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Unformatted text preview: Points Awarded 4.00 Points M issed 1.00 Percentage 80.0% 1. A 32-year-old man was evaluated for a 1-month history of fever, weight loss and several 2-cm lymph nodes palpable in both sides of the neck. Hodgkin's lymphoma, nodular sclerosing type, is confirmed by lymph node excision. CT scans of the neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis show mediastinal lymphadenopathy, but bone marrow biopsy results are normal. Laboratory studies include an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 50 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic step for this patient? A) No further testing B) Splenectomy C) Staging laparotomy and splenectomy D) Liver biopsy E) Lymphangiogram Points Earned: 1.0/1.0 Correct Answer(s): A 2. A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency room because he suddenly developed severe substernal chest pain associated with diaphoresis about one hour ago after finishing his breakfast. Four years ago he was diagnosed with temporal ( giant cell) arteritis. At that time, he was successfully treated with prednisone , which was discontinued after 18 months. He takes no medications and stays active by playing golf twice a week.discontinued after 18 months....
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This note was uploaded on 10/13/2010 for the course USMLE na taught by Professor Na during the Spring '10 term at St. Matthew's University.
- Spring '10