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PHGY212final - NAME —_— STUDENT NUMBER Faculty of...

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Unformatted text preview: NAME: —_— STUDENT NUMBER: Faculty of Science Final Examination PHYSIOLOGY 212 INTRODUCTORY PHYSIOLOGY LABORATORY I Version 1 _ Tuesday, December 13, 2005 9:00 AM — 12:00 PM Examiners: Drs. A. Wechsler & M. Guevara Associate Examiner: Drs. J. Trujillo-Martinez, K. Krnjevic & M. Glavinovic INSTRUCTIONS: 1. 6. This examination consists of 40 multiple—choice questions (Type A and Type B). ANSWER ALL 40 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. All have equal value and marks are not deducted for incorrect answers. Your McGill STUDENT NUMBER (ID) and CHECK BITS (the two first letters of your LAST NAME as indicated on your ID) will be used for identification purposes in this exam. Fill in your McGill ID number on this exam paper and ALSO in the spaces marked ”Student Number” ON YOUR COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET. IMPORTANT: Below the words “Student Number” and “Check Bits”, FILL IN THE APPROPRIATE CIRCLES. Use a lead pencil to fill in the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. ALL ERASURES MUST BE COMPLETE. LEAVE THE COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET AND THE ENTIRE EXAMINATION as directed at the end of the exam. NO part of this examination may be taken out of the examination room. CHALLENGES / EXPLANATIONS: If you think that a given question is unclear or ambiguous, MARK THE NUMBER(S) OF THE QUESTION(S) AND THE ANSWER YOU HAVE GIVEN AT THE TOP OF THIS PAGE. Use the back of this sheet to very briefly explain the reasoning you have used to arrive at your answer. If your reasoning is correct, it will be taken into account in the determination of your grade. Challenges WILL NOT be considered after the examination has been written; therefore, please ensure that any questions and/or explanations are SUBMITTED ON THIS SHEET. SCIENTIFIC CALCULATORS (NO LANGUAGE MEMORY) ARE PERMITTED. WARNING: The Examination Security Monitor Program detects pairs of students with unusually similar answer patterns on multiple-choice exams. Data generated by this program can be used as admissible evidence, either to initiate or corroborate an investigation or a charge of cheating under Section 16 of the “Code of Student Conduct and Disciplinary Procedures mm [m 720 Mm:- no cD PHGY 212 2 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 1. A digital signal is: a) a continuous time signal. b) a discrete time signal. c) any signal generated by an electronic device. d) any signal generated in an electrophysiology setup. e) any signal that can be measured using a digital oscilloscope. 2. The spectrum of a signal is: a) a plot of amplitude vs. time. b) a plot of amplitude vs. frequency. c) a plot of the main signal frequency component. d) a description of the frequency components of the signal noise. 6) a measurement of the noise in the signal. 3. In a signal acquisition system that is equipped with a 12—bit AD converter and acquires a signal using a sampling range of 10V (-5V to 5V), What is the decimal value corresponding to +3V? a) 1228 b) 3254 c) 3276 d) 819 e) 4095 4. What is the optimal sampling frequency for recording a biological signal, if the main frequency component is 25Hz? a) 25 Hz. b) 35 Hz. 0) 75 Hz. d) 1000 Hz. e) 1500 Hz. PHGY 212 3 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 5. The Nyquist sampling frequency is: a) two times the desired signal frequency. b) three times the desired signal frequency. c) four times the desired signal frequency. d) five times the desired signal frequency. e) the desired signal frequency. 6. A hardware filter: a) alters the frequency components of the signal. b) only filters low frequency components. c) only filters high frequency components. d) changes the frequency of the signal by performing calculations on the data. 6) allows recovering the filtered frequency components of the signal after the data acquisition has taken place. 7. The theta EEG waves show frequencies between: a) 0.5 and 4 Hz. b) 3.5 and 7.5 Hz. 0) 7.5 and 13 Hz. d) 14 Hz and greater. e) 0.5 Hz and greater. 8. Which of the following is correct regarding differential amplifiers? a) They amplify the difference between an input and the ground. b) They amplify the difference between two input signals. 0) They selectively increase the gain of the main signal frequency component. (1) They selectively increase the gain of the lowest signal frequency component. 6) They selectively amplify the differences between the main and the lowest signal frequency component. PHGY 212 4 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 9. A sample of 0.1 ml of an individual’s blood is placed in a test tube containing 10 ml of l8g/l of NaCl (MW = 58.5), and the contents are thoroughly mixed. All the following statements are true EXCEPT (choose the INCORRECT one): a) The solution is hypertonic. b) The solution has an osmolarity of ~600 mOsmoles. c) The solution has the same calculated osmotic pressure as a 300 mM solution of glucose (MW = 180). d) The red blood cells will undergo crenation. e) There will be a rapid efflux of water from the red blood cells. 10. Two subjects (A and B) have the osmotic fragility of their red blood cells measured, and the results are plotted on the accompanying graph showing % hemolysis vs. osmolarity of the NaCl solutions used. It may be concluded that: 100 W O % Hemoiysis o O A O 20 0 100 200 300 mOsm a) Subject A has a more uniform population of red blood cells, and they are more fragile than those of subject B. b) Subject A has a less uniform population of red blood cells, but they are more fragile than those of subject B. c) Subject A has a more uniform population of red blood cells, and they are less fragile than those of subject B. (1) Subject A has a less uniform population of red blood cells, and they are less fragile than those of subject B. e) None of the above statements are CORRECT. PHGY 212 5 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 11. A student in a laboratory class wishes to prepare a solution of CaC12 (MW = 111) which would have an osmotic pressure of 6.7 atmospheres. To achieve this, the student would have to prepare a solution containing the following concentration of CflClzI a) 5.6g/l b) 11.1g/l c) 22.2g/1 d) 33.3g/l e) NONE of the above. 12. Of the various hematological tests that you carried out in the laboratory, the only one of the following that required dilution of the blood sample was the determination of the a) Hemoglobin concentration. b) Hematocrit. c) Red Blood Cell count. d) Differential White Cell count. e) ABO Blood Group. 13. A woman with Blood Group A gives birth to a baby belonging to Blood Group B. To which of the following Blood Groups could the father possibly belong? a) B or O. b) AB or B. c) AorB. d) A,B,AB, O. e) A, B, or AB. 14. The equilibrium potential for K+ is typically: a) +90 mV b) +60 mV c) -60 mV d) —90 mV e) -90 V PHGY 212 6 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 15. Assume that under resting conditions the equilibrium potential for K+ is —150 mV and the equilibrium potential for Na+ is +150 mV. Assume also that the membrane is EQUALLY permeable to both ions. In such a case the resting membrane potential Will be: a) 150 mV b) 50 mV c) 0 mV (1) + 50 mV e) + 150 mV 16. The input resistance of the instrument used for recording the resting membrane potential is expected to be: a) approximately 1 [49. b) approximately 1 Q. C) approximately 1 k9. d) approximately 1 M9. e) much more than 1 M9. 17. The A component of the frog sciatic nerve includes action potentials from: a) only sensory axons. b) only motor axons. c) only myelinated axons. d) both myelinated and unmyelinated axons. e) fast C-type axons. 18. Saltatory conduction is a feature of which component of the CAP? a) only 0L b) only B. c) only 7. d) all of A. e) NONE of the above. PHGY 212 7 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE A: Choose the ONE that is BEST in each case and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet. 19. The C—fibre component of a compound action potential has a mean conduction velocity of 1.0 m/s. What will be the latency to the peak recorded 10 cm from the point of stimulation? a) 0.1s b) 0.5s c) 1s d) 5s e) 10ms 20. Typically, a strength-duration curve approximates a rectangular hyperbola because: a) to be effective, an electrical stimulus must be of constant duration. b) to be effective, an electrical stimulus must be of constant intensity. c) conduction along myelinated fibres is saltatory. d) conduction along unmyelinated fibres is not saltatory. e) the total electrical charge needed to excite a nerve is approximately constant. 21. The strength—duration curve obtained in an experiment yielded a chronaxie of 1 ms, the corresponding value of strength being 0.4 volt. What was the rheobase? a) 0.1 volt. b) 0.2 volt. c) 0.3 volt. d) 0.6 volt. e) 1.2 volt. 22. The CAP recorded from the most distal portion of the sciatic nerve is much smaller than that from the proximal portion mainly because: a) the axons are much smaller. b) the conduction velocity is much slower. c) most of the axons are unmyelinated. d) the nerve has fewer axons. e) only motor axons are present. PHGY 212 8 FINAL EXAMINATION — Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only d is correct if all or none are correct P‘PPN!‘ 23. Which of the following is/are considered artifacts during EEG recordings? a) Electrooculogram. b) Delta waves. c) Electromyogram. d) Beta waves. 24. Alpha waves in the human EEG are seen better: a) when the subject opens the eyes. b) in 01 and O2 leads. 0) during REM sleep. d) when the subject closes the eyes. 25. CORRECT statements regarding the hemostatic tests listed below include the following one(s): a) Clotting Time would be prolonged in a subject with a severe Prothrombin deficiency. b) Bleeding Time would be prolonged in a subject with a severe platelet deficiency. c) Prothrombin Time {PT} would be prolonged in a subject with a defect in the extrinsic scheme of coagulation. d) Partial Thromboplastin Time gPTT! would be prolonged in a subject with a very low hematocrit. PHGY 212 9 FINAL EXAMINATION- Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: 9:59P!“ if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only dis correct if all or none are correct 26. CORRECT statements regarding the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) include the following one(s): a) It may be readily calculated if both the hematocrit and the red blood cell count are known. b) It has a value of 80-95 femtoliters (10'15 liters) in the normal individual. 0) It is frequently high in patients with a maturation—failure type of anemia, such as a Vitamin B12 deficiency. d) It is always higher than normal in individuals with a total plasma volume that is much higher than normal. 27. An individual has a Red Blood Cell count of 5 x 106441, a Hemoglobin concentration of 15g/ 100ml of blood, and a Hematocrit of 50. With this information alone, and knowing that each g of hemoglobin can bind 1.34 ml of oxygen, it may be concluded that the subject’s a) Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) is 30g/ 100 ml of packed cells. b) total plasma volume is equal to half his total blood volume. c) oxygen-carrying capacity is ~ 20 ml 02/ 100ml of blood. (1) red blood cells are both microcytic and hypochromic. 28. The Differential White Cell Count method using the Difquik kit: a) requires that all red blood cells in the sample be destroyed. b) determines the absolute number of white blood cells in 1 #1 of blood. c) requires the use of a hemocytometer for enumeration. d) may be used to determine the ratio of neutrophils/lymphocytes in a sample of blood. PHGY 212 10 FINAL EXAMINATION- Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only dis correct if all or none are correct 91:593.“)? 29. A woman belonging to Blood Group 0, Rh —ve, has never had a transfusion. It may be concluded that: a) there will be no Rh agglutinogens on her red blood cells and no agglutinins against the Rh antigen in her plasma. b) in an emergency, she could safely receive blood from an individual who belongs to Blood Group AB, Rh-ve. c) she could safely donate blood to an individual who is O, Rh +ve . d) if she became pregnant for the first time with an Rh+ve baby, she would develop anti Rh agglutinins which would destroy her own red blood cells. 30. In frog skeletal muscle the Na+—K+ pump: a) pumps Na+ out of the cell. b) pumps Na+ into the cell. c) pumps K+ into the cell. d) does not exist. 31. In frog skeletal muscle at rest: a) the electrical gradient for K+ favors its movement into the cell. b) the electrical gradient for K+ favors its movement out of the cell. c) the concentration gradient for K+ favors its movement out of the cell. d) the electrical gradient is large enough to break the membrane at resting potential. PHGY 212 11 FINAL EXAMINATION— Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only d is correct if all or none are correct PEPPJPE‘ 32. In frog skeletal muscle at rest, a) a greater N a+ conductance leads to a depolarization of the membrane potential. b) the intracellular concentration of K+ is high. c) the intracellular concentration of Na+ is low. d) changing the intracellular concentration of K+ has no effect on the resting membrane potential. 33. A microelectrode used for the measurement of the resting membrane potential in a frog skeletal muscle is filled with an electrolyte solution. Which one(s) of the following statements is/are true? a) The electrolyte solution is typically KCl. b) The concentration of the electrolyte solution is typically 3 mM. c) The concentration of the electrolyte solution is typically 3 M. d) The electrolyte solution is typically NaCl. 34. A microelectrode used for the measurement of the resting membrane potential in a frog skeletal muscle has a small tip size. Which of the following statements is/are true? a) If the tip size of the microelectrode decreases, its resistance increases. b) If the tip size of the microelectrode increases, its resistance increases. 0) If the diameter of the tip is 1 micron the resistance of the electrode will be approximately 10 M9. d) If the diameter of the tip is 1 micron the resistance of the electrode will be approximately 10 £2. PHGY 212 12 FINAL EXAMINATION— Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only dis correct if all or none are correct 9:59P!“ 35. If the instrument used for recording the resting membrane potential of a frog muscle has an input resistance of 1 M82 and the resistance of the microelectrode is 10 M52, then: a) the resting membrane potential will not be measured accurately. b) the resting membrane potential is likely to depend on the changes of the resistance of the microelectrode. c) The current flowing through the microelectrode will be substantial and may change the intra—cellular environment. d) the resting membrane potential will always be —90 mV. 36. If in a resting frog muscle fiber, a) the membrane’s permeability to sodium increases, then the membrane will become depolarized. b) the membrane’s permeability to potassium increases, then the membrane will become depolarized. c) the membrane’s permeability to potassium increases, then the membrane will become hyperpolarized. d) the membrane’s permeability to potassium increases, then the membrane potential will remain constant. 37. The conduction velocity of a given axon depends on: a) its diameter. b) whether it is myelinated. c) if myelinated, the intemodal distance. d) whether its function is sensory or motor. PHGY 212 13 FINAL EXAMINATION— Version 1 Tuesday, December 13, 2005 TYPE B: For each of the incomplete statements below, ONE or MORE of the complements given may be correct. Decide which completion(s) is/are correct and darken the appropriate circle as follows: if only a, b and c are correct if only a and c are correct if only b and d are correct if only dis correct if all or none are correct 91:599.“? 38. A biphasic action potential is recorded only if: a) the nerve is damaged. b) the recording electrodes are not too close together. c) stimulation is at maximal intensity. d) the action potential reaches both recording electrodes. 39. The refractory period of the action potential is caused by: a) persistent K+ conductance. b) accumulation of Ca2+. c) N a+ channel inactivation. d) persistent Cl" conductance. 40. In an experiment on conduction velocity, the plot of distance vs. time gave a straight line which started not at the origin (t=0 ms, d=0 mm), but at t=0 ms and d=1.5 mm. These results suggest that: a) the anodal and cathodal electrodes were not placed correctly. b) the action potential started 1.5 mm from the cathode. c) the conduction distance was not measured accurately. d) the conduction velocity was constant. ...
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