220-302 OperatingSystems-1

220-302 OperatingSystems-1 - Exam : 220-302 Title : A+ OS...

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Unformatted text preview: Exam : 220-302 Title : A+ OS technologies Ver : 04.12.07 220-302 QUESTION 1: Which of the following operating systems features Windows Product Activation (WPA) technology? A. Windows ME B. Windows 95 C. Windows 98 D. Windows 2000 E. Windows XP Answer: E Explanation: Windows XP is the first operating system to feature Windows Product Activation (WPA) technology. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 749. QUESTION 2: Which of the following is TRUE with regard to the differences between the Windows 95/98 and Windows 2000 graphical user interface (GUI)? A. The two interfaces are totally different. B. The two interfaces are identical. C. The only difference between the two interfaces is that the names of some icons have changed. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: When you look at the monitor of a machine running Windows 98 and then look at the monitor of a machine running Windows 2000, it is difficult to tell the two apart. If you look closely, you will notice that the names of some icons have changed, but for the most part the two are identical. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 473. QUESTION 3: Which of the following was the first Microsoft operating system to introduce the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 GUI as part of the OS, instead of providing a graphic interface to the existing DOS OS? A. Windows 3.x B. Windows NT 4.0 C. Windows 98 D. Windows 95 E. Windows 2000 Answer: D Explanation: In the fall of 1995 Microsoft released a major upgrade to the DOS/Windows environment, called Windows 95. The new product integrated the operating system and the shell. Where previous versions of Windows simply provide a graphic interface to the existing DOS OS, the Windows 95 graphical interface is part of the OS. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 457. QUESTION 4: You just completed a hardware upgrade of a Windows 95 home computer, and now you have to upgrade the operating system. Which of the following is the operating system you would recommend? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows NT Workstation B. Windows 98 C. Windows ME D. Windows 2000 Answer: B, C Explanation: Windows 98 and Windows ME are better suited for home users. Incorrect Answers: A, D: Windows NT Workstation and Windows 2000 professional should be installed for high end users who require higher performance and strong security. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 463. QUESTION 5: Which of the following are tabs that you would not find on the display properties window of Windows XP computer, but will find on a Windows 98 computer? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 (Choose all that apply) A. Background B. Web C. Settings D. Screen Saver Answer: A, B QUESTION 6: Of the following display properties tabs, which is common in Windows 2000 and Windows XP? (Choose all that apply) A. Appearance B. Background C. Web D. Settings E. Screen Saver Answer: A, D, E QUESTION 7: Which of the following is a Windows 98 display properties tab that serves the same purpose as the "Themes" tab in the Windows XP display properties? A. Appearance B. Background C. Web D. Settings E. Screen Saver Answer: B Explanation: The one big difference in XP is that the "Background" tab (Windows 9x/2000) changed to become "Themes" in Windows XP. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 743. QUESTION 8: Which of the following best describes why Microsoft introduced the Windows Product Activation (WPA) technology? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. To keep a record of Windows XP users. B. To prevent users who don't have internet access from using Windows XP. C. To cut down on software piracy. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Windows XP is the first operating system to feature Windows Product Activation (WPA) technology, which was developed to cut down on software piracy. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 749. QUESTION 9: As part of your training, you have just completed installing a graphics card into a PC running Windows 98 and now need to change the screen resolution. Which of the following steps would allow you to accomplish this objective the quickest? A. Left click the desktop, select properties, and then select settings. B. Right click the desktop, select properties, and then select settings. C. Left click the start button, select the control panel, select display, and then select settings. D. Left click the start button, select settings, select the control panel, select display, and then select settings. Answer: B QUESTION 10: Which of the following provides a consistent environment for other software to execute commands? A. Hard disks B. Processor C. Operating System D. RAM Answer: C Explanation: The Operating System (OS) provides a consistent environment for other software to execute commands and gives users an interface with the computer so commands can be sent (input) and receive feedback or results back (output). CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: The hard disk is a physical piece of equipment and does not provide for the scenario. B: The processor is very important but it caries out the instructions not the environment. D: The RAM is important for the computer but it does not provide the environment. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 476 QUESTION 11: Which of the following is the method by which a person communicates with a computer? A. Preemptive multitasking B. Graphical user interface (GUI) C. Source D. Cooperative multitasking Answer: B Explanation: The user interface is the method used to communicate with a computer. GUIs use a mouse, touch pad, or keyboard to interact with the computer to issue commands. Incorrect Answers: A: This is a multitasking method in which the operating system allots each application a certain amount of processor time and forcibly takes back control and gives another application or task access to the processor. C: The source is the actual code that defines how a piece of software works. D: This is a multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 479 QUESTION 12: Which of the following has a group of computers that have a physical communication link between them? A. Graphical user interface (GUI) B. Cooperative multitasking C. Source D. Network Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: A network can be classified as any group of computers that have a physical communication link between them which allows them to share information and resources quickly and securely. Incorrect Answers: A: The user interface is the method used to communicate with a computer. GUIs use a mouse, touch pad, or keyboard to interact with the computer to issue commands. B: This is a multitasking method that depends on the application itself to be responsible for using and then freeing access to the processor. C: The source is the actual code that defines how a piece of software works. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 479 QUESTION 13: What is the ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time known as? A. Graphical user interface (GUI) B. Source C. Preemptive multitasking D. Multithreading Answer: D Explanation: Multithreading is the ability of a single application to have multiple requests in to the processor at one time which results in faster application performance, because it allows a program to do many things at once. Incorrect Answers: A: The user interface is the method used to communicate with a computer. GUIs use a mouse, touch pad, or keyboard to interact with the computer to issue commands. B: The source is the actual code that defines how a piece of software works. C: This is a multitasking method in which the operating system allots each application a certain amount of processor time and forcibly takes back control and gives another application or task access to the processor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 479 QUESTION 14: Which of the following command syntax allows the user to set or remove file attributes? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. CD B. MSCDEX C. ATTRIB D. DISKCOPY Answer: C Explanation: The ATTRIB command is the command that is used to allow the user to set or remove file attributes. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. B: This is the command that is used to accesses CD-ROMs. D: This is the command that is used to duplicate floppy disks. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 15: Which of the following command syntax changes your current folder to another folder? A. FORMAT B. DELTREE C. ATTRIB D. CD Answer: D Explanation: The CD command is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. B: This is the command that is used to deletes files and subdirectories and it is a more powerful extension of the DEL command. C: This is the command that is used to allow the user to set or remove file attributes. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 16: Which of the following command syntax can be used to examines the hard drives of the computer? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. MSCDEX B. CHECKDSK C. FORMAT D. ATTRIB Answer: B Explanation: The CHECKDSK command is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to accesses CD-ROMs. C: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. D: This is the command that is used to allow the user to set or remove file attributes. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 17: Which of the following command syntax can be used to copy a file to another directory? A. CHECKDSK B. FORMAT C. MSCDEX D. COPY Answer: D Explanation: The COPY command is the command that is used to copy files from one location to another location. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. B: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. C: This is the command that is used to accesses CD-ROMs. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 18: Which of the following command syntax can be used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. DEL B. CHECKDSK C. CD D. DEFRAG Answer: D Explanation: The DEFRAG command is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to delete a file. B: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. C: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 19: Which of the following command syntax can be used to delete files from your hard drive? A. MSCDEX B. FORMAT C. CHECKDSK D. DEL Answer: D Explanation: The DEL command is the command that is used for the deletion of files individually. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to accesses CD-ROMs. B: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. C: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 20: Which of the following command syntax can be used to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. CHECKDSK B. COPY C. FORMAT D. DELTREE Answer: D Explanation: The DELTREE command is the command that is used to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. B: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. C: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 21: Which of the following command syntax can be used to display the contents of the current folder? A. FORMAT B. CHECKDSK C. DIR D. DEFRAG Answer: C Explanation: The DIR command is the command that is used to display the contents of the current folder. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. B: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. D: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 22: Which of the following command syntax can be used to duplicate floppy disks? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. CHECKDSK B. DEFRAG C. DEL D. DISKCOPY Answer: D Explanation: The DISKCOPY command is the command that is used for the Duplication of a floppy disk. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. B: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. C: This is the command that is used for the deletion of files individually. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 23: Which of the following command syntax can be used to list the recently issued commands with a prompt session? A. COPY B. CHECKDSK C. DOSKEY D. DELTREE Answer: C Explanation: The DOSKEY command is the command that is used to list the recently issued commands with a prompt session. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. B: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. D: This is the command that is used to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 24: Which of the following command syntax can be used to create, delete and manage CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 hard disk partitions? A. DIR B. DEFRAG C. COPY D. FDISK Answer: D Explanation: The FDISK command is the command that is used to create, delete and manage hard disk partitions. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. B: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. C: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 25: Which of the following command syntax can be used to prepare a drive for first time usage? A. CHECKDSK B. DEFRAG C. FORMAT D. COPY Answer: C Explanation: The FORMAT command is the command that is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. B: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. D: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 26: Which of the following command syntax can be used for the creation of a new folder? A. CD B. DISKCOPY C. CHECKDSK D. MD Answer: D Explanation: The MD command is the command that is used for the creation of a new folder. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. B: This is the command that is used to duplicate a floppy disk. C: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 27: Which of the following command syntax can be used to provide information on how much memory is available to the system? A. CHECKDSK B. DISKCOPY C. MEM D. MSCDEX Answer: C Explanation: The MEM command is the command that is used to provide information on how much memory is available to the system. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to examine the hard drive of your computer. B: This is the command that is used to duplicate a floppy disk. D: This is the command that is used to accesses CD-ROMs. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 28: Which of the following command syntax can be used to move files from one location to another? A. CD B. MD C. DIR D. MOVE Answer: D Explanation: The MOVE command is the command that is used to move files from one location to another. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. B: This is the command that is used for the creation of new folders. C: This is the command that is used to display the contents of the current folder. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 29: Which of the following command syntax can be used to access CD-ROMs? A. CD B. MD C. MSCDEX D. DELTREE Answer: C Explanation: The MSCDEX command is the command that is used to access CD-ROM drives. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. B: This is the command that is used for the creation of new folders. D: This is the command that is used to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 30: Which of the following command syntax can be used to rename the original file to something else? A. CD B. DIR C. MD D. REN Answer: D Explanation: The REN command is the command that is used for the renaming of your files. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to change your current folder to another folder. B: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. C: This is the command that is used for the creation of new folders. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 31: Which of the following command syntax can be used to examine the hard drives of the computer? A. DEFRAG B. COPY C. DIR D. SCANDISK Answer: D Explanation: The SCANDISK command is the command that can be used to examine the hard drives as it is the same as the CHECKDSK command. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. B: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. C: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 32: Which of the following command syntax can be used to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files? A. COPY B. DIR C. SCANREG D. DEFRAG Answer: C Explanation: The SCANREG command is the command that is used to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. B: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. D: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 33: Which of the following command syntax can be used to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities? A. SETVER B. XCOPY C. DIR D. DEFRAG Answer: A Explanation: The SETVER command is the command that is used to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities. Incorrect Answers: B: This is the command that is used to duplicate files and subdirectories and it is an extension of the COPY command. C: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. D: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 34: Which of the following command syntax can be used to prepare the hard drive to be used to start a computer? A. SETVER B. SYS C. DEFRAG D. SCANREG Answer: B Explanation: The SYS command is the command that is used to prepare the hard drive to be used to start a computer. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities. C: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. D: This is the command that is used to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 35: Which of the following command syntax can be used to check the current version of the operating system? A. VER B. DIR C. DEFRAG D. SCANREG Answer: A Explanation: The VER command is the command that is used to check the current version of the operating system. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: This is the command that is used to displays the contents of the current folder. C: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. D: This is the command that is used to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 36: Which of the following command syntax can be used to duplicate files and subdirectories and is also an extension of the COPY command? A. SCANREG B. COPY C. DEFRAG D. XCOPY Answer: D Explanation: The XCOPY command is the command that is used to duplicate files and subdirectories and is also an extension of the COPY command. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the command that is used to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. B: This is the command that is used to copy a file from one location to another location. C: This is the command that is used to defragment or reorganize the files on the computers hard drives, which usually results in better performance. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 37: What is the purpose and function of the ATTRIB command? A. Allows you to delete a file from the folder B. Allows you to copy a file into another directory C. Allows you to set or remove file attributes D. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The purpose and function of the ATTRIB command is to let you set or remove file attributes. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. B: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. D: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 38: What is the purpose and function of the CD command? A. Allows you to delete a file from the folder B. Allows you to copy a file into another directory C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to display the contents of the current folder Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the CD command is to allow you to change your current folder to another folder. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. B: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DIR command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 39: What is the purpose and function of the CHECKDSK command? A. Allows you to examines the hard drives of the computer B. Allows you to delete a file from the folder C. Allows you to copy a file into another directory D. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the CHECKDSK command is to allow you to examine the hard drives of the computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: B: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. C: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. D: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 40: What is the purpose and function of the COPY command? A. Allows you to copy a file into another directory B. Allows you to set or remove file attributes C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the COPY command is to allow you to copy a file into another directory. Incorrect Answers: B: This is the purpose and function of the ATTRIB command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. D: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 41: What is the purpose and function of the DEFRAG command? A. Allows you to delete a file from the folder B. Allows you to copy a file into another directory C. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks D. Allows you to defragment (reorganize) the files on your computers hard drives, resulting in better performance Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the DEFRAG command is to allows you to defragment (reorganize) the files on your computers hard drives, resulting in better performance. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. B: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. C: This is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 42: What is the purpose and function of the DEL command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows you to set or remove file attributes C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to delete a file from the folder Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the DEL command is to allow you to delete a file from the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command. B: This is the purpose and function of the ATTRIB command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 43: What is the purpose and function of the DELTREE command? A. Allows you to copy a file into another directory B. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder C. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks D. Allows you to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the DELTREE command is to allow you to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. C: This is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 44: What is the purpose and function of the DIR command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows you to set or remove file attributes C. Allows you to delete a file from the folder D. Allows you to display the contents of the current folder Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the DIR command is to allow you to display the contents of the current folder. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command. B: This is the purpose and function of the ATTRIB command. C: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 45: What is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command? A. Allows you to duplicates floppy disks B. Allows you to copy a file into another directory C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to display the contents of the current folder Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command is to allow you to duplicate floppy disks. Incorrect Answers: B: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DIR command. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 46: What is the purpose and function of the DOSKEY command? A. Allows you to set or remove file attributes B. Allows you to copy a file into another directory C. Allows you to list the recently issued commands with a prompt session D. Allows you to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the DOSKEY command is to allow you to list the recently issued commands with a prompt session. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the ATTRIB command. B: This is the purpose and function of the COPY command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DELTREE command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 47: What is the purpose and function of the FDISK command? A. Allows you to create a new folder B. Allows you to prepare a drive for use C. Allows you to create, delete and manage hard disk partitions D. Allows you to list the recently issued commands with a prompt session Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the FDISK command is to allow you to create, delete and manage hard disk partitions. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the MD command. B: This is the purpose and function of the FORMAT command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DOSKEY command. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 48: What is the purpose and function of the FORMAT command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows you to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to prepare a drive for use Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the FORMAT command is to allow you to prepare a drive for first time usage. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the DISKCOPY command. B: This is the purpose and function of the DELTREE command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 49: What is the purpose and function of the MD command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows for the creation of new folders C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to delete a file from the folder Answer: B Explanation: The purpose and function of the MD command is to allow you to create new folders. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 50: What is the purpose and function of the MEM command? A. Allows you to access the CD-ROMs B. Allows you to move files from one folder to another C. Allows you to prepare a drive for usage D. Allows you to provide information on how much memory is available to the system Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the MEM command is to allow you to provide information on how much memory is available to the system. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command. B: This is the purpose and function of the MOVE command. C: This is the purpose and function of the FORMAT command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 51: What is the purpose and function of the MOVE command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder C. Allows you to provide information on how much memory is available to the system D. Allows you to move files from one folder to another Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the MOVE command is to allow you to move files from one folder to another. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. B: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. C: This is the purpose and function of the MEM command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 52: What is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command? A. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder B. Allows you to delete a file from the folder C. Allows you to create, delete and manage hard disk partitions D. Allows you to access CD-ROMs Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the MSCDEX command is to allow you to access the CD-ROMs. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. B: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. C: This is the purpose and function of the FDISK command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 53: What is the purpose and function of the REN command? A. Allows you to examine the hard drives at the computer B. Allows you to renames a file C. Allows you to access the CD-ROMs D. Allows you to move files from one folder to another Answer: B Explanation: The purpose and function of the REN command is to allow you to rename files. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the SCANDISK command. C: This is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command. D: This is the purpose and function of the MOVE command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 54: What is the purpose and function of the SCANDISK command? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Allows you to examine the hard drives of the computer B. Allows you to delete files and subdirectories and is a more powerful extension of the DEL command C. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks D. Allows you to delete a file from the folder Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the SCANDISK command is to allow you to examine the hard drives of the computer and is similar to CHECKDSK. Incorrect Answers: B: This is the purpose and function of the DELTREE command. C: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. D: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 55: What is the purpose and function of the SCANREG command? A. Allows you to rename a file B. Allows you to create a new folder C. Allows you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files D. Allows you to access CD-ROMs Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the SCANREG command is to allow you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the REN command. B: This is the purpose and function of the MD command. D: This is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 526 QUESTION 56: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 What is the purpose and function of the SETVER command? A. Allows you to duplicates floppy disks B. Allows you to access CD-ROMs C. Allows you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files D. Allows you to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the SETVER command is to allow you to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. B: This is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command. C: This is the purpose and function of the SCANREG command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 57: What is the purpose and function of the SYS command? A. Allows you to prepare a drive to be used to start a computer B. Allows you to rename a file C. Allows you to set the version and reports version numbers of DOS utilities D. Allows you to access CD-ROMs Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the SYS command is to allow you to prepare a drive for starting the computer. Incorrect Answers: B: This is the purpose and function of the REN command. C: This is the purpose and function of the SETVER command. D: This is the purpose and function of the MSCDEX command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 58: What is the purpose and function of the VER command? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Allows you to prepares a drive to be used to start a computer B. Allows you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files C. Allows you to rename a file D. Allows you to check the current version of the operating system Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the VER command is to allow you to check the current version of the operating system. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the SYS command. B: This is the purpose and function of the SCANREG command. C: This is the purpose and function of the REN command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 59: What is the purpose and function of the XCOPY command? A. Allows you to duplicate floppy disks B. Allows you to delete a file from the folder C. Allows you to change your current folder to another folder D. Allows you to duplicate files and subdirectories and is an extension of the COPY command Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the XCOPY command is to allow you to duplicate files and subdirectories and is an extension of the COPY command. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the purpose and function of the COPYDISK command. B: This is the purpose and function of the DEL command. C: This is the purpose and function of the CD command. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 527 QUESTION 60: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need to CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 ignore the existing installation when running the Windows 95 Setup, which of the command line options would you use? A. /is B. /d C. /l D. /iq Answer: B Explanation: The /d command is used to let setup know it must ignore the existing installation and only applies for upgrades. Incorrect Answers: A: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. C: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. D: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 61: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need the Windows 95 Setup to use a preconfigured setup file for the installation, which of the command line options would you use? A. /is B. /d C. /l D. Setup <filename.ini> Answer: D Explanation: The Setup <filename.ini> command is used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use and the command is used without the < and >. Incorrect Answers: A: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. B: The /d command is used to let setup ignore existing installations and is used only in upgrades. C: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 62: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 you know your computer has enough disk space so you want to have the Windows 95 Setup skip the disk space check, which of the command line options would you use? A. /l B. /is C. /id D. /iq Answer: C Explanation: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. Incorrect Answers: A: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. B: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check D: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 63: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you want to speedup the installation by skipping the cross-linked files check, which of the command line options would you use? A. /p B. /n C. /id D. /iq Answer: D Explanation: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. Incorrect Answers: A: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. B: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. C: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 64: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you want to speedup the installation by skipping the routine system check, which of the command line options would you use? A. /id B. /n C. /is D. /iq Answer: C Explanation: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. Incorrect Answers: A: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. B: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. D: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 65: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs), which of the command line options would you use? A. /it B. /n C. /id D. /T:C:\temp Answer: A Explanation: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). Incorrect Answers: B: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. C: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. D: The /T:C:\temp is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 66: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need to have the Logitech mouse enabled during the setup, which of the command line options would you use to activate the mouse? A. /is B. /l C. /p D. /n Answer: B Explanation: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. Incorrect Answers: A: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. C: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. D: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 67: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need to have the Windows 95 Setup run without the mouse, which of the command line options would you use? A. /n B. /T:C:\tmp C. /is D. /iq Answer: A Explanation: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. Incorrect Answers: B: The /T:C:\temp is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. C: The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. D: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 68: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need have the setup skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices, which of the command line options would you use? A. /n B. /id C. /p D. /it Answer: C Explanation: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. Incorrect Answers: A: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. B: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. D: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 69: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 but you need to specify where setup should place the temporary files, which of the command line options would you use? A. /p B. /n C. /T:C:\tmp D. /it Answer: C Explanation: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. Incorrect Answers: A: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. B: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. D: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 70: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on your computer and you need to specify where setup can locate the Windows 2000 source files, which of the command line options would you use? A. /t:tempdrive B. /u:answerfile C. /e:command D. /s:sourcepath Answer: D Explanation: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. Incorrect Answers: A: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. B: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. C: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 71: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on your computer and you need to specify where setup should place the temporary files used, which of the command line options would you use? A. /u:answerfile B. /udf:id [,UDB_file] C. /e:command D. /t:tempdrive Answer: D Explanation: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. Incorrect Answers: A: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. C: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 72: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on your computer and you need to run it unattended to provide the responses, which of the command line options would you use? A. /t:tempdrive B. /s:sourcepath C. /u:answerfile D. /e:command Answer: C Explanation: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. Incorrect Answers: A: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. B: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. D: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 73: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on your computer and you need the setup to use accessibility options, which of the command line options would you use? A. /t:tempdrive B. /e:command C. /a D. /s:sourcepath Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. Incorrect Answers: A: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. B: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. D: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 74: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on multiple computers, which of the command line options would you use? A. /u:answerfile B. /t:tempdrive C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. /s:sourcepath Answer: C Explanation: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. Incorrect Answers: A: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. B: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. D: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 75: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 on your computer and you need to let the setup run another command after the setup completes, which of the command line options would you use? A. /s:sourcepath CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. /e:command C. /a D. /t:tempdrive Answer: B Explanation: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. Incorrect Answers: A: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. C: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. D: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 76: You are in the process of performing an installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to specify where the Windows 2000 source files are located, which of the command line options would you use? A. /unattend B. /cmd: command_line C. /s:sourcepath D. /checkupgradeonly Answer: C Explanation: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. Incorrect Answer: A: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. B: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. D: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 77: You are in the process of performing an installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to specify where setup is to place the temporary files, which of the command line options would you use? A. /unattend B. /s:sourcepath C. /cmd: command_line D. /tempdrive: drive_letter Answer: D Explanation: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. Incorrect Answers: A: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. B: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. C: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 78: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to run the setup without any user intervention, which of the command line options would you use? A. /unattend B. /cmd: command_line C. /checkupgradeonly D. /debug[level]: [filename] Answer: A Explanation: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. Incorrect Answers: B: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. C: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 79: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation, which of the command line options would you use? A. /unattend B. /cmd: command_line C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. /unattend[num]: [answer_file] Answer: D Explanation: The /unattand[num]: [answer_file] command is used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation. Incorrect Answers: A: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. B: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. C: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 80: You are in the process of performing an installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to have the setup execute another command or batch file after setup is finished, which of the command line options would you use? A. /debug[level]: [filename] B. /udf:id [,UDB_file] C. /s:sourcepath D. /cmd: command_line Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. Incorrect Answers: A: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. C: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 81: You are in the process of performing an installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade, which of the command line options would you use? A. /s:sourcepath B. /unattend C. /debug[level]: [filename] D. /makelocalsource Answer: C Explanation: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. Incorrect Answers: A: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. B: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. D: The /makelocalsource command is used to let setup copy the entire CD to the hard drive and speeds up the installation. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 82: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to specify certain values that need to be unique separately for each computer installed, which of the command line CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 options would you use? A. /cmd: command_line B. /checkupgradeonly C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. /tempdrive: drive_letter Answer: C Explanation: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. Incorrect Answers: A: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. B: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. D: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 83: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to test the setup incase of problems occurring, which of the command line options would you use? A. /checkupgradeonly B. /tempdrive: drive_letter C. /makelocalsource D. /s:sourcepath Answer: A Explanation: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. Incorrect Answers: B: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. C: The /makelocalsource command is used to let setup copy the entire CD to the hard drive and speeds up the installation. D: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 are located. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 84: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 using WINNT32.exe on your computer and you need to make a copy of the source CD on the local hard drive, which of the command line options would you use? A. /s:sourcepath B. /unattend C. /makelocalsource D. /tempdrive: drive_letter Answer: C Explanation: The /makelocalsource command is used to let setup copy the entire CD to the hard drive and speeds up the installation. Incorrect Answers: A: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. B: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. D: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 85: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /T:C:\temp command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to enable a Logitech mouse during setup B. Causes Setup to run without a mouse C. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices D. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to Answer: D Explanation: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse during setup. B: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. C: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 86: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /n command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to B. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices C. Causes Setup to run without a mouse D. Used to enable a Logitech mouse during setup Answer: C Explanation: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. Incorrect Answers: A: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. B: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. D: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 87: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /l command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Causes Setup to run without a mouse B. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices C. Used to enable a Logitech mouse during setup D. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to Answer: C Explanation: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. Incorrect Answers: A: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. D: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 88: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /p command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tell Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows B. Used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files C. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices D. Used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use Answer: C Explanation: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. Incorrect Answers: A: The /d command is used to let setup ignore existing installations and is used only in upgrades. B: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. D: The Setup <filename.ini> command is used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use and the command is used without the < and >. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 563 QUESTION 89: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the <filename> command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Causes Setup to run without a mouse B. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices C. Used to tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) D. Used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use Answer: D Explanation: The Setup <filename.ini> command is used to specify the preconfigured setup file that CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Setup should use and the command is used without the < and >. Incorrect Answers: A: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. B: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. C: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 90: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /iq command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files B. Used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use C. Used to enable a Logitech mouse during setup D. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices Answer: A Explanation: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. Incorrect Answers: B: The Setup <filename.ini> command is used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use and the command is used without the < and >. C: The /l command is used to activate the Logitech mouse. D: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 91: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /is command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files B. Used to tell Setup to skip the routine system check C. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to D. Causes Setup to run without a mouse Answer: B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The /is command is used to tell setup to skip the routine system check. Incorrect Answers: A: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. C: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. D: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 92: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /d command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) B. Used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files C. Used to tell Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows D. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to Answer: C Explanation: The /d command is used to let setup ignore existing installations and is used only in upgrades. Incorrect Answers: A: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). B: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. D: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 93: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /it command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use B. Used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files C. Used to tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) D. Used to tell Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The /it command is used to let setup skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). Incorrect Answers: A: The Setup <filename.ini> command is used to specify the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use and the command is used without the < and >. B: The /iq command is used to skip the test for cross-linked files. D: The /p command is used to let setup to skip the check for any Plug and Play devices. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 562 QUESTION 94: You are in the process of upgrading your computer to Windows 95 and you run the setup using the /id command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tell Setup to skip the disk space check B. Used to tells Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows C. Used to specify which directory Setup will copy the temporary files to D. Causes Setup to run without a mouse Answer: A Explanation: The /id command is used to let setup skip the disk space check. Incorrect Answers: B: The /d command is used to let setup ignore existing installations and is used only in upgrades. C: The /T:C:\temp command is used to let setup copy the temporary files used there. D: The /n command is used to let setup run without the mouse. QUESTION 95: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /udf:id [,UDB_file] command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files B. Used to allow you to add a command to execute at the end of Setup C. Used to tell Setup to enable accessibility options D. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. Incorrect Answers: A: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. B: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. C: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 96: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /e:command, command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed B. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files C. Used to tell Setup to enable accessibility options D. Used to allow you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files E. Used to allow you to add a command to execute at the end of Setup Answer: E Explanation: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. Incorrect Answers: A: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. B: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. C: Not used for accessibility options D: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 97: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /a command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files B. Used to allow you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files C. Used to allow you to add a command to execute at the end of Setup D. Used to tell Setup to enable accessibility options Answer: D Explanation: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. Incorrect Answers: A: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. B: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. C: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 98: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /u:answerfile command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to run the setup unattended requiring no user intervention B. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed C. Used to allow you to add a command to execute at the end of Setup D. Used to allow you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files Answer: A Explanation: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. Incorrect Answers: B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 unique to be set separately for each computer installed. C: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. D: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 99: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /s:sourcepath command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to tell Setup to enable accessibility options B. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed C. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files D. Used to run the setup unattended requiring no user intervention Answer: C Explanation: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. Incorrect Answers: A: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. D: The /u:answerfile command is used to run the installation without user intervention. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 100: You are in the process of performing a clean installation of Windows 2000 and you run the setup using the /t:tempdrive command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files B. Used to allow you to add a command to execute at the end of Setup C. Used to tell Setup to enable accessibility options D. Used to allow you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: The /t:tempdrive command is used to specify where temporary files should be copied to. Incorrect Answers: A: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. B: The /e:command, command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. C: The /a command is used to tell setup to enable accessibility options. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 101: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /checkupgradeonly command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation B. Used to allows certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed C. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade D. Used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test Answer: D Explanation: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. Incorrect Answers: A: The /unattand[num]: [answer_file] command is used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation. B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. C: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 102: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /unattend command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify the drive Setup uses to store temporary installation files B. Used to allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files C. Used to run install without user intervention D. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade Answer: C Explanation: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. Incorrect Answers: A: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. B: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. D: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 103: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /debug[level]: [filename] command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to run install without user intervention B. Used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test C. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade D. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files Answer: C Explanation: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. Incorrect Answers: A: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. B: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. D: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 104: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /s:sourcepath command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade B. Used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation C. Used to performs all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test D. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files Answer: D Explanation: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. Incorrect Answers: A: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. B: The /unattand[num]: [answer_file] command is used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation. C: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 105: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /unattend[num]: [answer_file] command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test B. Used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation C. Used to run install without user intervention D. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The /unattand[num]: [answer_file] command is used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation. Incorrect Answers: A: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. C: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. D: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 106: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /tempdrive: drive_letter command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to allow you to specify the drive Setup uses to store temporary installation files B. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed C. Used to allows you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation D. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade Answer: A Explanation: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. Incorrect Answers: B: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. C: The /unattand[num]: [answer_file] command is used to allow you to specify custom settings for computers during an unattended installation. D: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 622 QUESTION 107: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /cmd: command_line command, CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to execute a command after setup has finished B. Used to allow you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files C. Used to allow you to specify the drive Setup uses to store temporary installation files D. Used to run install without user intervention Answer: A Explanation: The /cmd: command_line command is used to let setup execute another command after it has finished. Incorrect Answers: B: The /s:sourcepath command is used to let setup know where the installation source files are located. C: The /tempdrive: drive_letter command is used to specify where setup must copy the temporary files used. D: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 108: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /udf:id [,UDB_file] command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test B. Used to run install without user intervention C. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade D. Used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed Answer: D Explanation: The /udf:id [,UDB_file] command is used to allow certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each computer installed. Incorrect Answers: A: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. B: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. C: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 109: You are in the process of performing a installation of Windows 2000 running WINNT32.exe and you run the setup using the /makelocalsource command, which of the following is the result of your actions? A. Used to let setup copy the source files to the hard drive for increased performance B. Used to run install without user intervention C. Used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade D. Used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test Answer: A Explanation: The /makelocalsource command is used to let setup copy the entire CD to the hard drive and speeds up the installation. Incorrect Answers: B: The /unattend command is used to run the installation without user intervention. C: The /debug[level]: [filename] command is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. D: The /checkupgradeonly command is used to perform all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 623 QUESTION 110: Of the following system files, which is needed to boot your Windows 98 system properly? (Choose all that apply) A. IO.SYS B. AUTOEXEC.BAT C. WIN.COM D. COMMAND.COM E. MSDOS.SYS Answer: A, C, E Explanation: MSDOS.SYS, IO.SYS, and WIN.COM are required to boot Windows 9x. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 556. QUESTION 111: Which two of the following is TRUE with regard to the MSDOS.SYS file of a Windows 98 computer? (Choose two) A. Its primary function is to handle disk I/O. B. Its size should never be more that 1 KB. C. It provides the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. D. Its file size should never be less than 1 KB. Answer: A, D Explanation: MSDOS.SYS functions primarily to handle disk I/O. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 556. QUESTION 112: With regard to the Windows 98 IO.SYS file, which of the following is TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. It allows the rest of the operating system and its programs to interact directly with the system hardware and the system BIOS. B. It provides the command-line interface that the DOS user sees. C. It has built-in drivers for such things as printer ports, serial ports, floppy drives, and hard drives. D. It initiates the Windows 98 protected load phase. Answer: A, C Explanation: IO.SYS - Allows the rest of the operating system and its programs to interact directly with the system hardware and the system BIOS. IO.SYS includes hardware drivers for common hardware devices. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 557. QUESTION 113: Which of the following best describes the purpose of the WIN.COM file in the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Windows 98 boot process? A. It starts the Windows 98 protected load phase of the boot process. B. It is used in DOS and Windows 3.1 to store information specific to running the operating system. C. It loads device drivers and uses the information from the AUTOEXEC.BAT to configure the system environment. D. It is used to run particular programs during startup. Answer: A Explanation: WIN.COM - Initiates the Windows 9x protected load phase. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 557. QUESTION 114: Which two of the following files will cause a Windows 2000 EIDE system with a single-boot configuration to become nonfunctional, if they are absent? (Choose two) A. HAL.DLL B. WIN.COM C. NTBOOTDD.SYS D. BOOTSECT.DOS Answer: A, B Explanation: The absence of WIN.COM or HAL.DLL will cause the system to be nonfunctional. Incorrect Answers: C: On a system with a SCSI boot device, this file is used to recognize and load the SCSI interface. On EIDE systems this file is not needed and is not even installed. D: In a dual-boot configuration this keeps a copy of the DOS or Windows 9x boot sector so that the Windows 9x environment can be restored and loaded as needed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 606 and 607. QUESTION 115: Which of the following actually initiates the loading of the operating system during a Windows 2000 boot process? A. COMMAND.COM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. NTLDR C. BOOT.INI D. IO.SYS Answer: B Explanation: NTLDR is the file that starts the loading of an operating system on the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: COMMAND.COM is the vital command interpreter for DOS. C: Holds information about what operating systems are installed on the computer. D: Refers to the boot process of Windows 9x. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 606 and 607. QUESTION 116: Which of the following is a system file that provides the operating system with a method to see extra memory? A. HIMEM.SYS B. AUTOEXEC.BAT C. EMM386.EXE D. WIN.INI Answer: C Explanation: EMM386.EXE - Provides the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. Incorrect Answers: A: HIMEM.SYS is used to access upper memory. B: AUTOEXEC.BAT - Used to run particular programs during startup. D: WIN.INI - Sets particular values corresponding to the Windows environment. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 556. QUESTION 117: While booting your Windows 98 system, you notice that the device drivers are not loading properly. Which of the following is the file that you would check first? A. SYSEDIT B. SYSTEM.INI CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: D Explanation: CONFIG.SYS - Loads device drivers and uses the information from the AUTOEXEC.BAT to configure the system environment. Incorrect Answers: A: Both Windows 95 and Windows 98 allow you to use a tool called SYSEDIT.EXE to modify certain files B: Used in DOS and Windows 3.1 to store information specific to running the operating system. C: Used to run particular programs during startup. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 557. QUESTION 118: Which of the following is a utility you should use from the command-line, when you receive an error message in the AUTOEXEC.BAT file during the boot up of a Windows 98 computer? A. EDIT.EXE B. REGEDIT.EXE C. EDIT.COM D. MSCONFIG.EXE Answer: C Explanation: EDIT.COM is a utility with which you can edit configuration or text files such as CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT from the command line. Incorrect Answers: A: Does not exist. B: Used to edit the registry. D: You can use MSCONFIG.EXE to reconfigure and reorder each of the major configuration files (CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI), as well as the programs loaded at startup using a graphical interface. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 793. QUESTION 119: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following best describes the purpose of the HIMEM.SYS file in a Windows 98 system? A. It provides the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. B. It allows the rest of the operating system and its programs to interact directly with the system hardware and the system BIOS. C. It initiates the Windows 9x protected load phase. D. It is used to access upper memory. Answer: D Explanation: HIMEM.SYS is technically a software driver designed to allow access to any memory beyond the first 1MB. Part of HIMEM.SYS is its capability to access unused parts of the conventional 1MB, which it calls upper memory blocks (UMBs). Incorrect Answers: A: Describes EMM386.EXE. B: Describes IO.SYS. C: Describes WIN.COM. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 556 and 557. QUESTION 120: Which of the following represents Windows 98 system files? (Choose all that apply) A. MSDOS.SYS B. BOOT.INI C. NTBOOTDD.SYS D. WIN.INI Answer: A, D Explanation: MSDOS.SYS and WIN.INI are the correct options. Incorrect Answers: B, C: represent Windows 2000 system files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 556, 557, 606, and 607. QUESTION 121: Of the following options, which is the file that keeps a copy of the Windows 98 boot sector in a Windows 98/2000 dual boot configuration? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. HAL.DLL B. NTBOOTDD.SYS C. BOOTSECT.DOS D. BOOT.INI Answer: B Explanation: In a dual-boot configuration NTBOOTDD.SYS keeps a copy of the DOS or Windows 9x boot sector so that the Windows 9x environment can be restored and loaded as needed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 606. QUESTION 122: Which of the following tasks are carried out by the Windows 98 IO.SYS file? (Choose all that apply) A. It administers the commands in the CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT files if they are present. B. It loads the Registry file SYSTEM.DAT into memory, but does not access it. C. It loads LOGO.SYS and DRVSPACE.BIN if they are present and needed. D. It accesses the MSDOS.SYS file to obtain boot configuration parameters. E. It loads and transfers the processor to protected mode. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: The IO.SYS file performs the following tasks: 1. Provides basic file system access to allow the rest of the boot files to be found 2. Accesses the MSDOS.SYS file to obtain boot configuration parameters 3. Loads LOGO.SYS (Windows bitmap display) and DRVSPACE.BIN (compressed drive access) if they are present and needed 4. Loads the Registry file SYSTEM.DAT into memory, but does not access it 5. Selects a hardware profile (or allows the user to) 6. Processes the commands in the CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT files if they are present Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 555. QUESTION 123: Which of the following would cause a Windows XP system not to boot up? (Choose CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 all that apply) A. A missing or corrupt NTLRD. B. An accidentally deleted CONFIG.SYS file. C. A missing or corrupt BOOT.INI D. An accidentally deleted AUTOEXEC.BAT file. Answer: A, C Explanation: NTLDR is heavily relied upon during the boot process. If it is missing or corrupted, Windows XP will not be able to boot. The BOOT.INI file is required for a successful boot on a Windows NT/2000/XP computer. Incorrect Answers: B, D are required for Windows 9x systems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 780. QUESTION 124: You are a trainee technician at Certkiller .com. Your instructor asks you to edit the CONFIG.SYS file from a graphical interface. Which of the following is the utility you would use? A. EDIT.EXE B. REGEDIT.EXE C. EDIT.COM D. MSCONFIG.EXE Answer: D Explanation: You can use MSCONFIG.EXE to reconfigure and reorder each of the major configuration files (CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI), as well as the programs loaded at startup using a graphical interface. Incorrect Answers: A: Does not exist. B: Used to edit the registry. C: EDIT.COM is a utility with which you can edit configuration or text files such as CONFIG.SYS or AUTOEXEC.BAT from the command line. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 790. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 125: Which of the following important system files provides basic file system access? A. CONFIG.SYS B. MSDOS.SYS C. IO.SYS D. SYSTEM.DAT Answer: C Explanation: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode and performs a number of tasks, each of which is done in real mode. Incorrect Answers: A: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. B: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. D: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 585 QUESTION 126: Which of the following important system files provides the ability to obtain boot configuration parameters? A. IO.SYS B. CONFIG.SYS C. SYSTEM.DAT D. MSDOS.SYS Answer: D Explanation: The MSDOS.SYS file is loaded to provide boot configuration parameters. Incorrect Answers: A: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. B: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. C: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 585 QUESTION 127: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following important system files loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode? A. MSDOS.SYS B. CONFIG.SYS C. IO.SYS D. SYSTEM.DAT Answer: C Explanation: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. Incorrect Answers: A: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. B: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. D: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 585 QUESTION 128: Which of the following important system files finds the bootable partition and searches it for the boot sector of that partition? A. MBR B. SYSTEM.DAT C. MSDOS.SYS D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: A Explanation: The MBR loads and finds the boot sector. Incorrect Answers: B: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. C: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. D: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 585 QUESTION 129: Which of the following important system files are loaded into memory but are not accessed? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. MSDOS.SYS B. IO.SYS C. CONFIG.SYS D. SYSTEM.DAT Answer: D Explanation: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. Incorrect Answers: A: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. B: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. C: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 586 QUESTION 130: Which of the following important system files loads and transfers the processor to protected mode? A. SYSTEM.DAT B. CONFIG.SYS C. MSDOS.SYS D. WIN.COM Answer: D Explanation: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. Incorrect Answers: A: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. B: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. C: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 586 QUESTION 131: Which of the following important system files examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files to obtain additional configuration information? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. WIN.COM B. SYSTEM.DAT C. IO.SYS D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: A Explanation: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. Incorrect Answers: B: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. C: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. D: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 586 QUESTION 132: Which of the following important system files loads and the user is presented with a Desktop? A. Explorer shell B. WIN.COM C. CONFIG.SYS D. IO.SYS Answer: A Explanation: The Explorer shell loads and the user is presented with a Desktop. Incorrect Answers: B: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. C: The CONFIG.SYS file provides the drivers to be loaded. D: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 586 QUESTION 133: Which of the following important system files manages the graphical interface, the toolbar, the Desktop, and the Start menu? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. WIN.COM B. SYSTEM.DAT C. MSDOS.SYS D. EXPLORER.EXE Answer: D Explanation: The Explorer is the program that is used to manage the graphical interface, the toolbar, the Desktop, and the Start menu. Incorrect Answers: A: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. B: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. C: The MSDOS.SYS file provides boot configuration parameters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 586 QUESTION 134: Which of the following important system files provides the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory? A. WIN.COM B. SYSTEM.DAT C. IO.SYS D. EMM386.EXE Answer: D Explanation: The EMM386.EXE is used to provide the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. Incorrect Answers: A: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. B: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. C: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 587 QUESTION 135: Which of the following important system files sets particular values corresponding CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 to the Windows environment? A. EMM386.EXE B. WIN.COM C. WIN.INI D. SYSTEM.DAT Answer: C Explanation: The WIN.INI file sets particular values corresponding to the Windows environment Incorrect Answers: A: The EMM386.EXE is used to provide the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. B: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. D: The SYSTEM.DAT registry file is loaded into memory but not accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588 QUESTION 136: Which of the following important system files initiates the Windows 9x protected load phase? A. WIN.INI B. EMM386.EXE C. WIN.COM* D. IO.SYS Answer: C Explanation: The WIN.COM* initiates the Windows9x protected load phase. Incorrect Answers: A: The WIN.INI file sets particular values corresponding to the Windows environment. B: The EMM386.EXE is used to provide the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. D: The IO.SYS file loads into memory and starts the processor in real mode. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588 QUESTION 137: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following system tools provides a way of dealing with important system files? E. WIN.INI F. EMM386.EXE G. SYSEDIT H. WIN.COM Answer: C Explanation: The SYSEDIT can be used to view and edit the PROTOCOL.INI, SYSTEM.INI, WIN.INI, CONFIG.SYS, and AUTOEXEC.BAT files. Incorrect Answers: A: The WIN.INI file sets particular values corresponding to the Windows environment. B: The EMM386.EXE is used to provide the operating system with a mechanism to see additional memory. D: WIN.COM loads and transfers the processor to protected mode and examines the SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588 QUESTION 138: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains file extension associations? A. HKEY_CURRENT_USER B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT Answer: D Explanation: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. B: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. D: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 593 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 139: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play devices in your computer? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_DYN_DATA Answer: D Explanation: The HKEY_DYN_DATA key contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play devices in your computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. B: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. C: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 140: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows? A. HKEY_DYN_DATA B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Answer: C Explanation: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_DYN_DATA key contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play devices in your computer. B: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. D: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 141: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE B. HKEY_CURRENT_USER C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_DYN_DATA Answer: A Explanation: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. Incorrect Answers: B: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. C: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. D: The HKEY_DYN_DATA key contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play devices in your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 142: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user? A. HKEY_DYN_DATA B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Answer: B Explanation: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_DYN_DATA key contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 devices in your computer. C: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. D: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 143: When using the registry editor which of the following keys contains the current hardware configuration? A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT B. HKEY_USERS C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE D. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG Answer: D Explanation: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. B: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. C: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 144: When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_DYN_DATA key? A. It is used to contain file extension associations B. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows C. It is used to contain the current hardware configuration D. It is used to contain the dynamic settings for any Plug-and-Play devices in your computer Answer: D Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The HKEY_DYN_DATA key contains the dynamic settings for any Plug-and- Play devices in your computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. B: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. C: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 145: When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key? A. It is used to contain settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer B. It is used to contain the default user profile and the profile for the current user C. It is used to contain file extension associations D. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows Answer: C Explanation: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. B: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. D: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 593 QUESTION 146: When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_USERS key? A. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows B. It is used to contain the current hardware configuration C. It is used to contain settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 computer D. It is used to contain the default user profile and the profile for the current user Answer: D Explanation: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. B: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. C: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 147: When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key? A. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows B. It is used to contain settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer C. It is used to contain the current hardware configuration D. It is used to contain file extension associations Answer: B Explanation: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. C: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. D: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 148: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_CURRENT_USER key? A. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows B. It is used to contain file extension associations C. It is used to contain settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer D. It is used to contain the default user profile and the profile for the current user Answer: A Explanation: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. Incorrect Answers: B: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. C: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. D: The HKEY_USERS key contains the default user profile and the profile for the current user. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 149: When using the registry editor what is the purpose of the HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key? A. It is used to contain user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows B. It is used to contain settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer C. It is used to contain the current hardware configuration D. It is used to contain file extension associations Answer: C Explanation: The HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG key contains the current hardware configuration. Incorrect Answers: A: The HKEY_CURRENT_USER key contains the user profile information for the person currently logged in to Windows. B: The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key contains the settings and information for the hardware that is installed in the computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D: The HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key contains the file extension associations. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594 QUESTION 150: Which of the following important system files cannot be edited with a text editor because they aren't ASCII text files (Choose all that apply?) A. AUTOEXEC.BAT B. SYSTEM.DAT C. CONFIG.SYS D. USER.DAT Answer: B, D Explanation: The USER.DAT and SYSTEM.DAT files cannot be edited with a text editor because they are not ASCII text files. Incorrect Answers: A C: Both the other mentioned files can be edited using a text editor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 592 QUESTION 151: Which of the following important system files is used to "lock down" the Windows 9x interface so a user can't change it? A. USER.DAT B. SYSTEM.DAT C. CONFIG.POL D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: C Explanation: The CONFIG.POL file is used to "lock down" the Windows 9x interface so a user can not change it. Incorrect Answers: A B D: The other files can not be used for the "lockdown" of the Windows9x interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 592 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 152: The Win9x registry is made up of which files (Choose all that apply?) A. AUTOEXEC.BAT B. SYSTEM.DAT C. CONFIG.SYS D. USER.DAT Answer: B, D Explanation: The registry is mainly made up of two files SYSTEM.DAT and USER.DAT. Incorrect Answers: A C: The registry is not made up of the AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 592 QUESTION 153: Which of the following important system files contains information about the hardware configuration of the computer that Windows is running on? A. AUTOEXEC.BAT B. CONFIG.SYS C. USER.DAT D. SYSTEM.DAT Answer: D Explanation: The SYSTEM.DAT file is used to contain information about the hardware configuration of the computer that Windows is running on. Incorrect Answers: A, C D: The other mentioned files do not contain the information about the hardware configuration of the computer that Windows is running on. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 592 QUESTION 154: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the Startup tab? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. It can be used to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file B. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface C. It can be used to enable or disable particular startup options D. It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface Answer: C Explanation: The function of the startup tab using the System Configuration Utility is to enable or disable particular startup options. Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the Config.sys tab is to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file. B: The function of the Win.ini tab is to allow you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. D: The function of the System.ini tab is to allow you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 155: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the Win.ini tab? A. It is used to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file B. It is used to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup C. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface D. It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface Answer: C Explanation: The function of the Win.ini tab is to allow you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the Autoexec.bat tab is to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file. B: The function of the General tab is to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup. D: It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 156: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the Autoexec.bat tab? A. It is used to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup B. It can be used to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file C. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface D. It is used to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file Answer: D Explanation: The function of the Autoexec.bat tab is to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file. Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the General tab is to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup. B: The function of the Config.sys tab is to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file. C: The function of the Win.ini tab is to allow you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 157: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the System.ini tab? A. It is used to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file B. It is used to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup C. It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface D. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface Answer: C Explanation: The function of the System.ini tab is to allow you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the Autoexec.bat tab is to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file. B: The function of the General tab is to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup. D: It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 158: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the Config.sys tab? A. It is used to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file B. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface C. It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface D. It can be used to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file Answer: D Explanation: The function of the Config.sys tab is to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file. Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the Autoexec.bat tab is to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file. B: The function of the Win.ini tab is to allow you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. C: It allows you to modify the SYSTEM.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 159: When using the System Configuration Utility what is the function of the General tab? A. It is used to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file B. It can be used to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file C. It allows you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface D. It is used to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: The function of the General tab is to set startup options, as well as to determine which files to load during startup. Incorrect Answers: A: The function of the Autoexec.bat tab is to graphically view and edit the AUTOEXEC.BAT file. B: The function of the Config.sys tab is to graphically view and edit the CONFIG.SYS file. C: The function of the Win.ini tab is to allow you to modify the WIN.INI file using a Registry-type interface. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 QUESTION 160: Which of the following is a setup command line option that tells Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows during an upgrade from Windows 95? A. /id B. /is C. /iq D. /d Answer: D Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 161: Of the following options, which is caused by the /id Setup startup switch in a Windows 95 installation? A. Tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. B. Tells Setup to skip the disk space check. C. Tells Setup to skip the routine system check. D. Tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) that are known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup. Answer: B Explanation: Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 162: Prior to installing Windows 95, you realize that the mouse is not working and do not have a spare on hand. Which of the following Setup startup switch would you use to run Setup without a mouse? A. /p B. /l C. /n D. /is Answer: C Explanation: Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 163: Which of the following is accomplished using the command "Setup Certkiller .INI"? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Causes Setup to run with the settings contained in Certkiller .INI. B. Tells Setup to skip the Certkiller .INI file. C. Specifies the location of the Windows 9x source files. D. All of the above. Answer: A Explanation: Setup <filename> - Used without the < and >, specifies the preconfigured setup file that Setup should use. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 164: Which of the following is the command that is used to tell Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files? A. /d B. /it C. /is D. /iq E. /id Answer: D Explanation: Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 165: Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. The command, "Setup /is", tells Setup to skip the routine system check. B. The command, "Setup /it", tells Setup to check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) that are known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup. C. The command, "Setup /l", enables a Logitech mouse during setup. D. The command, "Setup /p", tells Setup to check for any Plug-and-Play devices. Answer: A, C Explanation: Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 166: Of the following options, which is the command-line that tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) that are known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup? A. Setup /id B. Setup /iq CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Setup /is D. Setup /it E. Setup /d Answer: D Explanation: Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 167: You are a trainee technician at Certkiller .com. You recently upgraded a machine from Windows 95 to Windows 98 and the Certkiller .com instructor now wants you to modify the .INI files through manual text configuration, using a tool that is included in both Windows 95 and Windows 98. Which of the following will allow you to accomplish this? A. Select RUN in the START menu, and type SYSEDIT at the prompt. B. Select RUN in the START menu, and type MSCONFIG at the prompt. C. Select RUN in the START menu, and type REGEDIT at the prompt. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: Both Windows 95 and Windows 98 allow you to use a tool called SYSEDIT.EXE to modify INI configuration files. To run SYSEDIT, choose Start, Run and type SYSEDIT at the prompt. Incorrect answers: B: MSCONFIG was introduced with Windows 98. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C: REGEDIT is a Registry Editor. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 557, 558, and 561. QUESTION 168: Of the following options, which one is the correct syntax to set the read-only attribute on the file TEST.DOC? A. ATTRIB r+ TEST.DOC B. ATTRIB TEST.DOC +r C. ATTRIB TEST.DOC -r D. ATTRIB TEST.DOC rAnswer: B Explanation: Attributes are set for files using an external DOS command called ATTRIB.EXE, which uses using the following syntax: ATTRIB <filename> [+ or -][attribute] + Sets an attribute. - Clears an attribute. R Read-only file attribute. A Archive file attribute. S System file attribute. H Hidden file attribute. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 550, 792. QUESTION 169: Which of the following would you use to find the temp files on the C: drivefrom a command line? A. DIR~*.*;*.TMP B. DIR C:\*.TMP /S C. *.TMP;~*.* D. DIR C:\~*.* /S Answer: B, D Explanation: Because some temp files end with .TMP and others start with a tilde (~), you would have to issue two DIR sequences To find all the temp files on Drive C: The first would be DIR CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C:\~*.* /S to find any file that began with a tilde, starting from the root directory of Drive C: and looking in every sub-directory on the drive. The second would be to use DIR C:\*.TMP /S to find any file in any sub-directory on Drive C: with a .TMP extension. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 557. QUESTION 170: You are required to delete files and directories from a Windows 98 computer. Which of the following is the command-line utility that would achieve this objective? A. REMOVE B. DEL C. REMTREE D. DELTREE Answer: C Explanation: DELTREE is used to delete files and directories. Not B: The DEL command is used to delete files. QUESTION 171: You are preparing a fresh install of Windows 98 on your new computer. Which of the following is the first command you would run from the command-line? A. PARTDISK.EXE B. FORMAT.EXE C. FDISK.EXE D. MAKEPART.EXE Answer: C Explanation: New disk drives need to have two critical functions performed on them before they are able to be used-partitioning and formatting. These two procedures are dealt with in Windows 98 by using the FDISK.EXE and FORMAT.EXE commands. In order to do this you need to boot the computer using a startup disk (which should be included in the installation package) that is bootable to MS-DOS or the Windows 98 command line. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 524. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 172: Subsequent to partitioning a new disk for a Windows 98 installation, which of the following would your NEXT step be? A. Start the Windows 98 installation. B. Run the "FORMAT C:" command from the command prompt. C. Cancel the installation. D. Run the "FORMAT A:" command from the command prompt. Answer: B Explanation: New disk drives need to have two critical functions performed on them before they are able to be used-partitioning and formatting. These two procedures are dealt with in Windows 98 by using the FDISK.EXE and FORMAT.EXE commands. In order to do this you need to boot the computer using a startup disk (which should be included in the installation package) that is bootable to MS-DOS or the Windows 98 command line. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 524. QUESTION 173: Which of the following is the command that tells Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices? A. Setup /d B. Setup / n C. Setup / l D. Setup / T:C:\tmp E. Setup /p Answer: E CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 174: Which of the following is the purpose of the "Setup T:C:\tmp" command? A. Tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) that are known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup. B. Specifies which directory (C:\tmp in this case) Setup will copy its temporary files to. C. Causes Setup to run without a mouse. D. Enables a Logitech mouse during setup. Answer: B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531. QUESTION 175: Which of the following is the command that will install Windows 2000 Professional from the command prompt, on a computer currently using DOS? A. WINNT B. WINNT32 C. INSTALL D. Setup Answer: A Explanation: Windows 2000 Professional uses WINNT to install from DOS. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591. QUESTION 176: Your instructor at Certkiller .com informs you that a client's computer has recently been upgraded to Windows 2000 Professional using WINNT. He then asks which CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 operating system was possibly installed previously on the client's computer. Which of the following would your answer be? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 95 B. Windows 2000 C. Windows NT D. Windows ME Answer: A, D Explanation: Windows 2000 Professional uses WINNT to install from DOS or Windows 9x. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591. QUESTION 177: Of the following options, which is NOT associated with the WINNT command? A. /unattend[num]:[answer_file] B. /e:command C. /t:tempdrive D. /s:sourcepath Answer: A Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591. QUESTION 178: Which of the following is an option associated with the WINNT32 command? A. /s:sourcepath B. /e:command C. /t:tempdrivedrive_letter D. /a Answer: A, C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591 and 592. QUESTION 179: Which of the following is the command that you would employ to install Windows 2000 Professional from the command prompt, on a computer currently using Windows NT? A. WINNT B. WINNT32 C. INSTALL D. Setup Answer: B Explanation: Windows 2000 Professional uses WINNT32 to install from Windows NT. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 180: You are a trainee technician at Certkiller .com. As part of your training the instructor gives you the following options, and asks what operating system was formerly installed on a computer that has recently been upgraded to Windows 2000 Professional? 1. Windows 98 2. Windows 2000 3. Windows NT 4. DOS Which of the following represents your answer to the instructor's question? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4 E. 2 and 4 F. 2 and 3 G. 1 and 3 Answer: F Explanation: Windows 2000 Professional uses WINNT32 to install from Windows NT and Windows 2000. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 591. QUESTION 181: Which of the following represents the correct syntax for upgrading to Windows XP from Windows 2000, unattended? A. winnt32 [/unattend] B. winnt [/u:answer file] C. winnt32 [/unattend[num] D. Setup [/unattend] Answer: A Explanation: /unattend Upgrades your previous version of Windows 98, Windows Millennium Edition, Windows NT 4.0, or Windows 2000 in unattended Setup mode. All user settings are taken from the previous installation, so no user intervention is required during Setup. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Reference: Windows XP, Help and Support. QUESTION 182: Your Certkiller .com instructor requests that you perform a fresh installation of Windows XP, in unattended setup mode, on a computer running Windows Millennium Edition. Which of the following is the correct syntax to achieve this goal from a command prompt? A. Install [/unattend[num] B. winnt [/unattend[num] C. winnt32 [/unattend[num] D. Setup [/unattend[num] Answer: C Explanation: /unattend[num]:[answer_file] This command - line allows you to perform a fresh installation in unattended Setup mode. The specified answer_file provides Setup with your custom specifications. Num is the number of seconds between the time that Setup finishes copying the files and when it restarts your computer. You can use num on any computer running Windows 98, Windows Millennium Edition, Windows NT, Windows 2000, or Windows XP. Reference: Windows XP, Help and Support. QUESTION 183: Which of the following is the command that replaces the Windows 9x FDISK.EXE command in Windows 2000? A. Chkdsk.exe B. Format.exe C. Diskpart.exe D. Defrag.exe Answer: C Explanation: Diskpart.exe is the Windows NT/2000/XP command used to manage the partitions on your hard disk volumes. The command replaces the Windows 9x and DOS FDISK.EXE command. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 794. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 184: Which of the following is used from the command prompt to reorganize files on your hard drive with the aim of enhancing performance? A. SCANDISK B. SCANREG C. FORMAT D. DEFRAG Answer: D Explanation: DEFRAG is used to reorganize the files on your machine's hard drives, which can result in better performance. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 495. QUESTION 185: Of the following options, which one would you utilize to unhide a file named BUDGET.DOC from the command prompt? ATTRIB +H BUDGET.DOC ATTRIB -H BUDGET.DOC UNHIDE BUDGET.DOC BUDGET.DOC -H Answer: B Explanation: ATTRIB -H [filename] clears the hidden file attribute. Reference: Windows XP, Help and Support. QUESTION 186: Which of the following is the component that allows you to manage files and directories on a Windows 2000 computer? A. Control Panel B. Windows Explorer C. File Manager D. Device Manager CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: B Explanation: Windows Explorer allows the user to use drag-and-drop techniques and other graphical tools to manage the file system. Incorrect Answers: A: Control Panel has to do with configuring settings. C: File Manager is a Windows 3.x feature. D: Device Manager provides a very simple and well-organized method to manage hardware in the system. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 499, 507, 614, 832. QUESTION 187: Of the following methods, which two are valid for creating a new folder in Windows Explorer? (Choose two) A. Edit, Create, New, Folder. B. View, Options, New, Folder C. Double click in Display Window. D. Right Click in Display Window, New, Folder E. File, New, Folder. Answer: D, E Explanation: To create a new file, folder, or other object, navigate to the location where you want to create the object and then right-click in the right pane. In the menu that appears, select New and then choose the object you want to create. Alternatively use the File menu. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 502. QUESTION 188: Which of the following, besides file management, is also allowed by the Windows 2000 Windows Explorer utility? (Choose all that apply) A. It allows you to configure computer settings, so that it is more fun to use. B. It allows you to create a boot disk. C. It allows you to format the floppy drive. D. It allows you to view all files and directories that are not hidden. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Besides simplifying most file management commands as shown above, the Explorer also allows you to easily complete a number of disk management tasks. Incorrect Answers: A: This option refers to the Control Panel. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 503. QUESTION 189: Which of the following are two factors that distinguish the NTFS file system from the FAT file system? (Choose two) A. It is compatible with DOS and Windows 9x dual-boot configurations. B. It supports larger partition sizes. C. It can be accessed and modified using many standard DOS disk utilities. D. It supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership. Answer: B, D Explanation: The NTFS file system comes from Windows NT and is a more sophisticated file system that has a number of enhancements that set it apart from FAT: 1. Supports larger partition sizes than FAT 2. Allows for file-level security to protect system resources 3. Supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership Incorrect Answers: A and C are advantages of FAT. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 593. QUESTION 190: You have stored classified information on the hard drive on your Windows 2000 computer. You are concerned that other people might access the file when you are not around. Which of the following should be done to prevent this from happening? A. Right click the file, select Properties, click the Advanced button, and select the Archiving box. B. Right click the file, select Properties, click the Advanced button, and select the Compression box CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Right click the file, select Properties, click the Advanced button, and select the Encryption box D. Right click the file, select Properties, click the Advanced button, and select the Indexing box Answer: C Explanation: The "Encryption" attribute is totally new to Windows 2000. Encryption allows a user to secure their files against anyone else being able to view them by actually encoding the files with a key that only the user has access to. Incorrect Answers: A: Archiving tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up. B: Compression allows you to dynamically compress and uncompress NTFS files and folders, which often saves you a great deal of space on the drive. D: Indexing allows for faster file searches. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594. QUESTION 191: Of the following boxes in the advanced file properties window of a Windows 2000 computer, which one allows for saving drive space? A. Indexing B. Encryption C. Archiving D. Compression Answer: D Explanation: Compression allows you to dynamically compress and uncompress NTFS files and folders, which often saves you a great deal of space on the drive. Incorrect Answers: A: Indexing allows for faster file searches. B: Encryption allows a user to secure their files against anyone else being able to view them by actually encoding the files with a key that only the user has access to. C: Archiving tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 594. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 192: As part of your training at Certkiller .com, your instructor asks you to check which services are running on a Windows 2000 computer. Which of the following are the steps you need to take to achieve this objective? A. Click on the Start button, go to Settings, select Control Panel, double click Administrative Tools, double click Computer Management, select Services and Applications, and then select Event Viewer. B. Click on the Start button, go to Settings, select Control Panel, double click Administrative Tools, double click Computer Management, select Services and Applications, and then select Services. C. Click the start button, select Control Panel, double click Administrative Tools, double click Computer Management, select Services and Applications, and then select Services. D. Right click an unused space on the Desktop, and select Task Manager. Answer: B Explanation: Computer Manager can manage all the services running on a computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The "Event Viewer" logs data about the computer. C: This path is used in a Windows XP environment. D: Windows Task Manager provides information about computer performance and displays details about programs and processes running on your computer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 609 and 610. Microsoft Windows Help and Support. QUESTION 193: Which of the following tools can be used on Windows NT4.0 to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types? A. Shared Folders B. Event Viewer C. Disk Management D. Local Users and Groups Answer: C Explanation: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. B: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. D: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 194: Which of the following Windows 2000 disk types can be used to create additional partitions and can also allow you to create advanced disk configurations? A. Dynamic Disk B. Simple volume C. Basic Disk D. Basic volume Answer: A Explanation: The Dynamic disks can be used to create additional partitions and can also allow you to create advanced disk configurations. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: These disk types can not be used to create additional partitions and can also allow you to create advanced disk configurations. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 195: On which of the following Operating systems can dynamic disks be used? A. Windows 98 B. Windows 95 C. Windows 2000 D. Windows ME Answer: C Explanation: The dynamic disk was implemented with Windows 2000 so it should work there. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other Windows mentioned do not have support for dynamic disks. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 196: Which of the following tools can be used to check the drive for errors, and rearranges files more efficiently? A. Event Viewer B. Local Users and Groups C. Shared Folders D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: D Explanation: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files so that they are more efficiently. Incorrect Answers: A: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. B: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. C: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 197: Which of the following tools logs data about the computer and is also accessible through Computer Management? A. Local Users and Groups B. Disk Management C. Shared Folders D. Event Viewer Answer: D Explanation: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. B: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. C: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 198: Which of the following tools is where those accounts are stored and modified? A. Performance Logs and Alerts B. Device Manager C. Shared Folders D. Local Users and Groups Answer: D Explanation: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. Incorrect Answers: A: The Performance Logs and Alerts are used to monitor system resource usage in real time or to log performance. B: The Device Manager is used to view and modify information about system hardware. C: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 199: Which of the following tools is used to view and modify information about system hardware? A. Local Users and Groups B. Shared Folders C. Event Viewer D. Device Manager Answer: D Explanation: The Device Manager is used to view and modify information about system hardware. Incorrect Answers: A: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. B: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 200: Which of the following tools is a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer? A. Performance Logs and Alerts B. Disk Management C. Local Users and Groups D. Shared Folders Answer: D Explanation: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The Performance Logs and Alerts are used to monitor system resource usage in real time or to log performance. B: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. C: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 201: Which of the following tools allows you to poll the system to find out information on installed hardware and software? A. System Information B. Event Viewer C. Shared Folders D. Local Users and Groups Answer: A Explanation: The System Information allows you to poll the system to find out information on installed hardware and software. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. C: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. D: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 202: Which of the following tools are used to monitor system resource usage in real time? A. Device Manager B. Shared Folders C. Performance Logs and Alerts D. System Information Answer: C Explanation: The Performance Logs and Alerts are used to monitor system resource usage in real time or to log performance. Incorrect Answers: A: The Device Manager is used to view and modify information about system hardware. B: The Shared Folders is used as a place to get a quick look of what is being shared on your computer. D: The System Information allows you to poll the system to find out information on installed hardware and software. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 203: Which of the following tools keeps an index of your drive? A. Cryptography service B. Services C. WMI Control D. Indexing Service Answer: D Explanation: The Indexing Service keeps an index of your drive to speed searches of your drives or information. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other services are not used for keeping an index of your drive. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 204: Which of the following tools are used to start and stop services that are on the computer? A. Indexing Service B. WMI Control C. Services D. Cryptography service Answer: C Explanation: The Services is used to start and stop services that are on the computer. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other services are only for stopping the individual services. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 205: Which of the following tools manages a backup tape drive or a ZIP-type removable disk drive with your system? A. Disk Management B. Local Users and Groups C. Disk Defragmenter D. Removable Storage Answer: D Explanation: The Removable Storage option allows you to manage a backup tape drive or a ZIP-type removable disk drive with your system. Incorrect Answers: A: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. B: The Local Users and Groups are for accounts are stored and modified. C: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 so that they are more efficiently. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 206: Which of the following tools are used to configure and control the Windows Management Instrumentation service? A. Cryptography service B. Services C. Indexing Service D. WMI Control Answer: D Explanation: The WMI Control is used to configure and control the Windows Management Instrumentation service. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: The other services are not used for configure and control the Windows Management Instrumentation service. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 641 QUESTION 207: In which of the following modes must you start your computer if Windows won't start properly? A. Booting to a command prompt, B. Safe Mode with network support. C. Safe Mode D. Logging all messages to a log file during boot Answer: C Explanation: When Windows won't start properly to fix problems of this nature, you should boot Windows in Safe Mode. Incorrect Answers: A, B D: The other modes are not required in the scenario. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 815 QUESTION 208: Which of the following tools can be used to correct corrupt file problems or disk errors? A. REGEDIT B. ATTRIB C. SCANDISK D. FDISK Answer: C Explanation: You can use the Windows SCANDISK utility to correct corrupt file problems or disk errors, like cross-linked files. Incorrect Answers: A: The REGEDIT tool can be used to edit the registry. B: The ATTRIB tool is used to change file attributes. D: The FDISK tool prepares a drive for first time usage. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 815 QUESTION 209: Which of the following tools will analyze hardware-related problems? A. SCANDISK B. Event Viewer C. Safe Mode D. Device Manager Answer: D Explanation: The Device Manager can be used to analyze hardware-related problems. Incorrect Answers: A: You can use the Windows SCANDISK utility to correct corrupt file problems or disk errors, like cross-linked files. B: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. C: When Windows won't start properly to fix problems of this nature, you should boot Windows in Safe Mode. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 817 QUESTION 210: You are in the process of using ATTRIB.exe to change the file attributes of a file to read only, which command syntax should be used? A. ATTRIB <filename> -r B. ATTRIB <filename> -h C. ATTRIB <filename> -a D. ATTRIB <filename> +r Answer: D Explanation: The command line syntax for making a file read only is ATTRIB <filename> +r and is used without the <>. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other syntaxes are incorrect this is not for read only. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 822 QUESTION 211: You are in the process of using ATTRIB.exe to change the file attributes of a file to Archive which command syntax should be used? A. ATTRIB <filename> +a B. ATTRIB <filename> -r C. ATTRIB <filename> +h D. ATTRIB <filename> -a Answer: A Explanation: The command line syntax for making a file have archive attributes is ATTRIB <filename> +a and is used without the <>. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D: The other command line syntaxes are incorrect it is not for making attributes archive. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 822 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 212: You are in the process of using ATTRIB.exe to change the file attributes of a file to System which command syntax should be used? A. ATTRIB <filename> +a B. ATTRIB <filename> +h C. ATTRIB <filename> +s D. ATTRIB <filename> +r Answer: C Explanation: The command line syntax for making a file a system file is ATTRIB <filename> +s and is used without the <>. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other command line syntaxes are incorrect as they set other attributes. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 822 QUESTION 213: You are in the process of using ATTRIB.exe to change the file attributes of a file to Hidden which command syntax should be used? A. ATTRIB <filename> +a B. ATTRIB <filename> -s C. ATTRIB <filename> +h D. ATTRIB <filename> -r Answer: C Explanation: The command line syntax for making a file hidden is ATTRIB <filename> +h and is used without the <>. Incorrect Answers: A, B, D: The other command line syntaxes are incorrect as they set other attributes. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 822 QUESTION 214: Which of the following tools can be used to quickly edit a configuration file or other CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 text file? A. Disk Management B. Event Viewer C. Disk Defragmenter D. EDIT.COM Answer: D Explanation: The EDIT.COM file can be used to quickly edit a configuration file or other text file. Incorrect Answers: A: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. B: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. C: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files so that they are more efficiently. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 823 QUESTION 215: Which of the following tools can be used to access and modify information about your fixed disks? A. Event Viewer B. Disk Management C. FDISK D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: C Explanation: The FDISK utility can be used to access and modify information about your fixed disks. Incorrect Answers: A: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. B: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. D: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files so that they are more efficiently. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 823 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 216: Which of the following tools is a quick and simple utility that you can use to check the Registry for consistency? A. SCANREG.EXE B. Disk Management C. Event Viewer D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: A Explanation: The Windows Registry Checker, SCANREG.EXE is a quick and simple utility that you can use to check the Registry for consistency. Incorrect Answers: B: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. C: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. D: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files so that they are more efficiently. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 825 QUESTION 217: Which of the following tools allows programmers to write Windows scripts that can perform any number of automated tasks? A. SCANREG.EXE B. WSCRIPT C. Event Viewer D. Disk Management Answer: B Explanation: The WSCRIPT tool is used to allow programmers to write Windows scripts that can perform any number of automated tasks. Incorrect Answers: A: The Windows Registry Checker, SCANREG.EXE is a quick and simple utility that you can use to check the Registry for consistency. C: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. D: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 825 QUESTION 218: Which of the following tools can be used to stores all Windows configuration information? A. SCANREG.EXE B. REGEDIT.EXE C. Event Viewer D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: B Explanation: The REGEDIT.exe tool is used to stores all Windows configuration information. Incorrect Answers: A: The Windows Registry Checker, SCANREG.EXE is a quick and simple utility that you can use to check the Registry for consistency. C: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. D: The Disk Defragmenter checks the drive for errors, and rearranges (defragments) files so that they are more efficiently. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 821 QUESTION 219: Which of the following tools allows a user to manage their computer system's configuration? A. REGEDIT.EXE B. SCANREG.EXE C. MSCONFIG.EXE D. Disk Management Answer: C Explanation: The MSCONFIG.EXE tool can be used to manage their computer system's configuration. Incorrect Answers: A: The REGEDIT.exe tool is used to stores all Windows configuration information. B: The Windows Registry Checker, SCANREG.EXE is a quick and simple utility that CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 you can use to check the Registry for consistency. D: The Disk Management is Windows 2000's replacement for FDISK and can be used to create or delete partitions and even modify drive types. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 820 QUESTION 220: Which of the following is a Windows 98 utility that makes archival copies of important files? A. Character Map B. Clipboard Viewer C. Drive Space 3 D. Backup Answer: D Explanation: The Backup system tool is used to make archival copies of important files. Incorrect Answers: A: The Character Map system tool is used to determine which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the computer will use. B: The Clipboard Viewer system tool is used to allow you to see what has been copied onto the system clipboard. C: The Drive Space 3 system tool is used to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive but causes slower access. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 221: Your instructor at Certkiller .com tells you to change the letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters for a Windows 98 system. Which of the following is the utility that will allow you to do this? A. Compression Agent B. Disk Cleanup C. Disk Defragmenter D. Character Map Answer: D Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The Character Map system tool is used to determine which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the computer will use. Incorrect Answers: A: The Compression Agent system tool is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress. B: The Disk Cleanup system tool is used to go through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space. C: The Disk Defragmenter system tool is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 222: Of the following Windows 98 utilities, which one allows you to get more information onto a drive through compression? A. Maintenance Wizard B. Net Watcher C. Resource Meter D. Drive Space 3 Answer: D Explanation: The Drive Space 3 system tool is used to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive but causes slower access. Incorrect Answers: A: The Maintenance Wizard system tool is used to set up a system maintenance plan. B: The Net Watcher system tool is used to check the performance of the network. C: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 223: Which of the following is a Windows 98 utility that allows you to set up parameters for determining what files to compress automatically, when used in conjunction with Drive Space 3? A. Scandisk B. Scheduled Tasks C. System Information CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. Compression Agent Answer: D Explanation: The Compression Agent system tool is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress. Incorrect Answers: A: The Scandisk system tool is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems. B: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. C: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 224: You are a trainee technician at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to delete unwanted files on a Windows 98 machine to free up drive space. Furthermore, you are told that has to be done using a utility specially designed to carry out this task. Which of the following is the utility that is being referred to? A. System Monitor B. Scandisk C. Resource Meter D. Disk Cleanup Answer: D Explanation: The Disk Cleanup system tool is used to go through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space. Incorrect Answers: A: The System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. B: The Scandisk system tool is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems. C: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 225: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following will arrange the data on a computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available? A. Scheduled Tasks B. System Information C. Maintenance Wizard D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: D Explanation: The Disk Defragmenter system tool is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available. Incorrect Answers: A: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. B: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. C: The Maintenance Wizard system tool is used to set up a system maintenance plan. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504. QUESTION 226: Which of the following will set up a system maintenance plan for your computer? A. Scandisk B. Scheduled Tasks C. System Information D. Maintenance Wizard Answer: D Explanation: The Maintenance Wizard system tool is used to set up a system maintenance plan. Incorrect Answers: A: The Scandisk system tool is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems. B: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. C: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 227: Which of the following will check the performance of the network on your computer? A. Resource Meter B. Net Watcher C. Disk Cleanup D. Scheduled Tasks Answer: B Explanation: The Net Watcher system tool is used to check the performance of the network. Incorrect Answers: A: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. C: The Disk Cleanup system tool is used to go through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space. D: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 228: Which of the following will give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used on your computer? A. Maintenance Wizard B. Scheduled Tasks C. Resource Meter D. System Information Answer: C Explanation: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. Incorrect Answers: A: The Maintenance Wizard system tool is used to set up a system maintenance plan. B: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. D: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 229: Which of the following will check a disk drive for errors or problems on your computer? A. Resource Meter B. System Monitor C. Scandisk D. Scheduled Tasks Answer: C Explanation: The Scandisk system tool is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems. Incorrect Answers: A: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. B: The System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. D: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 230: Which of the following will enable the running of recurring tasks automatically on your computer? A. System Monitor B. Scheduled Tasks C. Scandisk D. Net Watcher Answer: B Explanation: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. Incorrect Answers: A: The System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. C: The Scandisk system tool is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems. D: The Net Watcher system tool is used to check the performance of the network. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 231: Which of the following will find information on the hardware and software installed on a PC? A. Scheduled Tasks B. System Monitor C. System Information D. Resource Meter Answer: C Explanation: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. B: The System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. D: The Resource Meter system tool is used to give a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 232: Which of the following is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time? A. Scheduled Tasks B. System Information C. System Monitor D. Net Watcher Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and is used to monitor specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. Incorrect Answers: A: The Scheduled Tasks system tool is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. B: The System Information system tool is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. D: The Net Watcher system tool is used to check the performance of the network. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 233: While working in Windows 98 on a client's computer, you have to shut it down illegally due to the system freezing. Which of the following will occur the next time you switch on the computer? A. Boot Normally B. Safe Mode with command prompt C. Safe Mode with networking D. SCANDISK will scan the disk looking for corrupt files and fix or delete them Answer: D Explanation: When the computer restarts SCANDISK will scan the disk looking for corrupt files and fix or delete them. Incorrect Answers: A. B, C: The other mentioned modes will not appear only because of a system freeze. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 787. QUESTION 234: Which of the following is a utility that allows you to fix corrupt file problems or disk errors on a computer running Windows 98? A. SCANDISK B. SCANREG C. Event Viewer D. FDISK Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The SCANDISK tool can be used to correct corrupt file problems or disk errors, like cross-linked files. Incorrect Answers: B: The purpose and function of the SCANREG command is to allow you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. C: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. D: The FDISK utility is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 785. QUESTION 235: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows a user to manage files and directories from a single graphical interface? A. Event Viewer B. FDISK C. Windows Explorer D. SCANREG Answer: C Explanation: The Windows Explorer is a utility that allows the user to accomplish a number of important file-related tasks from a single graphical interface. Incorrect Answers: A: The Event Viewer is used to log data about the computer. B: The FDISK utility is used to prepare a drive for first time usage. D: The purpose and function of the SCANREG command is to allow you to scan the Registry by starting a Windows application that checks for errors and allows you to back up the Registry files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 499. QUESTION 236: You are in the process of running the Backup system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to determines which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the machine will use CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. It is used to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive C. It is used to make archival copies of important files D. It is used to allow you to see what has been copied onto the system clipboard Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Backup system tool is to make archival copies of important files. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Character Map system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Drive Space 3 system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Clipboard Viewer system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 237: You are in the process of running the Character Map system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress B. It is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available C. It is used to determines which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the machine will use D. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Character Map system tool is to determines which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the machine will use. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Compression Agent system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Disk Defragmenter system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Disk Cleanup system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 238: You are in the process of running the Clipboard Viewer system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to allow you to see what has been copied onto the system clipboard B. It is used to checks the performance of the network C. It gives a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used D. It is used to set up a system maintenance plan Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the Clipboard Viewer system tool is to allow you to see what has been copied onto the system clipboard. Incorrect Answers: B: This option is the proper function of the Net Watcher system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Resource Meter system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Maintenance Wizard system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 239: You are in the process of running the Drive Space 3 system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems B. It is used to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive C. It is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically D. It is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer Answer: B Explanation: The purpose and function of the Drive space 3 system tool is to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Scandisk system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Scheduled Tasks system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the System Information system tool. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 240: You are in the process of running the Compression Agent system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is a more complex version of Resource Meter and monitors specific resources and watches how they are used in real time B. It is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress C. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space D. It gives a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used Answer: B Explanation: The purpose and function of the Compression Agent system tool is it is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the System Monitor system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Disk Cleanup system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Resource Meter system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 241: You are in the process of running the Disk Cleanup system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to set up a system maintenance plan B. It is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems C. It is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically D. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Disk Cleanup system tool is it is a utility which goes CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Maintenance Wizard system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Scandisk system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Scheduled Tasks system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 242: You are in the process of running the Disk Defragmenter system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is a more complex version of Resource Meter and monitors specific resources and watches how they are used in real time B. It is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer C. It is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available D. It is used to set up a system maintenance plan Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Disk Defragmenter system tool is to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the System Monitor system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the System Information system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Maintenance Wizard system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 504 QUESTION 243: You are in the process of running the Maintenance Wizard system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems B. It is used to determines which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the machine will use C. It is used to make archival copies of important files D. It is used to set up a system maintenance plan Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The purpose and function of the Maintenance Wizard system tool is to set up a system maintenance plan. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Scandisk system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Character Map system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Backup system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 244: You are in the process of running the Net Watcher system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to allow you to see what has been copied onto the system clipboard B. It is used to allow you to compress the files on a drive to get more information onto the drive C. It is used to checks the performance of the network D. It is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Net Watcher system tool is to checks the performance of the network. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Clipboard Viewer system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Drive Space 3 system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Scheduled Tasks system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 245: You are in the process of running the Resource Meter system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer B. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space C. It gives a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. It is used to determines which type of letters, numbers, and nonalphanumeric characters the machine will use Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Resource Meter system tool is it gives a quick, graphical display of how heavily basic system resources are being used. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the System Information system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Disk Cleanup system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Character Map system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 246: You are in the process of running the Scandisk system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used with Drive Space 3 and allows you to set up parameters for automatically determining which files to compress B. It is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems C. It is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available D. It is used to make archival copies of important files Answer: B Explanation: The purpose and function of the Scandisk system tool is to check a disk drive for errors or problems. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Compression Agent system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Disk Defragmenter system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Backup system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 247: You are in the process of running the Scheduled Tasks system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. It is used to make archival copies of important files B. It is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available C. It is used to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically D. It is a more complex version of Resource Meter and monitors specific resources and watches how they are used in real time Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Scheduled Tasks system tool is to enable the running of recurring tasks automatically. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Backup system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Disk Defragmenter system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the System Monitor system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 248: You are in the process of running the System Information system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer B. It is used to check a disk drive for errors or problems C. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space D. It is used to arrange data on the computer's disk drives so that it will be more easily available Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the System Information system tool is to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer. Incorrect Answers: B: This option is the proper function of the Scandisk system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the Disk Cleanup system tool. D: This option is the proper function of the Disk Defragmenter system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 249: You are in the process of running the System Monitor system tool on your computer which of the following is the proper function of your actions? A. It is used to checks the performance of the network B. It is a utility which goes through the system and deletes unneeded files to free up drive space C. It is used to find information on the hardware and software installed on a computer D. It is a more complex version of Resource Meter and monitors specific resources and watches how they are used in real time Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the System Monitor system tool is a more complex version of Resource Meter and monitors specific resources and watches how they are used in real time. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Net Watcher system tool. B: This option is the proper function of the Disk Cleanup system tool. C: This option is the proper function of the System Information system tool. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 505 QUESTION 250: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to add and configures new hardware? A. Date/Time B. Display C. Add/Remove Programs D. Add/Remove Hardware Answer: D Explanation: The Add/Remove Hardware utility is used to add and configure new hardware. Incorrect Answers: A: The Date/Time utility is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone. B: The Display utility is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers. C: The Add/Remove Programs utility is used to change, add, or delete software. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 507 QUESTION 251: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to change, add, or delete software? A. Fonts B. Internet Options C. Add/Remove Programs D. Multimedia Answer: C Explanation: The Add/Remove Programs utility is used to change, add, or delete software. Incorrect Answers: A: The Fonts utility is used to add and remove fonts. B: The Internet Options utility is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. D: The Multimedia utility is used to Configures audio and video options. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 507 QUESTION 252: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to set the system time and configure options such as time zone? A. Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) B. Date/Time C. Modems (Phone and Modem Options) D. Printers Answer: B Explanation: The Date/Time utility is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone. Incorrect Answers: A: The Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility is used to set options for connecting to other computers. C: The Modems (Phone and Modem Options) utility is used to set options for using CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet. D: The Printers utility is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 253: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers? A. Display B. System C. Multimedia D. Internet Options Answer: A Explanation: The Display utility is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers. Incorrect Answers: B: The System utility is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements. C: The Multimedia utility is used to Configures audio and video options. D: The Internet Options utility is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 254: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to add and remove fonts? A. Printers B. System C. Add/Remove Programs D. Fonts Answer: D Explanation: The Fonts utility is used to add and remove fonts. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: The Printers utility is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. B: The System utility is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements. C: The Add/Remove Programs utility is used to change, add, or delete software. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 255: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to set a number of options for configuring Network Software? A. Internet Options B. Date/Time C. Multimedia D. Printers Answer: A Explanation: The Internet Options utility is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. Incorrect Answers: B: The Date/Time utility is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone. C: The Multimedia utility is used to configure audio and video options. D: The Printers utility is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 256: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to configure audio and video options? A. System B. Multimedia C. Date/Time D. Internet Options Answer: B Explanation: The Multimedia utility is used to configure audio and video options. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: The System utility is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements. C: The Date/Time utility is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone. D: The Internet Options utility is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 257: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to set options for connecting to other computers? A. Display B. Printers C. Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) D. Add/Remove Hardware Answer: C Explanation: The Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility is used to set options for connecting to other computers. Incorrect Answers: A: The Display utility is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers. B: The Printers utility is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. D: The Add/Remove Hardware utility is used to add and configure new hardware. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 258: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to set options for using phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet? A. Modems (Phone and Modem Options) B. System C. Fonts D. Display CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: A Explanation: The Modems (Phone and Modem Options) utility is used to set options for using phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet. Incorrect Answers: B: The System utility is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements. C: The Fonts utility is used to add and remove fonts. D: The Display utility is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 259: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to configure printer settings and print defaults? A. Add/Remove Hardware B. Multimedia C. System D. Printers Answer: D Explanation: The Printers utility is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. Incorrect Answers: A: The Add/Remove Hardware utility is used to add and configure new hardware. B: The Multimedia utility is used to configure audio and video options. C: The System utility is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 260: Which of the following is a Windows 2000 utility that allows you to view and configure various system elements? A. Multimedia B. Internet Options C. System CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. Modems (Phone and Modem Options) Answer: C Explanation: The System utility allows you to view and configure various system elements. Incorrect Answers: A: The Multimedia utility is used to Configures audio and video options. B: The Internet Options utility is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. D: The Modems (Phone and Modem Options) utility is used to set options for using phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 261: You are in the process of using the Add/Remove Hardware utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to change, add, or delete software B. It is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone C. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers D. It is used to add and configure new hardware Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Add/Remove Hardware utility is to add and configure new hardware. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Add/Remove Programs utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Date/Time utility. C: This option is the proper function of the Display utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 507 QUESTION 262: You are in the process of using the Add/Remove Programs utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to change, add, or delete software B. It is used to add and configure new hardware CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults D. It is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements Answer: A Explanation: The purpose and function of the Add/Remove Programs utility is to change, add, or delete software. Incorrect Answers: B: This option is the proper function of the Add/Remove Hardware utility. C: This option is the proper function of the Printers utility. D: This option is the proper function of the System utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 507 QUESTION 263: You are in the process of using the Date/Time utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to add and remove fonts B. It is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software C. It is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone D. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Date/Time utility is to set the system time and configures options such as time zone. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Fonts utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Internet Options utility. D: This option is the proper function of the Display utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 264: You are in the process of using the Display utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to change, add, or delete software B. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers D. It is used to set options for connecting to other computers Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Display utility is to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Add/Remove Programs utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Printers utility. D: This option is the proper function of the Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 265: You are in the process of using the Fonts utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone B. It is used to configure audio and video options C. It is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements D. It is used to add and remove fonts Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Fonts utility is to add and remove fonts. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Date/Time utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Multimedia utility. C: This option is the proper function of the System utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 266: You are in the process of using the Internet Options utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to add and configure new hardware B. It is used to change, add, or delete software CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. It is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software D. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Internet Options utility is to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Add/Remove Hardware utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Add/Remove Programs utility. D: This option is the proper function of the Printers utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 267: You are in the process of using the Multimedia utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone B. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers C. It is used to configure audio and video options D. It is used to set options for connecting to other computers Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the Multimedia utility is to configure audio and video options. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Date/Time utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Display utility. D: This option is the proper function of the Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 268: You are in the process of using the Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. It is used to add and remove fonts C. It is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements D. It is used to set options for connecting to other computers Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility is to set options for connecting to other computers. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Display utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Fonts utility. C: This option is the proper function of the System utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 269: You are in the process of using the Modems (Phone and Modem Options) utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults. B. It is used to configure audio and video options C. It is used to set the system time and configures options such as time zone D. It is used to set options for using phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Modems (Phone and Modem Options) utility is to set options for using phone lines to dial out to a network or the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Printers utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Multimedia utility. C: This option is the proper function of the Date/Time utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 270: You are in the process of using the Printers utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to set a number of options for Configuring Network Software CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. It is used to configure screen savers, colors, display options, and monitor drivers C. It is used to set options for connecting to other computers D. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults Answer: D Explanation: The purpose and function of the Printers utility is to configure printer settings and print defaults. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Internet Options utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Display utility. C: This option is the proper function of the Network (Network and Dial-up Connections) utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 271: You are in the process of using the System utility, what is the proper function of your action? A. It is used to add and remove fonts B. It is used to configure audio and video options C. It is used to allow you to view and configure various system elements D. It is used to configure printer settings and print defaults Answer: C Explanation: The purpose and function of the System utility is to allow you to view and configure various system elements. Incorrect Answers: A: This option is the proper function of the Fonts utility. B: This option is the proper function of the Multimedia utility. D: This option is the proper function of the Printers utility. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex Inc, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 508 QUESTION 272: Which of the following programs performs the installation of Windows 95? E. XCOPY.EXE F. AUTOEXEC.BAT CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 G. SETUP.EXE H. SMARTDRV.EXE Answer: C Explanation: The program that performs the installation is called SETUP.EXE Incorrect Answers A: The XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. B: The AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS which are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. D: The SMARTDRV.EXE increases file copy speed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 273: In Windows 98, where is SETUP.EXE located? (Choose all that apply) A. In the Extended Partition. B. In the root directory of Disk 1 of the set of installation floppies. C. In the Add/Remove Programs. D. In the WIN98 directory of the installation CD-ROM. Answer: B, D Explanation: The program that performs the installation is called SETUP.EXE, and it's located either in the root directory of Disk 1 of the set of installation floppies or in the WIN98 directory of the installation CD-ROM. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 274: What is the function of the SETUP.EXE in Windows 95? A. Makes sure there is enough room to install Windows 95. B. It allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. C. Increases file copy speed. D. None of the above. Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The program that performs the installation is called SETUP.EXE, and it's located either in the root directory of Disk 1 of the set of installation floppies or in the WIN95/WIN98 directory of the installation CD-ROM. It examines your hard disk and makes sure there is enough room to install Windows 95 Incorrect Answers B: The XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily C: The SMARTDRV.EXE increases file copy speed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 275: Which files does SETUP.EXE copy to the computer system? A. The memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. B. The XCOPY.EXE files. C. Temporary files. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: The SETUP.EXE copies a few temporary files to your hard disk. These temporary files are the components of the Installation Wizard that will guide you through the installation of Windows 9x. Incorrect Answers A: The AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS which are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. B: The XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 276: The Windows 95 SETUP Command-Line has a few options. Which option allows SETUP to skip disk space checking? A. /id B. /d C. /iq D. None of the above. Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The /id option tells SETUP not to run the disk space checker. Incorrect Answers B: The /d tells Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows. C: The /iq tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 277: In the Windows 95 SETUP Command-Line, what is the function of the /it option? A. It tells Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows. B. It tells Setup to skip the disk space check. C. It tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). D. It tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Answer: C Incorrect Answers A: The /d option tells Setup to ignore your existing copy of Windows. B: The /id option tells Setup to skip the disk space check. D: The /iq option tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 278: The Windows 95 SETUP Command-Line has a few options. Which options causes SETUP to run without a mouse? A. /id B. /n C. /l D. /iq Answer: B The /n option causes Setup to run without a mouse. Incorrect Answers A: The /id option tells Setup to skip the disk space check. C: The /l option enables a Logitech mouse D: The /iq option tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 279: In the Windows 95 SETUP Command-Line, what is the function of the /p option? A. It tells Setup to skip the disk space check. B. It tells Setup to skip the check for any Plug-and-Play devices. C. It tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs). D. It tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Answer: B The /p option tells Setup to skip the check for Plug-and-Play devices. Incorrect Answers A: The /id option tells Setup to skip the disk space check. C: The /it option tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) D: The /iq option tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 280: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The /id tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. B. The /it tells Setup to skip the disk space check. C. The /it is known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup. D. The /it tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Answer: C Explanation: The /it tells Setup to skip the check for Terminate and Stay Resident programs (TSRs) that are known to cause problems with Windows 95 Setup. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 281: In the Windows 95 SETUP Command-Line, what is the function of the /T:C:\tmp option? A. It tells you the temperature of the CPU. B. It tells you the temperature of the motherboard. C. It specifies which directory Setup will copy its temporary files to. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. It tells Setup to skip the test for cross-linked files. Answer: C Explanation: The /T:C:\tmp specifies which directory (C:\tmp in this case) Setup will copy its temporary files to. If this directory doesn't exist, Setup will create it. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 282: If you install Windows 95 on your system, where would Setup put the files? A. SETUP.EXE. B. C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM C. C:\WINDOWS D. C:\ Answer: C Explanation: Setup will allow you to choose where you would like to install Windows 95. Setup chooses C:\WINDOWS by default. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 283: A user has asked you to install Windows 95. Which of the four installation types would be most suitable? A. Compact B. Custom C. Portable D. Typical Answer: D Explanation: Typical installs a good base of most elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Incorrect Answers: A: Compact installs a minimal set of options. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want and which you don't from the component groups. Each group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 284: You need to install Windows 95 with the minimal set of drivers. Which of the following options should you choose? A. Compact B. Custom C. Portable D. Typical Answer: A Explanation: The compact option installs a minimal set of options. Incorrect Answers: B: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want and which you don't from the component groups. Each group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. D: Typical installs a good base of most elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 285: In Windows 95, which of the following setup type allows you to choose what components you want to load? A. Compact B. Custom CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Portable D. Typical Answer: B Explanation: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want and which you don't from the component groups. Each group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group Incorrect Answers: A: Compact installs a minimal set of options. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. D: Typical installs a good base of most elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 531-542. QUESTION 286: What is the minimum recommended space required to install Windows 2000 Professional edition? A. 320 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 1.5 GB Answer: C Explanation: The minimum requirement is 2GB plus, which is needed for your applications and storage. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 287: Which of the following drivers are compatible with Windows 2000? A. The drivers for Windows NT B. The drivers for Windows 98 SE C. The drivers for Windows 95 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. All of the above Answer: A Explanation: Many Windows NT drivers will work with Windows 2000, while Windows 95 or 98 drivers will NOT work! Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 288: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Hardware requirements for Windows 2000 are higher than that of Windows 9x B. The hardware requirements to install Windows 2000 Professional is low-a Pentium 133 and 32MB of RAM. C. Many Windows NT drivers and Windows 98 drivers will work with 2000. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Many Windows NT drivers will work with 2000, while Windows 95 or 98 drivers will NOT work. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 289: Which of the following does Windows 2000 Professional use to start Setup? (Choose all that apply) A. Install B. Winnt32 C. Setup D. Winnt Answer: B, D Explanation: Professional has two different executables used to start Setup, depending on the OS you are using to start the install. These executables are WINNT and WINNT32. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 290: The WINNT.EXE in Windows 2000 Professional has a few commands. Which of the following allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files? A. Winnt32 B. SETUP.EXE. C. /s:sourcepath D. /t:tempdrive Answer: C Explanation: The /s:sourcepathallows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. Incorrect Answers A: This is one of the executables used to start Setup. B: This program performs the installation of th4e Windows 95. D: This allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 291: The new computer technician is busy installing Windows 2000 Professional. He wants to know the command that is used to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. A. SETUP.EXE. B. /s:sourcepath C. /t:tempdrive D. Winnt32 Answer: C Explanation: The /t:tempdrive allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 292: In the Windows 2000 Professional WINNT.EXE options, what does the /a option do? A. It tells Setup to enable accessibility options. B. Start in the floppy drive C. Used in an unattended installation to provide responses to questions the user would normally be prompted for. D. None of the above Answer: A Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 293: With regards to the WINNT.EXE options, which of the following allows you to add a batch script to execute at the end of SETUP? A. /s:sourcepath B. /e:command C. /t:tempdrive D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The /e:command allows you to add a command, such as a batch script, to execute at the end of Setup. Incorrect Answers: A: /s:sourcepath allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. C: /t:tempdrive allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 294: With regards to the WINNT.EXE Options, which of the following allows you to perform an unattended installation? A. /s:sourcepath B. /e:command CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. /t:tempdrive D. /u:answer file Answer: D Explanation: The /u:answer file is used in an unattended installation to provide responses to questions the user would normally be prompted for. Incorrect Answers: A: /s:sourcepath allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. B: /e:command allows you to add a command (such as a batch script) to execute at the end of Setup. C: /t:tempdrive allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 295: Which of the following statements regarding the WINNT.EXE options is TRUE? A. The /e:command allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. B. The /t:tempdrive allows you to add a command (such as a batch script) to execute at the end of Setup. C. The /s:sourcepath allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. D. The /udf:id [,UDB_file] allows you to installing numerous machines, each having a unique computer name. Answer: D Explanation: If you are installing numerous machines, each must have a unique computer name. This setting lets you specify a file with unique values for these settings. Incorrect Answers A: The /e:command allows you to add a command (such as a batch script) to execute at the end of Setup. B: The /t:tempdrive allows you to specify the drive the setup uses to store temporary installation files. C: The /s:sourcepath allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 296: With regards to the WINNT32.EXE options, which of the following is used to run install without user intervention? A. /s:sourcepath B. /unattend C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The /unattend is used to run install without user intervention. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 297: With regards to the WINNT32.EXE options, which of the following allows you to specify custom settings for machines during an unattended installation? A. /unattend B. /unattend[num]: [answer_file] C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The /unattend[num]: [answer_file] allows you to specify custom settings for machines during an unattended installation. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 298: With regards to the WINNT32.EXE Options, which of the following is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade? A. /debug[level]: [filename] B. /s:sourcepath C. /udf:id [,UDB_file] D. /unattend[num]: [answer_file] CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: A Explanation: The /debug[level]: [filename] is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 299: Which of the following statements regarding the WINNT32.EXE options is FALSE? A. The /debug[level]: [filename] is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. B. The /s:sourcepath allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. C. The /udf:id [,UDB_file] allows certain values that need to be unique to be set separately for each machine installed.. D. The /unattend[num]: [answer_file] Allows you to specify custom settings for machines during an unattended installation. E. None of the above Answer: E Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 300: The new technician wants to check an upgrade to Windows 2000 Professional, which of the following commands must he use to perform all the steps of an upgrade? A. /debug[level]: [filename] B. /checkupgradeonly C. /checkupgrade D. /unattend[num]: [answer_file] Answer: B Explanation: The /checkupgradeonly performs all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. The results are saved to an upgrade.txt file that can be examined for potential problems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 301: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The /debug[level]: [filename] allows you to specify the location of the Windows 2000 source files. B. The /checkupgradeonly allows you to specify the drive Setup uses to store temporary installation files C. The /makelocalsource specifies that the i386 installation directory from the CD should be copied to the hard drive, allowing for easier updates later. D. None of theabove Answer: C Incorrect Answers A: The /debug[level]: [filename] is used to troubleshoot problems during an upgrade. B: The /checkupgradeonly performs all the steps of an upgrade, but only as a test. The results are saved to an upgrade.txt file that can be examined for potential problems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 302: In the Windows 2000 Professional's Advanced Options window, how many options are available? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 303: In the Advanced Options window of Windows 2000 Professional, what does Archiving mean? A. It allows a user to secure their files against anyone else being able to view them by actually encoding the files with a key that only the user has access to. B. It tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up. C. It implements an Index Service to catalog and improve the search capabilities of your drive. 3 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. None of theabove Answer: B Explanation: This is identical to the Archive attribute on a FAT or FAT32 drive. This tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up. Technically it is known it is not selected, a current version of the file is already backed up. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 304: Which of the following supports advanced compression options? A. Windows 98 B. Windows 3x C. Windows NT D. Windows 95 Answer: C Explanation: Windows 2000 supports advanced compression options first introduced in Windows NT. NTFS files and folders can be dynamically compressed and uncompressed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 305: Which of the following allows a user to secure their files and prevents others from viewing them? A. Indexing B. Compression C. Archiving D. Encryption Answer: D Explanation: Encryption is the last advanced attribute is totally new to Windows 2000. Encryption allows a user to secure their files against anyone else being able to view them by actually encoding the files with a key that only the user has access to. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers A: Windows 2000 implements an Index Service to catalog and improve the search capabilities of your drive. Once files are indexed you can search them more quickly by name, date, or other attributes. B: NTFS files and folders can be dynamically compressed and uncompressed, often saving a great deal of space on the drive. As with Indexing, turning on Compression for a folder will result in your being prompted as to whether you want the existing files in the folder to be compressed. C: This tells the system whether the file has changed since the last time it was backed up. Technically it is known as the "Archive Needed" attribute; if this box is selected, the file should be backed up. If it is not selected, a current version of the file is already backed up. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 306: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. To install Windows 98 you need 50-55MB of free space. B. To install Windows XP you need 212 MB of free space. C. The minimum requirements to install Windows 95 is 120MB of free space D. None of theabove Answer: B Explanation: Windows XP requires 212 MB of free space, also on a FAT32 partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 307: Windows ME does not boot to DOS. What file does Windows ME use? A. MSDOS.SYS B. SYSTEM.INI C. WINBOOT.INI D. WIN.INI Answer: C Explanation: Windows Me uses a file called WINBOOT.INI to bypass MSDOS.SYS. The two files CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 must be exactly the same, so you can edit an existing MSDOS.SYS file and copy it over to WINBOOT.INI to modify how Windows Me starts up. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 308: Which of the following supports file level security? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 2000 Professional B. DOS C. Windows 3x D. Windows XP Professional Answer: A, D File level security is possible when using NTFS version 4 of later. NTFS version 4 was first introduced in Windows 2000. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 588-598. QUESTION 309: When installing Windows 98, what does the Compact installation install? A. A minimal set of components and options. B. Selected components and options. C. A general set of components and options as well as a number of communication tools. D. A general set of components and options. Answer: A Explanation: The compact option installs a minimal set of components and options. Incorrect Answers: B: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want. Each group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. D: Typical installs a good base of most elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 310: When installing Windows 98, what does the Custom installation install? A. A minimal set of components and options. B. Selected components and options. C. A general set of components and options as well as a number of communication tools. D. A general set of components and options. Answer: B Explanation: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want. Each group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group. Incorrect Answers: A: The compact option installs a minimal set of components and options. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. D: Typical installs a good base of most elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 311: When installing Windows 98, what does the Typical installation install? A. A minimal set of components and options. B. Selected components and options. C. A general set of components and options as well as a number of communication tools. D. A general set of components and options. Answer: D Explanation: Typical installs a good base of general elements and is the best option if you are installing a system for someone else, and are not sure which options to install. Incorrect Answers: A: The compact option installs a minimal set of components and options. B: Custom installation allows you to choose exactly which components you want. Each CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 group generally has a number of options included with it, and you can choose to install all, some, or none of any component group. C: Portable installs fewer components than the typical install, but it does include a number of communication tools left out of the typical install, including Dial-Up Networking. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 312: Which of the following improvements does Windows 98 have over Windows 95? (Choose all that apply) A. Support for newer hardware, such as USB, AGP, and DVD. B. It replaces DOS 32 with DOS 7. C. Year 2000 fixes. D. None of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: Windows 98 has support for newer hardware, such as USB, AGP, and DVD. Incorrect Answers B: Windows 98 replaces DOS 7 with DOS 32. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 313: Which of the following is a characteristic of the new improved Windows 98 over Windows 95? (Choose all that apply) A. Better Internet support through the integration of Internet Explorer. B. It replaces the 16-bit with the 32-bit. C. Enhancements for MMX processors, better use of RAM and disk resources. D. None of the above Answer: A, B, C Explanation: Some of the major enhancements with Windows 98 include the following: 1. Better Internet support through the integration of Internet Explorer 2. Year 2000 fixes 3. Support for newer hardware, such as USB, AGP, and DVD CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 4. FAT32 5. DOS 7 (16-bit) is replaced by DOS32 (32-bit) 6. Enhancements for MMX processors, better use of RAM and disk resources Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 314: Which of the following should you start to upgrade Windows 95 to Windows 98? (Choose all that apply) A. SYSTEM.INI. B. SETUP.EXE. C. WIN.INI. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: In order to start the upgrade, you need to start the SETUP.EXE program. Incorrect Answers A: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. C: The WIN.INI controls the Windows operating environment. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 315: In which of the following is Windows 98 files stored? A. SYSTEM.INI. B. SETUP.EXE. C. C:\WINDOWS. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: In the Install Directory, you will enter the directory in which the Windows 98 files will be stored. By default, this is the same directory that the current version of Windows is in-generally C:\WINDOWS. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 316: You have just upgraded from Windows 95 to Windows 98 but the computer does not function properly. What can you do to locate the problem? A. Reinstall Windows 95. B. Reboot the system in Safe mode. C. Try to restart the system D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: If the computer seems to start up fine but Windows 9x doesn't function properly, try rebooting in Safe mode. This mode of operation loads Windows 98 with a minimal set of drivers and can help you determine if the problem is hardware or software related. Incorrect Answers A: This can be an option, but it could be also a waste of time, because the problem could be very simple. C: To reboot the system is useless, because it does not function properly as stated by the user. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 317: Which of the following allows you to select Safe mode? A. F1 B. F5 C. F8 D. F12 Answer: C Explanation: To boot the computer, turn it on and press the F8 key when you see the words Starting Windows 98. Doing so will present you with a list of boot-up choices, the third of which is Boot Computer in Safe Mode. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 318: When should you use Safe mode? (Choose all that apply) A. When you want to check the RAM. B. When you want to troubleshoot the network. C. When you want to troubleshoot a system. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Safe mode can be used to troubleshoot a faulty operating system. It loads a minimal set of drivers and allows you to check on drivers, conflicts, and so on and make changes to the configuration as needed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 547-553. QUESTION 319: A client has asked you to upgrade his Windows 98 system to Windows 2000. Which of the following should you do? A. Boot the system with the Windows 2000 CD. B. Start Windows 2000 Setup program from within the operating system. C. Copy Windows 2000 to the hard drive and restart. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The simplest option is to place the Windows 2000 Professional disk into the CD-ROM drive of the machine to be upgraded. A window should automatically appear asking if you want to upgrade to Windows 2000. Incorrect Answers A, C: If you start the installation from outside the current system a clean operation system will be installed, not an upgrade. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 320: If you upgrade your system from Windows 98 to Windows 2000, what will appear on your screen? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Windows 2000 Upgrade Autorun screen B. Administrative Tools C. Tools Menu D. None ofthe above Answer: A Explanation: When a compact disc is inserted into a drive, it often automatically starts a program, such as an install routine. This is done through the Autorun option. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 321: When the Windows 2000 Upgrade Autorun screen has finished, which of the following will appear? A. Control Panel B. Administrative Tools C. Startup and Recovery D. The Windows 2000 Setup Wizard Answer: D Explanation: If you click "Yes" to accept the offered upgrade, the Windows 2000 Setup Wizard will begin. This wizard will perform a number of pre-upgrade tasks and will then start the upgrade itself. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 322: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Windows 98 has support for newer hardware, such as USB, AGP, and DVD. B. In order to start the upgrade from Windows 95 to Windows 98, you need to start the WIN.INI program. C. In the compact option there is no-frills install. It installs a minimal set of options. D. In Safe mode, you can then check on drivers, conflicts, and so on and make changes to the configuration as needed CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: B Explanation: In order to start the upgrade from Windows 95 to Windows 98, you need to start the SETUP.EXE program. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 323: What are the advantages that the Windows 2000 NTFS File System offers? (Choose all that apply) A. NTFS makes better use of large drives by using a more advanced method of saving and retrieving data. B. NTFS supports more system RAM than FAT32. C. The upgrade to NTFS enables increased file security, disk quotas, and disk compression. D. None of the above Answer: A, C Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 324: Which of the following files are required to boot a Windows NT system? A. SYSTEM.INI. B. SETUP.EXE. C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. BOOT.INI Answer: D Explanation: The BOOT.INI file is a required Windows NT startup file. Incorrect Answers A: The SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. B: To upgrade from Windows 95 to Windows 98, you need to start the SETUP.EXE program. C: The AUTOEXEC.BAT is used in Windows 9x systems. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 325: Which of the following files are required to boot a Windows ME system? A. SYSTEM.INI. B. SETUP.EXE. C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. BOOT.INI Answer: D Explanation: AUTOEXEC.BAT file is a required Windows 9x startup file. Incorrect Answers A: SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. B: SETUP.EXE is used to upgrade or install Windows 9x. C: AUTOEXEC.BAT is used in Windows 9x systems. D: BOOT.INI file is a required Windows NT startup file. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 326: Which of the following files would you use to upgrade a Windows 98 system to Windows 2000 Professional? A. WINNT.EXE. B. SETUP.EXE. C. WINNT32.EXE D. BOOT.INI Answer: C Explanation: WINNT32.EXE is a 32-bit file that is used from within the existing operating system to upgrade to Windows 2000 Professional. Incorrect Answers A: WINNT.EXE is a 16-bit file that is used to install Windows 2000 Professional from a DOS prompt or a boot disk. B: SETUP.EXE is used to upgrade or install Windows 9x. D: BOOT.INI file is a required Windows NT startup file. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 327: Which of the following files would you use to upgrade a Windows 95 system to Windows ME? A. WINNT.EXE. B. SETUP.EXE. C. WINNT32.EXE D. BOOT.INI Answer: B Explanation: SETUP.EXE is used to upgrade or install Windows 9x. Incorrect Answers A: WINNT.EXE is a 16-bit file that is used to install Windows 2000 Professional from a DOS prompt or a boot disk. C: WINNT32.EXE is a 32-bit file that is used from within the existing operating system to upgrade to Windows 2000 Professional. D: BOOT.INI file is a required Windows NT startup file. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 598-604. QUESTION 328: You want to install Windows 95 on a new system. To get the new disk drives to work, what is needed? A. You need to partition the disk. B. You need to format the disk. C. You need a Windows 95 bootable CD-ROM. D. None of the above. Answer: D Explanation: By using the FDISK.EXE and FORMAT.EXE commands. Running any sort of command on a machine that has no operating system is, well, impossible, though, so in order to do this, you need to boot the computer using a floppy disk that is bootable to MS-DOS or the Windows 9x command line. Incorrect Answers A: You need to do this, but to do the partitioning you need a bootable floppy disk. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: You need to do this, but to do the formatting you need a bootable floppy disk. C: You cannot boot from a bootable CD-ROM, it is impossible with Windows 95. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 329: You are needed to install Windows 98 on a brand new system. Which of the following is needed? A. You need to format the disk. B. A floppy disk that is bootable to MS-DOS. C. You need a Windows 95 bootable CD-ROM. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: You need to boot the computer using a floppy disk that is bootable to MS-DOS. Incorrect Answers A: You need to do this, but to do the formatting you need a bootable floppy disk. C: You cannot boot from a bootable CD-ROM, it is impossible with Windows 95. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 330: One of your clients has bought a system and wants Windows 95 on the system. To get the new disk drives to work, what is needed? A. You need to format the disk. B. A bootable floppy disk with the Windows 95 command line. C. You need to partition the disk. D. You need a Windows 95 bootable CD-ROM. Answer: B Explanation: Running any sort of command on a machine that has no operating system is, well, impossible, though, so in order to do this, you need to boot the computer using a floppy disk that is bootable to MS-DOS or the Windows 95 command line. Incorrect Answers A: You need to do this, but to do the formatting you need a bootable floppy disk. C: You need to do this, but to do the partitioning you need a bootable floppy disk. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D: You cannot boot from a bootable CD-ROM, it is impossible with Windows 95. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 331: In Windows 95/98, before you can use a new disk drive, what is needed? (Choose all that apply) A. Formatting. B. The Windows 95/98 CD. C. Partitioning. D. None of the above. Answer: A, C Explanation: New disk drives need to have two critical functions performed on them before they are able to be used-partitioning and formatting. Incorrect Answers B: With a new had drive this will not work. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 332: What is understood by using the term FORMATING? A. This is the process of assigning part or all of the drive. B. This is the process of preparing the partition to store data. C. This is the process of booting the computer from a disk. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Formatting is the process of preparing the partition to store data in a particular fashion. Incorrect Answers A: Partitioning is the process of assigning part or all of the drive for use by the computer. C: Formatting is the process of preparing the partition to store data in a particular fashion. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 333: What is the process called when you are assigning part or all of the drive for use by the computer? A. Formatting B. Modification C. Partitioning D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Partitioning is the process of assigning part or all of the drive for use by the computer. Incorrect Answers: A: Formatting is the process of preparing the partition to store data in a particular fashion. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 334: You need to make a startup disk from a Windows 95/98 system. What should you do? A. A the DOS prompt, copy the system files to a floppy disk. B. In the Add/Remove Programs icon is a tab called Startup Disk, click the tab. C. In the Add/Remove Programs icon is a tab called Windows Setup, click the tab D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: To do this, go to Start ? Settings ? Control Panel and double-click the Add/Remove Programs icon. Within Add/Remove Programs is a tab called Startup Disk. Click the Startup Disk tab to bring it to the front. Click the Create Disk button to start the startup disk creation process. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 335: In which of the following can you create a Startup Disk? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. In the Administrative tools. B. In the Computer Management tools. C. In the Add/Remove Programs. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Within Add/Remove Programs is a tab called Startup Disk. Click the Startup Disk tab to bring it to the front. Click the Create Disk button to start the startup disk creation process. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 336: What is needed when you want to start the Windows 95 installation on a new system via the CD-ROM drive? A. That the CD-ROM is a good known one. B. That the startup disk can access the CD-ROM drive on the machine. C. Make sure that the cables are plugged in correctly. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: If you are performing the installation via CD, you must also make certain that the startup disk is capable of accessing the CD-ROM drive on your machine. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 337: In Windows 95 or 98, which of the following can be modified to load a CD-ROM driver? A. SMARTDRV.EXE B. AUTOEXEC.BAT C. XCOPY.EXE D. CONFIG.SYS Answer: B, D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. You can modify AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS to load a CD-ROM driver. The exact modifications you will need to make depend on the type and manufacturer of your CDROM drive. Incorrect Answers: A: SMARTDRV.EXE increases file copy speed. C: XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 338: What is the function of SMARTDRV.EXE? A. It allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. B. It increases file copy speed. C. It has settings for the drivers that Windows uses D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: SMARTDRV.EXE increases file copy speed. Incorrect Answers A: XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. C: SYSTEM.INI has settings for the drivers that Windows uses. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 339: Which of the following is use to copy multiple files and directories easily? A. XCOPY.EXE B. AUTOEXEC.BAT C. CONFIG.SYS D. SMARTDRV.EXE Answer: A Explanation: XCOPY.EXE allows you to copy multiple files and directories easily. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B, C: AUTOEXEC.BAT and CONFIG.SYS which are the necessary memory managers and settings to get the computer up and running. D: SMARTDRV.EXE increases file copy speed. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 340: Which of the following is used to partition a new hard drive in Windows 95? A. Administrative tools B. FDISK C. The Add/Remove Programs D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: On the Windows 95 systems you must use the FDISK utility to partition hard drives. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 341: A client has asked you to change his one drive to two drives, a C and a D drive. The new employee wants to know what happed. A. Another drive was secretly added. B. You made use of the formatting to make the one drive into two drives. C. You made use of the partitioning to make the one drive into two drives. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: In DOS and Windows, a partition is referred to by a drive letter, such as C: or D:. Partitioning a drive into two or more parts gives it the appearance of being two or more physical hard drives. Incorrect Answers A: Partitioning can make a drive into two or more parts give it the appearance of being two or more physical hard drives. B: Formatting is the process of preparing the partition to store data in a particular fashion. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 342: When you create a partition in DOS, what is the first partition called? A. Extended DOS Partition. B. Primary DOS Partition. C. Extended Partition. D. Primary Partition. Answer: D Explanation: When a drive is partitioned in DOS, the first partition you create will be a primary partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 343: When you create a partition in DOS, not the second partition, but what is the third and the fourth partitioned called? A. Extended-Extended Partition. B. Primary DOS Partition. C. Extended Partition. D. Primary Partition. Answer: C Explanation: An extended partition contains one or more logical partitions; it is the logical partitions that have drive letters associated with them. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 344: In Windows 95, when using FDISK, how many partitions can be created? A. 1 B. 2 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: B Explanation: Only one primary and one extended partition can be created per disk using the Windows 95 disk utility, which is called FDISK. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 345: What can be created with the Windows 95 disk utility? A. More tools can be added to Windows. B. You can create Primary Partition, and an Extra DOS Partition. C. You can create Primary Partition, and an Extended Partition. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Only one primary and one extended partition can be created per disk using the Windows 95 disk utility, which is called FDISK. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 346: If you want to established large allocations of hard drive space, what should you do? A. You made use of the formatting. B. You made use of the partitioning. C. Use the administrative tools to create this. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Partitioning refers to establishing large allocations of hard drive space. A partition is a continuous section of sectors that are next to each other. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 347: Where will you find the boot-up files for DOS or Windows? A. In Device Manager. B. In the extended partition. C. In the primary partition. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: The primary partition is always marked active. The active partition is the location of the boot-up files for DOS or Windows. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 348: When FDISK is executed in Windows 95, which of the following options will appear? A. Set extended partition. B. Set active partition. C. Set primary partition. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: FDISK has the following options: 1. Create DOS partition or logical DOS drive 2. Set active partition 3. Delete partition or logical DOS drive 4. Display partition information Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 349: If you have two hard drives, how many options will there be in the FDISK? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 8 Answer: C Explanation: When FDISK is executed, a screen appears that gives four or five options. The fifth option, which allows you to select a hard drive, appears only when there is more than one physical hard drive. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 350: With regards to FDISK, which of the following is TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. Create DOS partition or logical DOS drive B. Delete partition and logical DOS drive C. Delete partition or logical DOS drive D. Display partition information Answer: A ,C, D Explanation: The FDISK has the following options: 1. Create DOS partition or logical DOS drive 2. Set active partition 3. Delete partition or logical DOS drive 4. Display partition information Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 351: Because you can have five options in the FDISK if you have two drives, how many drives do the FDISK partitions at a time? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. None of the above. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: FDISK will only partition one hard drive at a time. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 352: Which of the following is a characteristic of the FDISK? (Choose all that apply) A. You can create partitions. B. You can delete partitions. C. You can mark a partition as active. D. None of the above. Answer: A, B, C Explanation: With FDISK, you can create partitions, delete partitions, mark a partition as active, or display available partitioning information. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 353: Which of the following drive letters is assigned to the extended partition? A. C B. D C. E D. F E. None of the above. Answer: E Explanation: No drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 354: Which of the following is assigned to a drive letter? (Choose all that apply) A. Primary partition B. Extended partition C. Logical partitions D. None of the above. Answer: A, C Explanation: A partition is referred to by a drive letter, such as C: or D. One or more logical partitions must be defined within the extended partition, and they can then have drive letters attached to them so users can access them. Incorrect Answers B: No drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 355: After a user has partitioned the hard drive, he complains that he cannot install Windows 9x properly. Where can the problem be? A. The hard drive was not formatted. B. No partition was marked active. C. There is no drive letter to the extended partition D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: It is possible for no partitions to be marked active on a particular drive. In this case, the machine will not be able to boot to the drive. Incorrect Option A: Formatting is done after the partitioning. C: No drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 356: After the hard drive was partitioned, the user complains that he cannot install CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Windows 9x properly. Which of the following is causing the problem? A. There is no drive letter to the extended partition B. The hard drive was not formatted. C. There is two partition was marked active. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: One and only one partition can be marked active. Incorrect Answers A: No drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. B: Formatting is done after the partitioning. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 357: What information does the Master Boot Record (MBR) store? A. The size of the hard drive. B. The beginning and end of the primary and extended partitions. C. It contains the startup files for Windows. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The MBR contains the partition information about the beginning and end of the primary and extended partitions. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 358: Which of the following stores information about the beginning end of the primary and extended partitions? A. The Master Boot Record. B. The launch of partition. C. The DOS Volume Boot Sector. D. None of the above. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: C Explanation: At the beginning of the partitions, this record is called the DOS Volume Boot Sector. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 359: Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. A drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. B. The MBR contains the partition information about the beginning and end of the primary and extended partitions. C. With FDISK, you can create partitions, delete partitions, mark a partition as active, or display available partitioning information. D. None of the above. Answer: B, C Explanation: FDISK creates a start and an end to a section of hard drive space. At the beginning of that space, it creates a special file called the Master Boot Record, or MBR. The MBR contains the partition information about the beginning and end of the primary and extended partitions. At the beginning of the partitions, this record is called the DOS Volume Boot Sector. Incorrect Answers A: No drive letter is assigned to the extended partition. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 360: Which of the following does NOT support booting from the Windows Installation CD? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 95 B. Windows 98 C. Windows 2000 D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 You cannot boot from a bootable CD-ROM, it is impossible with Windows 95. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 361: Which of the following Windows does NOT support FAT32? A. Windows 98 B. Windows 95 C. Windows 2000 D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: The disadvantage of FAT32 is that it is not compatible with older DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 95 operating systems. Incorrect Answers A, C, D: FAT32 support became standard in later versions of Windows-98 and 2000. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. QUESTION 362: With which of the following Windows is FAT32 compatible? A. Windows 95 B. Windows 2000 C. Windows 3.x D. All of the above. Answer: B Explanation: FAT32 support became standard in later versions of Windows-98 and 2000. Incorrect Answers A, C, D: FAT32 is that it is not compatible with older DOS, Windows 3.x, and Windows 95 operating systems. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 523-547. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 363: One of the clients wants to install Windows 2000 Professional. After inserting the CD, no message appears to say that he can press any key to boot from the CD. What could be the problem? A. There is something wrong with the monitor. B. The PC is not configured to boot from CD-ROM. C. You must create and use Windows 98 boot disks to start the setup. D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: If the message does not appear, that means that your PC is not configured to boot from CD-ROM or does not have that capability. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 548-592. QUESTION 364: Which of the following is a characteristic of the FAT file system? A. Supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership. B. Allows for file-level security to protect system resources. C. Compatible with DOS and Windows 9x dual-boot configurations. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: FAT is the file system of DOS, and its advantages, one of it is that it is compatible with DOS and Windows 9x dual-boot configurations. Incorrect Answers A, B: This is all characteristics of the NTFS file system. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 548-592. QUESTION 365: Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose all that apply) A. The NTFS file system is accessible and modifiable with many standard DOS disk utilities. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. The NTFS file system supports larger partition sizes than FAT. C. The FAT file system has excellent speed on small drives. D. None of the above Answer: B, C Explanation: The NTFS file system is a more sophisticated file system that has a number of enhancements that set it apart from FAT: 1. Supports larger partition sizes than FAT 2. Allows for file-level security to protect system resources 3. Supports compression, encryption, disk quotas, and file ownership FAT is the file system of DOS, and its advantages include the following: 1. Compatible with DOS and Windows 9x dual-boot configurations 2. Excellent speed on small drives 3. Accessible and modifiable with many standard DOS disk utilities Incorrect Answers A: The FAT file system is accessible and modifiable with many standard DOS disk utilities. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 548-592. QUESTION 366: Which of the following can load device drivers for Windows 95/98 systems? A. BOOT.INI B. CONFIG.SYS C. AUTOEXEC.BAT D. SYSTEM.INI Answer: B Explanation: The CONFIG.SYS file is used to load device drivers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 367: Where would you find most of the Windows 9x settings? A. CONFIG.SYS B. AUTOEXEC.BAT CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Registry D. INI files Answer: C Explanation: Most of the Windows 9x settings that were previously stored in INI files are now stored in the Registry. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 368: One of your customers wants to see which drivers are installed on their Windows 98 system. Where will the customers find the information? A. Device manager B. INI files C. Add/remove hardware D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The Device Manager is a graphical view of all the hardware installed in your computer. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 369: To access the device manager you must right-click _______ and choose _______ then click the Device Manager tab. (Choose all that apply) A. My Computer B. Administrative Tools C. the Event Viewer D. Properties E. Computer Management Answer: A, D Explanation: The Device Manager is a graphical view of all the hardware installed in your computer that Windows 9x has detected. You can open it by right-clicking My Computer, choosing CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Properties, and then clicking the Device Manager tab. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 370: The new technician wants to know how to check if a device works properly? A. INI files B. Add/remove hardware C. Device manager D. Administrative Tools Answer: C Explanation: The Device Manager is a graphical view of all the hardware installed in your computer that Windows 9x has detected. You can open it by right-clicking My Computer, choosing Properties, and then clicking the Device Manager tab. Or you can open the System Control Panel program (from Start _ Settings _ Control Panel) and choose Device Manager. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 371: You want to make changes to the hardware. Where should you look to make the changes? (Choose all that apply) A. Device manager B. Administrative Tools C. Hardware Wizard D. None of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: Many hardware changes can be made through the Hardware Wizard, it is often easier to use the Device Manager, which provides a very simple and well-organized method to manage hardware in the system. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 372: You have noticed that some of the administration employees access the network without authorization. On their systems what can you do to stop it? (Choose all that apply) A. Call your telephone company to report a dial out. B. Disable the modem. C. Change the string in the modem properties D. Uninstall the modem Answer: B, D Explanation: A modem can be disabled or uninstalled simply through a right-click. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 373: Which of the following tabs is used to update the driver? A. General tab B. Driver tab C. Resources tab D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: The Driver tab allows you to see the driver name for the device as well as the driver version, if available. You can see in the figure that no drivers have been loaded for this device, or the drivers specified for the device are not compatible. If you need to load a driver (or update a driver), click the Update Driver button. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 374: Where will you find the status information of a driver? A. General tab B. Driver tab C. Resources tab CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The General tab shows general information about the device and status information. It also allows you disable the device in the current hardware profile. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 375: In a Windows 2000 Professional system where would you find the place to manage and maintain the hard drives and other storage devices on your machine? A. In the Computer Management tool by the system tools. B. Driver tab C. In the Computer Management tool by the storage tools. D. General tab E. In the Services and Applications tree. Answer: C Explanation: The storage tools are used to manage and maintain the hard drives and other storage devices on your machine. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 376: In Windows 2000 Profession, where would you find the Device Manager? A. In the Computer Management tool by the system tools. B. Driver tab C. In the Computer Management tool by the storage tools. D. General tab E. In the Services and Applications tree. Answer: A Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 377: Which of the following operating systems has the Drive signing option? A. Windows 3x B. Windows 95 C. Windows 98 D. Windows 2000 Answer: D Explanation: This is an option new to Windows 2000. In order to minimize the risks involved with adding third-party software to your Windows 2000 Professional machine, Microsoft has come up with a technique called driver signing. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 378: Who many bits does the serial connector transfer at a time? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Answer: A Explanation: The Serial connections transfer data one bit at a time, one right after another. The maximum speed of a serial connection is 128Kbps. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 379: Who many bits does the parallel connector transfer at a time? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: C Explanation: The parallel connections transfer data 8 bits at a time as opposed to the serial connections. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 380: Who many bits does the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) transfer at a time? (Choose all that apply) A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32 Answer: D, E Explanation: The Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is another method of connecting peripherals. It is the best choice for peripherals that require high-speed connections, as well as those that transfer large amounts of data, because it can transfer data either 16 or 32 bits at a time. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 381: When you add new hardware devices to Windows 95/98, it will detect the new hardware. What do Windows use to detect the new hardware? A. Plug and Play B. Add New Hardware Wizard C. Device Manager D. Control Panel Answer: A Explanation: When you start Windows after installing a new hardware device, it will normally detect CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 the new device using Plug and Play and automatically install the software for it. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 382: After purchasing a printer for the Windows 9x system, the system does not pick up the printer. What should you do next? A. Contact the vendor. B. It is plugged in the wrong port. C. Run the Add New Hardware Wizard D. Reboot the system Answer: C Explanation: When you start Windows after installing a new hardware device, it will normally detect the new device using Plug and Play and automatically install the software for it. If not, you need to run the Add New Hardware Wizard. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 383: Which of the following is a characteristic of the serial connector? (Choose all that apply) A. Maximum speed of 128Kbps. B. The serial connector transfer data either 16 or 32 bits at a time. C. Transfer rate of one data bit at a time. D. The serial connections transfer data 8 bits at a time. Answer: A, C Explanation: Serial connections transfer data one bit at a time, one right after another. The maximum speed of a serial connection is 128Kbps, so it isn't good for large amounts of data transfer, but it works great for synchronizing two data sources. Incorrect Answers: B: The Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the best choice for peripherals which require high-speed connections, as well as those that transfer large amounts of data, because it can transfer data either 16 or 32 bits at a time. D: The parallel connectionstransfer data 8 bits at a time as opposed to the serial CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 connections. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 384: Which of the following is a characteristic of the SCSI? (Choose all that apply) A. Maximum speed of 128Kbps. B. The SCSI transfer data either 16 or 32 bits at a time. C. It can connect a maximum of 127 external devices. D. You could use a SCSI connection to connect a scanner. Answer: B, D Explanation: The Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is another method of connecting peripherals. It is the best choice for peripherals that require high-speed connections, as well as those that transfer large amounts of data, because it can transfer data either 16 or 32 bits at a time. For example, you could use a SCSI connection to connect a scanner. Incorrect Answers A: The maximum speed of a serial connection is 128Kbps. C: The USB can connect a maximum of 127 external devices. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 385: What is the primary function of the FireWire? A. It is used to connecting an external modem to a PC. B. It is used to connect devices like scanners and Zip drives to computers. C. It is used to download large video files into a PC. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: With the advent of digital video, a new peripheral connection method was needed in order to download large video files into a PC. IEEE-1394 was the standard developed to meet this need. Incorrect Answers A: The most popular application of a serial connection is connecting an external modem to a PC. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B: Parallel ports are often called printer ports. Additionally, newer parallel ports can connect devices like scanners and Zip drives to computers. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 386: Which of the following is a characteristic of the parallel connection? (Choose all that apply) A. It transfers data 8 bits at a time. B. Parallel ports are often called printer ports. C. Parallel ports can connect devices like scanners and Zip drives to computers. D. Parallel was only designed to connect one peripheral at a time. Answer: A, B, C, D Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 387: Which of the following can you use to identify problems in Windows XP Professional? A. Task Manager. B. Control Panel. C. Computer Management. D. Device Manager. Answer: A Explanation: Task Manager can be used to locate applications and services that are consuming too much system resources, and can be used to kill those process threads. Incorrect Answers: B: Control Panel houses a number of system utilities. C: Computer Management is used to manage the System Tools, Storage space, and Services and Applications. D: Device manager is used to manage devices, not virtual memory. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 609-617. Ed Bott, Carl Siechert and Craig Stinson, Microsoft Windows XP Inside Out, 2nd Edition, Microsoft Press, Redmond, 2005, pp. 328-330. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 388: Which of the following files is used for virtual memory in Windows 98? A. PAGEFILE.SYS. B. WIN386.SWP. C. CONFIG.SYS. D. AUTOBAT.EXEC. Answer: B Explanation: The WIN386.SWP file is the virtual-memory file in Windows 98. Incorrect Answers: A: The PAGEFILE.SYS file is the virtual-memory file in Windows 2000, not Windows 98. C, D: CONFIG.SYS and AUTOBAT.EXEC are startup files for DOS and Windows 9x. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 389: Which of the following files is used for virtual memory in Windows 2000 Professional? A. PAGEFILE.SYS. B. WIN386.SWP. C. CONFIG.SYS. D. AUTOBAT.EXEC. Answer: A Explanation: The PAGEFILE.SYS file is the virtual-memory file in Windows 2000. Incorrect Answers: B: The WIN386.SWP file is the virtual-memory file in Windows 98, not Windows 2000. C, D: CONFIG.SYS and AUTOBAT.EXEC are startup files for DOS and earlier versions of Windows. They are not used in Windows 2000. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 564-676. QUESTION 390: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 In Windows 2000, where would you optimize virtual memory? A. Control Panel/Computer Management. B. Control Panel/System/Device Manager. C. Control Panel/System/Performance. D. Control Panel/System/Advanced. Answer: D Explanation: You can configure the size and placement of the virtual-memory swap file in Windows 2000 and Windows XP in the Advanced Tab of the System applet in Control Panel. Incorrect Answers: A: Computer Management is located in Control Panel/Administrative Tools and is used to manage the System Tools, Storage space, and Services and Applications. It does not manage virtual memory. B: Device manager is used to manage devices, not virtual memory. C: You can configure the size and placement of the virtual-memory swap file in Windows 9x in the Performance Tab of the System applet in Control Panel. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 609-617. QUESTION 391: In Windows 98, where would you optimize virtual memory? A. Settings/Control Panel/Virtual Memory Manager. B. Settings/Control Panel/System/Device Manager. C. Settings/Control Panel/System/Performance. D. Settings/Control Panel/System/Advanced. Answer: C Explanation: You can configure the size and placement of the virtual-memory swap file in Windows 9x in the Performance Tab of the System applet in Control Panel. Incorrect Answers: A: There is not Virtual Memory Manager in the Control Panel. B: Device manager is used to manage devices, not virtual memory. D: You can configure the size and placement of the virtual-memory swap file in Windows 2000 and Windows XP in the Advanced Tab of the System applet in Control Panel. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (Second Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 565-569. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 392: Which of the following errors indicate a missing operating system issue? A. Bad or missing command interpreter. B. Non-system disk or disk error C. No operating system found D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: You have a missing operating system when the computer fails to locate a boot sector with an operating system installed on any of its disks. Either of these error messages indicates a probable missing operating system issue. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 393: Which of the following files starts the process of loading the operating system on the computer, and therefore needs to exist to boot Windows? A. NTLDR.COM. B. BOOT.INI C. NTBOOTDD.SYS D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: A Explanation: NTLDR.COM is the file that starts the process of loading the operating system on the computer. In order to load Windows, this file must exist and not be corrupted. Incorrect Answers B: BOOT.INI contains information on what operating systems are currently installed on the computer. C: NTBOOTDD.SYS loads the SCSI interface for a system with a SCSI boot device installed. D: When Windows 2000 is loaded, NTDETECT.COM parses the system for hardware information. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 779 - 780. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 394: Choose the option below which indicates what you should do when the CMOS display type mismatch error message is shown. A. Check for a loose connection to the battery. B. Check for a motherboard issue. C. Check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system. D. Check that the physical device attached to the machine is correctly specified in CMOS. Answer: C Explanation: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. To remedy this, check that the correct monitor has been installed, and selected on the system. Incorrect Answers A, B: A CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. If you have verified that the battery is not the issue, you could possibly have a motherboard issue on your hands. A CMOS checksum failure error message could also point to a virus issue. D: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 395: During the startup process, which Windows operating system pauses and then queries you to indicate whether you want to utilize the Last Known Good profile that worked the previously? A. Windows 2000 B. Windows XP C. Window NT D. All of the above Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Window NT queries you to indicate whether you want to utilize the Last Known Good profile that worked previously. The operating system displays a listing of other available operating system from which to boot as well. Incorrect Answers A, B: With Windows XP and Windows 2000, the BOOT.INI file continues to generate on offering of bootable operating systems. These operating systems do not provide the paused screen during the startup process, like Windows NT does. D: When Window NT is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 396: Which type of issue does the "A device in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found" error message pertain to? A. System files issue. B. Configuration files issue. C. Swap files issue. D. All of the above. Answer: B Explanation: This error indicates a configuration file issue. Usually it means that a hardware or software component that was not installed was added into a configuration file. Incorrect Answers A: When system files are missing or corrupt, you would be displayed with error messages that signify an operating system issue. C: Swap or page file issues result in memory-related problems. When the swap file is incorrect or too small, the system starts running out of usable memory, and starts slowing down. D: Configuration file issue is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 397: When which of the following files are missing, would the operating system kernel fail to load and the Registry hardware key fail to create? A. NTLDR.COM CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. NTOSKRNL.EXE C. BOOT.INI D. HAL.DLL Answer: B Explanation: NTOSKRNL.EXE needs to exist to ensure that the operating system kernel loads and the Registry hardware key is created. NTOSKRNL.EXE loads device drivers and the Session Manager as well. Incorrect Answers A: NTLDR.COM starts the loading of the basic operating system by initiating the hardware detection phase, changing the CPU into 32-bit mode, and loading a mini file system. C: BOOT.INI is the pointer that shows which other operating systems are available. D: HAL.DLL generates the hardware abstraction layer that interfaces between the operating system and hardware. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 398: Which of the following files can be copied from a bootable floppy disk to root folder on the hard drive, to fix startup issues? A. NTLDR.COM B. BOOT.INI C. NTDETECT.COM D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: When either of these files is corrupt, you can copy them from a bootable floppy disk to the root folder on the hard drive. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 778. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 399: Which of the following error messages indicate either a bad battery, a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. CMOS memory size mismatch error message B. CMOS checksum failure error message. C. CMOS display type mismatch error message D. CMOS device mismatch error message Answer: B Explanation: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. If after checking that the battery is not the issue, you possibly have a motherboard issue on your hands. It could also point to a virus issue. Incorrect Answers A: The CMOS memory size mismatch error message is usually shown when additional memory is added. Auto-detection does though reconfigure the CMOS to ensure that what the CMOS perceives is the actual memory. C: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. To remedy this error, check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system. D: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 400: If you receive the "Non-system disk or disk error" error message, what issue should you start troubleshooting for? A. A missing operating system where the computer failed to locate a boot sector with an operating system installed. B. A memory size error. C. A missing or malfunctioning keyboard. D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: You have a missing operating system when the computer fails to locate a boot sector with an operating system installed on any of its disks. Incorrect Answers B: The power on self-test (POST), built into a computer, indicates memory specific issues with a number commencing with 2. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C: The power on self-test (POST), built into a computer, indicates missing or malfunctioning keyboard issues with a number commencing with 3. D: A missing operating system is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 401: Which of the following are typical indications of a boot process fail situation? A. An automatic reboot B. Complete lock-up C. A blank screen D. A blue error screen E. All of the above Answer: E Explanation: Each one of the above mentioned conditions point to a failed boot process. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 402: When you receive a "Kernel file is missing from the disk" error message, which of the following DOES NOT apply? A. The NTLDR.COM file is missing. B. The NTLDR.COM file can be copied over from a bootable floppy disk to correct the issue. C. The NTDETECT.COM file can be copied over from a bootable floppy disk to correct the issue. D. All statements do not apply. Answer: C Explanation: When you receive the "Kernel file is missing from the disk" error message, you have a NTLDR file missing or corrupt issue. The NTDETECT.COM file deals with hardware CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 detection during startup. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: These statements are TRUE. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 403: For which of the following configuration file errors do you have to search the files, find the problematic line, and then fix it? A. Device referenced in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found. B. Device referenced in WIN.INI cannot be found. C. Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found. D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: For the Device referenced in SYSTEM.INI and WIN.INI cannot be found errors, you have to use an editor tool to search the files, find the problematic line, and then fix it. For the Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found error, you need to use the Registry Editor utility to find the invalid entries in the Registry. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 404: When which of the following files is missing, does the SCSI interface fail to load? A. NTLDR.COM. B. BOOT.INI C. NTBOOTDD.SYS D. NTDETECT.COM Answer: C Explanation: NTBOOTDD.SYS loads the SCSI interface for a system with a SCSI boot device installed. A missing NTBOOTDD.SYS file will result in the SCSI interface failing to CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 load. Incorrect Answers A: NTLDR is the file that starts the process of loading the operating system on the computer. In order to load Windows, this file must exist and not be corrupted. B: BOOT.INI contains information on what operating systems are currently installed on the computer. D: When Windows 2000 is loaded, NTDETECT.COM parses the system for hardware information. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 779 - 780. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 405: Which of the following error messages is usually shown when additional memory is added? A. CMOS memory size mismatch error message. B. CMOS checksum failure error message. C. CMOS display type mismatch error message. D. CMOS device mismatch error message. Answer: A Explanation: The CMOS memory size mismatch error message is usually shown when additional memory is added. Auto-detection does though reconfigure the CMOS to ensure that what the CMOS perceives; is the actual memory. Incorrect Answers B: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. If the battery is not the issue, you possibly have a motherboard issue or virus issue. C: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. To remedy this error, check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system. D: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 406: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following NT kernel system options allows the user to choose which operating system to start when working with multi-boot systems? A. Last Known Good Configuration option. B. Debugging Mode option. C. Return to OS Choices Menu option. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: The Return to OS Choices Menu option allows the user to choose which operating system to start when working with multi-boot systems. Incorrect Answers A: The Last Known Good Configuration option starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown. When this option is selected, the configuration does not contain changes that were made since the last successful startup. Bear in mind though that the Last Known Good Configuration option does not solve issues related to missing and corrupt drivers or files. B: Selecting the Debugging Mode option starts Windows and also starts the sending of debug information through a serial cable to a different computer. D: The Return to OS Choices Menu option is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 407: Which type of issue usually prevails when the system starts running out of usable memory, and starts slowing down? A. System files issue. B. Configuration files issue. C. Swap files issue. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Swap or page file issues result in memory-related problems. When the swap file is incorrect or too small, the system starts running out of usable memory, and starts slowing down. Incorrect Answers A: When system files are missing or corrupt, you would be displayed with error messages that signify an operating system issue. B: A configuration file issue usually means that a hardware or software component that CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 was not installed was added into a configuration file. D: Swap file issue is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter QUESTION 408: The "No operating system found" error can be attributed to a number of issues. Choose the option that is FALSE. A. No operating system was installed. B. There are corrupt boot files. C. A device in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found. D. The boot sector is corrupt. Answer: C Explanation: When a device referenced in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found, you have a configuration file related issue, and not an operating system issue. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: These are all issues that can result in the "No operating system found" error. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 409: When you are displayed with the CMOS checksum failure error message, you can perform a number of actions to rectify the issue. Choose the option that is FALSE A. Check whether the battery is bad. B. Check whether a virus exists on the system. C. Check that the CMOS perceives the additional memory. D. Check for a motherboard issue Answer: C Explanation: The CMOS memory size mismatch error message is usually shown when additional memory is added. Auto-detection does though reconfigure the CMOS to ensure that what CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 the CMOS perceives; is the actual memory. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. If after checking that the battery is not the issue, you could possibly have a motherboard issue on your hands. It could also point to a virus issue. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 410: Which of the following issues is not specific for a missing BOOT.INI file in the root folder of the boot drive? A. Windows starts but fails to display the startup menu. B. The waiting time fails to occur. C. Hardware detection fails to occur. D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: When Windows 2000 is loaded, NTDETECT.COM parses the system for hardware information. Hardware detection failing to occur has nothing to do with a missing BOOT.INI file. Incorrect Answers A, B: When you have a missing BOOT.INI file in the root folder, Windows fails to display the startup menu and also fails to initiate the wait time. C: A and B are TRUE. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 411: Which of the following files is needed to generate the hardware abstraction layer that interfaces between the operating system and hardware? A. NTLDR.COM B. NTOSKRNL.EXE C. BOOT.INI D. HAL.DLL Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: HAL.DLL generates the hardware abstraction layer that interfaces between the operating system and hardware. Incorrect Answers A: NTLDR.COM starts the loading of the basic operating system by initiating the hardware detection phase, changing the CPU into 32-bit mode, and loading a mini file system. B: NTOSKRNL.EXE needs to exist to ensure that the operating system kernel loads and the Registry hardware key is created. NTOSKRNL.EXE loads device drivers and the Session Manager as well. C: BOOT.INI is the pointer that shows which other operating systems are available. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 412: When the system boots to a blue error screen, which of the following describes its significance? Choose all correct options. A. A possible video problem. B. An incorrect device driver. C. A hardware failure. D. A possible video driver is set to the incorrect resolution. Answer: B, C Explanation: When the system boots to a blue error screen, it indicates a hardware failure or an incorrect device driver. Incorrect Answers A, D: Possible video and video driver issues are usually the issue when the system boots to a blank error screen. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 413: Which of the following error messages indicate that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor currently installed? A. CMOS memory size mismatch error message B. CMOS checksum failure error message. C. CMOS display type mismatch error message. D. CMOS device mismatch error message CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: C Explanation: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. To remedy this error, check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system. Incorrect Answers A: The CMOS memory size mismatch error message is usually shown when additional memory is added. Auto-detection does though reconfigure the CMOS to ensure that what the CMOS perceives is the actual memory. B: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. You possibly have a motherboard issue or a virus issue as well. D: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 414: Which of the following errors shown at startup or shutdown, basically means that Windows could not load/unload a virtual device driver? A. Windows protection error. B. A blue screen. C. No fixed disk present error message. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: The Windows protection error arises from virtual device driver issues. When this message is shown at startup or shutdown, it basically means that Windows could not load/unload a virtual device driver. The system would indicate which specific virtual device driver is causing the issue. Check what the issue is and if the virtual device driver is missing or corrupt, replace it. Incorrect Answers B: A blue screen is usually the result of a misconfigured driver or misconfigured hardware. To solve this issue, you should try and boot Windows in Safe Mode. C: The No fixed disk present error message means that at the motherboard level, a no hard drive issue exists. A bad cable and/or connectors are typical causes of this type of issue. Here, you should disconnect all peripheral devices from the computer and then ensure that all drive cables are securely attached. D: A Windows protection error is the correct answer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 415: Which of the following files can be copied from a bootable floppy disk to the root folder on the hard drive? A. NTLDR.COM B. BOOT.INI C. NTDETECT.COM D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: When either of these files is corrupt, you can copy them from a bootable floppy disk to root folder on the hard drive. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 778. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 416: Which of the following NT kernel system options starts Windows and also starts the sending of debug information through a serial cable to a different computer? A. Last Known Good Configuration option. B. Debugging Mode option. C. Return to OS Choices Menu option. D. All of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Selecting the Debugging Mode option starts Windows and also starts sending of debug information through a serial cable to a different computer. Incorrect Answers A: The Last Known Good Configuration option starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown. Bear in mind though that the Last Known Good Configuration option does not solve issues related to missing and corrupt drivers or files. C: The Return to OS Choices Menu option allows the user to choose which operating CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 system to start when working with multi-boot systems. D: The Debugging Mode option is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 417: Which of the following Interactive Startup options should you select if you want to start Windows using only basic files and drivers, and network connections? A. Start Windows Normally option. B. Safe Mode option. C. Safe Mode with Command Prompt option D. Safe Mode with Networking option. Answer: D Explanation: The Safe Mode with Networking option starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, and network connections Incorrect Answers A: The Start Windows Normally Interactive Startup option enables options for starting the machine through the command line, and then allows the user to start Windows. B: The Safe Mode option starts Windows in the very basic configuration, using 16 colors and 640x480 VGA graphic settings. C: Safe Mode with Command Prompt starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, and in the command prompt. The GUI is not loaded with the option. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 418: Which type of issue usually prevails when system files are missing or corrupt? A. System files issue. B. Configuration files issue. C. Swap files issue. D. All of the above. Answer: A Explanation: When system files are missing or corrupt, you would be displayed with error messages that signify an operating system issue. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers B: A configuration file issue usually means that a hardware or software component that was not installed was added into a configuration file. C: Swap or page file issues result in memory-related problems. When the swap file is incorrect or too small, the system starts running out of usable memory, and starts slowing down. D: System file issue is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 419: Which of the following DOES NOT point to a system file related issue? A. Missing or corrupt HIMEM.SYS. B. Bad or missing COMMAND.COM. C. Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found. D. HIMEM.SYS not loaded. Answer: C Explanation: The "Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found" message points to a configuration file issue. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: These messages all point to a system file related issue. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 420: For which of the following configuration file errors do you NOT have to search for the problematic or invalid line? A. Device referenced in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found. B. Error in CONFIG.SYS line X C. Device referenced in WIN.INI cannot be found. D. Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found. Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: This error message indicates the exact line in the configuration file that is causing the issue. You can go straight to this line and correct it. Incorrect Answers A, C: For these messages, you need to use a text editor tool to search the files, find the problematic line, and then fix it. D: Here, you would use Registry Editor Utility to find the invalid entries in the Registry. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 421: Which of the following error messages DOES NOT point to a configuration file related issue? A. Device referenced in SYSTEM.INI cannot be found. B. Bad or missing COMMAND.COM. C. Device referenced in WIN.INI cannot be found. D. Device referenced in the Registry cannot be found. Answer: B Explanation: The "Bad or missing COMMAND.COM" message points a system file related issue. Incorrect Answers A, C, D: These messages all point to a configuration file related issue. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 777 - 779. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 422: Which of the following issues point to a swap file problem? A. Unusually slow system speed and a disk being continuously accessed. B. An operating system could not start message. C. Configuration files issue messages. D. All of the above Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: Unusually slow system speed and a disk being continuously accessed typically point to a swap file problem. When there is insufficient memory, Windows starts to swap between memory and hard disk. Incorrect Answers B: This message points to a system file issue. C: Configuration files issue messages point to issues with files such as SYSTEM.INI which hold configuration information. D: A is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 423: Which of the following error messages usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS? A. CMOS memory size mismatch error message. B. CMOS checksum failure error message. C. CMOS display type mismatch error message. D. CMOS device mismatch error message. Answer: D Explanation: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. Incorrect Answers A: The CMOS memory size mismatch error message is usually shown when additional memory is added. Auto-detection does though reconfigure the CMOS to ensure that what it perceives is the actual memory. B: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. C: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. To remedy this error, check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 424: The "No fixed disk present" error message means...? A. Windows starts but fails to display the startup menu. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. The waiting time fails to occur. C. At the motherboard level, a no hard drive issue exists. D. All of the above Answer: C Explanation: The "No fixed disk present" error message means that at the motherboard level, a no hard drive issue exists. A bad cable and/or connectors are typical causes of this message. Here, you should disconnect all peripheral devices from the computer and then ensure that all drive cables are securely attached. Incorrect Answers A, B: These issues pertain to a missing BOOT.INI file. D: C is the only correct answer References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 425: When the system boots to a blank error screen, which of the following describes its significance? Choose all correct options. A. A possible video problem. B. An incorrect device driver. C. A hardware failure. D. A possible video driver is set to the incorrect resolution. Answer: A, D Explanation: Possible video and video driver issues are usually the issue when the system boots to a blank error screen. Incorrect Answers B, C: When the system boots to a blue error screen, it indicates a hardware failure or the presence of an incorrect device driver. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 426: If you forget to format the C: drive, which of the following error messages will be displayed? A. No fixed disk present error. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. Invalid media type error. C. Invalid or missing system files. D. None of the above. Answer: B If you forget to format the C: drive, the Invalid media type error would be displayed. In this case, the error means that the specific disk has no operating system and file system, and the system does not know what action to perform. Incorrect Answers A: The "No fixed disk present" error message means that at the motherboard level, a no hard drive issue exists. A bad cable and/or connectors are typical causes of this message. Here, you should disconnect all peripheral devices from the computer and then ensure that all drive cables are securely attached. C: When system files are missing or corrupt, you would be displayed with error messages that signify an operating system issue D: B is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 427: Choose the option below which indicates what you should do when the CMOS device mismatch error message is shown. A. Check for a loose connection to the battery. B. Check for a motherboard issue. C. Check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system. D. Check that the physical device attached to the machine is correctly specified in CMOS. Answer: D Explanation: The CMOS device mismatch error message usually means that the physical device attached to the machine is incorrectly specified in CMOS. Incorrect Answers A, B: The CMOS checksum failure error message could be indicative of a bad battery, or a loose connection to the battery, or even a motherboard issue. After verifying that the battery is not the issue, you might possibly have a motherboard issue on your hands. It could also point to a virus issue. C: The CMOS display type mismatch error message indicates that the video settings are not compatible with the monitor which is installed. Check that the correct monitor has been installed and selected on the system References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 428: Which of the following errors usually stems from a misconfigured driver or misconfigured hardware? A. Windows protection error. B. A blue screen. C. No fixed disk present error message. D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: A blue screen is usually the result of a misconfigured driver or misconfigured hardware. To solve this issue, you should try and boot Windows in Safe Mode to get around this problem. Incorrect Answers A: The Windows protection error arises from virtual device driver issues. When this message is shown at startup or shutdown, it basically means that Windows could not load/unload a virtual device driver. The system would indicate which specific virtual device driver is causing the issue. Check what the issue is and if the virtual device driver is missing or corrupt, simply replace it with a new copy. C: The No fixed disk present error message means that at the motherboard level, a no hard drive issue exists. A bad cable and/or connectors are typical causes of this message. Here, you should disconnect all peripheral devices from the computer and then ensure that all drive cables are securely attached. D: A blue screen is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 429: Which of the following NT kernel system options starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown? A. Last Known Good Configuration option. B. Debugging Mode option. C. Return to OS Choices Menu option. D. All of the above. Answer: A CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The Last Known Good Configuration option starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown. Bear in mind though that the Last Known Good Configuration option does not solve issues related to missing and corrupt drivers or files. Incorrect Answers B: Selecting the Debugging Mode option starts Windows and also starts the sending of debug information through a serial cable to a different computer. C: The Return to OS Choices Menu option allows the user to choose which operating system to start when working with multi-boot systems. D: The Last Known Good Configuration option is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 430: When the actual Windows NT, 2000 and XP operating systems have a problem, which of the following options will NOT work to start the operating system? A. Use a startup floppy disk to start the operating system. B. Perform a repair reinstallation to start the operating system. C. Restore the operating system from a backup. D. All of the above will work to start the operating system. Answer: A Explanation: Using a startup floppy disk to start the operating system only works when loader files are corrupted, and not when the actual Windows NT, 2000 and XP operating system is the problem. Incorrect Answers B, C: Performing these actions will start the operating system. D: Performing a repair reinstallation or restoring the operating system from a backup copy will enable you to start the operating system References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 431: Which of the following Interactive Startup options should you select if you want Windows started at the command prompt? A. Start Windows Normally option. B. Safe Mode option. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Safe Mode with Command Prompt option D. Safe Mode with Networking option. Answer: C Explanation: Safe Mode with Command Prompt starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, at the command prompt. The GUI is not loaded with the option. Incorrect Answers A: The Start Windows Normally Interactive Startup option enables options for starting the machine through the command line, and then allows the user to start Windows. B: The Safe Mode option starts Windows in the very basic configuration, using 16 colors and 640x480 VGA graphic settings. D: The Safe Mode with Networking option starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, and network connections. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 432: To effectively handle various troubleshooting scenarios, you need to understand which utility to use for different areas. Tools and utilities are associated with specific types of problems. Which of the following would you use for diagnosing visual settings, such as display adapters and video card setting problems? A. Device Manager. B. Display console. C. Networking and Internet Options subsystems Control Panel. D. User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel. Answer: B Explanation: Display Properties or the Display console is used for video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters issues. Incorrect Answers A: You would use Device Manager to diagnose device hardware issues. C: The Networking and Internet Options subsystems of Control Panel are used for network cards and Internet access issues. D: The User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel are used for user information and passwords problems. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 433: Which of the following options in the System Configuration Utility, MSCONFIG.EXE, should you choose if you want to manually specify whether the CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group should be loaded at Startup? A. Normal startup B. Diagnostic startup C. Selective startup D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Selective startup contains checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group; which allow you to select which configuration files should be loaded. This feature comes in handy when you need to isolate which configuration file area is causing a problem. After identifying the configuration file area that is the issue, you can disable items one by one to pinpoint the specific issue. Incorrect Answers A: Normal startup loads all device drivers and software. B: Diagnostic startup allows you to selectively choose device drivers and software that should be loaded when the system reboots. When rebooting, whenever a driver loads, you need to specify whether the driver should/should not be loaded. D: Selective startup is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 790 - 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 434: You need to remove a driver that is causing a Windows boot problem, which of the following actions do you need to perform? A. Access Device Manager to find out more about the issue B. Access the Display console to change the necessary video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters C. Start Windows in Safe Mode, and remove the problematic driver. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 After you have identified the problematic driver you need to start Windows in Safe Mode, in order to remove it. Then, after rebooting again, you can start Windows in the normal operation mode. Incorrect Answers A, B, D: These statements are FALSE. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 785. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 435: Which of the following utilities acts as a single interface for a number of older Windows 95 utilities, including Device Manager, Dr. Watson, and HWDIAG.EXE? A. System Information utility. B. System Configuration utility. C. System File Checker. D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The System Information utility acts as a single interface for a number of the older Windows 95 utilities, including Device Manager, Dr. Watson, and HWDIAG.EXE. Through the System Information utility, you can access a number of troubleshooting and debugging tools, including the System Configuration utility and the System File Checker. Incorrect Answers B, C: You can access the System Configuration utility and System File Checker utility from the menu options of the System Information utility. D: System Information utility is the correct answer References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 436: Which of the following attributes and associated value would you need to use in the ATTRIB.EXE DOS command to prevent a file from being modified? A. ATTRIB FileName.doc +r B. ATTRIB FileName.doc -r C. ATTRIB FileName.doc +h D. ATTRIB FileName.doc -h CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: A Explanation: You would need to use ATTRIB FileName.doc +r (read-only) to prevent a specific file from being modified, or overwritten. Incorrect Answers B: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc -r would clear the read-only attribute for this file. C: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc +h hides the specific file from being seen in a normal directory search. D: Using FileName.doc -h clears the hidden file attribute for the specific file. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 437: You have logged on to the Recovery Console and need to write new Windows boot sector code on a boot partition. Which of the following available DOS commands must you use to do this? A. Diskpart. B. Fixboot C. Fixmbr D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Fixboot is used to write new Windows boot sector code on a boot partition. The command is usually used to deal with a corrupted Windows boot sector. Incorrect Answers A: In Windows NT, 2000 and XP; Diskpart replaces the FDISK.EXE command Diskpart is used to configure and manage partitions on hard disk volumes. C: Fixmbr is used to repair the master boot record (MBR) of the system partition. D: Fixboot is the correct command to use. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 438: To make changes to Windows settings in the Registry, which of the following tools can be used? A. Use Control Panel to make changes. B. Use Windows applets to make changes. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Use REGEDIT.EXE to make changes. D. Use third-party applications to edit .DAT files. E. All of the above Answer: E Explanation: You can use either of the above mentioned tools and utilities to effect immediate or direct changes to the Registry. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 439: Which of the following utilities would you use to diagnose device hardware issues? A. Device Manager. B. Display console. C. Networking and Internet Options subsystems Control Panel. D. User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel. Answer: A Explanation: You would use Device Manager to diagnose device hardware issues. In Device Manager, symbols show the status of devices. Incorrect Answers B: Display Properties or the Display console is used for troubleshooting video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters issues. C: The Networking and Internet Options subsystems of Control Panel are used for network cards and Internet access issues. D: The User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel are used for user information and passwords problems. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 440: Which of the following options in MSCONFIG.EXE, should you choose if you want to selectively choose which device drivers and software should be loaded when the system reboots? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Normal startup B. Diagnostic startup C. Selective startup D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Diagnostic startup allows you to selectively choose device drivers and software that should be loaded when the system reboots. When rebooting, whenever a driver loads, you need to specify whether the driver should/should not be loaded. Incorrect Answers A: Normal startup loads all device drivers and software. C: Selective startup contains checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group; which allows you to select which configuration files should be loaded. D: Diagnostic startup is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 790 - 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 441: You need to use a utility that will put all the parts of files into one continuous group of clusters, and thereby improve file access times and system performance. Which utility would you need to use? A. DEFRAG.EXE B. Disk Cleanup utility C. FDISK.EXE D. All of the above. Answer: A Explanation: DEFRAG.EXE puts all the parts of files into one continuous group of clusters, which ends up improving file access times. Simply put, DEFRAG.EXE is used to reorganize the hard disk that you specify for defragmenting. Incorrect Answers B: Disk Cleanup allows you to delete files. Options that you can choose between are Downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Offline Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, Temporary offline files, Offline files, or Catalog files. C: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 system. D: DEFRAG.EXE is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 442: You need to back up the Registry. Which of the following utilities can you use to perform this task? Choose all correct options. A. Windows Registry Checker B. System File Checker. C. System Restore D. All of the above Answer: A, C Explanation: Windows Registry Checker can be used to check the Registry for consistency and back it up. You can also restore a previous copy of the Registry from inside Windows, using the Windows Registry Checker. System Restore is used to create restore points or incremental backups, and is a backup tool for the Windows Me, Windows 2000, and Windows XP operating systems. You can use System Restore to back up the Registry for these specific Windows operating systems. Incorrect Answers B: System File Checker is used to compare non-Windows files which a program has installed, to original Windows files. You can use System File Checker fix an important Windows file that was overwritten by a source other than Microsoft. D: System File Checker cannot be used to back up the Registry. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 795. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 443: You need to edit the CONFIG.SYS file to correct a software configuration issue. Which of the following utilities can be used to do this? A. SYSEDIT.EXE. B. MSCONFIG.EXE. C. EDIT.COM. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. All of the above. Answer: D Explanation SYSEDIT.EXE can be used to edit either of the following files: CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, PROTOCOL.INI and MSMAIL.INI. You can use this tool to change these files to correct software configuration errors. In MSCONFIG.EXE, the Selective startup contains checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group; which allows you to select which configuration files should be loaded. This feature comes in handy when you need to isolate which configuration file area is causing a problem. After identifying the configuration file area that is the issue, you can disable items one by one to pinpoint the specific issue. You can use EDIT.COM to make quick changes to these configuration files as well. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 444: Which of the following utilities would you use to correct a video card issue, after you have verified that Windows successfully recognizes the video card? A. Device Manager. B. Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab. C. Control Panel. D. All of the above. Answer: B You would need to access the Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab, click the Advanced button, and then click the Adapter button to check the video adapter settings. Click the Troubleshoot button to troubleshoot issues pertaining to the monitor. Incorrect Answers A: For hardware troubleshooting, you would go to Device Manager to check whether Windows has successfully recognized a video card. After this, you would need to access the Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab to further troubleshoot the issue. C: Control Panel is used to troubleshoot system configuration issues, such as networking, Internet access, and user access information. D: The Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 445: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 You have directly updated the Registry in error, which of the following methods can be used to undo the specific change? Choose all correct options. A. You can copy a previous version of the .DAT file over the changed, problematic version. B. You can re-edit the line that was changed in error. C. You can import a saved exported segment. D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: Each of these options presents a solution for undoing a specific change in the Registry. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 446: You have logged on to the Recovery Console and need to repair the master boot record (MBR) of the system partition. Which of the following available DOS commands must you use to do this? A. Diskpart. B. Fixboot C. Fixmbr D. None of the above Answer: C Explanation: Fixmbr is used to repair the master boot record (MBR) of the system partition. Incorrect Answers A: In Windows NT, 2000 and XP; Diskpart replaces the FDISK.EXE command. Diskpart is used to configure and manage partitions on hard disk volumes. B: Fixboot is used to write new Windows boot sector code on a boot partition. The command is usually used to deal with a corrupted Windows boot sector. D: Fixmbr is the correct command to use. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 447: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 You can use the Device Manager to diagnose hardware device problems. When accessing the Device Manager, which of the following methods only works in Windows XP? A. Open Control Panel. Double-click the System icon and the select the Device Manager tab. B. Right-click My Computer and select Properties from the shortcut menu. Select the Hardware tab and then select Device Manager. C. Open Control Panel. Double-click the System icon. Select the Hardware tab and then click the Device Manager button Answer: C Explanation: This method of accessing Device Manager only works in Windows XP. Incorrect Answers A: This method of accessing Device Manager works for Windows 9x, Windows NT and Windows 2000. B: This method of accessing Device Manager works for Windows 9x and Windows 2000. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 787 - 788. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 448: Which of the following actions CANNOT be performed using FDISK.EXE? Choose all correct options. A. Configure logical DOS drives. B. Configure CD-ROM drives C. Set active partitions. D. Configure floppy drives Answer: B, D Explanation: FDISK.EXE can only be used to configure fixed disks installed on the system. CD-ROM drives and floppy drives support removable, interchangeable media, which means that it cannot be configured through FDISK.EXE. Incorrect Answers A, C: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. You CAN use FDISK.EXE to configure logical DOS drives and DOS partitions, and set active partitions. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 449: If you have a installed a new video driver and Windows 2000 is not starting properly, which of the following Interactive Startup options can you use to ensure that Windows 2000 is loaded using the standard VGA driver? A. Safe Mode. B. Safe Mode with Command Prompt C. Safe Mode with Networking D. Enable VGA Mode E. All of the above. Answer: E Explanation When you stat Windows 2000 in either of these modes, Windows 2000 will not use the newly installed driver, it will use a standard VGA driver. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 450: Which of the following attributes and associated value would you need to use in the ATTRIB.EXE DOS command to prevent an important file from being seen in a normal directory search? A. ATTRIB FileName.doc +r B. ATTRIB FileName.doc -r C. ATTRIB FileName.doc +h D. ATTRIB FileName.doc -h Answer: C Explanation: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc +h hides the specific file from being seen in a normal directory search. Incorrect Answers A: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc +r (read-only) prevents a specific file from being CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 modified. B: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc -r would clear the read-only attribute for this file. D: Using FileName.doc -h clears the hidden file attribute for the specific file. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 451: You have logged on to the Recovery Console and need to configure and manage partitions on hard disk volumes. Which of the following available DOS commands must you use to do this? A. Diskpart. B. Fixboot C. Fixmbr D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: In Windows NT, 2000 and XP; Diskpart replaces the FDISK.EXE command. Diskpart is used to configure and manage partitions on hard disk volumes. Incorrect Answers B: Fixboot is used to write new Windows boot sector code on a boot partition. The command is usually used to deal with a corrupted Windows boot sector. C: Fixmbr is used to repair the master boot record (MBR) of the system partition. D: Diskpart is the correct command to use. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 452: To effectively handle various troubleshooting scenarios, you need to understand which tools and utilities are associated with specific types of problems. Which of the following would you use to diagnose user information and passwords types of problems? A. Device Manager. B. Display console. C. Networking and Internet Options subsystems Control Panel. D. User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: The User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel are used for user information and passwords types of problems. Incorrect Answers A: You would use Device Manager to diagnose device hardware issues. B: Display Properties or the Display console is used to verify video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters. C: The Networking and Internet Options subsystems of Control Panel are used for network cards and Internet access issues. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 453: Which of the following cannot be used to fix configuration file issues problems? A. SYSEDIT.EXE. B. MSCONFIG.EXE. C. FDISK.EXE D. EDIT.COM Answer: C Explanation: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system Incorrect Answers A: SYSEDIT.EXE can be used to edit either of the following files: CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, PROTOCOL.INI and MSMAIL.INI. You can use this tool to change these files to correct software configuration errors. B: In MSCONFIG.EXE, the Selective startup contains checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group; which allows you to select which configuration files should be loaded. This feature comes in handy when you need to isolate which configuration file area is causing a problem. After identifying the configuration file area that is the issue, you can disable items one by one to pinpoint the specific issue D: You can use EDIT.COM to make quick changes to configuration files. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 454: You need to check the Registry for consistency and also back up the Registry. Which of the following utilities can you use to perform both of these tasks? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Windows Registry Checker B. System File Checker. C. System Restore D. All of the above Answer: A Explanation: Windows Registry Checker can be used to both check the Registry for consistency and back it up. You can also restore a previous copy of the Registry from inside Windows, using the Windows Registry Checker. Incorrect Answers B: System File Checker is used to compare non-Windows files which a program has installed, to original Windows files. You can use System File Checker to fix an important Windows file that was overwritten by a source other than Microsoft. C: System Restore is used to create restore points or incremental backups, and is a backup tool for the Windows Me, Windows 2000, and Windows XP operating systems. You can use System Restore to back up the Registry for these specific Windows operating systems. D: Windows Registry Checker is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 795. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 455: You are busy with hardware diagnostics and need to identify a device that is in a problematic state. After accessing Device Manager, which of the following symbols would indicate the problematic device? A. A red "x". B. A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field. C. A blue "i" on a white field. D. A green question mark (?). Answer: B Explanation: A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field would be displayed alongside a problematic device. Check the problem code displayed with the device to find out more on the issue. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: A red "x" specifies that this disabled device is still present and using resources. The device does not though have any protected-mode driver loaded. C: A device that has a blue "i" on a white field displayed next to it means that the Use Automatic Settings feature is not enabled for the device. The device resource in this case was manually selected. D: A green question mark (?) indicates that a compatible driver is installed for the specific device. This basically means that not all features of the particular device can be accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 787 - 788. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 456: You need to use a utility to delete temporary Internet files, Offline line Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, and Temporary offline files. Which one of the following utilities would you need to use? A. DEFRAG.EXE B. Disk Cleanup utility C. FDISK.EXE D. All of the above. Answer: B Explanation: Disk Cleanup allows you to delete files. Options that you can choose between are Downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Offline Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, Temporary offline files, Offline files, or Catalog file. Incorrect Answers A: DEFRAG.EXE puts all the parts of files into one continuous group of clusters, which ends up improving file access times. Simply put, DEFRAG.EXE is used to reorganize the hard disk that you specify for defragmenting. C: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. D: Disk Cleanup is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 457: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following options in the System Configuration utility should you choose if you want all device drivers and software to be loaded at Startup? A. Normal startup B. Diagnostic startup C. Selective startup D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Normal startup loads all device drivers and software. Incorrect Answers B: Diagnostic startup allows you to selectively choose device drivers and software that should be loaded when the system reboots. When rebooting, whenever a driver loads, you need to specify whether the driver should/should not be loaded. C: Selective startup contains a checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, SYSTEM.INI, or Startup Group; which allows you to select which configuration files should be loaded. This feature comes in handy when you need to isolate which configuration file area is causing a problem. D: Normal startup is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 790 - 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 458: You need to ensure that all drivers and services that were loaded and not loaded are logged in the %windir% directory. Which of the following Interactive Startup options can you use to ensure that this happens? A. Debugging Mode. B. Enable Boot Logging C. Enable VGA Mode D. None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Selecting the Enable Boot Logging option causes all drivers and services that were loaded and not loaded to be logged in the %windir% directory Incorrect Answers A: Selecting the Debugging Mode option causes debug information to be sent through a serial cable to another computer. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C: Selecting the Enable VGA Mode option causes Windows to load using a standard VGA driver. D: The Enable Boot Logging option is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 459: Which of the following attributes and associated value would you need to use in the ATTRIB.EXE DOS command to stop a file from being hidden in the normal directory search? A. ATTRIB FileName.doc +r B. ATTRIB FileName.doc -r C. ATTRIB FileName.doc +h D. ATTRIB FileName.doc -h Answer: D Explanation: Using FileName.doc -h clears the hidden file attribute for the specific file. Incorrect Answers A: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc +r (read-only) prevents a specific file from being modified. B: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc -r would clear the read-only attribute for this file. C: Using ATTRIB FileName.doc +h prevents the specific file from being seen in a normal directory search. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 460: You are busy with hardware diagnostics and need to identify a device that does not have the Use Automatic Settings feature enabled. After accessing Device Manager, which of the following symbols would indicate this specific device? A. A red "x". B. A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field. C. A blue "i" on a white field. D. A green question mark (?). Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A device that has a blue "i" on a white field displayed next to it means that the Use Automatic Settings feature is not enabled for the device. The device resource in this case was manually selected. Incorrect Answers A: A red "x" specifies that this disabled device is still present and using resources. The device does not though have any protected-mode driver loaded. B: A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field would be displayed alongside a problematic device. Check the problem code displayed with the device to find out more on the issue. D: A green question mark (?) indicates that a compatible driver is installed for the specific device. This basically means that not all features of the particular device can be accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 787 - 788. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 461: You have accessed the Recovery Console and now need to display a listing of drive letters, partition sizes, and file system type mappings to physical devices. Which of the following commands would you use? A. Listsvc B. Map C. Disable D. Enable Answer: B Explanation: The Map command displays a listing of drive letters, partition sizes, and file system type mappings to physical devices. Incorrect Answers A: The Listsvc command is used to display a listing of all available device drivers and system services. C: The Disable command is used to disable a specific system service or device driver. D: The Enable command is used to enable a device driver or system service. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 462: When using CVT.EXE to convert from the FAT16 file system to the FAT32 file CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 system, which of the following statements are FALSE? Choose all FALSE statements A. There may be a compressed drive that you could be unable to convert. B. After the conversion has occurred, you cannot revert back to FAT32 without reformatting the partition. C. You would still be able to perform dual-boot to older systems after the conversion to FAT32. D. All removable disks formatted with FAT32 will work with other systems. Answer: C, D Explanation: After the conversion to FAT32, you will NO LONGER be able to perform dual-boot to older systems. There is also a risk that removable disks formatted with FAT32 will NOT work with other systems. Incorrect Answers A, B: These statements are TRUE. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 463: You suspect that an important Windows file was overwritten by a source other than Microsoft, and now need to fix the file. Which of the following utilities would you need to use? A. Windows Registry Checker B. System File Checker. C. System Restore D. All of the above Answer: B Explanation: System File Checker is used to compare non-Windows files which a program has installed, to original Windows files. You can use System File Checker to fix an important Windows file that was overwritten by a source other than Microsoft. Incorrect Answers A: Windows Registry Checker can be used to both check the Registry for consistency and back it up. You can restore a previous copy of the Registry from inside Windows, using the Windows Registry Checker. C: System Restore is used to create restore points or incremental backups, and is a backup tool for the Windows Me, Windows 2000, and Windows XP operating systems. You can use System Restore to back up the Registry for these specific Windows CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 operating systems. D: System File Checker is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 795. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 464: To effectively handle various troubleshooting scenarios, you need to understand which tools and utilities are associated with specific types of problems. Which of the following would you use to diagnose network cards and Internet access issues? A. Device Manager. B. Display console. C. Networking and Internet Options subsystems Control Panel. D. User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel. Answer: C Explanation: The Networking and Internet Options subsystems of Control Panel are used for troubleshooting of network cards and Internet access issues. Incorrect Answers A: You would use Device Manager to diagnose device hardware issues. B: Display Properties or the Display console is used for video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters issues. D: The User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel are used for user information and passwords types of problems. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 465: You need to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. Which one of the following utilities would you need to use? A. DEFRAG.EXE B. Disk Cleanup utility C. FDISK.EXE D. All of the above. Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. Incorrect Answers A: DEFRAG.EXE puts all the parts of files into one continuous group of clusters, which ends up improving file access times. DEFRAG.EXE is used to reorganize the hard disk that you specify for defragmenting. B: Disk Cleanup allows you to delete files. Options that you can choose between are Downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Offline Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, Temporary offline files, Offline files, or the Catalog file. D: FDISK.EXE is the correct answer References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 466: Which of the following attributes informs the operating system that a specific file is required by the operating system? A. Read-only B. System C. Hidden D. Archive Answer: B Explanation: The system attribute informs the operating system that a specific file is required by the operating system. Incorrect Answers A: The read-only attribute is used to prevent a specific file from being changed or overwritten. C: The hidden attribute is used to prevent a specific file from appearing in a normal directory search. D: The archive attribute is used by backup utilities and programs. This attribute is read to determine whether a specific file needs to be backed up. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 467: If you have video adapter issues, which of the following actions are FALSE for CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 diagnosing and resolving this specific issue? A. Check Device Manager to verify that Windows successfully recognizes the specific video card. B. Access the Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab, click the Advanced button, and then click the Adapter button to check the video adapter settings. C. Access the Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab, click the Advanced button, and then click the Troubleshoot button to troubleshoot the issue. D. Check Control Panel to verify your system configuration. Answer: D Explanation: Control Panel is typically used to troubleshoot system configuration issues, such as networking, Internet access, and user access information. Incorrect Answers A, B, C: These solutions are all TRUE. For hardware troubleshooting, you would go to Device Manager to verify that Windows successfully recognizes the video card. After this, you would need to access the Display Properties dialog box's Settings tab to further troubleshoot the issue. Click the Advanced button, and then click the Adapter button to check the video adapter settings. Click the Troubleshoot button to troubleshoot issues pertaining to the monitor. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 468: You need to ensure that debug information is sent through a serial cable to another computer. Which of the following Interactive Startup options should you use to do this? A. Debugging Mode. B. Enable Boot Logging C. Enable VGA Mode D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Selecting the Debugging Mode option causes debug information to be sent through a serial cable to another computer. Incorrect Answers B: Selecting the Enable Boot Logging option causes all drivers and services that were loaded and not loaded to be logged in the %windir% directory. C: Selecting the Enable VGA Mode option causes Windows to load using a standard CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 VGA driver. D: The Debugging Mode option is the correct answer References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 469: Which of the following actions CAN be performed using FDISK.EXE? Choose all correct options. A. Configure logical DOS drives. B. Configure CD-ROM drives C. Set active partitions. D. Configure floppy drives Answer: A, C Explanation: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. You can use FDISK.EXE to configure logical DOS drives and DOS partitions, and set active partitions. Incorrect Answers B, D: Because CD-ROM drives and floppy drives support removable, interchangeable References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 470: You have accessed the Recovery Console and now need to display a listing all available device drivers and then enable a specific device driver. Which of the following commands would you use? Choose all correct options A. Listsvc B. Map C. Disable D. Enable Answer: A, D Explanation: You first have to use the Listsvc command to display a listing of all available device drivers. Following this, you must use the Enable command to enable the specific device CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 driver. Incorrect Answers B: The Map command displays a listing of drive letters, partition sizes, and file system type mappings to physical devices. C: The Disable command is used to disable a specific system service or a device driver. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 471: On system bootup, you suspect that a problematic driver is causing the system to hang. On the next boot up, you need to ensure that this driver is skipped. Which of the following utilities should you use? Select all that apply. A. ASD.EXE B. MSCONFIG.EXE C. BOOT.EXE D. MBRB.EXE Answer: A, B Explanation: You can use ASD.EXE and MSCONFIG.EXE to prevent a problematic driver from loading. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 472: You are busy with hardware diagnostics and need to identify a device that has a compatible driver installed. After accessing Device Manager, which of the following symbols would indicate this particular device? A. A red "x". B. A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field. C. A blue "i" on a white field. D. A green question mark (?). Answer: D Explanation: A green question mark (?) indicates that a compatible driver is installed for the specific device. This basically means that not all features of the particular device can be accessed. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: A red "x" specifies that this disabled device is still present and using resources. The device does not though have any protected-mode driver loaded. B: A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field would be displayed alongside a problematic device. Check the problem code displayed with the device to find out more on the issue. C: A device that has a blue "i" on a white field displayed next to it means that the Use Automatic Settings feature is not enabled for the device. The device resource in this case was manually selected. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 787 - 788. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 473: You are certain that one of configuration files is the issue preventing Windows from starting up but you are unsure of which specific one. Which diagnostic utility can you use to toggle between the various configuration files loading when starting Windows? A. Device Manager. B. Display console. C. System Configuration Utility D. Control Panel Answer: C Explanation: The General tab of the System Configuration Utility holds the Selective startup option. This option contains checkboxes for CONFIG.SYS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, WIN.INI, should be loaded. This feature comes in handy when you need to isolate which configuration file area is causing a problem. After identifying the particular configuration file area that is the issue, you can disable items one by one to pinpoint the specific issue. Incorrect Answers A: You would use Device Manager to diagnose device hardware issues. B: Display Properties or the Display console is used for video card settings, screen resolution, themes and skins, and display adapters issues. D: The Networking and Internet Options subsystems of Control Panel are used for network cards and Internet access issues. The User Accounts and Passwords subsystems of Control Panel are used for user information and passwords types of problems. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 790 - 791. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 474: On the point of resolving disk and disk access issues, choose all options that are FALSE A. ScanDisk is used to scan a disk for problems and then repair identified problems. B. DEFRAG is used to speed up disk access. C. ScanDisk can be used to put parts of files from a disk into continuous blocks of clusters. D. You only have to run Check Disk once to resolve all errors. Answer: C, D Explanation: DEFRAG is used to put parts of files from a disk into continuous blocks of clusters, and thereby speed up disk access. You could possibly have to run Check Disk multiple times, to resolve all errors. Incorrect Answers A, B: These statements are TRUE. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 475: When using CVT.EXE to convert from the FAT16 file system to the FAT32 file system, which of the following statements are TRUE? Choose all TRUE statements A. There may be a compressed drive that you could be unable to convert. B. After the conversion has occurred, you cannot revert back to FAT32 without reformatting the partition. C. You would still be able to perform dual-boot to older systems after the conversion to FAT32. D. All removable disks formatted with FAT32 will work with other systems. Answer: A, B Explanation: These statements are TRUE Incorrect Answers C, D: These statements are FALSE. After the conversion to FAT32, you will NO LONGER be able to perform dual-boot to older systems. There is also a risk that removable disks formatted with FAT32 will NOT work with other systems. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 476: Which of the following NT kernel system options starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown? A. Last Known Good Configuration option. B. Debugging Mode option. C. Return to OS Choices Menu option. D. All of the above. Answer: A Explanation: The Last Known Good Configuration option starts Windows using the hardware configuration saved in the Registry during the last successful shutdown. Bear in mind though that the Last Known Good Configuration option does not solve issues related to missing and corrupt drivers or files. Incorrect Answers B: Selecting the Debugging Mode option starts Windows and also starts the sending of debug information through a serial cable to a different computer. C: The Return to OS Choices Menu option allows the user to choose which operating system to start when working with multi-boot systems. D: The Last Known Good Configuration option is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 477: You need to compare non-Windows files which a program has installed, to original Windows files. Which of the following utilities would you need to use? A. Windows Registry Checker B. System File Checker. C. System Restore D. All of the above Answer: B Explanation: System File Checker is used to compare non-Windows files which a program has installed, to original Windows files. You can use System File Checker to fix an important Windows file that was overwritten by a source other than Microsoft. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers A: Windows Registry Checker can be used to both check the Registry for consistency and back it up. You can also restore a previous copy of the Registry from inside Windows, using the Windows Registry Checker. C: System Restore is used to create restore points or incremental backups, and is a backup tool for the Windows Me, Windows 2000, and Windows XP operating systems. You can use System Restore to back up the Registry for these specific Windows operating systems. D: System File Checker is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 795. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 478: In the Recovery Console, which of the following commands would you use to list all available device drivers and system services; and then disable a system service or a options. A. Listsvc B. Map C. Disable D. Enable Answer: A, D Explanation: You first have to use the Listsvc command to display a listing of all available system services. Following this, you must use the Enable command to enable a specific system service. Incorrect Answers B: The Map command displays a listing of drive letters, partition sizes, and file system type mappings to physical devices. C: The Disable command is used to disable a device driver or a system service. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 479: Which of the following attributes is used by backup utilities and programs? A. Read-only B. System CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Hidden D. Archive Answer: D Explanation: The archive attribute is used by backup utilities and programs. This attribute is read to determine whether a specific file needs to be backed up. Incorrect Answers A: The read-only attribute is used to prevent a specific file from being modified. B: The system attribute informs the operating system that a specific file is required by the operating system. C: The hidden attribute is used to prevent a specific file from appearing in a normal directory search. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 480: You need to change the structure of dynamic disks. Which of the following would you use? A. Diskpart. B. Fixboot C. Fixmbr D. Disk Management tool Answer: D Explanation: The Disk Management tool must be used to change dynamic disk configuration structures. You cannot use Diskpart to do this because Diskpart could end up damaging the partition table. Incorrect Answers A: Diskpart is used to configure and manage partitions on hard disk volumes. However, when it comes to dynamic disk configuration structures, bear in mind that Diskpart could end up damaging the partition table. B: Fixboot is used to write new Windows boot sector code on a boot partition. The command is usually used to deal with a corrupted Windows boot sector. C: Fixmbr is used to repair the master boot record (MBR) of the system partition. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 481: You are busy with hardware diagnostics and need to identify a disabled device that is still using resources. After accessing Device Manager, which of the following symbols would indicate this in Device Manager? A. A red "x". B. A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field. C. A blue "i" on a white field. D. A green question mark (?). Answer: A Explanation: A red "x" indicates that a disabled device is still present and using resources. The device does not though have any protected-mode driver loaded. Incorrect Answers B: A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field would be displayed alongside a problematic device. Check the problem code displayed with the device to find out more on the issue C: A device that has a blue "i" on a white field displayed next to it means that the Use Automatic Settings feature is not enabled for the device. The device resource in this case was manually selected. D: A green question mark (?) indicates that a compatible driver is installed for the specific device. This basically means that not all features of the particular device can be accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 787 - 788. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 482: Which of the following attributes should you use to prevent system files and important files from appearing in a normal directory search? A. Read-only B. System C. Hidden D. Archive Answer: C Explanation: The hidden attribute is used to prevent a specific file from appearing in a normal CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 directory search. Incorrect Answers A: The read-only attribute is used to prevent a specific file from being modified. B: The system attribute informs the operating system that a specific file is required by the operating system. D: The archive attribute is used by backup utilities and programs. This attribute is read to determine whether a specific file needs to be backed up. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792. QUESTION 483: In which of the following versions of Windows should you NOT use CHKDSK to correct corrupt file problems? Choose all options that apply A. Windows 9x B. Windows Me C. Windows XP D. Windows 2000 Answer: C Explanation: CHKDSK should not be run on a Windows 9x or Windows Me computer. Running CHKDSK on one of these Windows versions can cause great problems. CHKDSK has been completely replaced by SCANDISK for these versions of Windows. Only in Windows XP and Windows 2000 has CHKDSK replaced ScanDisk. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 484: On the point of resolving disk and disk access issues, choose all options that are TRUE A. ScanDisk is used to scan a disk for problems and then repair identified problems. B. DEFRAG is used to speed up disk access. C. ScanDisk can be used to put parts of files from a disk into continuous blocks of clusters. D. You only have to run Check Disk once to resolve all errors. Answer: A, B Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 These statements are TRUE. Incorrect Answers C, D: These statements are FALSE. DEFRAG is used to put parts of files from a disk into continuous blocks of clusters, and thereby speed up disk access. You could possibly have to run Check Disk multiple times, to resolve all errors References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 485: Which of the following versions of Windows allows you to revert to previous driver software after an update? A. Windows NT B. Windows 2000 C. Windows XP D. All of the above Answer: C Explanation: With the launch of Windows XP came the feature that allows you to revert to previous driver software after an update. This is particularly useful when you suspect a driver software issue immediately after a driver update was performed. To access the driver rollback feature, access Device Manager, access the Properties sheet of the device which you have updated, click the Driver tab and then select the Roll Back Driver option. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 486: You have already installed your disk drives, and now need to configure unused space on your drive for use, which utility would you need to use for this? A. DEFRAG.EXE B. Disk Cleanup utility C. FDISK.EXE D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks that are already installed on the system. Therefore, after installing your disk drives, you need to use CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 FDISK.EXE to configure unused space on your drive for use. Incorrect Answers A: DEFRAG.EXE puts all the parts of files into one continuous group of clusters, which ends up improving on file access times. DEFRAG.EXE is used to reorganize the hard disk that you specify for defragmenting. B: Disk Cleanup allows you to delete files. Options that you can choose between are Downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Offline Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, Temporary offline files, Offline files, or Catalog file. D: FDISK.EXE is the correct answer References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 487: You suspect that a virus has damaged the master boot record (MBR) of the System partition. Which of the following actions should you perform? A. Use the Fixmbr command to repair the MBR of the System partition. B. Run anti-virus software and then use Fixboot is used to repair the MBR of the System partition. C. Run anti-virus software and then use the Fixmbr command to repair the MBR of the System partition. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Because you suspect that a virus has damaged the master boot record of the System partition, you should first run anti-virus software and then use the Fixmbr command to repair the MBR of the System partition. Incorrect Answers A: If a virus does exist, repairing the MBR of the System partition will not take care of the issue. B: Fixboot is used to repair a corrupted Windows boot sector. D: Option C is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 488: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 You need to view your current partition configuration and delete some partitions. For which of the following drives can you do this using FDISK.EXE. Choose all correct options. A. SCSI drives. B. Floppy drives C. IDE drives D. EIDE drives E. CD-ROM drives Answer: A, C, D Explanation: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks that are already installed on the system. Fixed disks include SCSI drives, IDE drives, and EIDE drives. After installing your disk drives, you need to use FDISK.EXE to configure unused space on your drive for use. Incorrect Answers B, E: CD-ROM drives and floppy drives support removable, interchangeable media, which means that it cannot be configured through FDISK.EXE. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 792 - 793. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 489: Which of the following Interactive Startup options should you select if you want to start Windows using only basic files and drivers, and network connections? A. Start Windows Normally option. B. Safe Mode option. C. Safe Mode with Command Prompt option D. Safe Mode with Networking option. Answer: D Explanation: The Safe Mode with Networking option starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, and network connections Incorrect Answers A: The Start Windows Normally Interactive Startup option enables options for starting the machine through the command line, and then allows the user to start Windows. B: The Safe Mode option starts Windows in the very basic configuration, using 16 colors and 640x480 VGA graphic settings. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C: Safe Mode with Command Prompt starts Windows using only basic files and drivers, and in the command prompt. The GUI is not loaded with the option. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 490: You need to convert to FAT32. Which utility would you use to do this? A. CVT.EXE B. Disk Cleanup C. FDISK.EXE D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: You can use CVT.EXE (Drive Converter) to improve on the FAT16 file system access times and provide for larger drive sizes, with no loss data loss. Bear in mind though, that after the conversion has occurred, you cannot revert back to FAT32 without reformatting the partition. Incorrect Answers B: Disk Cleanup allows you to delete files. Options that you can choose between are Downloaded program files, temporary Internet files, Offline Web pages, Recycle Bin, Temporary files, Temporary offline files, Offline files, or Catalog file C: FDISK.EXE is used to partition and change information on fixed disks installed on the system. You can use FDISK.EXE to configure logical DOS drives and DOS partitions, and set active partitions. D: CVT.EXE is the correct answer. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 491: In the Recovery console, which of the following commands would you use to list all device driver? Choose all correct options. A. Listsvc B. Map C. Disable D. Enable Answer: A, C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: You first have to use the Listsvc command to display a listing of all available device drivers and system services. Following this, you must use the Disable command to disable a specific system service or device driver. Incorrect Answers B: The Map command displays a listing of drive letters, partition sizes, and file system type mappings to physical devices. D: The Enable command is used to enable a device driver or a system service. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 492: You suspect that service errors are causing continuing restarts in Windows XP. Which of the following actions should you perform? Choose all correct options. A. Access Control Panel, select the System icon, click the Advanced tab and then deselect the Automatically restarts option. B. Access Control Panel, select the System icon, click the Advanced tab and then select the Automatically restarts option. C. Access Control Panel, select the System icon, click the Advanced tab and then select to write an event to the system log so that information is logged without Windows XP constantly re-booting. D. Access Event Viewer to gather information on the issue. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: You should first deselect the Automatically restarts option in Control Panel and then select to write an event to the system log so that information is logged without Windows XP constantly re-booting. You can also use Event Viewer as a source of information. Incorrect Answers B: Selecting the Automatically restarts option would result in the service errors still causing continuing restarts in Windows XP References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 493: Badly formed characters are being printed. Which of the following can solve this issue? A. Replace the pin in the print head. B. Use a rubber separation pad. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Replace the ribbon. D. Use alcohol to clean printer parts that need to retain their friction. Answer: A Explanation: When badly formed characters are being printed, you usually have an issue with the pin in the print head. You would need to replace the pin in the print head. Incorrect Answers B: You would use a rubber separation pad to prevent multiple sheets of paper from being fed into the printer. C: You would need to replace the ribbon when poor quality characters are being printed. D: When the print rollers no longer pull sheets of paper through the printer, you would need to use alcohol to clean the print rollers that need friction to work. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 494: Which of the following is the first troubleshooting step? A. Gathering information on the issue. B. Talking to the user experiencing the problem. C. Isolating possible causes of the issue. D. Eliminating possibilities. E. Documenting your findings and solutions. Answer: B Explanation: One of the first steps in troubleshooting an issue is to talk to the user experiencing the problem. Contact with a user means that you need to have some degree of customer relations skills to carry out successful diagnosis of an issue. Here, you need the user to show you what the current problem is. Incorrect Answers A: Gathering information on the issue is usually the second step in troubleshooting an issue. This step involves ascertaining whether hardware or software being added caused the issue, whether the issue can be reproduced, whether the user performed an action that resulted in the issue, and so forth. C, D: Isolating possible causes of the issue and eliminating possibilities usually follow after you have gathered information on the problem. This is where your knowledge on the different system and configuration areas is important, as well as knowing the various tools used to troubleshoot and debug issues pertaining to these areas. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 E: Once a problem being discussed with a user seems to surpass a few crucial components, you should document your finding and solutions. This would enable you to quickly reference solutions on the issue, should it appear again. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. QUESTION 495: Viruses work differently to infect the system. Which viruses initially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files? A. Memory-resident viruses. B. Nonresident file viruses. C. Polymorphic viruses D. Multipartite viruses. E. Stealth viruses Answer: A Explanation: Memory-resident virusesinitially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files. These viruses change the attribute information of files. Incorrect Answers B: Nonresident file viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program. Nonresident file viruses attach to executable files and also change the attribute information of files. Unlike memory-resident viruses, nonresident file viruses do not infect the system - they do not stay in memory. C: Polymorphic viruses are excellent at fooling signature-scanning detection methods and tools. This is because the virus can change its signature and how it appears as well. D: Multipartite viruses are viruses that operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus. E: Stealth viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself. For instance a stealth virus can add bytes to an infected file in an attempt to infect a program. The virus then subtracts the same number of added bytes so that it seems as though no changes has been made. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 496: When a system stops responding to commands and stops processing completely, which of the following is likely to be the issue? A. System lock-up. B. A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC). C. Invalid working directories. D. All of the above. Answer: A Explanation When a system stops responding to commands and stops processing completely, a system lock-up condition has occurred. System lock-up occurs when the computer has to process too many instructions simultaneously, and with little memory Incorrect Answers B: A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC) usually causes you to be unable to log on to the network and access network services. C: Invalid working directory issues make themselves known when an error message, stating an Invalid working directory, is displayed. D: System lock-up is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 497: Which of the following configuration actions can result in corrupting Registry files? A. Using the Registry Editor to make direct changes to the Registry. B. Installation routines. C. Changing configuration settings using Control Panel. D. All of the above. Answer: D Explanation: Either of these actions can cause Registry files to be corrupted. When this occurs, Windows will attempt to start in Safe mode at the next boot up. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 498: A user is complaining about continuous paper jam issues with the printer. Which of the following is likely to be the issue? Choose all correct options. A. The incorrect type of paper is being used. B. A damaged pin in the print head. C. There are too many sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. D. A damaged printer ribbon. E. A print roller issue. Answer: A, C Explanation: Paper jams are usually caused by the incorrect type of paper being used, and too many sheets of paper attempting to get into the printer at the same time. To solve the issue of multiple sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time, consider using a rubber separation pad. Incorrect Answers B, D: A damaged pin in the print head and a damaged printer ribbon usually leads to poor quality, smudged characters, and badly formed characters. E: When your print rollers are problematic, no paper will be fed into the printer. Print rollers need friction to rub against a piece of paper and pull it through a printer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 499: You receive an Illegal Operation error. What is the typical cause of this issue? A. A program accesses memory that another program is using. B. A program performs an action that was not allowed by Windows. C. A program accesses a memory address that does not exist. D. The files needed to run the program does not exist. E. There is a problem with the cabling system and its connections. Answer: B Explanation: When a program performs an action that is not allowed by Windows, you would receive the illegal operation error. Check the information displayed with the error message to determine which program caused the error. Incorrect Answers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: When a program accesses memory that another program is using, you will receive the General Protection Fault (GPF) error. C: When a program accesses a memory address that does not exist, you will receive the GPF error. D: When files needed to run the program does not exist, the associated program will not start. E: When there is a problem with the cabling system and its connections, you would experience bad network connections. When checking cables; look for loose cables, kinked wires, unplugged patch cables, and for wires that are pulled free from a connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 782. QUESTION 500: Which type of stealth virus is a malicious program disguised as a useful program or even a game? A. A Trojan. B. A worm. C. None of the above D. Both of the above. Answer: A Explanation: A Trojan is a malicious program disguised as a useful program or even a game. When the user opens and runs the program or game, the virus creeps into the system. Incorrect Answers B: A worm attaches to a machine once, and then duplicates itself continuously, until the entire disk is filled. Sophisticated worms can even propagate to other machines using the links between the machines. C: A Trojan is the correct answer. D: A Trojan is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 501: From the list below, choose the device type for which you should back up the Registry before installing new versions? Choose all correct options A. Device drivers CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. Files for an add-on sound card C. Power supplies. D. All of the above. Answer: A, B Explanation: Before installing new device drivers and files for an add-on sound card, it is strongly recommended that you first back up the Registry. Should a new device driver be problematic, you can revert back to your saved version. Incorrect Answers C, D: You do not need to back up Registry when replacing power supplies. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 502: When paper comes out of the printer with a smudged image and toner rubs off, which of the following is likely to the issue? A. Worn pickup assembly. B. A problem with the primary corona wire. C. There is a problem with the fusing assembly. D. There is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles. Answer: C Explanation: An issue with the fusing assembly usually portrays itself when paper comes out of the printer with a smudged image and toner rubs off. Incorrect Answers A: A worn pickup assembly would usually cause continuous paper jams. B: A problem with the primary corona wire usually results in a page leaving the printer completely black. D: When there is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles, there are usually white vertical streaks along the paper. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 503: For which of the following, do you need to upgrade the power supply to a minimally CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 a 350-400W power supply? A. Machines that have multiple drives. B. Machines that have multiple expansion cards. C. Machines that have multiple cooling fans. D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: Machines that have multiple drives, multiple expansion cards, and multiple cooling fans must at least have a 350-400W power supply. To avoid power supply issues, be sure to upgrade all insufficient power supplies to the minimum specifications. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 504: Viruses work differently to infect the system. Which viruses operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus? A. Memory-resident viruses. B. Nonresident file viruses. C. Polymorphic viruses D. Multipartite viruses. E. Stealth viruses Answer: D Explanation: Multipartite viruses are viruses that operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus. Incorrect Answers A: Memory-resident viruses initially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files. These viruses change the attribute information of files. B: Nonresident file viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program. Nonresident file viruses attach to executable files and also change the attribute information of files. Unlike memory-resident viruses, nonresident file viruses do not infect the system - they do not stay in memory. C: Polymorphic viruses are excellent at fooling signature-scanning detection methods and tools. This is because the virus can change its signature and how it appears as well. E: Stealth viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself. For instance, a stealth CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 virus can add bytes to an infected file in an attempt to infect a program. The virus then subtracts the same number of added bytes so that it seems as though no changes has been made. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 505: When troubleshooting printer issues, which of the following error messages usually keep appearing when there is a bad cable or a faulty internal circuit board? A. Warming up error message. B. Paper out error message. C. Paper jam error message. D. Low toner error message. Answer: A Explanation: The continuous Warming up error message indicates that you possibly have a bad cable or a faulty internal circuit board. Incorrect Answers B: The Paper out error message usually indicates that the printer roller is unable to take the initial sheet of paper through the printer. Remove the sheets of paper and fan them so that the paper can more easily be picked up by the printer. C: The Paper jam error message usually points to a bent paper edge or a poor-quality paper. For repeated paper jams, check whether you have a worn or damaged pickup assembly or an issue with the fusing assembly. D: The Low toner error message indicates low toner levels. When you have faded print or vertical streaks along the paper, you need to replace a cartridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 506: You suspect that you have a working directory issue, which of the following actions could solve the issue? A. Reboot the machine. B. Reinstall and configure the network software. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. D. None of the above. Answer: C Explanation: When it comes to Invalid working directory issues, bear in mind that there are some programs that are extremely sensitive when is comes to working directories. To solve this issue, you need to reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. Incorrect Answers A: A reboot could solve the issue of system lock-ups. You might have to investigate your hardware for issues if the condition continues. B: To fix issues where you cannot access the network and its services, you need to ensure that the network software is correctly installed. D: C is the correct option. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 507: Which of the following troubleshooting steps usually takes place after you have talked to the user experiencing the problem? A. Gathering information on the issue. B. Talking to the user experiencing the problem. C. Isolating possible causes of the issue. D. Eliminating possibilities. E. Document your findings and solutions. Answer: A Explanation: Gathering information on the issue is usually the second step in troubleshooting of an issue. This step involves ascertaining whether hardware or software being added caused the issue, whether the issue can be reproduced, whether the user performed an action that resulted in the issue, and so forth. Incorrect Answers B: The first step in troubleshooting an issue is to talk to the user experiencing the problem. Contact with a user means that you need to have some degree of customer relations skills to carry out successful diagnosis of an issue. Here, you need the user to show you what the current problem is. C, D: Isolate possible causes of the issue and eliminate possibilities usually follow after you have gathered information on the problem. This is where your knowledge on the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 different system and configuration areas is important, as well as knowing the various tools used to troubleshoot and debug issues pertaining to these areas. E: Once a problem being discussed with a user seems to surpass a few crucial components, you should document your findings and solutions. This would enable you to quickly reference your solution when the issue next appears. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. QUESTION 508: Different virus types work differently to infect the system and cause damage. Which viruses can change its signature and how it appears as well? A. Memory-resident viruses. B. Nonresident file viruses. C. Polymorphic viruses D. Multipartite viruses. E. Stealth viruses Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic viruses are excellent at fooling signature-scanning detection methods and tools. This is because the virus can change its signature and how it appears as well. Incorrect Answers A: Memory-resident viruses initially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files. These viruses change the attribute information of files. B: Nonresident file viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program. Nonresident file viruses attach to executable files and also change the attribute information of files. Unlike memory-resident viruses, nonresident file viruses do not infect the system - they do not stay in memory. D: Multipartite viruses are viruses that operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus. E: Stealth viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself. For instance a stealth virus can add bytes to an infected file, in an attempt to infect a program. The virus then subtracts the same number of added bytes so that it seems as though no changes has been made. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 509: To prevent power supply and heat issues, there are a number of preventative measures you can implement. Choose the one that is FALSE. A. Machines that have multiple drives, expansion cards, and cooling fans should have a 350-400W power supply, minimally. B. You should repair a faulty power supply. C. Ensure that all cooling fans have sufficient ventilation around the computer case. D. Monitor the CPU temperature reading of computers. Answer: B Explanation Faulty power supplies should not be repaired, but replaced. Incorrect Answers A, C, D: These are all measures that can assist in preventing power supply issues. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 510: When continuous paper jams are occurring, which of the following is likely to the issue? A. worn pickup assembly B. A problem with the primary corona wire. C. There is a problem with the fusing assembly. D. There is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles Answer: A Explanation: A worn pickup assembly would usually cause continuous paper jams. Incorrect Answers B: A problem with the primary corona wire usually results in a page leaving the printer completely black. C: An issue with the fusing assembly usually portrays itself when paper comes out of the printer with a smudged image and toner rubs off. D: When there is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles, there are usually white vertical streaks along the paper. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 511: You are experiencing bad network connections. What is the typical cause of this issue? A. A program accesses memory that another program is using. B. A program performed an action that was not allowed by Windows. C. A program accesses a memory address that does not exist. D. The files needed to run the program does not exist. E. There is a problem with the cabling system and its connections Answer: E Explanation: When there is a problem with the cabling system and its connections, you would kinked wires, unplugged patch cables, and for wires that are pulled free from a connector. Incorrect Answers A: When a program accesses memory that another program is using, you will receive the General Protection Fault (GPF) error. B: When a program performs an action that is not allowed by Windows, you would receive the illegal operation error. Check the information displayed with the error message to determine which program caused the error. C: When a program accesses a memory address that does not exist, you will receive the GPF error. D: When files needed to run the program does not exist, the associated program will not start. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. QUESTION 512: Which type of virus is written in the macro language of applications and usually works by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table? A. Boot sector virus. B. Master boot sector virus. C. Macro viruses. D. Scripted viruses Answer: C Explanation: Macro viruses are typically written in the macro language of applications and usually work by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table. Macro viruses can CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 appear in memory when the application documents are accessed. Incorrect Answers A: A boot sector virus works by overwriting the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code. Then, whenever the PC boots up, the virus runs. B: A master boot sector virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector on the hard disk with its own malicious code. Most of the tools used to examine disks do not enable you to examine the partition sector. This makes it fairy difficult to discover boot sector viruses. D: Scripted viruses use scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system. Scripted languages can include ActiveX controls and JavaScript. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 513: You are unable to log on to the network and access network services. Which of the following is likely to be casing the issue? A. System lock-up. B. A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC) C. Invalid working directories D. All of the above Answer: B Explanation A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC) usually causes you to be unable to log on to the network and access network services. Incorrect Answers A: When a system stops responding to commands and stops processing completely, a system lock-up condition has occurred. System lock-up occurs when the computer has to process too many instructions simultaneously, and with little memory. C: Invalid working directory issues make themselves known when an error message, stating an Invalid Working directory, is displayed. D: A malfunctioning NIC is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 514: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A user is complaining that no paper is being fed into the printer. Which of the following is likely to be the issue? A. The incorrect type of paper is being used. B. A damaged pin in the print head. C. There are too many sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. D. A damaged printer ribbon E. A print roller issue. Answer: E Explanation: When your print rollers are problematic, no paper will be fed into the printer. Print rollers need friction to rub against a piece of paper and pull it through a printer. Incorrect Answers A, C: Paper jams are usually caused by the incorrect type of paper being used, and too many sheets of paper attempting to get into the printer at the same time. To solve the issue of multiple sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time, consider using a rubber separation pad. B, D: A damaged pin in the print head and a damaged printer ribbon usually leads to poor quality, smudged characters, and badly formed characters. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 515: Which of the following can cause system crashes? A. Hotsync cradles for handheld devices - USB hubs. B. Add-on cards. C. Loose memory modules. D. All of the above Answer: D Explanation: If you suspect hotsync cradles for handheld devices are the cause for a system crash, remove the USB device, and then contact the manufacturer for driver updates. Before installing files for an add-on sound card, you should back up the Registry. Loose memory modules and expansion cards are other typical causes of system crashes. Consider using integrated motherboards and USB devices over add-on cards. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 516: Different virus types work differently to infect the system and cause damage. Which viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program? A. Memory-resident viruses. B. Nonresident file viruses. C. Polymorphic viruses D. Multipartite viruses. E. Stealth viruses Answer: B Explanation: Nonresident file viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program. Nonresident file viruses attach to executable files and also change the attribute information of files. Unlike memory-resident viruses, nonresident file viruses do not infect the system - they do not stay in memory. Incorrect Answers A: Memory-resident viruses initially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files. These viruses change the attribute information of files. C: Polymorphic viruses are excellent at fooling signature-scanning detection methods and tools. This is because the virus can change its signature and how it appears as well. D: Multipartite viruses are viruses that operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus. E: Stealth viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself. For instance, a stealth virus can add bytes to an infected file, in an attempt to infect a program. The virus then subtracts the same number of added bytes so that it seems as though no changes has been made. QUESTION 517: When installing a new application and the application fails to install, which of the following could be the cause of the issue? Choose all correct options. A. You are trying to install the application over an application that already exists. B. The files needed to run the application do not exist. C. You are trying to replace a file which an existing application uses. D. All of the above Answer: A, C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: Before installing any new application, you should first close all existing programs. When you attempt to install an application over an application that already exists, or if you are trying to replace a file which an existing application uses, the new application installation will fail. Incorrect Answers B: An application can be installed, and then have issues starting. This is usually attributed to files needed by the application, not existing. D: A, C are the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 783 QUESTION 518: When troubleshooting printer issues, which of the following error messages indicate low toner levels? A. Warming up error message. B. Paper out error message. C. Paper jam error message. D. Low toner error message. Answer: D Explanation: The Low toner error message indicates low toner levels. When you have faded print or vertical streaks along the paper, you need to replace a cartridge. Incorrect Answers A: The continuous Warming up error message indicates that you possibly have a bad cable or a faulty internal circuit board. B: The Paper out error message usually indicates that the printer roller is unable to take the initial sheet of paper through the printer. Remove the sheets of paper and fan them so that the paper can easily be picked up by the printer. C: The Paper jam error message usually points to a bent paper edge or poor-quality paper. For repeated paper jams, check whether you have a worn or damaged pickup assembly or an issue with the fusing assembly. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 519: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following troubleshooting steps requires you to have knowledge on the different system and configuration areas, and the utilities needed to troubleshoot these areas? A. Gathering information on the issue. B. Talking to the user experiencing the problem. C. Isolating possible causes of the issue, and eliminating possibilities. D. Document your findings and solutions. Answer: C Explanation: Isolating possible causes of the issue and eliminating possibilities usually follow after you have gathered information on the problem. This is where your knowledge on the different system and configuration areas is important, as well as knowing the various tools and utilities used to troubleshoot and debug issues pertaining to these areas. Incorrect Answers A: Gathering information on the issue is usually the second step in troubleshooting an issue. This step involves ascertaining whether new hardware or software added caused an issue, whether the issue can be reproduced, whether the user performed an action that resulted in the issue, and so forth. B: The first step in troubleshooting an issue is talking to the user experiencing the problem. Contact with a user means that you need to have some degree of customer relations skills to carry out successful diagnosis of an issue. Here, you need the user to show you what the current problem is. D: Once a problem being discussed with a user seems to surpass a few crucial components, you should document your findings and solutions. This would enable you to quickly reference the issue the next time it appears. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. QUESTION 520: Which of the following system components do the most deadly viruses affect? A. Boot sector. B. Master Boot Record. C. Partition table. D. All of the above. Answer: D Explanation: The most deadly viruses affect the boot sector, Master Boot Record and partition table. When a malicious virus, such as the Michelangelo virus manages to infect a machine, the CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 contents of the hard drive is usually completely damaged. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. QUESTION 521: You receive a General Protection Fault (GPF) error. What is the typical cause of this issue? Choose all correct options. A. A program accesses memory that another program is using. B. A program performed an action that was not allowed by Windows. C. A program accesses a memory address that does not exist. D. The files needed to run the program does not exist. E. There is a problem with the cabling system and its connections. Answer: A, C Explanation: A program accessing memory that another program is using, or a program accessing a memory address that does not exist causes the General Protection Fault (GPF) error. A direct cause of the GPF error is usually careless programming. Incorrect Answers B: When a program performs an action that is not allowed by Windows, you would receive the illegal operation error. Check the information displayed with the error message to determine which program caused the error. D: When files needed to run the program does not exist, the associated program will not start. E: When there is a problem with the cabling system and its connections, you would experience bad network connections. When checking cables; look for loose cables, kinked wires, unplugged patch cables, and for wires that are pulled free from a connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 782. QUESTION 522: Which type of virus uses scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system? A. Boot sector virus. B. Master boot sector virus. C. Macro viruses. D. Scripted viruses CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: Scripted viruses use scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system. Scripted languages can include ActiveX controls and JavaScript. Incorrect Answers A: A boot sector virus works by overwriting the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code. Then, whenever the PC boots up, the virus runs. B: A master boot sector virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector on the hard disk with its own malicious code. Most of the tools used to examine disks do not enable you to examine the partition sector. This makes it fairy difficult to discover boot sector viruses. C: Macro viruses are typically written in the macro language of applications and usually work by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table. Macro viruses can appear in memory when the application documents are accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 523: When paper comes out of the printer completely black, which of the following is likely to be the issue? A. Worn pickup assembly. B. A problem with the primary corona wire. C. There is a problem with the fusing assembly. D. There is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles Answer: B Explanation: A problem with the primary corona wire usually results in a page leaving the printer completely black. Incorrect Answers A: A worn pickup assembly usually cause continuous paper jams. C: An issue with the fusing assembly usually portrays itself when paper comes out of the printer with a smudged image and toner rubs off. D: When there is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles, there are usually white vertical streaks along the paper. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 524: After a recent installation, a program no longer works. Which of the following is likely to the causing the issue? A. System lock-up. B. A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC). C. Invalid working directories. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation Invalid working directory issues make themselves known when an error message, stating as Invalid working directory, is displayed. There are some programs that are extremely sensitive when is comes to working directories. To solve this issue, you need to reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. Incorrect Answers A: When a system stops responding to commands and stops processing completely, a system lock-up condition has occurred. System lock-up occurs when the computer has to process too many instructions simultaneously, and with little memory. B: A malfunctioning Network Interface Card (NIC) usually causes you to be unable to log on to the network and access network services. D: Invalid working directory is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 525: Multiple sheets of paper are being fed into the printer. Which of the following can solve this issue? A. Replace the pin in the print head to prevent many sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. B. Use a rubber separation pad to prevent many sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. C. Replace the ribbon to prevent many sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. D. Use alcohol to clean parts that need to retain their friction. Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: To solve the issue of multiple sheets of paper being fed into the printer, use a rubber separation pad to prevent this from occurring. Incorrect Answers A: You would usually need to replace the pin in the print head when badly formed characters are being printed. C: You would need to replace the ribbon when poor quality characters are being printed. D: You would need to use alcohol to clean the print rollers that need friction to work, when the print rollers no longer pulls sheets of paper through the printer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 526: Which of the following actions could solve bad network connection issues? Choose all options that apply. A. Check for wires pulled free from connector. B. Contact the program vendor. C. Check the cabling system and connections. D. Check for unplugged patch cables. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: If you have bad network connections, check the cabling system and connections. This should include a thorough check for wires pulled free from a connector, unplugged patch cables, kinked wires, and loose and broken connectors. Incorrect Answers B: When a program performs an illegal action that you cannot solve after viewing and investigating details on the error, your last resort should be to contact the program vendor. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 784. QUESTION 527: Which type of virus uses Internet functionality written in plain text commands that can run from email messages, graphics files and all other places where the virus can mask itself? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Boot sector virus. B. Master boot sector virus. C. Macro viruses. D. Scripted viruses Answer: D Explanation: Scripted viruses use scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system. Scripted languages can include ActiveX controls and JavaScript. These viruses uses Internet functionality written in plain text commands that can run from email messages, graphics files and all other places where the virus can mask itself. Incorrect Answers A: A boot sector virus works by overwriting the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code. Then, whenever the PC boots up, the virus runs. B: A master boot sector virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector on the hard disk with its own malicious code. Most of the tools used to examine disks do not enable you to examine the partition sector. This makes it fairy difficult to discover boot sector viruses. C: Macro viruses are written in the macro language of applications and usually work by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table. Macro viruses can appear in memory when application documents are accessed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 528: When troubleshooting an issue, when is it recommended that you start documenting your findings and solutions? A. When you eliminate possibilities. B. When you first start talking to the user. C. When you seem to surpass a few crucial components talking to the user. D. All of the above. Answer: C Explanation: Once a problem being discussed with a user seems to surpass a few crucial components, you should document your findings and solution. This would enable you to quickly reference the issue next time it appears. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. QUESTION 529: A user is complaining that poor quality, smudged characters are being printed. Which of the following is likely to be the issue? Choose all correct options. A. The incorrect type of paper is being used. B. A damaged pin in the print head. C. There are too much sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time. D. A damaged printer ribbon E. A print roller issue. Answer: B, D Explanation: A damaged pin in the print head and a damaged printer ribbon usually leads to poor quality, smudged characters, and badly formed characters. Incorrect Answers A, C: Paper jams are usually caused by the incorrect type of paper being used, and too many sheets of paper attempting to get into the printer at the same time. To solve the issue of multiple sheets of paper trying to get into the printer at the same time, consider using a rubber separation pad. E: When your print rollers are problematic, no paper will be fed into the printer. Print rollers need friction to rub against a piece of paper and pull it into and through a printer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 530: You have installed a program, but now it does not want to start. What is the typical cause of this issue? A. A program accesses memory that another program is using. B. A program performed an action that was not allowed by Windows. C. A program accesses a memory address that does not exist. D. The files needed to run the program does not exist. E. There is a problem with the cabling system and its connections. Answer: D CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Explanation: When files needed to run the program does not exist, the associated program will not start. Incorrect Answers A: When a program accesses memory that another program is using, you will receive the General Protection Fault (GPF) error. B: When a program performs an action that is not allowed by Windows, you would receive the illegal operation error. Check the information displayed with the error message to determine which program caused the error. C: When a program accesses a memory address that does not exist, you will receive the GPF error. E: When there is a problem with the cabling system and its connections, you would kinked wires, unplugged patch cables, and for wires that are pulled free from a connector. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 783. QUESTION 531: Different virus types work differently to infect the system and cause damage. Which viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself, and can make it appear as though no changes were made to an infected file? A. Memory-resident viruses. B. Nonresident file viruses. C. Polymorphic viruses D. Multipartite viruses. E. Stealth viruses Answer: E Explanation: Stealth viruses work exceptionally hard at disguising itself. For instance a stealth virus can add bytes to an infected file, in an attempt to infect a program. The virus then subtracts the same number of added bytes so that it seems as though no changes has been made. Incorrect Answers A: Memory-resident viruses initially control the operating system by embedding themselves in memory, and then attach to EXE, .COM, and .SYS executable files. These viruses change the attribute information of files. B: Nonresident file viruses work by infecting other programs when you run an already infected program. Nonresident file viruses attach to executable files and also change the attribute information of files. Unlike memory-resident viruses, nonresident file viruses do not infect the system - they do not stay in memory. C: Polymorphic viruses are excellent at fooling signature-scanning detection methods and tools. This is because the virus can change its signature and how it appears as well. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D: Multipartite viruses are viruses that operate by combining the characteristics of a memory-resident virus, a nonresident file virus, and a boot sector virus. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 532: When troubleshooting printer issues, which of the following error messages indicate that the printer roller is unable to take the initial sheet of paper through the printer? A. Warming up error message. B. Paper out error message. C. Paper jam error message. D. Low toner error message. Answer: B Explanation: The Paper out error message usually indicates that the printer roller is unable to take the initial sheet of paper through the printer. Remove the sheets of paper and fan them so that the paper can easily be picked up by the printer. Incorrect Answers A: The continuous Warming up error message indicates that you possibly have a bad cable or a faulty internal circuit board. C: The Paper jam error message usually points to a bent paper edge or poor-quality paper. For repeated paper jams, check whether you have a worn or damaged pickup assembly or an issue with the fusing assembly. D: The Low toner error message indicates low toner levels. When you have faded print or vertical streaks along the paper, you need to replace a cartridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 533: You suspect that you have a system lock-up issue, which of the following actions could solve the issue? A. Reboot the machine. B. Reinstall and configure the network software. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. D. None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: A reboot could solve the issue. However, should the system lock-up continue, you might have to investigate your hardware for issues. Incorrect Answers B: To fix issues where you cannot access the network and its services, you need to ensure that the network software is correctly installed. Configure the software correctly as well. If none of this works, check whether a hardware issue exists. C: When it comes to Invalid working directory issues, bear in mind that there are some programs that are extremely sensitive when is comes to working directories. To solve this issue, you need to reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. D: A is the correct option. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 534: WSCRIPT.EXE allows programmers to write Windows scripts that can perform automated tasks. When working with WSCRIPT.EXE, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. You should never allow WSCRIPT to run unchecked. B. You should delete WSCRIPT if you are never going to need it. C. You should bear in mind that WSCRIPT can propagate Microsoft-only bugs. D. All of the above are TRUE. Answer: D Explanation: Because WSCRIPT can work with Internet Explorer, you should NEVER allow it to run unchecked, and should delete the utility if you are never going to need it. WSCRIPT can propagate Microsoft-only bugs. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 795. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 535: Which type of virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector? A. Boot sector virus. B. Master boot sector virus. C. Macro viruses. D. Scripted viruses Answer: B Explanation: A master boot sector virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector on the hard disk with its own malicious code. Most of the tools used to examine disks do not enable you to examine the partition sector. This makes it fairy difficult to discover boot sector viruses. Incorrect Answers A: A boot sector virus works by overwriting the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code. Then, whenever the PC boots up, the virus runs. C: Macro viruses are typically written in the macro language of applications and usually work by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table. Macro viruses can appear in memory when application documents are accessed. D: Scripted viruses use scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system. Scripted languages can include ActiveX controls and JavaScript. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 536: A user informs you that the printer is not printing at all, which of the following actions should you perform? Choose all correct options. A. Reboot the computer in Safe Mode. B. Copy a file to the printer port to see whether it prints. C. Check the Windows printer drivers if a file prints in Safe Mode. D. Check for loose cables if the file fails to print in Safe Mode. E. All of the above. Answer: E Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 When your printer is not printing at all, the recommended sequence of actions you should perform are as follows: A, B, D, C. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 537: Poor quality, faded characters are being printed. Which of the following can solve this issue? A. Replace the pin in the print head. B. Use a rubber separation pad. C. Replace the ribbon. D. Use alcohol to clean parts that need to retain their friction. Answer: C Explanation: You would need to replace the ribbon when poor quality characters are being printed. Incorrect Answers A: When badly formed characters are being printed, you probably have an issue with the pin in the print head. B: You should use a rubber separation pad to prevent multiple sheets of paper from being fed into the printer. D: You would need to use alcohol to clean the print rollers that need friction to work when the print rollers no longer pulls sheets of paper through the printer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 538: Which of the following actions could solve a General Protection Fault (GPF) error? Choose all options that apply. A. Determine which program is causing the issue. B. Reboot the machine to clear memory. C. Consult with the software manufacturer to determine whether a patch exists that can prevent the issue. D. All of the above CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation: A direct cause of the GPF error is careless programming. To solve a GPF issue, first reboot the machine to clear memory. If the GPF error still persists, determine which program is causing the issue, and consult with the software manufacturer to determine whether a patch exists that can prevent the issue. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 782. QUESTION 539: Which type of stealth virus attaches to a machine once and then duplicates itself continuously, until the entire disk fills? A. A Trojan. B. A worm C. None of the above D. Both of the above. Answer: B Explanation: A worm attaches to a machine once, and then duplicates itself continuously, until the entire disk is filled. Sophisticated worms can even propagate to other machines using the links between the machines. Incorrect Answers A: A Trojan is a malicious program disguised as a useful program or even a game. When the user opens and runs the program or game, the virus creeps into the system. C: A worm is the correct answer. D: A worm is the correct answer. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 540: You cannot access network services, which of the following actions could solve the issue? A. Reboot the machine. B. Reinstall and configure the network software. C. Reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. None of the above. Answer: B Explanation: To fix issues where you cannot access the network and its services, you should ensure that the network software is correctly installed. Configure the software correctly as well. If none of this works, check whether a hardware issue exists. Incorrect Answers A: A reboot could solve the issue of system lock-ups. C: To solve Invalid working directory issues, you need to reinstall the program with the correct working directory parameters. D: B is the correct option. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 775 - 776. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 541: Which of the following printer parts need to be cleaned with alcohol? A. Print rollers B. Tractor belts C. Paper separation wheels D. Platens E. All of the above Answer: E Explanation: Each of these components depends on friction to work. When cleaning these parts, it is recommended that you use alcohol to clean it. Alcohol evaporates and leaves no residue behind. The mentioned printer parts will still retain their friction. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 542: Which of the following actions could solve an illegal operation error? Choose all options that apply. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Click the details button on the error page displayed to view details of the error. B. Reboot the machine to clear memory C. Contact the program vendor. D. All of the above. Answer: A, C Explanation: When a program performs an action that is not allowed by Windows, you would receive the illegal operation error. Check the information displayed with the error message to determine which program caused the error. Click the Details button on the error page displayed, to view details of the error. Contact the program vendor when the illegal operation error persists. Incorrect Answers B: To solve a GPF error issue, rebooting the machine to clear memory might work. D: A, and C are the correct options. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 781 - 782. QUESTION 543: The print rollers are no longer pulling sheets of paper through the printer. Which of the following can solve this issue? A. Replace the pin in the print head. B. Use a rubber separation pad. C. Replace the ribbon. D. Use alcohol to clean parts of the printer that need to retain their friction. Answer: D Explanation: You would usually need to use alcohol to clean the print rollers that need friction to work when the print rollers no longer pull sheets of paper through the printer. Incorrect Answers A: When badly formed characters are being printed, you usually have an issue with the pin in the print head. B: You should use a rubber separation pad to prevent multiple sheets of paper from being fed into the printer. C: You would need to replace the ribbon when poor quality characters are being printed. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 544: Which type of virus overwrites the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code? A. Boot sector virus. B. Master boot sector virus. C. Macro viruses. D. Scripted viruses Answer: A Explanation: A boot sector virus works by overwriting the original boot sector of the disk with its own malicious code. Then, whenever the PC boots up, the virus runs. Incorrect Answers B: A master boot sector virus works by overwriting the partition table of the master boot sector on the hard disk with its own malicious code. Most of the tools used to examine disks do not enable you to examine the partition sector. This makes it fairy difficult to discover boot sector viruses. C: Macro viruses are usually written in the macro language of applications and work by infecting files other than the boot sector or partition table. Macro viruses can appear in memory when the application documents are accessed. D: Scripted viruses use scripting languages to send malicious instructions to the machine through the operating system. Scripted languages can include ActiveX controls and JavaScript. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 702. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 545: When troubleshooting printer issues, which of the following error messages indicate a bent paper edge or poor-quality paper? A. Warming up error message. B. Paper out error message. C. Paper jam error message. D. Low toner error message. Answer: C Explanation: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The Paper jam error message usually points to a bent paper edge or poor-quality paper. For repeated paper jams, check whether you have a worn or damaged pickup assembly or an issue with the fusing assembly. Incorrect Answers A: The continuous Warming up error message indicates that you possibly have a bad cable or a faulty internal circuit board. B: The Paper out error message usually indicates that the printer roller is unable to take the initial sheet of paper through the printer. Remove the sheets of paper and fan them so that the paper can easily be picked. D: The Low toner error message indicates low toner levels. When you have faded print or vertical streaks along the paper, you need to replace a cartridge. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 546: On the topic of viruses, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. When a virus manages to attach to the main command interpreter, executing a DOS internal command will cause the virus to execute. B. When you insert a disk that is infected with a boot sector virus in drive A:, running a command will result in the virus being copied to the boot sector of the hard drive. C. When scanning for viruses, you must scan the drive letters for CD-ROM drives for viruses as well. D. All statements are TRUE. Answer: C Explanation: When scanning for viruses, you do not need to scan the drive letters for CD-ROM drives for viruses. This is due to CD-ROMs being read-only. Viruses cannot therefore be transferred from CD-ROMs to your machine. Bear in mind though that a virus can be burned onto a CD by an infected machine. References: James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 547: When starting a new installed application and the application fails to start, which of the following could be the cause of the issue? A. You are trying to install the application over an application that already exists. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. The files needed to run the application do not exist. C. You are trying to replace a file which an existing application uses. D. All of the above Answer: B Explanation: An application can be installed, and then have issues starting. This is usually attributed to files needed by the application, not existing. Incorrect Answers A, C: When you attempt to install the application over an application that already exists, or if you are trying to replace a file which an existing application uses, the application installation will fail. D: B is the correct answer. QUESTION 548: When paper comes out of the printer with white vertical streaks along it, which of the following is likely to the issue? A. worn pickup assembly B. A problem with the primary corona wire. C. There is a problem with the fusing assembly. D. There is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles Answer: D Explanation: When there is matter stuck in the EP drum and interfering with the toner particles, there are usually white vertical streaks along the paper. Incorrect Answers A: A worn pickup assembly would usually cause continuous paper jams. B: A problem with the primary corona wire usually results in a page leaving the printer completely black. C: An issue with the fusing assembly usually portrays itself when paper comes out of the printer with a smudged image and toner rubs off. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 780 - 781. James G. Jones, Craig Landes, A+ Exam Cram, 2nd Edition, Que Publishing, Indianapolis, 2003, Chapter 16 QUESTION 549: Which of the following is responsible for resolving a MAC address to the IP address CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 in Windows? A. ARP B. DNS C. RARP D. WINS Answer: C Reverse ARP is resolves a MAC address to the IP address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 550: Which of the following is responsible for resolving an IP address to the MAC address? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: A The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. Incorrect Answers: B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. C: DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. It does not provide any form of name resolution. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 551: Which of the following is responsible for resolving a fully qualified domain name to the IP address in Windows XP? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: B The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. C: DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. It does not provide any form of name resolution. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 552: Which of the following is responsible for resolving a host names to the IP addresses in Windows 98? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: D Windows 98 uses NetBIOS names. WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses for Windows 98 computers. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. Windows 98 does not support the use of fully qualified domain names. C: DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. It does not provide any form of name resolution. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 553: Which of the following does not provide name resolution? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: C DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. It does not provide any form of name resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses for older Windows computers that cannot interact with DNS. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 554: Which of the following provides name resolution for IPX/SPX? A. ARP B. DNS C. NDS D. WINS Answer: C Novell Directory Services (NDS) provides host name to IPX address resolution in IPX/SPX networks. Incorrect Answers: A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. D: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses for older Windows computers that cannot interact with DNS. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 555: Which of the following relies on DNS for name resolution? A. TCP/IP B. IPX/SPX C. NetBEUI D. AppleTalk Answer: A TCP/IP uses DNS for name resolution. Incorrect Answers: B: IPX/SPX relies on either Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for name resolution. C: NetBEUI has no structure to its addressing format, making name resolution impossible. D: AppleTalk uses the Name Binding Protocol (NBP) to resolve a computer name to its network address. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-80, 90, 143. QUESTION 556: Which of the following relies on DNS for name resolution? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 98 B. Windows 2000 C. Windows XP D. UNIX E. Novell NetWare Answer: B, C, D DNS resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. Windows 2000, Windows XP and UNIX all supports the use of fully qualified domain names and uses DNS for name resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: Windows 98 does not support the use of fully qualified domain names. It uses NetBIOS names instead. WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses for Windows 98 computers. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 E: NetWare uses the IPX/SPX protocol suite which relies on either Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for host name to IPX address resolution. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-80, 90, 143. QUESTION 557: Which of the following relies on Name Binding Protocol (NBP) to resolve a computer name to its network address? A. TCP/IP B. IPX/SPX C. NetBEUI D. AppleTalk Answer: D AppleTalk uses the Name Binding Protocol (NBP) to resolve a computer name to its network address. Incorrect Answers: A: TCP/IP uses DNS for name resolution. B: IPX/SPX relies on either Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for name resolution. C: NetBEUI has no structure to its addressing format, making name resolution impossible. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-80, 90, 143. QUESTION 558: Which of the following uses on Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for name resolution? A. TCP/IP B. IPX/SPX C. NetBEUI D. AppleTalk Answer: B IPX/SPX relies on either Bindery Services or Novell Directory Services (NDS) for name resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: TCP/IP uses DNS for name resolution. C: NetBEUI has no structure to its addressing format, making name resolution impossible. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D: AppleTalk uses the Name Binding Protocol (NBP) to resolve a computer name to its network address. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-80, 90, 143. QUESTION 559: Which of the following is a private Class A IP address? A. 10.18.12.4 B. 18.12.14.21 C. 169.254.254.254 D. 255.255.255.0 Answer: A Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. B: 169.254.254.254 is a self-assigned address that is reserved for use by DHCP clients that fail to acquire a DHCP lease from a DHCP server. It is from the class B range of IP addresses. C: 255.255.255.0 is a subnet mask. This is the default subnet mask for a class C IP address. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 560: What is the default subnet mask of a Class B IP address? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: B CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. C: Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. D: 255.255.255.255 is not a valid subnet mask. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 561: What is the default subnet mask of a Class C IP address? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: C Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. B: Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. D: 255.255.255.255 is not a valid subnet mask. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 562: What is the default subnet mask of a Class A IP address? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: A Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. Incorrect Answers: B: Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. C: Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. D: 255.255.255.255 is not a valid subnet mask. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 563: For which IP class range is 255.0.0.0 the default subnet mask? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: A Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. Incorrect Answers: B: Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. C: Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. D: Class D addresses are multicast IP addresses that do not have default subnet masks. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 564: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 For which IP class range is 255.255.0.0 the default subnet mask? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: B Explanation Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. C: Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. D: Class D addresses are multicast IP addresses that do not have default subnet masks. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 565: For which IP class range is 255.255.255.0 the default subnet mask? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: C Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.1 through 223.225.225.225 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. B: Class B IP addresses use the first 16 bits for network identification and the last 16 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. D: Class D addresses are multicast IP addresses that do not have default subnet masks. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 566: Which of the following is a private IP address? A. 10.0.0.1 B. 120.0.0.1 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 169.254.0.1 Answer: A Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. B: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. C: 169.254.0.1 is a self-assigned address that is reserved for use by DHCP clients that fail to acquire a DHCP lease from a DHCP server. It is from the class B range of IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 567: Which of the following is a private IP address? A. 15.169.144.12 B. 120.168.140.21 C. 169.254.134.29 D. 192.168.127.23 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D Explanation Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.0 through 223.225.225.225 and default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Of this range, 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. C: 169.254.134.29 is a self-assigned address that is reserved for use by DHCP clients that fail to acquire a DHCP lease from a DHCP server. It is from the class B range of IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 568: Which of the following statements regarding private IP address is TRUE? A. A private IP address is required to access resources on the Internet. B. Public organizations are not allowed to use private IP addresses. C. Private IP addresses must be obtained from the American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN). D. Private IP addresses allow more that one private IP network to have the same IP address. Answer: D Private IP addresses are reserved for use on private networks. Therefore, these addresses may be duplicated across many networks without causing IP address conflicts. Incorrect Answers: A: Private IP addresses are reserved for use on private networks. However, private networks require a public IP address to access resources on the Internet. B: Private IP addresses are reserved for use on private IP networks. Public organizations are allowed to have private IP networks and are therefore allowed to have private IP addresses. C: Public, not private, IP addresses are regulated by ARIN and must be obtained from them. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 125-133. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 569: What is required to automatically assign an IP configuration to host computers? A. A subnet mask. B. A DNS server. C. A DHCP server. D. None of the above. Answer: C DHCP is used to automate the assignment of IP configurations to host computers which are then called DHCP clients. Incorrect Answers: A: A subnet mask is part of an IP configuration. It does not automate IP configurations. B: DNS is used for fully qualified domain name to IP Address resolution. It does not automate IP configurations. C: DHCP is used to automate the assignment of IP configurations to host computers. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, AlamedaCA, 2005, pp. 115, 116, 138-142, 144. QUESTION 570: The Certkiller .com network consists of two subnets. A DHCP server is installed on one subnet and is configured to supply IP leases to hosts on both subnets. However, only hosts on the same subnet as the DHCP server receives IP leases from the DHCP server. Which IP addresses would be assigned to hosts on the other subnet? A. Static IP addresses. B. Class A IP addresses. C. IP addresses in the 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 range. D. IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0 to 169.255.255.255 range. Answer: D Explanation: When DHCP clients fail to receive an IP lease from the DHCP server, they are assigned APIPA IP addresses, which are in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.255.255.255. Incorrect Answers A: When DHCP clients fail to receive an IP lease from the DHCP server, they are assigned APIPA IP addresses, not static IP addresses. B: When DHCP clients fail to receive an IP lease from the DHCP server, they are assigned APIPA IP addresses, not Class A IP addresses. C: These are Class D IP addresses which are used for multicasting. These addresses are not assigned as part of the IP configuration. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 115, 116, 138-142, 144. QUESTION 571: The Certkiller .com network consists of two subnets. A DHCP server is installed on one subnet and is configured to supply IP leases to hosts on both subnets. However, only hosts on the same subnet as the DHCP server receives IP leases from the DHCP server. What will ensure that hosts on the remote subnet are also assigned IP leases? A. Authorizing the scope needed for the remote subnet in the DHCP server. B. Correct the error in the routers routing table. C. Install and configure a DHCP Relay Agent on the same subnet as the DHCP server. D. Install and configure a DHCP Relay Agent on remote subnet. Answer: D Explanation: The clients on the remote subnet do not receive any IP configuration from the DHCP server. A possible cause of this problem is the router. The router might not be forwarding DHCP traffic between the two subnets. We can resolve this problem by installing a DHCP Relay agent on the subnet that has no DHCP server, namely remote subnet. Incorrect Answers A: Scopes are activated not authorized. A DHCP server must be authorized. But this DHCP server is already authorized since the DHCP clients on the same subnet as the DHCP server do receive IP leases. B: The routing table might be misconfigured or have an incorrect routing table entry, but it seems very unlikely. C: The DHCP relay agent should be on the remote subnet that has no DHCP server. Reference: Microsoft Corporation, Self-Paced MCSE Training Kit: Microsoft Windows 2000 Server, Microsoft Press, Redmond, 2000, Chapter 10, Lessons 1-3, 5 QUESTION 572: Which of the following is used to automate the IP configuration of network hosts? A. ARP B. DNS C. DHCP D. WINS Answer: C DHCP is responsible for automating the IP configuration of DHCP clients. Incorrect Answers: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A: The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is resolves an IP address to the MAC address. The MAC address is a Data Link layer address that is embedded in a ROM on the network device and is hard-coded to each network interface. It does not automate IP configurations. B: The DNS service resolves fully qualified domain names and host names to IP addresses. It does not automate IP configurations. D: WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses. It does not automate IP configurations. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 573: Which of the following will reduce DHCP traffic on a network? A. Increasing the lease expiration time on all DHCP clients. B. Increasing the lease expiration time on the DHCP server. C. Decreasing the lease expiration time on all DHCP clients. D. Decreasing the lease expiration time on the DHCP server. Answer: B DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. Whenever a DHCP enabled client computer boots up, it broadcasts DHCP messages across the network in order to locate a DHCP server. If a DHCP server is available, it will respond with a DHCP lease offer. When the DHCP client accepts a lease offer, it sends an acknowledgement to the DHCP server. This process is repeated when the DHCP client must renew its lease, which is usually after 87.5 percent of the lease expiration time has elapsed. Thus, one way to reduce the DHCP traffic would be to reduce the frequency at which clients need to renew the DHCP leases. Incorrect Answers: A, C: The DHCP lease options are configured on the DHCP server, not on the DHCP clients. D: Decreasing the lease expiration time will increase the frequency at which DHCP clients will need to renew the DHCP leases. This will result in an increase in DHCP traffic. References: James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study Guide, Sybex, Alameda CA, 2003, pp. 223-226. QUESTION 574: Which of the following is not provided by a DHCP server? A. Automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask and default gateway. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. The IP address of the preferred WINS server. C. The IP address of the preferred DNS server. D. Automatic configuration of MAC address. Answer: D The MAC address is not configurable and is assigned to a device by the manufacturer of that device. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: DHCP provides the automatic configuration of IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, preferred and secondary DNS server, and preferred and secondary WINS server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 82, 84, 112-113, 138-144. QUESTION 575: Which of the following provides error reporting in TCP/IP? A. NNTP B. ICMP C. IGMP D. SNMP Answer: B ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network management and control. It provides error testing and reporting for TCP/IP. Incorrect Answers: A: NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol) is used to access Usenet news servers. It does not provide error reporting. C: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is used to manage IP multicast sessions. It does not provide error reporting. D: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a communications protocol that collects information about network devices, such as hubs, routers, and bridges. It does not provide error reporting. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. QUESTION 576: Which of the following is used to manage IP multicast sessions? A. NNTP B. ICMP C. IGMP CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. SNMP Answer: C IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is used to manage IP multicast sessions. It does not provide error reporting. Incorrect Answers: A: NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol) is used to access Usenet news servers. It does not manage IP multicast sessions. B: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network management and control. It provides error testing and reporting for TCP/IP. It does not manage IP multicast sessions D: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a communications protocol that collects information about network devices, such as hubs, routers, and bridges. It does not manage IP multicast sessions. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. QUESTION 577: Which of the following protocols are primarily responsible for managing IP multicast groups? A. ARP B. NNTP C. ICMP D. IGMP Answer: D Explanation: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is responsible primarily for managing IP multicast groups. IP multicasts can send messages or packets to a specified group of hosts Incorrect answers: A: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to Network Interface layer addresses, including hardware addresses. ARP can resolve an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address B: NNTP (Network News Transfer Protocol) is used to access Usenet news servers. It does not manage IP multicast sessions. C: ICMP (Internet Control Management Protocol) provides maintenance and reporting functions. ICMP is the protocol used by the PING program. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 62-63. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 578: Which of the following protocols provides maintenance and reporting functions? A. ICMP B. IGMP C. ARP D. RIP Answer: A Explanation: ICMP (Internet Control Management Protocol) provides maintenance and reporting functions. ICMP is the protocol used by the PING program. Incorrect answers: B: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is responsible primarily for managing IP multicast groups. IP multicasts can send messages or packets to a specified group of hosts C: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to Network Interface layer addresses, including hardware addresses. ARP can resolve an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address D: RIP (Routing Internet Protocol) is a routable protocol. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 62-63. QUESTION 579: Which of the following best describes ARP? A. Allows remote logon over the network B. Responsible for resolving IP addressing C. Responsible for managing IP multicast groups D. Provides maintenance and reporting functions Answer: B Explanation: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to Network Interface layer addresses, including hardware addresses. ARP can resolve an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address Incorrect answers: A: Telnet is a terminal emulation protocol that provides a remote logon to another host CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 over the network. C: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is responsible primarily for managing IP multicast groups. IP multicasts can send messages or packets to a specified group of hosts D: ICMP (Internet Control Management Protocol) provides maintenance and reporting functions. ICMP is the protocol used by the PING program. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 62-63. QUESTION 580: Which of the following best describes IGMP? A. Establishes secure Telnet sessions over TCP/IP B. Responsible for resolving IP addressing C. Responsible for managing IP multicast groups D. Provides maintenance and reporting functions Answer: C Explanation: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is responsible primarily for managing IP multicast groups. IP multicasts can send messages or packets to a specified group of hosts Incorrect answers: A: SSH (Secure Shell) is establishes secure Telnet session over TCP/IP and is a secure alternative to Telnet. B: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to Network Interface layer addresses, including hardware addresses. ARP can resolve an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address D: ICMP (Internet Control Management Protocol) provides maintenance and reporting functions. ICMP is the protocol used by the PING program. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 62-63. QUESTION 581: Which of the following best describes ICMP? A. Establishes secure Telnet sessions over TCP/IP B. Responsible for resolving IP addressing CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Responsible for managing IP multicast groups D. Provides maintenance and reporting functions Answer: D Explanation: ICMP (Internet Control Management Protocol) provides maintenance and reporting functions. ICMP is the protocol used by the PING program Incorrect answers: A: SSH (Secure Shell) is establishes secure Telnet session over TCP/IP and is a secure alternative to Telnet. B: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving IP addresses to Network Interface layer addresses, including hardware addresses. ARP can resolve an IP address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address C: IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) is responsible primarily for managing IP multicast groups. IP multicasts can send messages or packets to a specified group of hosts. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 112-118. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 62-63. QUESTION 582: Which of the following is a secure alternative to Telnet? A. SSH B. HTTP C. SFTP D. IMAP4 Answer: A Telnet is a terminal emulation protocol that provides a remote logon to another host over the network. The SSH protocol is used to establish a secure Telnet session over TCP/IP. It can thus be used instead of Telnet. Incorrect Answers: B: HTTP is the protocol that is used by a web browser to communicate with web severs. This is not a function of Telnet. C: SFTP transmit data securely between tan FTP client and an FTP server. This is not a function of Telnet. D: IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. This is not a function of Telnet. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 297. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 583: Which of the following network services provides name resolution? (Choose all that apply) A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: B, C DNS provides host name to IP address resolution while WINS provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 584: Which of the following provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: C WINS provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. B: DNS provides host name to IP address resolution, not NetBIOS name to IP address resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 585: Which of the following provides HOST name to IP address resolution? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) Answer: B DNS provides host name to IP address resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. C: WINS provides NetBIOS name to IP address resolution, not host name to IP address resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 586: Which of the following provides basic secure for Wireless networks? A. SSL B. WEP C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: B Explanation Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is used encrypt data transitions over a wireless 802.11b network. Incorrect Answers: A: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. C: IP Security (IPSec) is used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. D: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is used in virtual private networks (VPNs). Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 338-340. QUESTION 587: Which of the following provides are used in Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? A. SSL B. WEP C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: D Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is used in virtual private networks (VPNs). Incorrect Answers: A: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. B: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is used encrypt data transitions over a wireless 802.11b network. C: IP Security (IPSec) is used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 338-340. QUESTION 588: Which of the following provides authentication and encryption over the Internet? A. SSL B. WEP C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: C IP Security (IPSec) is used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. B: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is used encrypt data transitions over a wireless 802.11b network. D: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is used in virtual private networks (VPNs). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 338-340. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 589: Which of the following operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? A. SSL B. SSH C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: D Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) operates at the Data Link Layer. Incorrect Answers: A: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) operates at the Session Layer and is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. B: Secure Shell (SSH) is an application layer protocol used for secure remote logon over a network. C: IP Security (IPSec) is a Network Layer protocol used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. QUESTION 590: Which of the following operates at the Network layer of the OSI model? A. SSL B. SSH C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: C IP Security (IPSec) is a Network Layer protocol used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) operates at the Session Layer and is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. B: Secure Shell (SSH) is an application layer protocol used for secure remote logon over a network. D: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) operates at the Data Link Layer. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 591: Which of the following operates at the Session layer of the OSI model? A. SSL B. SSH C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) operates at the Session Layer and is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. Incorrect Answers: B: Secure Shell (SSH) is an application layer protocol used for secure remote logon over a network. C: IP Security (IPSec) is a Network Layer protocol used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. D: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) operates at the Data Link Layer. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. QUESTION 592: Which of the following uses unencrypted username and passwords? A. PAP B. CHAP C. RADIUS D. MS-CHAP Answer: A Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses username and password combinations but transmits the username and password in clear text. Incorrect Answers: B: Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) does not use username and password combinations but uses a Shared Secret which is stored locally in clear text. However, the Shared Secret is not transmitted over the network. C: Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is an authentication and accounting service that uses username and password combinations but transmits the username and password in encrypted form. D: Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) does not use username and password combinations but uses a Shared Secret which is stored locally in encrypted form. Reference: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. QUESTION 593: Which of the following uses encrypted username and passwords? A. PAP B. CHAP C. RADIUS D. MS-CHAP Answer: C Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is an authentication and accounting service that uses username and password combinations but transmits the username and password in encrypted form. Incorrect Answers: A: Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses username and password combinations but transmits the username and password in clear text. B: Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) does not use username and password combinations but uses a Shared Secret which is stored locally in clear text. However, the Shared Secret is not transmitted over the network. D: Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP) does not use username and password combinations but uses a Shared Secret which is stored locally in encrypted form. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. QUESTION 594: Which of the following statements regarding authentication protocols is FALSE? A. PAP is insecure because usernames and passwords are sent over the network in clear text. B. CHAP is more secure than PAP because it encrypts usernames and passwords before they are sent over the network. C. RADIUS is a client/server-based system that provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services for remote dial-up access. D. MS-CHAP version 1 is capable of mutual authentication of both the client and the server. Answer: D MS-CHAP version 2 is capable of mutual authentication but MS-CHAP version 1 is not capable of mutual authentication. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses username and password combinations but transmits the username and password in clear text. B: Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) does not send username and password combinations but uses a Shared Secret which is stored locally in clear text. D: Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is an authentication and accounting service for dial-up access. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. QUESTION 595: Which of the following sequences is correct regarding the flow of the CHAP system? A. Logon request, encrypts value response, server, challenge, compare encrypts results, authorize or fail B. Logon request, challenge, encrypts value response, server, compare encrypted results, authorize or fail C. Logon request, challenge, server, encrypts value response, compare encrypted results, authorize or fail D. Logon request, server, encrypts value response, challenge, compare encrypted results, authorize or fail Answer: B Explanation: The initiator sends a logon request from the client to the server. The server sends a challenge back to the client. The challenge is encrypted and then sent back to the server. The server compares the value from the client and if the information matches, the server grants authorization. If the response fails, the session fails and the request phase starts over. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 14. QUESTION 596: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the CHAP authentication system? A. A certificate being handed from the server to the client once authentication has been established. If you have a pass, you can wander throughout the network. BUT limited access is allowed. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. If your token does not grant you access to certain information, that information will either not be displayed or your access will be denied. The authentication system creates a token every time a user or a session begins. At the completion of a session, the token is destroyed C. The authentication process uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to orchestrate the entire process. The KDC authenticates the network. Principles can be users, programs, or systems. The KDC provides a ticket to the network. Once this ticket is issued, it can be used to authenticate against other principles. This occurs automatically when a request or service is performed by another network. D. The initiator sends a logon request from the client to the server. The server sends a challenge back to the client. The challenge is encrypted and then sent back to the server. The server compares the value from the client and if the information matches, the server grants authorization. If the response fails, the session fails and the request phase starts over Answer: D Explanation: The initiator sends a logon request from the client to the server. The server sends a challenge back to the client. The challenge is encrypted and then sent back to the server. The server compares the value from the client and if the information matches, the server grants authorization. If the response fails, the session fails and the request phase starts over Incorrect Answers: A: This is known as the Certificate system. B: This is known as the Security Token system. C: This is known as the Kerberos system. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 338-340. Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p. 14-16. QUESTION 597: Which permissions does Mac OS X Server 10.3 use by default for shared files and folder permissions? A. No permissions. B. NTFS permissions. C. MAC OS permissions. D. Standard UNIX permissions. Answer: D Mac OS X is based on the UNIX kernel. As such, it uses UNIX file and folder permissions. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: Mac OS X uses UNIX file and folder permissions. B: NTFS is used in Windows NT. It is not used in Mac OS. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120, 220. Lon Poole and Dennis R. Cohen, Macworld Mac OS X Bible: Covers Version 10.1, Hungry Minds, New York, 2002, pp. 775-777. QUESTION 598: Which of the following allows Windows workstations to access a NetWare server via a Windows NT server? A. Gateway Services for NetWare (GSNW) B. Client Services for NetWare (CSNW) C. File and Print Services for NetWare (FPNW) D. Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) Answer: A GSNW allows multiple Windows NT clients to connect through a Windows NT server to NetWare servers. Incorrect Answers: B: CSNW allows a Windows workstation to access NetWare servers without the need for a Windows NT server. However, all users who want to access NetWare resources need user accounts and rights on the NetWare servers they access. C: FPNW allows Novell clients to access files and printers hosted on a Windows NT server. D: Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) allows Windows clients to access a Microsoft network. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120, 220. QUESTION 599: Which of the following allows Windows workstations to access a NetWare server provided they have user accounts and the required permissions on the NetWare server? A. Gateway Services for NetWare (GSNW) B. Client Services for NetWare (CSNW) C. File and Print Services for NetWare (FPNW) D. Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: B CSNW allows a Windows workstation to access NetWare servers without the need for a Windows NT server. However, all users who want to access NetWare resources need user accounts and rights on the NetWare servers they access. Incorrect Answers: A: GSNW allows multiple Windows NT clients to connect through a Windows NT server to NetWare servers. C: FPNW allows Novell clients to access files and printers hosted on a Windows NT server. D: Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) allows Windows clients to access a Microsoft network. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120, 220. QUESTION 600: Which of the following allows Novell workstations to access files and printers hosted on a Windows NT server? A. Gateway Services for NetWare (GSNW) B. Client Services for NetWare (CSNW) C. File and Print Services for NetWare (FPNW) D. Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) Answer: C FPNW allows Novell clients to access files and printers hosted on a Windows NT server. Incorrect Answers: A: GSNW allows multiple Windows NT clients to connect through a Windows NT server to NetWare servers. B: CSNW allows a Windows workstation to access NetWare servers without the need for a Windows NT server. However, all users who want to access NetWare resources need user accounts and rights on the NetWare servers they access. D: Client for Microsoft Networks (CMN) allows Windows clients to access a Microsoft network. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120, 220. QUESTION 601: When a file is shared on a Windows 2000 Professional computer, how many concurrent connections can be made to the share? A. 1 B. 5 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. 10 D. 20 Answer: C Windows 2000 Professional can have a maximum of 10 simultaneous connections. References: Microsoft Official Curriculum, Implementing Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional and Server Workbook, Course Number: 2152B, Part Number: X05-78414, Module 1: Installing or Upgrading to Windows 2000, 2000, p. 10. Microsoft Official Curriculum, Implementing Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional and Server Workbook, Course Number: 2152B, Part Number: X05-78414, Module 7: Providing Network Access to File Resources, 2000, p. 6. QUESTION 602: Which of the following allows a Windows workstation to access file and printer resources on a Linux server? A. NFS B. SMB C. DHCP D. LDAP Answer: B Explanation SMB is protocol that provides a set of network commands that allows a client to browse for resources; open connections, access files, printers, and communications ports; and list directories. SMB is part of the Samba open-source protocol suite that allows interoperability between Linux/UNIX and Windows-based clients. Incorrect Answers: A: The NFS (Network File System) provides file sharing across a UNIX/Linux network. NFS is also supported on a number of non-UNIX/Linux platforms such as Windows. However, it does not provide printer sharing. C: DHCP provides IP configurations for DHCP clients on a TCP/IP network. D: UNIX/Linux uses LDAP for authentication. LDAP does not provide interoperability. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 120. QUESTION 603: Which of the following allows a Windows workstation to access file and printer resources on a UNIX server? A. NFS CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 B. SMB C. DHCP D. LDAP Answer: B Explanation SMB is protocol that provides a set of network commands that allows a client to browse for resources; open connections, access files, printers, and communications ports; and list directories. SMB is part of the Samba open-source protocol suite that allows interoperability between Linux/UNIX and Windows-based clients. Incorrect Answers: A: The NFS (Network File System) provides file sharing across a UNIX/Linux network. NFS is also supported on a number of non-UNIX/Linux platforms such as Windows. However, it does not provide printer sharing. C: DHCP provides IP configurations for DHCP clients on a TCP/IP network. D: UNIX/Linux uses LDAP for authentication. LDAP does not provide interoperability. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 120. QUESTION 604: Which of the following statements regarding Mac OS is FALSE? A. Windows NT and Windows 2000 have built-in support for Mac OS clients. B. Mac OS X is based on the UNIX kernel which makes it more stable, more scalable, and more powerful than previous versions. C. Mac OS X Server includes Samba, which allows Windows clients to authenticate to a Mac OS X Server. D. Many non-essential Mac OS services are enabled by default. This renders the default Mac OS X installation insecure. Answer: D By default, Mac OS X disables most non-essential services that would be susceptible to a hacker. This makes a default Mac OS X installation more secure than most other Operating Systems. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: These are all true. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 219-223. QUESTION 605: Which of the following statements regarding Novell NetWare is FALSE? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. Novell NetWare uses Novell Directory Services (NDS) for resource access and authentication. B. Novell NetWare uses public key encryption during the login process. This means that passwords are never sent in cleartext between client and server. C. Novell NetWare is the only network operating system that has been certified by the National Security Agency (NSA) as C2 Red Book secure. D. Novell NetWare is the least interoperable network operating system. Answer: D Novell NetWare interoperability is of a high standard and can be configured to look like an AppleShare server to Macintosh clients, an NFS server to UNIX clients, and so on. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: These are all true. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 209-215. QUESTION 606: Which of the following statements regarding UNIX is FALSE? A. UNIX servers use primarily Internet standard protocols, such as TCP/IP, FTP, HTTP, and LPR. B. UNIX can use Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) or Kerberos for authentication. C. In UNIX, every file has a set of permission bits that defines which users has access to the file, and the type of access those users have. D. DNS allows Windows workstations to access UNIX servers. Answer: D Explanation DNS provides name resolution. This allows users to locate remote hosts by host name. However, DNS does not allow access to those hosts. SMB is protocol that provides a set of network commands that allows a client to browse for resources; open connections, accessfiles, printers, and communications ports; and list directories. SMB is part of the Samba open-source protocol suite that allows interoperability between Linux/UNIX and Windows-based clients. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: These are all true. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 216-218. Bozidar Levi, UNIX Administration: A Comprehensive Sourcebook for Effective Systems and Network Management, CRC Press, Washington DC, 2002, pp. 34-41. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 607: Which of the following statements regarding Windows NT is FALSE? A. Windows NT mainly supports Windows clients with the majority of its features; however it is possible to support Mac OS and UNIX clients. B. Windows Services for Unix (SFU) provides a framework for UNIX scripts as well as UNIX services like NFS to run on Windows NT. C. Windows NT has built-in support for Mac OS clients. D. Windows NT supports the use of NTFS file permissions only. Answer: D Explanation Windows NT supports the use of both NTFS file and folder permissions, as well as standard file and folder sharing permissions. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: These are all true. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 204-208. QUESTION 608: Which of the following must be installed on a Windows 95 client to allow it access a NetWare server? A. Samba B. TCP/IP C. NWLink D. NetBEUI Answer: C NWLink is the Novell NetWare compatible protocol that allows a Windows client to access a Novell NetWare server. This protocol is installed automatically when Client Service for NetWare is installed. Incorrect Answers: A: Samba allow interoperability between Windows clients and Linux/UNIX servers by using TCP/IP installed on the host server to allow that host to interact with a Windows client or server as if the host server were a Windows file and print server. B: TCP/IP is installed on Windows clients by default. Furthermore, NetWare uses IPX/SPX, not TCP/IP. D: NetBEUI provides support for NetBIOS networks, not for Novell NetWare networks. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120. QUESTION 609: Which of the following must be installed on a UNIX server to allow a Windows 95 client to access it? A. Samba B. TCP/IP C. NWLink D. NetBEUI Answer: A Samba allow interoperability between Windows clients and Linux/UNIX servers by using TCP/IP installed on the host server to allow that host to interact with a Windows client or server as if the host server were a Windows file and print server. Incorrect Answers: B: TCP/IP is installed on Windows clients by default. C: NWLink is the Novell NetWare compatible protocol that allows a Windows client to access a Novell NetWare server. D: NetBEUI provides support for NetBIOS networks, not for Novell NetWare networks. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, p. 120. QUESTION 610: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) can be used for remote access connections to a Windows 2000 Server. B. To use Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP), a user only requires a SLIP account on the remote server. C. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) requires an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote server. D. When using Windows Remote Access Services (RAS), a user can access a remote server but not a remote network. Answer: C Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) tunnels through an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote server. Incorrect Answers: A: Windows 2000 Server does not support inbound SLIP connections. Therefore remote access clients cannot use SLIP to access Windows 2000 Server computers. B: SLIP requires a SLIP account on the remote computer as well as a log in to the remote CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 server. The login can be performed by a batch file or script, or it can be performed manually. D: Windows Remote Access Services (RAS) allows a workstation to access a remote network through dial up access to a Windows server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 283-291. QUESTION 611: Which of the following CANNOT be used to access a remote Windows 2000 Server? A. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP). B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). C. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). D. Windows Remote Access Services (RAS). Answer: A Windows 2000 Server does not support inbound SLIP connections. Therefore remote access clients cannot use SLIP to access Windows 2000 Server computers. Incorrect Answers: B, C: Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) tunnels through an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote Windows 2000 server. D: Windows Remote Access Services (RAS) allows a workstation to access a remote network through dial up access to a Windows 2000 server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 283-291. QUESTION 612: Which of the following can be used to initiate and maintain a remote access connection to a Windows Server? (Choose all that apply) A. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP). B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP). C. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). D. Internet Packet eXchange (IPX). Answer: B, D A Cable modem uses the cable television data network and not the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). Incorrect Answers: Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Internet Packet eXchange (IPX) can be used to initiate and maintain a remote access connection to a Windows Server. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: A: Windows 2000 Server does not support inbound SLIP connections. Therefore remote access clients cannot use SLIP to access Windows 2000 Server computers. C: Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) tunnels through an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote Windows 2000 server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 283-291. QUESTION 613: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) cannot be used for remote access connections to a Windows 2000 Server. B. To use Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP), a user requires a SLIP account on the remote server and a means to log in on the remote server. C. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) requires an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote server. D. When using Windows Remote Access Services (RAS), a user can access a remote Windows 2000 server but not a remote network. Answer: D Windows Remote Access Services (RAS) allows a workstation to access a remote network through dial up access to a Windows server. Incorrect Answers: A: Windows 2000 Server does not support inbound SLIP connections. Therefore remote access clients cannot use SLIP to access Windows 2000 Server computers. B: SLIP requires a SLIP account on the remote computer as well as a log in to the remote server. The login can be performed by a batch file or script, or it can be performed manually. C: Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) tunnels through an existing Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection between the workstation and a remote server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 283-291. QUESTION 614: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. Two Microsoft Windows XP workstations on the Certkiller .com network have the same IP address, resulting in an IP address conflict. Which command can you use to identify the conflicting computers? A. ping B. arp -a CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. ipconfig /all D. winipcfg /all Answer: B The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. Incorrect Answers: A: Ping is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. If the remote host's IP address is in conflict with another host, ping will return an error. C: ipconfig /all displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. It does not display IP configurations or the MAC address of remote workstations. D: winipcfg is the Windows 9x version of ipconfig and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation but not the IP configuration or the MAC address of remote workstations. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 615: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. You want to test connectivity between a workstation and the Certkiller .com server. Which command would you use? A. ping B. arp -a C. ipconfig /all D. winipcfg /all Answer: A Ping is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. Incorrect Answers: B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. It does not test connectivity between two hosts. C: ipconfig /all displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. It does not test connectivity between two hosts. D: winipcfg is the Windows 9x version of ipconfig and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. It does not test connectivity between two hosts. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 616: Which of the following commands can you use to verify the IP configuration of a Microsoft Windows XP workstation? A. ping B. arp -a C. ipconfig /all D. winipcfg /all Answer: C ipconfig /all displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local Windows XP workstation. Incorrect Answers: A: Ping is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. It does not display the IP configuration of the local host. B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. It does not display the IP configuration of the local workstation. D: winipcfg is the Windows 9x version of ipconfig and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. However, we need the IP configuration on a Windows XP workstation References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 617: Which of the following commands can you use to verify the IP configuration of a Microsoft Windows 98 workstation? A. ping B. arp -a C. ipconfig /all D. winipcfg /all Answer: D Winipcfg /all is the Windows 98 version of ipconfig /all and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local Windows 98 workstation. Incorrect Answers: A: Ping is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. If the remote host's IP address is in conflict with another host, ping will return an error. B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. C: ipconfig /all displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local Windows CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 2000 or Windows XP workstation, not he Windows 98 workstation. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 618: Which of the following commands will allow you to add a static entry to the local ARP table? A. arp -a B. arp -d C. arp -s D. arp -N Answer: C arp -s allows you to add a static IP address to MAC address mapping in the local ARP table. This entry will remain in the ARP table until the local computer is rebooted. Incorrect Answers: A: arp -d removes a IP address to MAC address listing from the local ARP table. B: arp -a displays the listing in the ARP table. It does not allow you to add or remove a listing. D: arp -N displays the ARP entry for a specified network interface. It does not allow you to add or remove a listing. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 167-180, 191, 194-195. QUESTION 619: Which of the following commands will allow you to delete an entry from the local ARP table? A. arp -a B. arp -d C. arp -s D. arp -N Answer: B Explanation arp -d removes a IP address to MAC address listing from the local ARP table. Incorrect Answers: A: arp -a displays the listing in the ARP table. It does not allow you to add or remove a listing. C: arp -s allows you to add a static IP address to MAC address mapping in the local ARP CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 table. This entry will remain in the ARP table until the local computer is rebooted. D: arp -N displays the ARP entry for a specified network interface. It does not allow you to add or remove a listing. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 167-180, 191, 194-195. QUESTION 620: Which of the following commands displays the entries in the local ARP table? A. arp -a B. arp -d C. arp -s D. arp -N Answer: A Explanation arp -a displays the listing in the ARP table. This is useful for locating hosts with duplicate IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: B: arp -d removes a IP address to MAC address listing from the local ARP table. C: arp -s allows you to add a static IP address to MAC address mapping in the local ARP table. This entry will remain in the ARP table until the local computer is rebooted. D: arp -N displays the ARP entry for a specified network interface rather than the entire ARP table. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 167-180, 191, 194-195. QUESTION 621: Which of the following can be used to view the active inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a computer? A. arp -a B. ipconfig /all C. netstat -a D. tracert Answer: C netstat -a is used to display the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. Incorrect Answers: A: arp -a lists the entries in the ARP table, which holds the IP address to MAC address CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 mappings. It is primarily used for resolving duplicate IP addresses. B: ipconfig /all displays the current TCP/IP configuration, including the current IP address, DNS configuration, WINS configuration, and default gateway, on a computer. D: tracert displays a list of router interfaces that a TCP/IP packet passes through on its way to a destination, including destinations on the Internet. This list includes all the DNS names and IP addresses of the routers that the packet is passing through. It also counts the number of hops between a local computer and a destination host. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 164-169, 186-191. QUESTION 622: Which of the following can be used to view IP address to MAC address mappings on a computer? A. arp -a B. ipconfig /all C. netstat -a D. tracert Answer: A arp -a lists the entries in the ARP table, which holds the IP address to MAC address mappings. It is primarily used for resolving duplicate IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: B: ipconfig /all displays the current TCP/IP configuration, including the current IP address, DNS configuration, WINS configuration, and default gateway, on a computer. C: netstat -a is used to display the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. D: tracert displays a list of router interfaces that a TCP/IP packet passes through on its way to a destination, including destinations on the Internet. This list includes all the DNS names and IP addresses of the routers that the packet is passing through. It also counts the number of hops between a local computer and a destination host. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 164-169, 186-191. QUESTION 623: Which of the following can you use to determine the number of hops between a local computer and a destination host? A. arp -a B. ipconfig /all C. netstat -a D. tracert CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: D tracert displays a list of router interfaces that a TCP/IP packet passes through on its way to a destination, including destinations on the Internet. This list includes all the DNS names and IP addresses of the routers that the packet is passing through. It also counts the number of hops between a local computer and a destination host. Incorrect Answers: A: arp -a lists the entries in the ARP table, which holds the IP address to MAC address mappings. It is primarily used for resolving duplicate IP addresses. B: ipconfig /all displays the current TCP/IP configuration, including the current IP address, DNS configuration, WINS configuration, and default gateway, on a computer. C: netstat -a is used to display the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 164-169, 186-191. QUESTION 624: What is the ping utility used for? A. It tests connectivity between two hosts on a network. B. It displays IP address to MAC address mapping. C. It displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local host. D. It displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local host. Answer: A The ping utility is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address or host name of the remote host. Incorrect Answers: B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. C: The ipconfig utility displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. D: The netstat utility displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 625: What is the arp utility used for? A. It tests connectivity between two hosts on a network. B. It displays IP address to MAC address mapping. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. It displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local host. D. It displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local host. Answer: B The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. Incorrect Answers: A: The ping utility is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. C: The ipconfig utility displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. D: The netstat utility displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 626: What is the ipconfig utility used for? A. It tests connectivity between two hosts on a network. B. It displays IP address to MAC address mapping. C. It displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local host. D. It displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local host. Answer: C The ipconfig utility displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. Incorrect Answers: A: The ping utility is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. D: The netstat utility displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 627: What is the netstat utility used for? A. It tests connectivity between two hosts on a network. B. It displays IP address to MAC address mapping. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. It displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local host. D. It displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local host. Answer: D The netstat utility displays the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on a local computer. Incorrect Answers: A: The ping utility is used to test connectivity between two hosts using the IP address of the remote hosts. B: The arp utility is useful for resolving duplicate IP addresses. The arp -a command displays the local ARP table which lists the IP address to MAC address mappings. C: The ipconfig utility displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. It does not display IP configurations or the MAC address of remote workstations. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. QUESTION 628: Which of the following commands can you use to verify the IP configuration of a Linux workstation? A. tracert B. ifconfig C. ipconfig D. winipcfg Answer: B ifconfig displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local Linux workstation. Incorrect Answers: A: The tracert utility displays a list of router interfaces that a TCP/IP packet passes through on its way to a destination, including destinations on the Internet. This list includes all the DNS names and IP addresses of the routers that the packet is passing through. It also counts the number of hops between a local computer and a destination host. C: ipconfig is the Windows NT version of ifconfig and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. However, we need the IP configuration on a Linux workstation. D: winipcfg is the Windows 9x version of ifconfig and displays the IP configuration and MAC address for the local workstation. However, we need the IP configuration on a Linux workstation. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 186-188, 194. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 629: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller network has 125 Windows XP Professional client computers running Client Services for NetWare (CSNW) and 2 Novell Netware 5.0 servers. You install a new Novell NetWare 6.0 server on the Certkiller .com network. User complains that they cannot access the new NetWare 6.0 server but can access the two NetWare 5.0 servers. What is the most probable cause of the problem? A. The Novell NetWare 6.0 server is not compatible with Novell NetWare 5.0. B. Novell NetWare 6.0 does not support Client Services for NetWare (CSNW). C. The users do not have user accounts on the new Novell NetWare 6.0 server. D. The Novell NetWare 6.0 server does not support Client for Microsoft Networks. Answer: C Wit h Client Services for NetWare (CSNW), each user on a Windows workstation that needs to access NetWare server must a user account and rights on the NetWare server. Incorrect Answers: A: Novell NetWare 6.0 is backwards compatible with Novell NetWare 5.0. B: Like Novell NetWare 5.0, Novell NetWare 6.0 supports Client Services for NetWare (CSNW). However, each user needs to access NetWare server must a user account and rights on that NetWare server. D: The Novell NetWare 6.0 server does not require Client for Microsoft Networks. Client for Microsoft Networks is used to access a Microsoft network. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 204 208. QUESTION 630: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. All workstations on the Certkiller .com network are configured as DHCP clients while all servers are configured with static IP addresses. A Certkiller user complains that she cannot access any resources on the network. Other users are not experiencing this problem. You attempt to ping a Certkiller file server from the user's computer. Pinging by both host name and IP address fails. The ipconfig command indicates an IP address of 169.254.32.10 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. What is the probable cause of this problem? A. The DHCP server is down. B. A rouge DHCP server is on the network. C. The user's workstation cannot connect to the DHCP server. D. The user's workstation is configured with a static IP address. Answer: C 169.254.32.10 is and APIPA address that is assigned to a DHCP client when that client CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 cannot connect to DHCP server. In this case only the one user is having a problem therefore the other users must be able to access the DHCP server. Incorrect Answers: A: If the DHCP server was down, all network users' computers would be experiencing the problem as they all would have APIPA addresses. B: If a rouge DHCP server was enabled on the network the user's computer might received its lease from the rouge DHCP server, which would not have the same address pool as the authorized DHCP server. However, it is unlikely that the rouge DHCP server would have an address pool in the 169.254.0.0 network address range. This address range is usually used for APIPA and is used when the DHCP client cannot access the DHCP server. D: It is unlikely that a workstation would be assigned a static IP address pool in the 169.254.0.0 network address range. This address range is usually used for APIPA and is used when the DHCP client cannot access the DHCP server. References: James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study Guide, Sybex, Alameda CA, 2003, pp. 229-230. QUESTION 631: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller .com network has 50 Windows 98 client workstations, 100 Windows 2000 Professional workstations and a server named SRV_001. SRV_001 is running Windows 2000 Server. You install a new file server named SRV_002 on the network. The users with Windows 98 workstations complain that they are not able to connect to SRV_002, but can connect to SRV_001. Users with Windows 2000 Professional workstations are not experiencing any problems. You are able to ping the IP address of SRV_002 from one of the Windows 98 workstations, but cannot connect by SRV_002's NetBIOS name. What is the most probable cause of this problem? A. The DHCP server is down. B. The DNS server is down. C. The LMHOSTS files are outdated. D. The router is down. Answer: C Windows 98 uses LMHOSTS files to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses. The LMHOSTS file is a static ASCII file that maps NetBIOS names to IP addresses. The NetBIOS name to IP address mapping of every host on the network must be entered manually on each workstation that relies on HOSTS files for NetBIOS name resolution. It appears that the NetBIOS name and IP address for SRV_002 has not been added to the LMHOSTS files. Windows 98 can also use WINS to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 systems on a TCP/IP network. If DHCP was down, none of the workstations would be able to access the server at all. B: however, Windows 98 does not support the use of FQDNs and cannot use DNS. Instead, Windows 98 use WINS or LMHOSTS files to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses. D: If the router was down, we would not be able to access the server at all. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 136-144, 184. QUESTION 632: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. One morning all users complain that they are unable to connect a Certkiller .com server. You reboot the server but the problem persists. You cannot ping any of the workstations by host name or IP address. You also cannot ping the server's loopback address. What is the most probable cause of this problem? A. The DNS server is down. B. The DHCP server is down. C. The network switch is down. D. The NIC on the server has failed. Answer: D When the Network Interface Card (NIC) on host fails, it will not be able to ping its loopback address. Incorrect Answers: A: DNS is used to resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses. B: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. If DHCP was down, none of the workstations would be able to access the server but the server would be able to ping its loopback address. C: If the switch was down, we would not be able to access the server but the server would be able to ping its loopback address. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 136-144, 184. QUESTION 633: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You replace the DNS server on the Certkiller .com network and removed the old DNS server. The new DNS server has a different IP address and you update the DHCP server to reflect this change. Which computers will be able to use the new DNS server? A. Any computer that has not released and renewed their DHCP lease. B. Any computer that has released and renewed their DHCP lease. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Any computer with a statically assigned IP address. D. Any computer on the Certkiller .com network. Answer: B Computers must release and renew their DHCP leases in order to receive the new configuration that has been updated on the DHCP server. Once they receive this new configuration, they will be able to access the new DNS server. Incorrect Answers: A, D: Computers that have not released and renewed their DHCP leases will still be configured with the IP address for the old DNS server. Only when they renew the DHCP leases will the computers be configured with the updated DHCP settings. C: Computers with static IP addresses don't get their TCP/IP configurations from DHCP. Therefore they won't the updated configurations from DHCP and will not be able to connect to the new DNS server. References: James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study Guide, Sybex, Alameda CA, 2003, pp. 223-227. QUESTION 634: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller .com network has 200 Windows 98 workstations and 150 Windows XP Professional workstations. You replace the WINS server on the Certkiller .com network with a DNS server. The new DNS server has a different IP address and you update the DHCP server to reflect this change. Which workstations will be able to use the new DNS server? A. Any workstation that has not released and renewed their DHCP lease. B. Any Windows 98 workstation that has released and renewed their DHCP lease. C. Any Windows XP Professional workstation that has released and renewed their DHCP lease. D. Any Windows XP Professional workstation that has not released and renewed their DHCP lease. Answer: C Workstations must release and renew their DHCP leases in order to receive the new configuration that has been updated on the DHCP server. Once they receive this new configuration, they will be able to access the new DNS server. However, Windows 98 uses NetBIOS names and not domain names. Therefore only the Windows XP Professional workstations that have released and renewed their DHCP lease will use the new DNS server. Incorrect Answers: A, D: Computers that have not released and renewed their DHCP leases will still be configured with the IP address for the old DNS server. Only when they renew the DHCP leases will the computers be configured with the updated DHCP settings. B: Windows 98 uses NetBIOS names and not domain names. Therefore Windows 98 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 workstations cannot use the new DNS server. References: James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study Guide, Sybex, Alameda CA, 2003, pp. 223-227. QUESTION 635: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You have removed the DNS server from the network for maintenance purposes. What affect will this have on the workstations in the Certkiller .com network? A. They will not be able to locate a server by NetBIOS name. B. They will not be able to locate as server by MAC address. C. They will not be able to locate a server by IP address. D. They will not be able to locate a server by host name. Answer: D Explanation DNS is responsible for host name to IP address resolution. Thus, if the DNS server is down, name resolution from host name to IP address will not be possible; thus DNS clients will not be able to locate a server by host name. Incorrect Answers: A: WINS is responsible for NetBIOS name to IP address resolution. B: ARP is responsible for IP address to MAC address resolution. C: DNS is responsible for host name to IP address resolution. It is not required if workstations use IP addresses to locate the servers. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-142, 144. QUESTION 636: You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You install a proxy server on the Certkiller .com network. What effect will this have on the network? A. Reduced network collisions. B. Reduced Internet traffic. C. Reduced DHCP traffic. D. Reduced broadcast traffic. Answer: B A proxy server handles traffic to the Internet on behalf of the clients on the internal network. It can be configured to control which the Internet requests can be permitted and which will be denied. This will control which web sites users can access and which they CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 cannot, and can cache frequently requested Web pages, reducing Internet bandwidth usage. Incorrect Answers: A, D: Network collisions and broadcast traffic can be reduced by implementing routing and subnetting. C: A DHCP server is used to automatically assign TCP/IP configurations to hosts on a network. DHCP traffic can be reduced by increasing the DHCP lease period. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 134-13, 142-144. QUESTION 637: You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. You install a VLAN on the Certkiller .com network to create two subnets. However, users on one subnet cannot access servers on the other subnet. What should you do to resolve this problem? A. Install a router between the two subnets. B. Install a DHCP server in each subnet. C. Install a proxy server in each subnet. D. Install a DNS server in each subnet. Answer: A To forward traffic between two subnets, we would need a router. Incorrect Answers: B: A DHCP server is used to automatically assign TCP/IP configurations to hosts on a network. Installing a DHCP server in each subnet will ensure that hosts on each subnet will have the proper IP configurations. However, the problem here is that a router is required to forward traffic between two subnets. C: A proxy server is used to protect a network from attacker on the Internet. It is not used to forward traffic between subnets. D: A DNS server is used for host name to IP address resolution. It is not used to forward traffic between subnets. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 134-13, 142-144, 153-154. QUESTION 638: You are the network administrator at Certkiller .com. The Certkiller .com network consists of two subnets; one contains all workstations and the other contains all servers. Users complain that they cannot access the servers in the remote subnet. You cannot ping any of the workstations by either host name or IP address but you can ping the other servers. What is the probable cause of this problem? CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 A. The DNS server is down. B. The DHCP server is down. C. The router is down. D. The gateway is down. Answer: C Explanation: A router connects two subnets together and is responsible for forwarding traffic between the subnets. In this scenario, communication between the subnets is affected. Communication within the subnet is not affected as we can ping other servers in the subnet. Thus, the router has failed. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 10-11, 12, 52. David Groth, Network+ Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2001, pp. 11-12, 23. David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2001, pp. 313-314. QUESTION 639: Which of the following is NOT a valid IP address? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.192.4.256 C. 156.144.226.123 D. 10.24.12.0 Answer: B IP addresses consist of four sets of 8 bit numbers called octets. 8 bit numbers have a maximum decimal value of 255. The address 172.192.4.256 has the decimal value 256 in the last octet. This is not valid. Incorrect Answers: A, C: These are valid IP addresses for hosts. D: This is a valid IP address for a network but not for a host. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 125-126. QUESTION 640: Which of the following is a valid IP address for an Internet host? A. 239.168.11.21 B. 172.192.4.254 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. 56.144.226.123 D. 12.24.12.0 Answer: C Internet hosts require public IP addresses. 56.144.226.123 is a public IP address and is thus valid for IP hosts. Incorrect Answers: A: 239.168.11.21 is a Class E IP address. This class is reserved. B: 172.192.4.254 is a private IP address. Private IP addresses are not used for Internet hosts. D: 12.24.12.0 is a network address and is not used for hosts. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 125-126. QUESTION 641: Which of the following is a public Class A IP address that can be used on the Internet? A. 10.18.12.4 B. 18.12.14.21 C. 169.254.254.254 D. 255.255.255.0 Answer: B Explanation: 18.12.14.21 is a class A address that can be used on the Internet. Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. B: 169.254.254.254 is a self-assigned address that is reserved for use by DHCP clients that fail to acquire a DHCP lease from a DHCP server. It is from the class B range of IP addresses. C: 255.255.255.0 is a subnet mask. This is the default subnet mask for a class C IP address. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 642: Which of the following is a public IP address that can be used on the Internet? A. 10.254.200.14 B. 120.254.200.14 C. 169.254.200.14 D. 192.168.200.14 Answer: B Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Incorrect Answers: A: Class A IP addresses use the first 8 bits for network identification and the last 24 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 0.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 and a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0. However, 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 is reserved for diagnostics. Of this range, 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. C: 169.254.200.14 is a self-assigned address that is reserved for use by DHCP clients that fail to acquire a DHCP lease from a DHCP server. It is from the class B range of IP addresses. D: Class C IP addresses use the first 24 bits for network identification and the last 8 bits for host identification. The result is an IP address range from 192.0.0.0 through 223.225.225.225 and default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Of this range, 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 is reserved for private IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 643: Which of the following CAN be used on the Internet? A. 10.172.22.1 B. 172.26.75.46 C. 192.168.54.10 D. 216.172.168.10 Answer: D Private IP addresses cannot be used on the Internet. There are three IANA private IP address ranges. These are 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 through CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255. 216.172.168.10 dos not fall in any of these private IP address ranges. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: 10.172.22.1, 172.26.75.46, and 192.168.54.10 are all private IP addresses. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 127-128. QUESTION 644: Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. A public IP address is required for users on a private network to access resources on the Internet. B. Public IP addresses are regulated by the American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN). C. Private IP addresses allow more that one private IP network to have the same IP address. D. Private IP addresses may not beduplicated. Answer: D Private IP addresses are reserved for use on private networks. Therefore, these addresses may be duplicated across many networks without causing IP address conflicts. Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: These are all true. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 125-133. QUESTION 645: Which of the following protocols is used to transmit e-mail between the two e-mail servers? A. Post Office Protocol, version 3 (POP3) B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) D. Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4 (IMAP4) Answer: B SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending e-mail messages. Incorrect Answers: A, D: POP3 and IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. C: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network management and control. It provides error testing and reporting for TCP/IP. References: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-79, 116, 207. QUESTION 646: Which of the following protocols is used to transmit e-mail between an e-mail client and an e-mail server? A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Post Office Protocol, version 3 (POP3) C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Answer: B POP3 and IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. Incorrect Answers: A: HTTP is the protocol that is used by a web browser to communicate with web severs. It is not used for transmitting e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. C: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for transmitting e-mail messages from one e-mail server to another, not between the e-mail server and the e-mail client. D: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for network management and control. It provides error testing and reporting for TCP/IP. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 78-79, 116, 207. QUESTION 647: Which of the following protocols is used to transmit data between a web browser and a web server? A. SSH B. HTTP C. SFTP D. IMAP4 Answer: B HTTP is the protocol that is used by a web browser to communicate with web severs. Incorrect Answers: A: The SSH protocol is used to establish a secure Telnet session over TCP/IP. C: SFTP transmit data securely between tan FTP client and an FTP server. D: IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. It does not transmit data between a web browser and a web server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 297. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 648: Which of the following provides remote logon over the Internet? A. Telnet B. SSH C. PPP D. IMAP4 Answer: C The PPP protocol is used to establish a connection over point-to-point links such as dial-up and dedicated leased lines that are used to connect to the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Telnet is a terminal emulation protocol that provides a remote logon to another host over the network, not over the Internet. The SSH protocol is used to establish a secure Telnet session over TCP/IP. It can thus be sued instead of Telnet. D: IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. This is not a function of Telnet. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 297. QUESTION 649: Which of the following CANNOT be used for remote connections? A. Telnet B. SSH C. PPP D. IMAP4 Answer: D IMAP4 transmit e-mail between the e-mail client and the e-mail server. This does not allow remote connections. Incorrect Answers: A, B: Telnet is a terminal emulation protocol that provides a remote logon to another host over the network, not over the Internet. The SSH protocol is used to establish a secure Telnet session over TCP/IP. It can thus be sued instead of Telnet. C: The PPP protocol is used to establish a remote connection over point-to-point links such as dial-up and dedicated leased lines that are used to connect to the Internet. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 297. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 QUESTION 650: What is the default TCP port used by HTTPS? A. 21 B. 23 C. 80 D. 443 Answer: D The default port for HTTPS is TCP port 443. Incorrect Answers: A: Port 21 is the default port for FTP, not HTTPS. B: Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, not HTTPS. C: Port 80 is the default port for HTTP, not HTTPS. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 651: What is the default TCP port used by HTTP? A. 21 B. 23 C. 80 D. 443 Answer: C The default port for HTTP is TCP port 80. Incorrect Answers: A: Port 21 is the default port for FTP, not HTTP. B: Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, not HTTP. D: Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS, not HTTP. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 652: Which of the following provides name resolution on the Internet? A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) B. DNS (Domain Name Service) C. WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) D. NAT (Network Address Translation) CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: B The internet uses host names. DNS is responsible for host name resolution. Incorrect Answers: A: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. It is not used for name resolution. C: WINS provides NetBIOS name resolution, not host name resolution. D: NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address, and allows hosts on a private network to connect to the Internet. It does not provide name resolution. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 136-144, 245. QUESTION 653: Which of the following provides secure connections between a Web browser and a Web server? A. SSL B. WEP C. IPSec D. L2TP Answer: A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to provide secure Session layer connections between a web browser and web server. Incorrect Answers: B: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is used encrypt data transitions over a wireless 802.11b network. C: IP Security (IPSec) is used to provide authentication and encryption over the Internet. D: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is used in virtual private networks (VPNs). Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 338-340. QUESTION 654: You cannot reach a Web site on the Certkiller .com intranet but you can ping the Web server by host name. What is the probable cause of the problem? A. HTTP on the workstation is down. B. The DHCP server is down. C. The DNS server is down. D. Web Server is down. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: A Web browsers use HTTP to access web sites. If HTTP is down or port 80, which is used for HTTP traffic, is blocked, you won't be able to access the intranet Web site. Incorrect Answers: B: DHCP is responsible for automating the assignment of IP configurations to computer systems on a TCP/IP network. If DHCP was down, we would not be able to access the server at all. C: DNS is used to provide host name to IP Address translation. If we can ping to the host name then there can be no problem with DNS. D: The ping command is used to test connectivity to a remote host. If the Web server is down, ping will not be successful. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 136-144, 184. QUESTION 655: How can a user access a Web site when his DNS server is down? A. By using Web server's MAC address. B. By using Web server's IP address. C. By using IPSec. D. By using SSL. Answer: B DNS resolves host names to IP addresses. Thus, by using the IP address of the remote host, DNS will not be required. Incorrect Answers: A: DNS resolves host names to IP addresses, not MAC addresses. Thus, by using the IP address of the remote host, DNS will not be required. C: IPSec is used to secure data transmissions over the Internet. It does not provide an alternative method of accessing a Web server. D: SSL is used to secure data transmissions between a browser and a Web server. It does not provide an alternative method of accessing a Web server. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 117, 136-144, 184. QUESTION 656: Which of the following can be used to secure web traffic? A. SSL B. HTTPS C. SSH D. SMTP CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Answer: A Explanation: SSL, Secure Sockets Layer, a protocol developed by Netscape for transmitting private documents via the Internet. SSL works by using a private key to encrypt data that's transferred over the SSL connection. Both Netscape Navigator and Internet Explorer support SSL, and many Web sites use the protocol to obtain confidential user information, such as credit card numbers. By convention, URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:. Incorrect Answers: B: HTTPS denotes a secure URL however; SSL is used to secure traffic to that URL. C: SSH is a secure alternative to Telnet. It is not used to secure web traffic. D: SMTP is used to send email. It is not used to secure web traffic. Reference: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 338-340. QUESTION 657: Which of the following are able to share an Internet connection with other computers? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows NT. B. Windows 95. C. Windows 98. D. Windows 98 SE. Answer: D Explanation: All Windows versions from Windows 98 Second Edition (SE) onward, supports Internet Connection Sharing (ICS). Incorrect Answers: A, B, C: Versions o Windows prior to Windows 98 SE do not support ICS. This includes Windows NT, Windows 98 and Windows 85. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 721-762. QUESTION 658: On which of the following operating systems can you configure ICS (Internet Connection Sharing)? (Choose all that apply.) A. Windows 95 B. Windows 98 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 C. Windows 98 SE D. Windows 2000 E. Windows NT 4.0 Answer: C, D Explanation: All Windows versions from Windows 98 Second Edition (SE) onward, supports Internet Connection Sharing (ICS). Incorrect Answers: A, B, E: Versions o Windows prior to Windows 98 SE do not support ICS. This includes Windows NT, Windows 98 and Windows 85. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 721-762. QUESTION 659: Where can you configure a static IP address on a Windows XP computer? A. In Device Manager B. In Local Area Connection Properties C. In My Computer D. In My Network Places Answer: B Explanation: You configure the IP address on a Windows XP computer in the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Properties page. This page can be accessed through Local Area Connection Properties. Incorrect Answers: A: Device Manager is used to configure and manage Devices, not IP configurations. C: My Computer lists the Drives available on the computer. D: My Network Places lists the frequently accessed Shared folders. Reference: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 749-752. QUESTION 660: Which ports must you open on a firewall to allow FTP traffic? (Choose all that apply) A. 20 B. 21 C. 23 CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 D. 25 Answer: A, B FTP uses TCP port 20 for data and TCP port 21 for control. Incorrect Answers: C: Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, not FTP. D: Port 25 is the default port for SMTP, not FTP. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 661: Which ports must you close on a firewall to prevent users from browsing the Internet? A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 110 Answer: C HTTP transmits data between a web browser and the Internet. HTTP uses TCP port 80. Thus closing TCP port 80 will prevent users from accessing the Internet. Incorrect Answers: A: TCP Port 21 is required for FTP, not HTTP. B: TCP port 25 is used by SMTP which transmits e-mail from one server to another D: TCP port 110 is used by POP3 which transmits e-mail between the server and the client. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 662: Which ports must you open on a firewall to allow e-mail communications? (Choose all that apply) A. 21 B. 25 C. 80 D. 110 Answer: B, D TCP port 25 is used by SMTP which transmits e-mail from one server to another, and TCP port 110 is used by POP3 which transmits e-mail between the server and the client. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Incorrect Answers: C: Port 21 is required for FTP, not e-mail. D: Port 80 is required for web browsing, not e-mail. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 663: Which of the following ports allow secure HTTP traffic? A. 22 B. 80 C. 143 D. 443 Answer: D HTTPS, which provides secure HTTP traffic, uses TCP port 443 and not TCP port 80. Incorrect Answers: A: TCP port 22 is the default port for SSH, which is a more secure alternative to Telnet. B: TCP port 80 is the default port for HTTP, not HTTPS. C: TCP port 143 is the default port for IMAP4, not HTTPS. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 664: Which of the following uses ports 20 and 21? A. FTP B. FTTP C. IMAP4 D. NTP Answer: A Explanation: FTP uses TCP port 20 for data and TCP port 21 for control. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 121-123. QUESTION 665: CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 Which of the following uses port 443? A. Telnet B. HTTP C. IMAP4 D. HTTPS Answer: D HTTPS uses TCP port 443. Incorrect Answers: A: Telnet uses TCP port 23, not port 443. B: HTTP uses TCP port 80, not port 443. C: IMAP4 uses TCP port 143, not port 443. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 666: Which of the following uses port 143? A. Telnet B. HTTP C. IMAP4 D. HTTPS Answer: C IMAP4 uses TCP port 143. Incorrect Answers: A: Telnet uses TCP port 23, not port 143. B: HTTP uses TCP port 80, not port 143. D: HTTPS uses TCP port 443, not port 143. References: David Groth and Toby Skandier, Network+ Study Guide (4th Edition), Sybex, Alameda CA, 2005, pp. 122-123. QUESTION 667: Which of the following is used to upload and download files on the Internet? A. SMTP B. DNS C. FTP D. POP3 Answer: C CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam 220-302 The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used to upload and download files on the Internet using an FTP client and server. Incorrect Answers: A, D: SMTP is used to send email while POP3 is used to receive email. B: DNS is used for host name to IP address resolution. It is not used for transferring files. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 746. QUESTION 668: A user can send email but cannot receive email. Which protocol should be checked? A. SMTP B. DNS C. FTP D. POP3 Answer: D SMTP is used to send email while POP3 is used to receive email. Incorrect Answers: A: SMTP is used to send email while POP3 is used to receive email. B: DNS is used for host name to IP address resolution. It is not used for transferring files. C: The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used to upload and download files on the Internet using an FTPO client and server. References: David Groth and Dan Newland, A+ Complete Study Guide (2nd Edition), Sybex, Alameda, CA, 2001, pp. 746. CertGuaranteed. Study Hard and Pass Your Exam ...
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This note was uploaded on 10/25/2010 for the course NET 101 taught by Professor Williams during the Spring '10 term at FAU.

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