. Jones and Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram 2 (2nd Edition), QUE Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, p. 379 QUESTION 583: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know what causes a dot matrix printer to print very light images. How will you reply? A. Print ribbon advance gear is slipping. B. The print ribbon is worn-out. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. The ink in the cartridge is very little. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: When the ribbon is worn-out, it will produce light characters. Incorrect Answers: A: If the gear is slipping, you need to replace the gear or the mechanism. This has nothing to do with the light characters. C: The dot matrix printer does not use an ink cartridge. D: This is incorrect since a dot matrix printer will print light, faded images when the ribbon is worn out as suggested by option B. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 584: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how you would troubleshoot a dot matrix printer that is printing very lightly. How will you reply? A. Replace the print head. B. Replace ribbon with a new, vendor-recommended ribbon. C. You must select the correct driver. D. Do nothing. It will rectify itself. Answer: B Explanation: If the character is light, it means that the print ribbon is worn. The best thing is to replace it. Incorrect Answers: A: You only replace the print head if a small, blank line running through a line of print consistently. C: This has nothing to do with light characters, it will produced or print "garbage" D: The problem will not fix itself. You need to replace the ribbon. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 585: What could be the problem with the dot matrix printer, if the print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page? A. You must select the correct driver. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. The print head needs replacement. C. Replace ribbon with a new, vendor-recommended ribbon. D. Print ribbon advance gear is slipping Answer: D Explanation: The print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page - means that the print ribbon advance gear is slipping. Incorrect Answers: A: This has nothing to do with the dark to light as the as the print head moves across the page. The printer will print "garbage". B: This will happened when the Print head pin stuck inside the print head. C: You only do this when the characters is light. Not from dark to light across the page. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 586: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how you would troubleshoot a dot matrix printer that prints that the print lines go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. How will you reply? A. The print head needs replacement. B. Replace ribbon with a new, vendor-recommended ribbon. C. Replace ribbon advance gear or mechanism. D. Nothing. The problem will rectify after a while. Answer: C Explanation: If the print lines that go from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. You need to replace the ribbon advance gear or mechanism. Incorrect Answers: A: This only happens when a small, blank line running through a line of print (consistently). B: This situation happens when the characters comes out lightly. D. This is incorrect the problem cannot address itself; you need to replace the ribbon advance gear. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 587: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 What could be the problem with the dot matrix printer when a small, blank line running through a line of print (consistently)? A. Worn-out print ribbon B. Print head pin stuck in the "out" position C. The print head pin stuck inside the print head. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: The print head pin stuck inside the print head. Incorrect Answers: A: A worn-out print ribbon means that you will get light characters. B: If this happens there will be a small, dark line running through a line of print D: This is incorrect since there is definitely something the matter with the printer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 588: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how you would troubleshoot a dot matrix printer that prints with a small dark line running through a line of print. How will you reply? A. Replace ribbon advance gear or mechanism. B. Replace ribbon with a new, vendor-recommended ribbon. C. The print head needs replacement. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Print head pin stuck inthe "out" position. You cannot push it back because it will damage the printer. You need to replace the print head. Incorrect Answers: A: This is only done when the print lines goes from dark to light as the print head moves across the page. B: This is only done when the characters are consistently faded or the characters light. D: This is incorrect. This type of problem is addressed by replacing the print head. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 589: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The dot matrix printer makes printing noise, but no print appears on page. What could be the cause of this problem? A. Print head pin stuck in the "out" position B. A broken, loose, or shorting print head cable C. Worn, missing, or improperly installed ribbon cartridge. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: When the printer makes a printing noise, but no print appears on page, it is a worn, missing, or improperly installed ribbon cartridge. Incorrect Answers: A: This will result in a small, dark line running through a line of print. B: This will result in a small, blank line running through a line of print (intermittently). D: This is incorrect since there is definitely something the matter with the printer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 413 QUESTION 590: It is very seldom that you get a paper jam on the Bubble-jet printers. The usual cause of the paper jams in this printer is caused through a worn pick up roller. There is another thing that could cause the paper jam. Which of the following could it be? A. Too much ink on the page. B. The wrong type of paper C. When more than one page enter the system. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Paper jams in bubble-jet printers are usually due to one of two things: a worn pickup roller, or the wrong type of paper. Incorrect Answers: A: If an ink cartridge becomes damaged, or develops a hole, it can put too much ink on the page and the letters will smear. C: This happens in laser printer when the pick up roller pick up more than one page. D: This is incorrect. Something must be causing a paper jam. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 415 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 591: The term "ghosting" is used when there are light images of previously printed pages on the current page. Which of the following can be the cause of this? (Choose two) A. A bad erasure lamp. B. The wrong type of paper C. A broken cleaning blade. D. None of the above. Answer: A, C Explanation: A: If the erasure lamps are bad, the previous electrostatic discharges aren't completely wiped away. C: A broken cleaning blade, on the other hand, causes old toner to build up on the EP drum and consequently present itself in the next printed image. Incorrect Option B: This has nothing to do with the light images of the previous printing page. D: This is incorrect since options A and C are correct. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, p. 415. QUESTION 592: The Certkiller .com network is based on the star topology and includes a 100BASE-T switch. You need to connect a new host to the 100BASE-T switch. Which cable would you require? A. RG-8 coaxial cable. B. A Category 3 UTP cable. C. A Category 5 UTP cable. D. A MultiMode Fiber Optic cable. E. A Single-Mode Fiber Optic cable. Answer: C Explanation: 100BASE-T uses twisted pair cable as indicated by the T in 100BASE-T. 100Base-T has a transmissions speed of up to 100 Mbps. The minimum twisted-pair, copper cable that can support these speeds are Category 5 cable. Incorrect Answers: A: An RG-8 coaxial cable is used for a 10BASE2 network CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: Category 3 UTP cable is rated at only 10 Mbps and is used in 10BASE-T, not 100BASE-T D, E: 1000BASE-T uses twisted pair cable as indicated by the T in 1000BASE-T, and not optical cable. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144. QUESTION 593: What is the minimum cable rating required for a 1000BASE-TX network? A. Cat3. B. Cat5. C. Cat5e. D. Cat6. Answer: C Explanation: A 1000BASE-TX network operates at up to 10000 Mbps. The minimum cable rating that can support this speed is Cat5e cable, which is rated at up to 1000 Mbps while Cat5 cable is rated at up to 100 Mbps only. Incorrect Answers: A: A 1000BASE-TX network operates at up to 10000 Mbps while Cat3 cable is rated at up to 16 Mbps only. B: A 1000BASE-TX network operates at up to 10000 Mbps while Cat5 cable is rated at up to 100 Mbps only. D: A 1000BASE-TX network operates at up to 1000 Mbps. Cat5e cable is rated at up to 1000 Mbps, while Cat6 cable is rated at over 1000 Mbps. Thus Cat5e is the minimum cable rating required to fully support a 1000BASE-TX network. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144. QUESTION 594: What is the minimum cable rating required for a 10BASE-T network? A. Cat2. B. Cat3. C. Cat4. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Cat5e. Answer: B Explanation: A 10BASE-T network operates at up to 10 Mbps. The minimum cable rating that can support this speed is Cat3 cable, which is rated at up to 16 Mbps while Cat2 cable is rated at up to 4 Mbps only. Incorrect Answers: A: A 10BASE-T network operates at up to 10 Mbps, however, Cat2 cable is rated at up to 4 Mbps only. C: A 10BASE-T network operates at up to 10 Mbps. Cat4 cable is rated at up to 20 Mbps, while Cat3 and Cat2 cable is rated at up to 16 Mbps and 4 Mbps respectively. Thus Cat3 is the minimum cable rating required to fully support a 10BASE-T network. D: A 10BASE-T network operates at up to 10 Mbps. Cat5e cable is rated at up to 1000 Mbps, while Cat3 and Cat2 cable is rated at up to 16 Mbps and 4 Mbps respectively. Thus Cat3 is the minimum cable rating required to fully support a 10BASE-T network. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144. QUESTION 595: You have two workstations. Each workstation has a 100BASE-T network card. You want to connect the two workstations directly without the use of a hub or switch. Which cable could you use? A. Cat3 crossover B. Cat5 crossover C. Cat3 straight D. Cat5 straight Answer: B Explanation: Both workstations' NIC will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. 100BASE-T has a transmissions speed of up to 100 Mbps. The minimum twisted-pair, copper cable that can support these speeds are Cat5 cable. Incorrect Answers: A, C: Both workstations' NIC will be physically and electronically the same as a medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. 100BASE-T has a transmissions speed of up to 100 Mbps. However, Cat3 cable is rated at only 16 Mbps. The minimum cable rating that can support 100Mbps Cat5 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 cable. D: Straight cable can connect a workstation on a 100BASE-TX network to hub, router, or switch, which would have medium dependent interface-crossover (MDI-X) port. However, a crossover cable is required to connect two client workstations directly as the two workstations will have similar medium dependent interfaces (MDIs). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144, 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 596: Certkiller .com has a routed network. You need to extend the network by adding a second router. How would you use to connect the two routers? A. Use a patch cable. B. Use a crossover cable. C. Use a Category 5 cable. D. Two routers cannot be connected together. Answer: B Explanation: The ports on the two routers will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. Incorrect Answers: A, C: The ports on the two routers will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. A straight through Cat5 or patch cable will not work. D: You can connect the two routers by using a crossover cable. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144, 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 597: Which of the following best describes Cat5 cable? A. Two pairs of twisted copper wire with a frequency limitation of 1MHz. B. Four pairs of twisted copper wire with a frequency limitation of 10MHz. C. Four pairs of twisted copper wire with a throughput of 100 Mbps. D. Four pairs of twisted copper wire with a throughput of 1000 Mbps. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: Cat5 cable is indeed four pairs of twisted copper wire with a throughput of 100 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: This describes Cat1 cable. B: This describes Cat2 cable. D: This describes Cat5e cable. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21. QUESTION 598: Which media type is the MOST susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)? A. Category 5 UTP cable B. RG-8 coaxial cable C. Single-Mode Fiber Optic cable D. MultiMode Fiber Optic cable Answer: A Explanation: UTP cable is susceptible to EMI. Incorrect Answers: B: RG-8 coaxial cable is also susceptible to EMI, but not to the same extent as UTP. C, D: Fiber optic cable is immune to EMI. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 19-20, 25-27. QUESTION 599: Which connectors does 1000BASE-TX use? A. MT-RJ B. RJ-45 C. RJ-11 D. ST CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: 1000BASE-TX uses UTP cable with RJ-45 connectors. Incorrect Answers: A, D: MT-RJ and ST are fiber optic connectors. However, 1000BASE-TX uses UTP copper cable. C: Modems use RJ-11 connectors to connect to the telephone line. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 22-29. QUESTION 600: With which of the following would you use a RJ-45 connector? (Choose all that apply) A. 100BASE-T B. 1000BASE-CX C. 1000BASE-LX D. 1000BASE-TX Answer: A, D Explanation: 100BASE-T and 1000BASE-TX uses UTP cable with RJ-45 connectors. Incorrect Answers: B: 1000BASE-CX uses a 9-pin High Speed Serial Data Connector (HSSDC). C: 1000BASE-LX uses SC or LC fiber connectors. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 22-29. QUESTION 601: Which media type is NOT susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI)? (Choose all that apply) A. Unshielded Twister Pair cable B. Shielded Twister Pair cable C. Coaxial cable D. Fiber Optic cable CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: Fiber optic cable is immune to EMI. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Both STP and UTP are very susceptible to EMI. C: Coaxial cable is also susceptible to EMI, but not to the same extent as STP and UTP. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 19-20, 25-27. QUESTION 602: What is the maximum length for a 1000BASE-SX cable segment? A. 300 meters B. 550 meters C. 10 kilometers D. 40 kilometers Answer: B Explanation: 1000BASE-SX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. Incorrect Answers: A: 10GBase-SR uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 300 m. C: 10GBase-LR uses single-mode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 10 km. D: 10GBase-ER uses single-mode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 40 km References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. QUESTION 603: What is the maximum length for a 1000Base-FX cable segment? A. 300 meters CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. 550 meters C. 2 kilometers D. 10 kilometers E. 40 kilometers Answer: D Explanation: 1000Base-FX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 2000 m. Incorrect Answers: A: 10GBase-SR uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 300 m. B: 1000BASE-SX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. C: 10GBase-LR uses single-mode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 10 km. E: 10GBase-ER uses single-mode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 40 km References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. QUESTION 604: What is the maximum length of a 100BASE-TX cable segment? A. 25 meters B. 75 meters C. 100 meters D. 182 meters E. 550 meters Answer: C Explanation: 100BASE-TX uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 100 m. Incorrect Answers: A: 1000BASE-CX uses STP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 25 m. B: 1000BASE-T uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 75 m. D: 10BASE2 uses thin coaxial cable with a maximum transmission distance of 182 m. E: 1000BASE-SX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. QUESTION 605: What is the maximum length of a 1000BASE-T cable segment? A. 25 meters B. 75 meters C. 100 meters D. 182 meters E. 550 meters Answer: B Explanation: 1000BASE-T uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 75 m. Incorrect Answers: A: 1000BASE-CX uses STP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 25 m. C: 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 100 m. D: 10BASE2 uses thin coaxial cable with a maximum transmission distance of 182 m. E: 1000BASE-SX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. QUESTION 606: What is the maximum length of a 10BASE2 segment? A. 25 meters B. 100 meters C. 185 meters D. 550 meters Answer: C Explanation: The maximum distance on a 10Base2 (thinnet) segment is 185 meters. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: 1000BASE-CX uses STP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 25 m. B: 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX uses UTP cable with a maximum transmission distance of 100 m. D: 1000BASE-SX uses multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 326. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. QUESTION 607: At what radio frequency does an IEEE 802.11g wireless network operate? A. 2.4 GHz B. 5.0 GHz C. 5.4 GHz D. 10 GHz Answer: A Explanation: IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. Incorrect Answers: B: IEEE 802.11a uses the 5.0 GHz frequency band, not 802.11b. C, D: No IEEE wireless standard uses the 5.4 GHz or the 10 GHz frequency bands. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 249-252. QUESTION 608: At what radio frequency does an IEEE 802.11a wireless network operate? A. 2.4 GHz B. 5.0 GHz C. 5.4 GHz D. 10 GHz Answer: B Explanation: IEEE 802.11a uses the 5 GHz frequency band. Incorrect Answers: A: IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band frequency band. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C, D: No IEEE wireless standard uses the 5.4 GHz or the 10 GHz frequency bands. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 249-252. QUESTION 609: What is the maximum transmission speed supported by IEEE 802.11b? A. 720 Kbps B. 2 Mbps C. 11 Mbps D. 54 Mbps Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 802.11b has a transmission speed of up to 11 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: Bluetooth operates at up to 720 Kbps. B: IEEE 802.11, the original standard for wireless networks operates at a maximum speed of 2 Mbps. D: IEEE 802.11g operates at a maximum speed of 54 Mbps. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 66. QUESTION 610: What is the maximum transmission speed supported by IEEE 802.11g? A. 720 Kbps B. 2 Mbps C. 11 Mbps D. 54 Mbps Answer: D Explanation: IEEE 802.11g has a transmission speed of up to 54 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: Bluetooth operates at up to 720 Kbps. B: IEEE 802.11, the original standard for wireless networks operates at a maximum speed of 2 Mbps. C: IEEE 802.11a operates at a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 66. QUESTION 611: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Both IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g operates at the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band while Bluetooth operates at 5.0 GHz. B. IEEE 802.11a operates at the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and has a maximum transmission speed of 11 Mbps. C. Both Bluetooth and IEEE 802.11g operates at the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band but Bluetooth does not interfere with IEEE 802.11g because it uses a frequency hopping spread spectrum signaling method while IEEE 802.11g uses a direct sequence spread spectrum signaling method. D. IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802b are compatible because they operate at the same 2.4 GHz radio frequency band. Answer: C Explanation: Bluetooth and IEEE 802.11g uses different spread spectrum signaling methods which prevents interference between that two. Bluetooth uses the frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) signaling method while IEEE 802.11g uses a direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS). Incorrect Answers: A: IEEE 802.11b, IEEE 802.11g and Bluetooth all use the 2.4 GHz frequency band frequency band. B: IEEE 802.11a operates at the 5 GHz radio frequency band, not the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbps, not 11 Mbps. D: IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802.11b are not compatible because IEEE 802.11a operates at the 5 GHz radio frequency band while IEEE 802.11b operates at the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 249-252. QUESTION 612: What is the maximum speed at which a token ring network operates? A. 4 Mbps B. 10 Mbps C. 16 Mbps D. 100 Mbps CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: C Explanation: Token ring initially operated at 4 Mbps. This was later increased to 16 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: Token ring initially operated at 4 Mbps. This was later increased to 16 Mbps. B: 10BASE-T networks operate at a maximum speed of 10 Mbps. D: 100BASE-T networks operate at a maximum speed of 100 Mbps References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 65. QUESTION 613: Which of the following requires a cable with RJ-45 connectors? A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 10BaseFL Answer: C Explanation: A 10BaseT cable is either an UTP or a STP cable. Both these cables use the RJ-45 connections. Incorrect Answers A, B: Coaxial cables are used on thinnet (10Base2) or thicknet (10Base5) networks. D: Fiber connectors are used on 10BaseFL networks. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 65. QUESTION 614: You have two workstations. Each workstation has a 100BASE-T network card. You want to connect the two workstations directly without the use of a hub or switch. Which cable could you use? A. Cat3 crossover B. Cat5 crossover C. Cat3 straight CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Cat5 straight Answer: B Explanation: Both workstations' NIC will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. 100BASE-T has a transmissions speed of up to 100 Mbps. The minimum twisted-pair, copper cable that can support these speeds are Cat5 cable. Incorrect Answers: A, C: Both workstations' NIC will be physically and electronically the same as a medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. 100BASE-T has a transmissions speed of up to 100 Mbps. However, Cat3 cable is rated at only 16 Mbps. The minimum cable rating that can support 100Mbps Cat5 cable. D: Straight cable can connect a workstation on a 100BASE-TX network to hub, router, or switch, which would have medium dependent interface-crossover (MDI-X) port. However, a crossover cable is required to connect two client workstations directly as the two workstations will have similar medium dependent interfaces (MDIs). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144, 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 615: Certkiller .com has a routed network. You need to extend the network by adding a second router. How would you use to connect the two routers? A. Use a patch cable. B. Use a crossover cable. C. Use a Category 5 cable. D. Two routers cannot be connected together. Answer: B Explanation: The ports on the two routers will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. Incorrect Answers: A, C: The ports on the two routers will be physically and electronically the same medium dependent interface (MDI), therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two together. A straight through Cat5 or patch cable will not work. D: You can connect the two routers by using a crossover cable. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325,327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144, 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 616: Which network topology is a 10Base2 network based? A. Bus B. Star C. Ring D. Mesh Answer: A Explanation: 10Base2 (thinnet) uses single cable which implements a bus technology. Incorrect Answers B: The star topology is implemented with 10BaseT, not 10Base2. C: The ring topology is implemented with 10Base5, not 10Base2. D: The mesh topology is not implemented with 10Base2. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317, 326. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 20-21, 23, 144, 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 617: Which IEEE networking standard uses FHSS (Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum) and DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum)? A. 802.11 B. 802.6 C. 802.4 D. 802.3 Answer: A Explanation: FHSS is Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum, and DSSS is Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum both operate from 2.400-2.485 GHz, in what is known as the ISM band. The 802.11 wireless standard covers both DSSS and FHSS, although not all manufacturers employ or fully adhere to 802.11. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. QUESTION 618: How many pairs of wires are used in an RJ-45 connector? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C An RJ-45 connector is used on UTP cable which consists of 4 pairs of twisted wires. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325-327. QUESTION 619: What maximum cable length does 10BaseT supports? A. 100 meters B. 185 meters C. 550 meters D. 1000 meters Answer: A Explanation: The maximum distance in a 10BaseT segment is 100 meters. Incorrect Answers B: 10Base2 has a maximum distance of 185 meters. C: Multimode fiber optic cable that has a maximum transmission distance of 550 m. D: Single-mode fiber cabling can support distances of 1000 meters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. QUESTION 620: Which of the following is the connector used in 10Base-2 networks? A. AUI B. BNC CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. RJ-45 D. ST Answer: B Explanation: BNC connector are used for thinnet which is 10Base-2 Incorrect Answers: A: AUI is a 15-pin connector commonly used in 10Base-5 and Ethernet networks. C: RJ-45 is used on twisted pair cable commonly used on 10Base-T networks. D: ST is a fiber optic connector commonly used on 100Base-FX networks. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325-326. QUESTION 621: Which of the following is a 15 pin connector used in 10Base-5 networks? A. AUI B. BNC C. RJ-45 D. ST Answer: A Explanation: AUI is a 15-pin connector commonly used in 10Base-5 networks to attach workstations to a transceiver. Incorrect Answers: B: BNC connector has a single pin. C: RJ-45 is used on twisted pair cable commonly used on 10Base-T networks. D: ST is a fiber optic connector commonly used on 100Base-FX networks. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325-326. QUESTION 622: Which of the following statements is TRUE? Between multi mode fiber and single mode fiber, which of the following can carry a signal a longer distance? A. Multimode fiber can carry a signal for a longer distance than single-mode fiber. B. Both multimode and single mode fiber can carry a signal for the same distance. C. Single-mode fiber can carry a signal for a longer distance than multimode fiber. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. Both multimode and single mode fiber has a distance limitation of less than 1000 meters. Answer: C Explanation: Single-mode fiber can carry a signal for a longer distance than multimode fiber. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Single-mode fiber can carry a signal for a longer distance than multimode fiber. D: Single-mode fiber can carry a signal for up to 10,000 meters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325-327. QUESTION 623: Which type of a cable uses RJ-45 connectors? A. RG-58 Coaxial B. RG-59 Coaxial C. Unshielded Twisted Pair D. Multimode fiber optic Answer: C Explanation: RJ-45 connectors are used with UTP and STP cables. Incorrect Answers: A, B: RG-58 and RG-59 coaxial cable uses BNC connectors, not RJ-45 connectors. D: Multimode fiber optic cable use ST or SC connectors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325-327. QUESTION 624: You want to connect a cable modem to a switch. Which of the following would you use? A. A straight-through Category 5e patch cable. B. A crossover Category 5e patch cable. C. A RG-6 coaxial cable. D. A serial cable. Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: The cable modem's Ethernet connection is physically and electronically the same as a medium dependent interface-crossover (MDI-X) port on the switch, therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the cable modem to the switch, and not a straight-though cable. Incorrect Answers: A: We can connect a cable modem to a computer via a switch. However, the cable modem's Ethernet connection is physically and electronically the same as a medium dependent interface-crossover (MDI-X) port on the switch, therefore, you need a crossover cable to connect the two. C: Cable modems are either Ethernet based, which would require twisted pair cable, or USB to connect to the computer. This can be either directly, or via a switch or switch. The cable receives its signals via an RG-6 cable that connects to the wall socket, which feeds into the cable from the cable provider. D: Cable modems are either Ethernet based, which would require twisted pair cable, or USB to connect to the computer. This can be either directly, or via a switch or switch. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 325, 327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 290-292, 436-437. QUESTION 625: Which of the following supports the longest transmission distance? A. Coaxial cable B. Fiber Optic cable C. UTP cable D. Wireless Answer: B Explanation: Fiber optic provides the longest transmission distance of up to 10,000 meters. Incorrect Answers: A: Coaxial cable provides transmission distances of up to 500 meters. C: UTP cable provides transmission distances of up to 100 meters. D: Wireless connections provides transmission distances of up to 450 meters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 30-31. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 626: Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding 1000BASE-TX? A. 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5 UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 100 Mbps and a maximum transmission distance of 100 meters. B. 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5e UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 1000 Mbps and a maximum transmission distance of 100 meters. C. 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5 UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 100 Mbps and a maximum transmission distance of 250 meters. D. 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5e UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 1000 Mbps and a maximum transmission distance of 250 meters. Answer: B Explanation: 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5e UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 1000 Mbps and a maximum transmission distance of 100 meters. Incorrect Answers: A: 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5e, not Cat5, UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 1000 Mbps, not 100 Mbps. C: 1000BASE-TX uses a minimum of Cat5e, not Cat5, UTP cable and has a maximum transmission speed of 1000 Mbps, not 100 Mbps, and a transmission distance of 100 meters, not 250 meters. D: 1000BASE-TX has a maximum distance of 100 meters, not 250 meters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 327. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 23-24. QUESTION 627: Which of the following Wireless standards has a maximum transmission speed of 54 Mbps? (Chose all that apply) A. 802.11 B. 802.11a C. 802.11b D. 802.11g Answer: B, D Explanation: IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802.11g has transmission speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A: IEEE 802.11, the original standard for wireless networks operates at a maximum speed of 2 Mbps. C: IEEE 802.11b operates at a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 66. QUESTION 628: Which of the following Wireless standards has a maximum transmission speed of 11 Mbps? A. 802.11 B. 802.11a C. 802.11b D. 802.11g Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 802.11b operates at a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: IEEE 802.11, the original standard for wireless networks operates at a maximum speed of 2 Mbps. B, D: IEEE 802.11a and IEEE 802.11g has transmission speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 66. QUESTION 629: In which physical network topology is a hub or a switch required? (Choose all that apply) A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: A Explanation: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. This does not require a hub or switch. C: The bus topology is similar to the ring topology, except that the cable does not form a complete loop, but is terminated at each end. Each host, except the hosts at the end points, is connected to the host ahead of it and the host behind it along the cable. This does not require a hub or switch. D: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. This does not require a hub or switch. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 630: In which physical network topology are terminators required? A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: C Explanation: The bus topology is similar to the ring topology, except that the cable does not form a complete loop, but is terminated at each end. Incorrect Answers: A: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. This does not require terminators. B: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. This does not require terminators. D: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. This does not require terminators. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 631: Which physical network topology is shown in the exhibit below? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: A Explanation: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. Incorrect Answers: B: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. C: The bus topology is similar to the ring topology, except that the cable does not form a complete loop, but is terminated at each end. D: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 632: Which physical network topology is shown in the following exhibit? banana CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: B Explanation: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. Incorrect Answers: A: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. C: The bus topology is similar to the ring topology, except that the cable does not form a complete loop, but is terminated at each end. D: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 633: Which physical network topology is shown in the following exhibit? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: D Explanation: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. Incorrect Answers: A: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. B: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. C: The bus topology is similar to the ring topology, except that the cable does not form a complete loop, but is terminated at each end. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 634: Which physical network topology is shown in the following exhibit? A. The star topology. B. The ring topology. C. The bus topology. D. The full-mesh topology. Answer: C Explanation: In the bus topology each host is connected to a single cable by means of a drop cable. The cable is terminated at each end. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Incorrect Answers: A: In the star topology each computer is connected to a central hub or switch by one cable or wireless connection. B: In the ring topology consists of a closed loop in which each host is connected to the node ahead of it and the node behind it in the loop. D: In the full-mesh topology, each host is connected to at least three other hosts. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 14-15. QUESTION 635: Which of the following can be used to connect dissimilar networks? A. Modem B. Switch C. Gateway D. Bridge Answer: C Explanation: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar network environments. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. B: A switch connects multiple segments of a network together. D: A bridge connects two similar network segments together but keeps traffic separated on both sides of the bridge. Traffic is only allowed to pass through the bridge if it is intended for a host on the other side of the bridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 32-34. QUESTION 636: Which of the following devices can be used to connect two similar network segments but keeps network traffic separate on the two segments? A. Modem B. Switch CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. Gateway D. Bridge Answer: D Explanation: A bridge connects two similar network segments together but keeps traffic separated on both sides of the bridge. Traffic is only allowed to pass through the bridge if it is intended for a host on the other side of the bridge. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. B: A switch connects multiple segments of a network together. C: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar network environments. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 32-34. QUESTION 637: Which of the following devices are used to connect multiple similar network segments? A. Modem B. Switch C. Gateway D. Bridge Answer: B Explanation: A switch connects multiple segments of a network together. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. C: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar network environments. D: A bridge connects only two similar network segments together. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 32-34. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 638: Which of the following can be used to connect to a Wireless network? A. Bridge B. Gateway C. Modem D. WAP Answer: D Explanation: A WAP (Wireless Access Point) is the connection point for a Wireless network. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. B: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar wired network environments. C: A bridge connects only two similar wired network segments together. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 33, 36-37. QUESTION 639: What is required to automatically assign an IP configuration to host computers? A. A subnet mask. B. A DNS server. C. A DHCP server. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: DHCP is used to automate the assignment of IP configurations to host computers which are then called DHCP clients. Incorrect Answers: A: A subnet mask is part of an IP configuration. It does not automate IP configurations. B: DNS is used for fully qualified domain name to IP Address resolution. It does not automate IP configurations. D: DHCP is used to automate the assignment of IP configurations to host computers. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 115, 116, 138-142, 144. QUESTION 640: Which of the following is used to automate the IP configuration of network hosts? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: C Explanation: DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. It does not automate IP configurations. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. It does not automate IP configurations. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses. It does not automate IP configurations. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 641: Which of the following provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: C Explanation: WINS provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. B: DNS provides host name to IP address resolution, not NetBIOS name to IP address CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 642: Which of the following provides HOST name to IP address resolution? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: B Explanation: DNS provides host name to IP address resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. C: WINS provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution, not host name to IP address resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 643: Which of the following provides name resolution on the Internet? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 The internet uses host names. DNS is responsible for host name resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. C: WINS provides NetBIOS name resolution, not host name resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 644: Which of the following describes an internal Web page that accessible to users within the organization? A. An intranet B. An internet C. An extranet D. An Internet Answer: A Explanation: An intranet is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and can be thought of as an internal internetwork. Thus resources made available to intranet users are only available to users on that network. Incorrect Answers: B: An internet is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. This can include internal and external networks. C: An extranet is similar to an intranet, which is made up of all networks under a single administrative control. The exception is that an extranet is and expansion of the intranet to include a few external or outside networks. D: The Internet is a global commercial conglomerate of TCP/IP internetworks that is often referred to as the World Wide Web (WWW). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 104. QUESTION 645: Which of the following describes an internal Web page that accessible to users outside the organization? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. An intranet B. An internet C. An extranet D. An Internet Answer: C Explanation: An extranet is similar to an intranet, which is made up of all networks under a single administrative control. The exception is that an extranet is and expansion of the intranet to include a few external or outside networks. Incorrect Answers: A: An intranet is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and can be thought of as an internal internetwork. Thus resources made available to intranet users are only available to users on that network. B: An internet is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. This can include internal and external networks. D: The Internet is a global commercial conglomerate of TCP/IP internetworks that is often referred to as the World Wide Web (WWW). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 104. QUESTION 646: Which of the following statements describes an intranet? A. A network that is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and is accessible to internal users only. B. A network is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. C. A network that is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and is accessible to internal users mainly but also to a few external users. D. A network that spans the glob and is not under a single administrative control. Answer: A Explanation: An intranet is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and can be thought of as an internal internetwork. Thus resources made available to intranet users are only available to users on that network. Incorrect Answers: B: An internet is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. This can include internal and external networks. C: An extranet is similar to an intranet, which is made up of all networks under a single administrative control. The exception is that an extranet is and expansion of the intranet to include a few external or outside networks. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D: The Internet is a global commercial conglomerate of TCP/IP internetworks that is often referred to as the World Wide Web (WWW). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 104. QUESTION 647: Which of the following statements describes an extranet? A. A network that is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and is accessible to internal users only. B. A network is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. C. A network that is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and is accessible to internal users mainly but also to a few external users. D. A network that spans the glob and is not under a single administrative control. Answer: C Explanation: An extranet is similar to an intranet, which is made up of all networks under a single administrative control. The exception is that an extranet is an expansion of the intranet to include a few external or outside networks. Incorrect Answers: A: An intranet is made up of all networks under a single administrative control and can be thought of as an internal internetwork. Thus resources made available to intranet users are only available to users on that network. B: An internet is made up of a number of networks that are interconnected. This can include internal and external networks. D: The Internet is a global commercial conglomerate of TCP/IP internetworks that is often referred to as the World Wide Web (WWW). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 104. QUESTION 648: Which access method is used in Token Ring? A. Token passing B. Full duplex C. CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) D. CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Explanation: Token passing occurs in Token Bus and Token Ring. Incorrect Answers: B: Full duplex describes a transmission characteristic in which data can be transmitted in both directs simultaneously. This is not an access method. C: Ethernet uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection). D: Wireless LAN uses CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance). Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 331-332. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-66. QUESTION 649: Which access method is used in IEEE 802.11 networks? A. Token passing B. Half duplex C. CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) D. CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is Wireless Ethernet which uses CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance). Incorrect Answers: A: Token passing occurs in Token Bus and Token Ring. B: Full duplex describes a transmission characteristic in which data can be transmitted in both directs simultaneously. This is not an access method. D: Ethernet uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-66. QUESTION 650: Which network relies on CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) for media access control? A. Token Bus B. Token Ring C. Ethernet D. Wireless CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D Explanation: Wireless networks use CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance). Incorrect Answers: A, B: Token passing occurs in Token Bus and Token Ring networks. C: Ethernet uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection). Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 331-332. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-66. QUESTION 651: Which access method is used in Ethernet? A. Token passing B. Full duplex C. CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) D. CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) Answer: D Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection). Incorrect Answers: A: Token passing occurs in Token Bus and Token Ring. B: Full duplex describes a transmission characteristic in which data can be transmitted in both directs simultaneously. This is possible in Ethernet, but is not an access method. C: CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) occurs in Wireless networks. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 331-332. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-66. QUESTION 652: Which IEEE standard describes Ethernet? A. 802.3 B. 802.4 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. 802.5 D. 802.11 Answer: A Explanation: The IEEE 802.3 standard describes a network that uses a bus topology, baseband signaling, and a CSMA/CD network access method. This standard was developed to match the Digital, Intel, and Xerox (DIX) Ethernet networking technology and is referred to as Ethernet. Incorrect Answers: B: IEEE 802.4 describes Token Bus. C: IEEE 802.5 describes Token Ring. D: IEEE 802.11 describes Wireless LAN. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 63-66. QUESTION 653: Which IEEE standard describes Token Ring? A. 802.3 B. 802.4 C. 802.5 D. 802.11 Answer: C Explanation: The IEEE 802.5 standard describes Token Ring. Incorrect Answers: A: IEEE 802.3 describes Ethernet. B: IEEE 802.4 describes Token Bus. D: IEEE 802.11 describes Wireless LAN. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 63-66. QUESTION 654: Which IEEE standard describes Wireless Ethernet? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. 802.3 B. 802.4 C. 802.5 D. 802.11 Answer: D Explanation: The IEEE 802.11 standard describes Wireless Ethernet. Incorrect Answers: A: IEEE 802.3 describes Ethernet. B: IEEE 802.4 describes Token Bus. C: IEEE 802.11 describes Token Ring. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 63-66. QUESTION 655: Which network relies on CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) for media access control? A. Token Bus B. Token Ring C. Ethernet D. Wireless Answer: C Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection). Incorrect Answers: A, B: Token passing occurs in Token Bus and Token Ring networks. D: Wireless networks use CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance). Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 320-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-66. QUESTION 656: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following are characteristics of a Peer-to-peer network rather than a client/server network? (Choose two.) A. Uses the TCP/IP protocol. B. Centralized security and administration. C. Supports a limited number of hosts. D. Hosts perform the role of both client sand servers. Answer: C, D Explanation: C: A peer-to-peer network should only contain a limited amount of computer, typically not more than 10 computers. D: All computers are peers acting as both client and servers. There is no dedicated server. Incorrect Answers A: TCP/IP is used in client/server networks as well as in a peer-to-peer network. B: A peer-to-peer network is de-centralized. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2001, p. 310-312. QUESTION 657: Which of the following would interfere with an IEEE 802.11g Wireless network? (Choose all that apply) A. Walls B. Bluetooth devices C. Microwave ovens D. IEEE 802.11a devices Answer: A, C Explanation: Walls interfere with all wireless networks with the more walls a wireless signal has to pass through, the greater the signal loss. Microwave ovens also use the unlicensed 2.4 GHz radio frequency band and could interfere with an IEEE 802.11g Wireless network. Incorrect Answers: B: Bluetooth and IEEE 802.11g uses different spread spectrum signaling methods which prevents interference between that two. Bluetooth uses the frequency hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) signaling method while IEEE 802.11g uses a direct sequence spread spectrum (DSSS). D: IEEE 802.11a devices operate at the 5.0 GHz radio frequency band and will not interfere with IEEE 802.11g networks which operate at the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 246-248, 473. QUESTION 658: Which of the following relies on DNS for name resolution? A. TCP/IP B. IPX/SPX C. NetBEUI D. AppleTalk Answer: A Explanation: TCP/IP uses DNS for name resolution. Incorrect Answers: B: IPX/SPX relies on either Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for name resolution. C: NetBEUI has no structure to its addressing format, making name resolution impossible. D: AppleTalk uses the Name Binding Protocol (NBP) to resolve a computer name to its network address. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-80, 90, 143. QUESTION 659: Which of the following operate at the Physical Layer? A. Hubs B. Routers C. Switches D. Wireless Access Points Answer: A Explanation: Hubs merely retransmit data and thus operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI reference model. Incorrect Answers: B: Routers are responsible for the efficient routing of network traffic in an internetwork. Routing occurs at the Network Layer (Layer 3) C: When a switch receives a transmission, it examines the Data Link header for the MAC address of the destination device and forwards the data to the correct port. MAC CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 addressing is performed at the Data Link layer; therefore a switch is a Data Link layer (Layer 2) device. D: Wireless Access Points (WAPs) use MAC addresses to filer traffic. MAC addressing is performed at the Data Link layer; therefore a WAP is a Data Link Layer (Layer 2) device. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 660: Which of the following operate at the Data Link Layer? (Choose all that apply) A. Hubs B. Routers C. Switches D. Wireless Access Points Answer: C, D Explanation: Both switches and Wireless Access Points (WAPs) use MAC addresses to filer traffic. As MAC addressing is performed at the Data Link Layer (Layer 2), both switches and WAPs are Layer 2 devices. Incorrect Answers: A: Hubs merely retransmit data and thus operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI reference model. B: Routers are responsible for the efficient routing of network traffic in an internetwork. Routing occurs at the Network Layer (Layer 3) References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 661: Which of the following operate at the Network Layer? A. Hubs B. Routers C. Switches D. Wireless Access Points CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B Explanation: Routers are responsible for the efficient routing of network traffic in an internetwork. As routing occurs at the Network Layer (Layer 3), Routers are Layer 3 devices. Incorrect Answers: A: Hubs merely retransmit data and thus operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI reference model. C, D: Both switches and Wireless Access Points (WAPs) use MAC addresses to filer traffic. As MAC addressing is performed at the Data Link Layer (Layer 2), both switches and WAPs are Layer 2 devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 662: At which layer of the OSI reference model does a router operate? A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: C Explanation: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing. A router is responsible for routing and functions at the Network Layer. Incorrect Answers: A: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium and physical topology. However, a router is used to route data on a routed network. This is a function of the Network Layer. B: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. However, a router is used to route data on a routed network, rather than on a physical link. D: concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. It is not responsible for routing. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 663: At which layer of the OSI reference model does a hub operate? A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: A Explanation: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium, the physical topology, the voltage, signal direction and signal strength. Hubs merely retransmit data and thus operate at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI reference model. Incorrect Answers: B: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. However, a hub merely retransmits data out all its ports. A hub thus does not operate at the Data Link Layer. C: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing. A hub merely retransmits data and does not perform routing. A hub thus does not operate at the Network Layer. D: The Transport Layer of the OSI is concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. However, a hub merely retransmits data and is not concerned with the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. A hub thus does not operate at the Transport Layer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 664: Which of the following operate at the upper three layers of the OSI model? A. Routers B. Switches C. Gateways D. Wireless Access Points Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A gateway is used to connect two dissimilar networks. It operates at all the layers of the OSI. Incorrect Answers: A: A router operates at the Network Layer of the OSI. The Network Layer is in the middle layers, not the upper layers, of the OSI. B, D: A switch and a Wireless Access Point are concerned with getting data over an individual link and operate at the Data Link Layer. The Data Link Layer is in the lower layers, not the upper layers, of the OSI. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 33, 36-37. QUESTION 665: Which of the following do NOT operate at Layer 2 of the OSI? (Choose all that apply) A. Bridges B. Routers C. Switches D. Wireless Access Points E. Network Interface Cards Answer: B, E Explanation: Routers operate at Layer 3 while Network Interface Cards operate at Layer 1. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: Bridges, switches and Wireless Access Points operate at the Data Link Layer of the OSI which is Layer 2. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 54-55, 66-69. QUESTION 666: Which of the following operate at the Data Link Layer of the OSI? A. Bridges, Switches, and Wireless Access Points. B. Wireless Access Points and Routers. C. Bridges, Switches, and Routers. D. Network Interface Cards. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: A Explanation: Bridges, Switches and Wireless Access Points all operate at the Data Link Layer of the OSI which is Layer 2. Incorrect Answers: B: Although Wireless Access Points operate Layer 2, Routers operate at Layer 3. C: Although Bridges and Switches operate at Layer 2, Routers operate at Layer 3. D: Network Interface Cards operate at Layer 1. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 54-55, 66-69. QUESTION 667: At which layers of the OSI reference model does packet filtering occur? A. At the Physical and Data Link Layers B. At the Data Link and Network Layers. C. At the Data Link and Transport Layers. D. At the Network and Transport Layers. Answer: D Explanation: The Network Layer of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end delivery of data packets. This includes routing and can include packet filtering. The Transport Layer of the OSI model is responsible for several functions, including the choice of protocols, error recovery and flow control, reordering of the incoming data stream. Through flow control, packet filtering can be implemented. Incorrect Answers: A: The Physical Layer of the OSI model is responsible for the actual, physical connection to the network. This function does not involve packet management or filtering. Also, the Data Link Layer of the OSI model is the link between the networking hardware and networking software. This layer is responsible for getting data across one particular link or medium. This does not involve packet management or filtering. B: The Network Layer of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end delivery of data packets. This includes routing and can include packet filtering. However, the Data Link Layer of the OSI model is the link between the networking hardware and networking software. This layer is responsible for getting data across one particular link or medium. This does not involve packet management or filtering. C: The Transport Layer of the OSI model is responsible for several functions, including the choice of protocols, error recovery and flow control, reordering of the incoming data CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 stream. Through flow control, packet filtering can be implemented. However, the Data Link Layer of the OSI model is the link between the networking hardware and networking software. This layer is responsible for getting data across one particular link or medium. This does not involve packet management or filtering. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 51-81. QUESTION 668: Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for signal encoding? A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: A Explanation: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium and physical topology. One of the functions of the Physical Layer is signal encoding, which is the translation of data into electronic signals that can be transmitted on a transmission medium. Incorrect Answers: B: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. It is not responsible for signal encoding. C: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing and is not responsible for signal encoding. D: The Transport Layer of the OSI is concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. It is not responsible for signal encoding. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 669: Which layer of the OSI reference model defines data delivery across an individual link? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: B Explanation: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. Incorrect Answers: A: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium and physical topology. One of the functions of the Physical Layer is signal encoding, which is the translation of data into electronic signals that can be transmitted on a transmission medium. It is not concerned with data delivery across an individual link. C: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing and is not with data delivery across an individual link. D: The Transport Layer of the OSI is concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. It is concerned with data delivery across an individual link. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 670: At which layer of the OSI reference model does routing occur? A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: C Explanation: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing. Incorrect Answers: A: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium and physical topology. One of the functions of the Physical Layer is signal encoding, which is the translation of data into CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 electronic signals that can be transmitted on a transmission medium. It is not concerned with routing. B: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. It is not concerned with routing. D: The Transport Layer of the OSI is concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. It is concerned with routing. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. QUESTION 671: Which layer of the OSI reference model is concerned with network addressing? A. The Physical Layer B. The Data Link Layer C. The Network Layer D. The Transport Layer Answer: C Explanation: The Network Layer of the OSI ensures that the data arrives at the correct destination. As such, it is concerned with network addressing and routing. Incorrect Answers: A: The Physical Layer of the OSI is concerned with the physical elements of the network. This includes the transmission medium and physical topology. One of the functions of the Physical Layer is signal encoding, which is the translation of data into electronic signals that can be transmitted on a transmission medium. It is not concerned with network addressing. B: The Data Link Layer of the OSI is concerned with getting data across a particular link or medium and defines delivery across an individual link. It is not concerned with network addressing. D: The Transport Layer of the OSI is concerned about the structure of messages and the validity of transmissions. It is not concerned with network addressing. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 317-320, 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 46-81. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 672: What does subnetting accomplish? A. The segmenting of a large network into smaller networks. B. Fully qualified domain name to IP address resolution. C. The automatic assignment of IP configurations. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: Subnetting is used to segment a large network into smaller networks. These smaller networks can then be interconnected by using routers. Incorrect Answers: B: DNS is used for fully qualified domain name (FQDM) to IP address resolution and vice versa. C: DHCP is used to automate the assignment of IP configurations to DHCP clients. D: Subnetting is used to segment a large network into smaller networks. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 130-133, 136-137, 144. QUESTION 673: Which of the following uses a PHYSICAL star topology? (Choose all that apply) A. ARCNet. B. Ethernet. C. Token Ring. D. Ethernet Bus. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: ARCNet and Ethernet both use the physical star topology while token ring uses the physical star but logical ring topology. Incorrect Answers: D: Ethernet Bus uses the physical bus topology. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 312-317, 322-323. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 130-133, 136-137, 144. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 674: Which of the following can be used to connect to a WLAN to a LAN? A. A Bridge B. A Gateway C. A Modem D. An Access Point Answer: D Explanation: A WAP (Wireless Access Point) is the connection point for a Wireless network. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. B: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar wired network environments. C: A bridge connects only two similar wired network segments together. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 33, 36-37. QUESTION 675: What is the maximum speed of a T1 Internet connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 44.736 Mbps D. 274.176 Mbps Answer: A Explanation: A T1 line operates at 1.544 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: B: An E1 line operates at 2.048 Mbps. C: A T3 line operates at 44.736 Mbps. D: A T4 line operates at 274.176 Mbps. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 293-294. QUESTION 676: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 What is the maximum speed of an E1 Internet connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 44.736 Mbps D. 274.176 Mbps Answer: B Explanation: An E1 line operates at 2.048 Mbps. Incorrect Answers: A: A T1 line operates at 1.544 Mbps. C: A T3 line operates at 44.736 Mbps. D: A T4 line operates at 274.176 Mbps. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 293-294. QUESTION 677: Which of the following is not a modem? A. ISDN B. CSU / DSU C. Cable D. DSL Answer: B Explanation: While a CSU / DSU connect a digital carrier line, such as the T-series or the DDS line to your network, it does not perform modulation and demodulation. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: ISDN, Cable and DSL are all modems that modulate digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 63-69, 293. QUESTION 678: Which of the following protects a network with Internet connectivity from attackers on the Internet? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. Bridge B. Gateway C. Modem D. Firewall Answer: D Explanation: A firewall prevents attackers on the Internet from direct access to LAN computers. It is often referred to as the first line of defense for a network with Internet connectivity. Incorrect Answers: A: A modem modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over the internet and demodulates from the analog carrier to a digital signal at the receiving end. It does not provide protection against internet based attackers. B: A gateway is any hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar wired network environments. It does not provide protection against internet based attackers. C: A bridge connects only two similar wired network segments together. It does not provide protection against internet based attackers. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 33, 36-37. QUESTION 679: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. A hub sends any transmission it receives on one port out all the other ports, including the receiving pair for the transmitting device. B. A firewall can prevent computers on the local area network from accessing services on the Internet and prevent users on the Internet from accessing resources on the local area network. C. Network Address Translation (NAT) maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP addresses, allowing users to access a public network such as the Internet, and can be implemented on a switch. D. A gateway is a hardware and software combination that connects dissimilar network environments and can be used to connect a local area network to a mainframe. Answer: C Explanation: NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP addresses, allowing users to access a public network such as the Internet, but can be implemented on a router or firewall, not a switch. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A, B, D: These are all true. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, pp. 332-334. David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 35-37, 111-112. QUESTION 680: The new Certkiller .com trainee technician wants to know how many transistors are housed by the Intel 486SX processor. How will you reply? A. 9.5 million B. 1.185 million C. 275,000 D. 5.5 million Answer: B Explanation: The Intel 486SX processor houses 1.185 million transistors. Incorrect Answer: A: The Pentium III Xeon houses 9.5 million transistors. C: The Pentium Pro houses 5.5 million transistors. D: The 386DX houses 275,000 transistors. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2002, p. 113 QUESTION 681: From the following display types takes up the least space on a desk? A. Terminal B. LCD C. CRT D. LED Answer: B QUESTION 682: Which of the following cannot be changed on a computer system? A. Time CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. IP address C. Mac Address D. Password Answer: C QUESTION 683: Which of the following can be replaced by a service technician? A. Integrated components B. FRUs (field replacement units) C. SFF (Smaal form factor) connectors D. SMDs (surface mounted devices) Answer: B QUESTION 684: When connecting the power cable of an AT power supply to the mother board, which two wires on the power connectors (P8/P9) should be together? A. The green wires. B. The white wires. C. The black wires. D. The brown wires. Answer: C QUESTION 685: You have a notebook with a single Type II connection. You purchase a multi-function PCMCIA card that is approximately a centimeter thick and uses a Type II connection or greater However, the PCMCIA card does not fit into Type II slot on the notebook. Why? A. Old Pentium class notebooks only support single function PCMCIA cards. B. The notebook must have a parallel port. C. The card requires either a dual Type II or a single Type III slot. D. This card requires Slot 1 (SC242). Answer: C QUESTION 686: Which of the following card configurations would MOST probably be supported on CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 notebook that has two stacked PCMCIA slots? (Choose two) A. two Type II PCMCIA cards B. one Type III PCMCIA card C. one Type II and one Type III PCMCIA card D. two Type I PCMCIA cards Answer: A, B QUESTION 687: Which of the following IRQs are available for general use? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 Answer: A, B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 688: Which of the following tabs in the Windows 98 Device Manager allows you to reconfigure the IRQ settings for a modem? A. Driver B. Resources C. Properties D. Advanced Answer: B QUESTION 689: Which IRQ is used by the keyboard? A. 8 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 B. 0 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: C QUESTION 690: ______ has the highest throughput. A. USB B. USB 2.0 C. SCSI D. IEEE-1394 Answer: B Explanation: Not so easy to answer as new Fireware and SCSI standards are developed. Max throughput: Fireware: 400 Mbps (original specification) Fireware: IEEE 1894b: 800 Mbps USB 2.0: 480 Mbps Ultra3 SCSI: 1280 Mbps QUESTION 691: The maximum segment length of a CAT5 UTP cable is _______. A. 246 feet (75 meters) B. 656 feet (200 meters) C. 328 feet (100 meters) D. 164 feet (50 meters) Answer: C QUESTION 692: Which of the following Ethernet cable standards supports transmission speeds of over 200 Mbps? A. CAT4 B. CAT3 C. CAT5 D. CAT6 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D QUESTION 693: How many devices are supported on per channel on a SCSI-1 controller card? A. 3 B. 27 C. 12 D. 7 Answer: D QUESTION 694: Which of the following supports transfer speeds of up to 480 Mbps and up to 127 devices per channel? A. IEEE 1284a B. SCSI-2 C. Firewire D. USB 2.0 Answer: D QUESTION 695: Which of the following has a female DB-25 connector? A. Serial connector B. Parallel connector C. SCSI connector D. Vertical connector Answer: B QUESTION 696: Which of the following PCMCIA cards are 5 mm thick and are fully I/O capable? A. Type III B. Type II C. Type I D. Type IV CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: B QUESTION 697: Which of the following services has a 128 kb/s copper wire connection? A. ADSL B. Cable C. ISP D. ISDN Answer: D QUESTION 698: Which of the following the types of connectors do Cat5e cables use? A. PS/2 B. DB9 C. RJ-45 D. SC Answer: C RJ-45 is short for Registered Jack-45, an eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a local-area networks (LAN), especially Ethernet, for example Cat5e. RJ-45 connectors look similar to the ubiquitous RJ-11 connectors used for connecting telephone equipment, but they are somewhat wider. QUESTION 699: Which of the following has a female RJ-45 connector? A. An Token Ring adapter card B. An Ethernet adapter card C. A modem card D. An ISDN Dial Up adapter Answer: B QUESTION 700: Which of the following co-axial cable is used for 10Base5? A. 50 OHM RG-8 B. 75 OHM RG-10 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. 100 OHM RG-58 D. 175 OHM RG-58 Answer: A 10Base5 cable uses 50 Ohm, RG-8, or RG-11 cable also called Thicknet. Note: The original cabling standard for Ethernet that uses coaxial cables. The name derives from the fact that the maximum data transfer speed is 10 Mbps, it uses baseband transmission, and the maximum length of cables is 500 meters. 10Base5 is also called thick Ethernet, ThickWire, and ThickNet. Not C: 10Base2 cable uses 50 Ohm, RG-58 cable also called Thinnet. QUESTION 701: Which of the following BEST describes the difference is between an RJ-45 connector and an RJ-11 connector? A. They have the same function but RJ-11 is used on older systems. B. RJ-11 is used for phone lines while RJ-45 is used for Ethernet network cables. C. RJ-45 is used for the phone line while RJ-11 is used for a slightly larger network cable. D. There is no difference. Answer: B QUESTION 702: Choose from the following which type of cluster would be located on a hard drive's platter. A. sector B. cylinder C. spindle D. address Answer: A QUESTION 703: As a network technician at Certkiller .com, you are required to set up a new file server. You purchase five 80 GB SCSI hard drives. You install Windows XP on one of the hard drives. The remaining hard drives are used to set up a RAID-5 partition. What the maximum disk space that would be available on the RAID-5 partition? A. 80 GB B. 160 GB C. 240 GB CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 D. 320 GB Answer: C Explanation: One of the four RAID-5 drives must be used for parity. The remaining three can be used for data. QUESTION 704: Which of the following has at least three hard drives and if one fails, all the data would still be accessible? A. RAID 1+0 B. RAID 2 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 0 Answer: C QUESTION 705: You are installing a second hard drive to a computer. How should you configure the jumper settings on the existing hard drive as well as the new hard to assure the same access speed? A. Set the existing hard drive to Cable Select and the new hard drive to Slave. B. Set the existing hard drive to Master and the new hard drive to Cable Select C. Set the existing hard drive to Master and the new hard drive to Slave. D. Set the existing hard drive to Slave and the new hard drive to Master. Answer: C QUESTION 706: What can be done to improve performance on a system if the CPU utilization is often above 75% throughout the work day? A. Upgrade the CPU B. Increase the RAM C. Upgrade the hard drive D. Upgrade network adapter Answer: A QUESTION 707: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A Windows XP system with 128 MB of RAM and a 2.4 GHz processor is used to scan images. Which of the following would provide the MOST improve performance on this system? A. More RAM. B. A larger power supply. C. A SATA hard drive. D. Updating the BIOS Answer: A QUESTION 708: On a Windows 2000 Professional system with a Pentium III 500 MHz processor, 64 MB of RAM, and a 10 GB ATA hard drive, which of the following will provide the MOST performance improvement? A. Increase the RAM to 256 MB B. A different video controller C. A larger hard drive D. A 1 GHz processor Answer: A QUESTION 709: Why would a 4X CD-ROM drive not be able to read data on a CD-RW disk? A. The 4X CD-ROM drive requires cleaning. B. The 4X CD-ROM drive needs to be formatted to support CD-RW disks. C. The 4X CD-ROM drive does not support the multi-read specification. D. The CD-RW disk is not formatted. Answer: C QUESTION 710: What the MOST likely cause of the LED on a floppy drive stays on continuously? A. There is a faulty floppy disk in the drive. B. The controller card is bad. C. The floppy cable is reversed. D. The drive is faulty. Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 711: A customer complains about visual distortion on his monitor. What might be the cause of the problem? A. A poor Internet connection. B. Unshielded speakers. C. A virus D. ISM Band Answer: B Explanation: An unshielded speaker close to a CRT monitor could distort the displayed image. QUESTION 712: Which of the following hardware components are the MOST likely to cause IRQ conflicts? A. Plug and play devices. B. DVD-ROM and DVD-RW drives. C. SCSI hard drives. D. Sound cards and network cards. E. AGP graphics cards. Answer: D QUESTION 713: Which of the following forms part of the troubleshooting process? A. Document the results B. Checking executable files C. Simplify the problem D. Having good signal strength Answer: A QUESTION 714: Which of the following would cause jitter on computer monitor, even after the monitor and video card are replaced? A. ESD (electrostatic discharge) B. RAMDAC CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. A loose cable D. EMI (electromagnetic interference) Answer: D QUESTION 715: Which of the below would be the most probable cause of a computer system reporting a parity error upon boot up? A. Connection problems B. Bad memory chip C. The motherboard is fried D. A failed hard drive Answer: B QUESTION 716: What is the MOST likely cause of a second ATA 100 hard drive not being recognized by the computer upon initial boot? A. The drive is not formatted B. There are too many cables on the drive C. The original 40 pin IDE cable is still in use and needs to be replaced with the new 80 pin IDE cable that was shipped with the drive. D. The IDE cable is still in use. Answer: C QUESTION 717: What can be done when the operating system does not recognize a new second hard drive immediately after installation? (Choose two.) A. check the cabling, jumpers, and Master/Slave designation of the drives B. partition and format the new hard drive C. reassemble the new hard drive D. check the power supply Answer: A, B QUESTION 718: On a new PC, which of the following is the MOST likely cause of for preventing the PC from booting from the Windows XP installation CD? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 A. The cable to CD-ROM drive is faulty. B. The CD is not a bootable disk. C. The PC is not compatible. D. The Boot Sequence in the BIOS is not set to boot from the CD first. Answer: D QUESTION 719: Which of the following must you do before you can boot from a bootable CD ROM? A. Make sure the hard drive is formatted with NTFS. B. Change the BIOS boot sequence to CD-ROM, A, C C. Press the F8 key during the boot sequence. D. Make a bootable diskette. Answer: B Explanation: The BIOS might be set to boot from the hard drive before it tries to boot from the CD-ROM. In this case the boot sequence must be changed to make it possible to boot from the CD-ROM QUESTION 720: What would be the first thing a technician would do before visiting a client who has reported that his/her computer has no sound? A. Recommend that the client purchases a sound card and speakers. B. Walk the client through the device settings and confirm that there is a sound card and that the speakers are connected and powered, and have the client check all cables connected to the sound card and the speakers. C. Make use of earphones and if still no sound the clients sound card is broken or not installed properly. D. Explain that computers only make a sound when there is an error, so all is well with his computer. Answer: B QUESTION 721: In the troubleshooting process, what is FIRST and definitely the most crucial step? A. Ensure that the system is connected correctly. B. Gather information about the problem. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 C. Restart the system. D. Check the System Error Log. Answer: B QUESTION 722: Which of the following utilities can be used to tests the path between the client and a network host? A. PING B. WINIPCFG C. NETSTAT D. IPCONFIG Answer: A QUESTION 723: Which of the following would you use to diagnose a network connectivity problem? A. BIOS B. DVM C. Cablemeter D. A Multimeter Answer: C, D Explanation: No LED indicates that there is no physical connection with the network. This could be caused by a faulty cable. With the LAN CableMeter or a multimeter you'll be able to test the cable. QUESTION 724: A customer reports that an application that ran fine earlier in the day, no longer runs. The customer rebooted the system but the application still will not run. What should the technician do next to determine the cause of the problem? A. Reboot the system. B. Re-install the application. C. Ask the user if there were any system hardware or software changes shortly before the application malfunction. D. Restart start the system and check the hard drive for errors. Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 725: How would you reset the system password on a PC? (Choose two.) A. Remove the CMOS battery for 10 to 15 seconds. B. Enable the CMOS clear jumper. C. Recharge the CMOS battery for 10 to 15 seconds. D. Unplug the system power for 30 seconds Answer: A, B QUESTION 726: What would happen when you configure an ATAPI CD-ROM as a Slave to an Ultra ATA hard drive? A. increased CD-ROM and hard drive performance B. increased CD-ROM performance C. decreased hard drive performance D. nothing Answer: C QUESTION 727: Which of the following should a technician do to prevent electrostatic damage while working on a computer? (Choose two.) A. Touch the system chassis with wet hands while the power cord is plugged in. B. Touch the system chassis while the power cord is plugged in. C. Wear a grounding strap that is properly connected to the system chassis. D. Stick a screwdriver into the power supply to discharge the static buildup. Answer: B, C QUESTION 728: Which of the following are the MOST susceptible to ESD (electrostatic discharge) damage? (Choose two.) A. processors B. keyboards C. monitors D. memory chips Answer: A, D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 729: Which of the following can be used to clean the inside of a computer? A. a simple ammonia and water solution B. pure alcohol C. antistatic spray D. compressed air Answer: D QUESTION 730: A system has two hard drives configured as Master and Slave. The Slave drive crashes, and the Master drive with the operating system cannot boot. Select from the list below which technique would work BEST to keep this from happening again without degrading system performance. A. configure both drives as Master so the remaining drive can boot B. swap the IDE channel with the Master drive C. configure both drives as Single drives so the remaining drive can boot D. swap the CD-ROM and Slave drives between the Primary and Secondary IDE channels Answer: D QUESTION 731: What do MSDS (material safety data sheets) cover? A. Means of increasing employee awareness B. Means to prevent the employer's liability C. Means to prevent bureaucratic oversight D. Means to provide substance specific storage, handling and safety information Answer: D QUESTION 732: Which of the following processor uses a Slot 1 socket? A. Intel Pentium 4 B. Cyrix 386 SX C. AMD Duron D. Intel Pentium II CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Answer: D QUESTION 733: Which of the following sockets are used for a 3.4 GHz Pentium 4 processor? A. Socket 423 B. Socket 462 C. Socket 478 D. Socket 754 E. Socket A Answer: C Explanation: Socket 478 is a type of CPU socket used for Intel's Pentium 4 and Celeron series CPUs. Incorrect Answers: A: Socket 423 is a CPU socket that was used for the first Pentium 4 processors based on the Willamette core. However, it was short-lived as it quickly became apparent that it had inadequate electrical design, which would have not allowed many clock-speed rises above 2.0 GHz. It was replaced by Socket 478. B, E: Socket A (also known as Socket 462) is the CPU socket used for AMD processors ranging from the Athlon K7 to the Athlon XP 3200+, and AMD budget processors including the Duron and Sempron. D: Socket 754 is a CPU socket originally developed by AMD to succeed its powerful Athlon XP platform (Socket 462, also referred to as Socket A). QUESTION 734: How can HyperThreading be disabled on a 2.8 GHz Pentium 4 system? A. Disable HyperThreading in the system BIOS. B. Disable HyperThreading in the Device Manager. C. Disable HyperThreading on the motherboard. D. A Pentium 2.8 GHz CPU does not support HyperThreading Answer: A To disable Hyper-Threading: Press F9 at POST to enter ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU) From the Main Menu, select Advanced Options From the Advanced Options menu, select Hyper-Threading Select Disabled. QUESTION 735: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 How many pins does standard DIMM have? A. 72 B. 120 C. 168 D. 200 Answer: C QUESTION 736: Which of the following are typical pinout styles for DIMMs? (Choose two.) A. 168 pin B. 160 pin C. 172 pin D. 184 pin Answer: A, D QUESTION 737: Which of the following can be attached to a standard ATX motherboard with two EIDE controllers? A. Each channel can have four Masters and two Slaves. B. Each channel can have two Masters and four Slaves. C. Each channel can have one Master and one Slave. D. Each channel can have only one Master. Answer: C QUESTION 738: Which of the following are differences between the older AT style Form Factor and the newer ATX Form Factor? (Choose two) A. Different style of motherboard power connector. B. Fewer expansion slots on the motherboard. C. Integrated Serial, Parallel and USB connectors. D. Voltage regulation modules. Answer: A, C QUESTION 739: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 Which of the following power supply requirements you examine before replacing an old Pentium 2 motherboard with a new Pentium 4 motherboard and processor? A. a -5VDC 4 pin connector B. a +15VDC 6 pin connector C. a +12VDC 4 pin connector D. a +12VDC 6 pin connector Answer: C QUESTION 740: A customer has cleared the CMOS on his system. What would this cause? A. BIOS settings are lost. B. System passwords are lost. C. Date and time are lost. D. Hard drive directories are kept. Answer: B QUESTION 741: You attach a printer to a four port unpowered USB hub that is connected to a notebook. However, you cannot print to the printer. What is the cause of this problem? A. The printer drivers are not installed properly. B. The printer has no USB cable. C. The printer cartridge needs to be purged. D. The portable printer requires more power than is available through the USB hub. Answer: D QUESTION 742: What is the MOST likely cause of the problem when a local printer fails to print a large document and the document cannot be deleted from the print queue? A. The user does not have full printer administration rights. B. The printer cable is not bi-directional. C. The user is not linked to the printer. D. The print job is too big for the amount of available memory. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 743: When a user cannot print a different file from a graphics application, the FIRST thing a technician should do is ______. A. install another printer B. print a different file to see if the problem still exists C. update the printer driver D. reboot the computer and reprint the job Answer: B QUESTION 744: An Ethernet 100BaseT NIC (network interface card) with an RJ-45 socket uses ______ cable. A. RG-8 Co-axial B. UTP CAT5 C. ultra SCSI D. fibre optic Answer: B QUESTION 745: Which of the following allows a workstation to have a variable length host name? A. IPX B. IP C. NetBIOS D. Appletalk Answer: D QUESTION 746: Which of the following describes a transmission technology on which data can be transmitted in both directions on a signal carrier, but NOT at the same time? A. bi-directional B. half duplex C. full duplex D. multi directional Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 747: Which of the following are typical speeds of Ethernet networks? (Choose two.) A. 8 Mbps B. 10 Mbps C. 4 Mbps D. 100 Mbps Answer: B, D QUESTION 748: For which of the following is satellite-based Internet connectivity classified as fairly decent? A. teleconferencing B. large downloads C. increasing bandwidth D. Internet Telephony Answer: B QUESTION 749: Which of the following IP blocks are reserved for private networks? A. 190.0.x.x B. 240.0.x.x C. 127.0.x.x D. 192.168.x.x Answer: D QUESTION 750: ADSL is an acronym for ______. A. automatic digital signal length B. asymmetric digital subscriber line C. advanced data system length D. asynchronous digital submission line Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-301 QUESTION 751: A customer reports that his laptop can no longer print to the printer, after relocating a Wireless IrDA (Infrared data association) printer. Explain by choosing from the following what the MOST likely cause of this problem would be. A. The printer is more than one meter (3 feet) from the laptop. B. The printer driver has not been set up. C. The laptop needs to be rebooted. D. The printer needs to be installed. Answer: A Explanation IrDA range is about 1 meter. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam ...
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This note was uploaded on 10/25/2010 for the course NET 101 taught by Professor Williams during the Spring '10 term at FAU.

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