TestBank_Physics-Tippens_7thEd

TestBank_Physics-Tippens_7thEd - ch1 Student:

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Unformatted text preview: ch1 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Physics is a field of science that is distinguished easily from other fields such as chemistry or biology. True False 2. Mathematics serves many purposes, but its main value is to provide a professional tool for the scientist or engineer. True False 3. All quantities in physics should have specific, measurable definitions. True False 4. Students who major in biology will never need to study physics. True False 5. Statics is a branch of physics devoted to the study of objects at rest or in motion with constant speed. True False 6. If a problem or definition discussed by an instructor is also in the text, it is better to jot down a reference rather than to take detailed notes. True False 7. Physics is a quantitative science. True False 8. It is always important to cram the night before a test. True False 9. A workable hypothesis is the same as a scientific theory. True False 10. A good background in mathematics is very helpful in understanding basic concepts. True False 11. All physics learning takes place in the classroom. True False 12. A cause is a sequence of events leading to an effect. True False 13. It is important that a physics student understand interpretations of graphical data. True False ch1 Key 1. Physics is a field of science that is distinguished easily from other fields such as chemistry or biology. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #1 2. Mathematics serves many purposes, but its main value is to provide a professional tool for the scientist or engineer. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #2 3. All quantities in physics should have specific, measurable definitions. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #3 4. Students who major in biology will never need to study physics. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #4 5. Statics is a branch of physics devoted to the study of objects at rest or in motion with constant speed. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #5 6. If a problem or definition discussed by an instructor is also in the text, it is better to jot down a reference rather than to take detailed notes. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #6 7. Physics is a quantitative science. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #7 8. It is always important to cram the night before a test. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #8 9. A workable hypothesis is the same as a scientific theory. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #9 10. A good background in mathematics is very helpful in understanding basic concepts. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #10 11. All physics learning takes place in the classroom. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #11 12. A cause is a sequence of events leading to an effect. FALSE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #12 13. It is important that a physics student understand interpretations of graphical data. TRUE Tippens - 001 Chapter... #13 ch1 Summary Category Tippens - 001 Chapter... # of Questions 13 ch2 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. True False 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. True False 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. True False 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. True False 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. True False 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. True False 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. True False 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. True False 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. True False 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. True False 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. True False 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. True False 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. ________________________________________ 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. ________________________________________ 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. ________________________________________ 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. ________________________________________ 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. ________________________________________ 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. ________________________________________ 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. ________________________________________ 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. ________________________________________ ch2 Key 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #1 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #2 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #3 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #4 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #5 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #6 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #7 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #8 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #9 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #10 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #11 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #12 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south Tippens - 002 Chapter... #13 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction Tippens - 002 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #15 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #17 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to Tippens - 002 Chapter... #18 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #19 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #20 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease Tippens - 002 Chapter... #21 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #22 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #23 Tippens - 002 Chapter... 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º Tippens - 002 Chapter... #24 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #25 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees Tippens - 002 Chapter... #26 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. negative Tippens - 002 Chapter... #27 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. three Tippens - 002 Chapter... #28 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. two Tippens - 002 Chapter... #29 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. inverse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #30 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. direct Tippens - 002 Chapter... #31 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. power, exponent Tippens - 002 Chapter... #32 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. hypotenuse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #33 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. 55 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #34 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. 90 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #35 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. equal Tippens - 002 Chapter... #36 ch2 Summary Category Tippens - 002 Chapter... # of Questions 37 ch3 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. True False 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. True False 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. True False 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. True False 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. True False 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. True False 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. True False 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. True False 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. True False 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. True False 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. True False 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. True False 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. ________________________________________ 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. ________________________________________ 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. ________________________________________ 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. ________________________________________ 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. ________________________________________ 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. ________________________________________ 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. ________________________________________ 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. ________________________________________ ch3 Key 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #1 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #2 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #3 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #4 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #5 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #6 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #7 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #8 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #9 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #10 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #11 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #12 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south Tippens - 002 Chapter... #13 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction Tippens - 002 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #15 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #17 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to Tippens - 002 Chapter... #18 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #19 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #20 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease Tippens - 002 Chapter... #21 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #22 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #23 Tippens - 002 Chapter... 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º Tippens - 002 Chapter... #24 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #25 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees Tippens - 002 Chapter... #26 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. negative Tippens - 002 Chapter... #27 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. three Tippens - 002 Chapter... #28 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. two Tippens - 002 Chapter... #29 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. inverse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #30 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. direct Tippens - 002 Chapter... #31 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. power, exponent Tippens - 002 Chapter... #32 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. hypotenuse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #33 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. 55 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #34 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. 90 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #35 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. equal Tippens - 002 Chapter... #36 ch3 Summary Category Tippens - 002 Chapter... # of Questions 37 ch4 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. True False 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. True False 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. True False 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. True False 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. True False 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. True False 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. True False 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. True False 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. True False 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. True False 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. True False 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. True False 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. ________________________________________ 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. ________________________________________ 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. ________________________________________ 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. ________________________________________ 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. ________________________________________ 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. ________________________________________ 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. ________________________________________ 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. ________________________________________ ch4 Key 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #1 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #2 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #3 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #4 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #5 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #6 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #7 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #8 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #9 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #10 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #11 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #12 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south Tippens - 002 Chapter... #13 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction Tippens - 002 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #15 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #17 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to Tippens - 002 Chapter... #18 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #19 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #20 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease Tippens - 002 Chapter... #21 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #22 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #23 Tippens - 002 Chapter... 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º Tippens - 002 Chapter... #24 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #25 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees Tippens - 002 Chapter... #26 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. negative Tippens - 002 Chapter... #27 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. three Tippens - 002 Chapter... #28 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. two Tippens - 002 Chapter... #29 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. inverse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #30 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. direct Tippens - 002 Chapter... #31 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. power, exponent Tippens - 002 Chapter... #32 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. hypotenuse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #33 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. 55 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #34 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. 90 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #35 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. equal Tippens - 002 Chapter... #36 ch4 Summary Category Tippens - 002 Chapter... # of Questions 37 ch5 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. True False 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. True False 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. True False 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. True False 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. True False 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. True False 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. True False 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. True False 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. True False 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. True False 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. True False 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. True False 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. ________________________________________ 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. ________________________________________ 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. ________________________________________ 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. ________________________________________ 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. ________________________________________ 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. ________________________________________ 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. ________________________________________ 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. ________________________________________ 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. ________________________________________ ch5 Key 1. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, add the exponents. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #1 2. When multiplying two exponents with the same base, multiply the exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #2 3. On a cold winter day, the temperature rose from –5 degrees C to 20 degrees C. The increase in temperature was equal to 25 degrees C. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #3 4. Three boys have three marbles, and each marble has three blue dots. The total number of dots is 33 or 27. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #4 5. Thirty-two apples, or 25, are to be divided equally among 16 people, or 24. Since 25/24 = 25-4 or 21, each person gets two apples. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #5 6. When adding two numbers in scientific notation, the final exponent is the sum of the two original exponents. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #6 7. To multiply two numbers in scientific notation, you must subtract the second exponent from the first exponent. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #7 8. The sum of interior angles is equal to 180º for right triangles only. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #8 9. If you know the lengths of the hypotenuse and one other side of a right triangle, you can find the length of the remaining side and the interior angles. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #9 10. If two variables increase in proportion to one another, they are said to have a direct relationship. TRUE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #10 11. Solutions of quadratic equations will always give two physically possible solutions. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #11 12. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is calculated by summing the other two sides. FALSE Tippens - 002 Chapter... #12 13. What is the change in velocity of a car that originally was traveling north at 20 m/s and is now traveling 50 m/s north? A. 70 m/s, north B. 70 m/s, south C. 30 m/s, north D. 30 m/s, south Tippens - 002 Chapter... #13 14. A positive number multiplied by an even number of negative numbers will always result in which type of number? A. positive B. exponent C. negative D. fraction Tippens - 002 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following formulas is solved for the unknown quantity a? A. a = 1/2a + b B. a = sin(θ)/50 C. c. a = 3a – bn D. q = sin a/50 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #15 16. Solve the following equation for x: 3x - 2 = 8x + 3 A. x = 1 B. x = -1 C. x = 2 D. x = 1/2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following is equivalent to the quantity a11/a15? A. a-4 B. a26 C. a4 D. a1/4 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #17 18. The quantity A. 3/2 B. 2 C. 27/4 D. 6 is equivalent to Tippens - 002 Chapter... #18 19. Solve for k in the following equation. A. (2πf)2m B. 2πfm2 C. 2πfm D. 2πf/m2 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #19 20. What is 3.412 × 1287/0.004781 expressed in scientific notation? A. 9.185 × 105 B. 0.9185 C. 2.692 × 105 D. 1.089 × 10-6 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #20 21. The speed and distance of a certain train are directly related. This means when the speed increases, the distance does what? A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. may increase or decrease Tippens - 002 Chapter... #21 22. A ladder base is 6m away from a house, and the fully extended ladder is 10m long when it leans against the house. How high does the ladder reach on the house? A. 58m B. 4m C. 8 m D. about 7.6m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #22 23. An anchor holding a boat stationary on a river forms a 30º angle with the river bottom. The anchor line is 100 meters long. Assuming the river has a uniform depth, how deep is the river directly below the boat? A. 0.005m B. 5 × 103m C. 86m D. 50m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #23 Tippens - 002 Chapter... 24. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB. What is the angle θ ? A. 30º B. 45º C. 60º D. 90º Tippens - 002 Chapter... #24 25. The triangle ABC shown in Figure 2.1 is a right triangle with hypotenuse AB of length 8.00 m and side BC of length 4.00 m. What is the length of side AC? A. 2.00 m B. 4.00 m C. 6.93 m D. 18.1 m Tippens - 002 Chapter... #25 26. At 5 minutes after the hour, a minute arm forms a 30 degree angle. At 15 minutes, it forms a 90 degree angle, and at 20 minutes it forms a 120 degree angle. What angle will it form at 30 minutes? A. 30 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 270 degrees Tippens - 002 Chapter... #26 27. When multiplying an odd number of negative numbers, the answer will always be _____________________. negative Tippens - 002 Chapter... #27 28. The cube of a number is the same as the number raised to a power of ____________________. three Tippens - 002 Chapter... #28 29. The maximum number of solutions to a quadratic equation is _____________________. two Tippens - 002 Chapter... #29 30. As one quantity increases, another quantity decreases proportionally. These quantities have a(n) ____________________ relationship. inverse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #30 31. If quantity A doubles because quantity B doubles, we say that there is a ____________________ relationship between A and B. direct Tippens - 002 Chapter... #31 32. A superscript number to the right of a variable is its _____________________ or ____________________. power, exponent Tippens - 002 Chapter... #32 33. The longest side of a right triangle is its ____________________. hypotenuse Tippens - 002 Chapter... #33 34. The remaining angle in a right triangle with one 35º angle is _____________________ degrees. 55 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #34 35. The angle opposite the hypotenuse in a right triangle is _____________________ degrees. 90 Tippens - 002 Chapter... #35 36. When two parallel lines are crossed by a single straight line, the alternate interior angles are _____________________. equal Tippens - 002 Chapter... #36 ch5 Summary Category Tippens - 002 Chapter... # of Questions 37 ch6 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. An object in motion can have a constant velocity only if it moves in a straight path. True False 2. An object falling freely from rest near the surface of the earth falls a distance of 64 ft by the end of two seconds. True False 3. Two objects with the same speed have the same velocity. True False 4. If the acceleration vector acting on a body is opposite the velocity vector, the body will slow down. True False 5. An object thrown downward in a gravitational field has the same acceleration as one dropped from rest. True False 6. If an object has an acceleration of 10 m/s2, its velocity will increase by 10 m/s every second. True False 7. For a ball thrown vertically upward, its upward motion with respect to position and velocity is just the reverse of its downward motion. True False 8. At its maximum height, the acceleration of a projectile is zero. True False 9. In the absence of friction, all bodies, large or small, heavy or light, fall to the earth with the same acceleration. True False 10. The equation v f = v o + at can only be used when the acceleration vector is constant. True False 11. In uniform acceleration problems, the initial and final velocities are equal. True False 12. The resultant force acting on a projectile is its weight. True False 13. A projectile fired horizontally will strike the ground in the same time as one dropped vertically from the same position if we neglect the effects of air resistance. True False 14. A projectile launched into space at any angle will have a constant horizontal velocity. True False 15. The horizontal range is greatest when the angle of projection is 45°. True False 16. The vertical motion of a projectile is uniformly accelerated motion. True False 17. The range of a projectile depends only on its initial speed. True False 18. Two projectiles are launched from the same point with the same speed, one fired at a 20º angle, the other at a 70º angle. The range for both projectiles is the same. True False 19. A projectile is launched from a level surface on earth. The time for a projectile to reach its maximum height is equal to the time to go from its maximum height and return to earth. True False 20. The path of a projectile is a semicircle. True False 21. A runner finishes a 100 m race in 9.8 s. The average speed of the runner was _______. A. 9.8 m/s B. 10.2 m/s C. 32 m/s D. 98m/s 22. If the initial velocity, the distance traveled, and the time elapsed are known, which equation would you use to calculate the acceleration? A. s = vt B. s = v o t + 1/2at2 C. v f = v o + at D. 2as = v f - v o 23. The algebraic sign of acceleration depends on ____. A. the direction on the force on the accelerated object B. whether an object is speeding up or slowing down C. the sign of the final velocity D. the position of the object 24. A car accelerates from rest at 5 ft/s2. How far will it travel in 4 s? A. 9.5 ft B. 19.6 ft C. 40 ft D. 80 ft 25. An object is thrown downward with an initial velocity of 15 m/s. How far does it travel in 3 s? A. 0.90 m B. 100 m C. 189 m D. 89 m 26. An object traveling initially at 20 ft/s has a velocity of 60 ft/s in 4 s. Its acceleration is ______. A. 10 ft/s2 B. -10 ft/s2 C. 32 ft/s2 D. -32 ft/s2 27. An object falls freely with an initial velocity of 3.00 m/s. What is its velocity 4.00 s after its release? A. -36.2 m/s B. 42.2 m/s C. 131 m/s D. 155 m/s 28. A car accelerates for 10 s at 6 m/s2. What was its initial velocity if its final velocity is 64 m/s? A. 1 m/s B. 4 m/s C. 6 m/s D. -1 m/s 29. An object is projected upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. What will be its position above the point of release after 6 s? A. 48 m B. 16 m C. 32 m D. 64 m 30. An arrow is shot vertically upward with an initial velocity of 30 m/s. What maximum height will it attain? A. 7 m B. 15 m C. 46 m D. 90 m 31. A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. Its horizontal velocity 3 s later is ____. A. 20 m/s B. 60 m/s C. 6.67 m/s D. 29.4 m/s 32. A projectile is fired at an angle of 60o with an initial speed of 60 m/s. The speed of the projectile at the top of its motion is ______. A. 9.8 m/s B. 30 m/s C. 48 m/s D. 60 m/s 33. A plane flying horizontally at 700 ft/s releases a bomb from an altitude of 800 ft. It will strike the ground in approximately ______. A. 2 s B. 7 s C. 12 s D. 50 s 34. A projectile is fired at an angle of 37º with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. What is the approximate vertical component of its velocity after 2 s? A. 60 m/s B. 40 m/s C. 80 m/s D. 100 m/s 35. Which of the following projection angles will result in the greatest range? A. 20º B. 37º C. 48º D. 60º 36. A car traveling at 60.00 km/hr brakes to a stop in 7.00 s. The acceleration of the car is _______. A. +1.00 m/s2 B. -2.38 m/s2 C. +3.00 m/s2 D. -8.57 m/s2 37. If the average velocity of an object is the same for all time intervals, then the object moves at a(n) ____. A. constant velocity B. relative speed C. increasing acceleration D. changing speed 38. On a position vs. time graph, the velocity equals ____. A. the run divided by the rise B. the x-intercept C. the y-intercept D. the rise divided by the run 39. For an accelerating object, the slope on a position vs. time graph ____. A. is zero B. is the change in time divided by the change in position C. changes with time D. is constant 40. The displacement of an object moving with a constant acceleration can be calculated by ____. A. multiplying the sum of the initial and final velocities by the time interval and dividing by 2 B. dividing the sum of the initial and final velocities by the time interval and multiplying by 2 C. multiplying the acceleration by the time interval squared and then dividing by 1/2 D. dividing the acceleration by the time interval squared and then multiplying by 1/2 41. Ignoring air resistance, if a 10 kg ball and a 200 lb crate were both dropped from the top of a building, the acceleration of the crate would be ____ the acceleration of the ball. A. less than B. equal to C. greater than 42. The acceleration due to gravity of a free-falling object ____. A. points up or down depending on the velocity vector B. always points up C. depends on its mass D. always points down 43. A toy rocket is launched straight up into the air. When the rocket reaches its maximum height, its velocity is ____. A. equal to its displacement divided by time B. zero C. equal to its displacement multiplied by time D. at its maximum 44. A toy rocket is launched straight up into the air from the ground. The total displacement upon landing is ____. A. equal to the distance it traveled up multiplied by two B. equal to the distance it traveled up C. equal to the difference between the final and initial velocities divided by the acceleration due to gravity D. zero 45. A bullet is fired straight up. At its maximum height, its acceleration is (neglecting air resistance) ____. A. zero B. 9.8 m/s2 and pointing up C. 9.8 m/s2 and pointing down D. changing direction 46. For an object traveling as a projectile, the vertical component of the velocity ____as the position changes. A. decreases, changes direction, then increases B. is constant. C. always decreases D. always increases 47. The vertical change in position of an object that is dropped and that of an identical object that is thrown horizontally from the same height ____. A. is less for the thrown object B. is the same C. depends upon the initial velocities of the objects D. is greater for the thrown object 48. Suppose an object is dropped from a moving train. The time it takes to fall ____. A. depends upon the shape of the trajectory B. depends upon the speed of the train C. is independent of the observer's position D. will vary depending upon the observer's position relative to the train 49. A ball on a level table rolls off the table at 15 m/s. If the ball hits the floor in 0.5 s, how high is the table? A. 1.2 m B. 2.5 m C. 4.1 m D. 7.5 m 50. If the launching and landing heights are equal, which quantity of a projectile changes? A. horizontal component of the velocity B. vertical component of the velocity C. speed D. acceleration 51. An arrow is aimed horizontally at a bulls-eye 15 m away. If the initial velocity of the arrow is 128 km/hr, how far below the bulls-eye will the arrow strike? A. 2.1 cm B. 12 C. 42 cm D. 87 cm 52. A baseball and a bowling ball are both rolled off a level table at the same time. Neglecting air resistance, which will hit the ground first? A. they hit the ground at the same time B. the bowling ball C. whichever has the greater initial velocity D. the baseball 53. A projectile is fired with an initial speed of 75 m/s. What is the maximum range of the projectile? A. 75 m B. 245 m C. 574 m D. 1500 m 54. A boy throws a ball straight up with a speed of 17 m/s. How high does it rise? A. 14.7 m B. 1.23 m C. 25.7 m D. 18.1 m 55. A stone is thrown horizontally 1.50 m from the ground with an initial velocity of 8.20 m/s. What is its speed just before it strikes the ground? A. 5.42 m/s B. 9.83 m/s C. 13.6 m/s D. 8.20 m/s 56. The time rate of change in distance is the instantaneous __________ , while the time rate of change in displacement is the instantaneous ____________________. ________________________________________ 57. A body moves with uniformly accelerated motion according to the equation x = 5t + 30t2, where x is in m and t is in seconds. The initial velocity is ___________ m/s. ________________________________________ 58. At least ____________________ of the following parameters must be known to find the other two: v f , v o, a, t, and s. ________________________________________ 59. A body moves with uniformly accelerated motion according to the equation x = 5t + 30t2, where x is in m and t is in seconds. The acceleration of the body is ___________ m/s2. ________________________________________ 60. In the absence of friction, all objects fall to the earth with the same ____________________, independent of size or weight. ________________________________________ 61. If the instantaneous velocity of an object is the same as the average velocity over a finite time interval, the _________ is zero. ________________________________________ 62. A car goes three complete times around its circle. The average velocity is ______________. ________________________________________ 63. If the upward direction is chosen as positive, a negative distance s indicates that the final position is ______ _____ ________ ___ ________. ________________________________________ 64. The distances traveled by an object dropped from rest after 1, 2, and 3 s are ____________________ ft, ____________________ ft, and ____________________ ft, respectively. ________________________________________ 65. The velocity of a ball dropped from rest is ____m/s, 4 s after its release. ________________________________________ 66. A projectile is an object launched into space under the influence of ____________________ only. ________________________________________ 67. In working with trajectories, it is easier to treat the ____________________ and the ____________________ motions separately. ________________________________________ 68. The vertical component of the ____________ of a projectile as a function of time is calculated from v y = v oy + gt. ________________________________________ 69. The range of a projectile is its maximum ______________ displacement. ________________________________________ 70. If t F is the time of flight, the range of a projectile of initial speed v o and initial angle a can be calculated from v o ___ (a) t F. ________________________________________ 71. Projectiles fired upward, downward, or at an angle all have the same ____________________. ________________________________________ 72. The only force acting on a projectile is its ____________________. ________________________________________ 73. At the maximum height of a projectile, the velocity is always the ___________ component of the initial velocity. ________________________________________ 74. For projectile motion, the ____________________ component of the _____________________ is constant. ________________________________________ 75. The _____________ position of a projectile fired horizontally can be calculated from y = 1/2 gt2 ________________________________________ ch6 Key 1. An object in motion can have a constant velocity only if it moves in a straight path. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #1 2. An object falling freely from rest near the surface of the earth falls a distance of 64 ft by the end of two seconds. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #2 3. Two objects with the same speed have the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #3 4. If the acceleration vector acting on a body is opposite the velocity vector, the body will slow down. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #4 5. An object thrown downward in a gravitational field has the same acceleration as one dropped from rest. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #5 6. If an object has an acceleration of 10 m/s2, its velocity will increase by 10 m/s every second. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #6 7. For a ball thrown vertically upward, its upward motion with respect to position and velocity is just the reverse of its downward motion. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #7 8. At its maximum height, the acceleration of a projectile is zero. FALSE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #8 9. In the absence of friction, all bodies, large or small, heavy or light, fall to the earth with the same acceleration. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #9 10. The equation v f = v o + at can only be used when the acceleration vector is constant. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #10 11. In uniform acceleration problems, the initial and final velocities are equal. FALSE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #11 12. The resultant force acting on a projectile is its weight. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #12 13. A projectile fired horizontally will strike the ground in the same time as one dropped vertically from the same position if we neglect the effects of air resistance. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #13 14. A projectile launched into space at any angle will have a constant horizontal velocity. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #14 15. The horizontal range is greatest when the angle of projection is 45°. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #15 16. The vertical motion of a projectile is uniformly accelerated motion. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #16 17. The range of a projectile depends only on its initial speed. FALSE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #17 18. Two projectiles are launched from the same point with the same speed, one fired at a 20º angle, the other at a 70º angle. The range for both projectiles is the same. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #18 19. A projectile is launched from a level surface on earth. The time for a projectile to reach its maximum height is equal to the time to go from its maximum height and return to earth. TRUE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #19 20. The path of a projectile is a semicircle. FALSE Tippens - 006 Chapter... #20 21. A runner finishes a 100 m race in 9.8 s. The average speed of the runner was _______. A. 9.8 m/s B. 10.2 m/s C. 32 m/s D. 98m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #21 22. If the initial velocity, the distance traveled, and the time elapsed are known, which equation would you use to calculate the acceleration? A. s = vt B. s = v o t + 1/2at2 C. v f = v o + at D. 2as = v f - v o Tippens - 006 Chapter... #22 23. The algebraic sign of acceleration depends on ____. A. the direction on the force on the accelerated object B. whether an object is speeding up or slowing down C. the sign of the final velocity D. the position of the object Tippens - 006 Chapter... #23 24. A car accelerates from rest at 5 ft/s2. How far will it travel in 4 s? A. 9.5 ft B. 19.6 ft C. 40 ft D. 80 ft Tippens - 006 Chapter... #24 25. An object is thrown downward with an initial velocity of 15 m/s. How far does it travel in 3 s? A. 0.90 m B. 100 m C. 189 m D. 89 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #25 26. An object traveling initially at 20 ft/s has a velocity of 60 ft/s in 4 s. Its acceleration is ______. A. 10 ft/s2 B. -10 ft/s2 C. 32 ft/s2 D. -32 ft/s2 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #26 27. An object falls freely with an initial velocity of 3.00 m/s. What is its velocity 4.00 s after its release? A. -36.2 m/s B. 42.2 m/s C. 131 m/s D. 155 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #27 28. A car accelerates for 10 s at 6 m/s2. What was its initial velocity if its final velocity is 64 m/s? A. 1 m/s B. 4 m/s C. 6 m/s D. -1 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #28 29. An object is projected upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. What will be its position above the point of release after 6 s? A. 48 m B. 16 m C. 32 m D. 64 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #29 30. An arrow is shot vertically upward with an initial velocity of 30 m/s. What maximum height will it attain? A. 7 m B. 15 m C. 46 m D. 90 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #30 31. A projectile is fired horizontally with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. Its horizontal velocity 3 s later is ____. A. 20 m/s B. 60 m/s C. 6.67 m/s D. 29.4 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #31 32. A projectile is fired at an angle of 60o with an initial speed of 60 m/s. The speed of the projectile at the top of its motion is ______. A. 9.8 m/s B. 30 m/s C. 48 m/s D. 60 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #32 33. A plane flying horizontally at 700 ft/s releases a bomb from an altitude of 800 ft. It will strike the ground in approximately ______. A. 2 s B. 7 s C. 12 s D. 50 s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #33 34. A projectile is fired at an angle of 37º with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. What is the approximate vertical component of its velocity after 2 s? A. 60 m/s B. 40 m/s C. 80 m/s D. 100 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #34 35. Which of the following projection angles will result in the greatest range? A. 20º B. 37º C. 48º D. 60º Tippens - 006 Chapter... #35 36. A car traveling at 60.00 km/hr brakes to a stop in 7.00 s. The acceleration of the car is _______. A. +1.00 m/s2 B. -2.38 m/s2 C. +3.00 m/s2 D. -8.57 m/s2 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #36 37. If the average velocity of an object is the same for all time intervals, then the object moves at a(n) ____. A. constant velocity B. relative speed C. increasing acceleration D. changing speed Tippens - 006 Chapter... #37 38. On a position vs. time graph, the velocity equals ____. A. the run divided by the rise B. the x-intercept C. the y-intercept D. the rise divided by the run Tippens - 006 Chapter... #38 39. For an accelerating object, the slope on a position vs. time graph ____. A. is zero B. is the change in time divided by the change in position C. changes with time D. is constant Tippens - 006 Chapter... #39 40. The displacement of an object moving with a constant acceleration can be calculated by ____. A. multiplying the sum of the initial and final velocities by the time interval and dividing by 2 B. dividing the sum of the initial and final velocities by the time interval and multiplying by 2 C. multiplying the acceleration by the time interval squared and then dividing by 1/2 D. dividing the acceleration by the time interval squared and then multiplying by 1/2 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #40 41. Ignoring air resistance, if a 10 kg ball and a 200 lb crate were both dropped from the top of a building, the acceleration of the crate would be ____ the acceleration of the ball. A. less than B. equal to C. greater than Tippens - 006 Chapter... #41 42. The acceleration due to gravity of a free-falling object ____. A. points up or down depending on the velocity vector B. always points up C. depends on its mass D. always points down Tippens - 006 Chapter... #42 43. A toy rocket is launched straight up into the air. When the rocket reaches its maximum height, its velocity is ____. A. equal to its displacement divided by time B. zero C. equal to its displacement multiplied by time D. at its maximum Tippens - 006 Chapter... #43 44. A toy rocket is launched straight up into the air from the ground. The total displacement upon landing is ____. A. equal to the distance it traveled up multiplied by two B. equal to the distance it traveled up C. equal to the difference between the final and initial velocities divided by the acceleration due to gravity D. zero Tippens - 006 Chapter... #44 45. A bullet is fired straight up. At its maximum height, its acceleration is (neglecting air resistance) ____. A. zero B. 9.8 m/s2 and pointing up C. 9.8 m/s2 and pointing down D. changing direction Tippens - 006 Chapter... #45 46. For an object traveling as a projectile, the vertical component of the velocity ____as the position changes. A. decreases, changes direction, then increases B. is constant. C. always decreases D. always increases Tippens - 006 Chapter... #46 47. The vertical change in position of an object that is dropped and that of an identical object that is thrown horizontally from the same height ____. A. is less for the thrown object B. is the same C. depends upon the initial velocities of the objects D. is greater for the thrown object Tippens - 006 Chapter... #47 48. Suppose an object is dropped from a moving train. The time it takes to fall ____. A. depends upon the shape of the trajectory B. depends upon the speed of the train C. is independent of the observer's position D. will vary depending upon the observer's position relative to the train Tippens - 006 Chapter... #48 49. A ball on a level table rolls off the table at 15 m/s. If the ball hits the floor in 0.5 s, how high is the table? A. 1.2 m B. 2.5 m C. 4.1 m D. 7.5 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #49 50. If the launching and landing heights are equal, which quantity of a projectile changes? A. horizontal component of the velocity B. vertical component of the velocity C. speed D. acceleration Tippens - 006 Chapter... #50 51. An arrow is aimed horizontally at a bulls-eye 15 m away. If the initial velocity of the arrow is 128 km/hr, how far below the bulls-eye will the arrow strike? A. 2.1 cm B. 12 C. 42 cm D. 87 cm Tippens - 006 Chapter... #51 52. A baseball and a bowling ball are both rolled off a level table at the same time. Neglecting air resistance, which will hit the ground first? A. they hit the ground at the same time B. the bowling ball C. whichever has the greater initial velocity D. the baseball Tippens - 006 Chapter... #52 53. A projectile is fired with an initial speed of 75 m/s. What is the maximum range of the projectile? A. 75 m B. 245 m C. 574 m D. 1500 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #53 54. A boy throws a ball straight up with a speed of 17 m/s. How high does it rise? A. 14.7 m B. 1.23 m C. 25.7 m D. 18.1 m Tippens - 006 Chapter... #54 55. A stone is thrown horizontally 1.50 m from the ground with an initial velocity of 8.20 m/s. What is its speed just before it strikes the ground? A. 5.42 m/s B. 9.83 m/s C. 13.6 m/s D. 8.20 m/s Tippens - 006 Chapter... #55 56. The time rate of change in distance is the instantaneous __________ , while the time rate of change in displacement is the instantaneous ____________________. speed, velocity Tippens - 006 Chapter... #56 57. A body moves with uniformly accelerated motion according to the equation x = 5t + 30t2, where x is in m and t is in seconds. The initial velocity is ___________ m/s. 5 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #57 58. At least ____________________ of the following parameters must be known to find the other two: v f , v o, a, t, and s. three Tippens - 006 Chapter... #58 59. A body moves with uniformly accelerated motion according to the equation x = 5t + 30t2, where x is in m and t is in seconds. The acceleration of the body is ___________ m/s2. 60 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #59 60. In the absence of friction, all objects fall to the earth with the same ____________________, independent of size or weight. acceleration Tippens - 006 Chapter... #60 61. If the instantaneous velocity of an object is the same as the average velocity over a finite time interval, the _________ is zero. acceleration Tippens - 006 Chapter... #61 62. A car goes three complete times around its circle. The average velocity is ______________. zero Tippens - 006 Chapter... #62 63. If the upward direction is chosen as positive, a negative distance s indicates that the final position is ______ _____ ________ ___ ________. below the point of release Tippens - 006 Chapter... #63 64. The distances traveled by an object dropped from rest after 1, 2, and 3 s are ____________________ ft, ____________________ ft, and ____________________ ft, respectively. 16, 64, 144 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #64 65. The velocity of a ball dropped from rest is ____m/s, 4 s after its release. 39.2 Tippens - 006 Chapter... #65 66. A projectile is an object launched into space under the influence of ____________________ only. gravity Tippens - 006 Chapter... #66 67. In working with trajectories, it is easier to treat the ____________________ and the ____________________ motions separately. horizontal, vertical Tippens - 006 Chapter... #67 68. The vertical component of the ____________ of a projectile as a function of time is calculated from v y = v oy + gt. velocity Tippens - 006 Chapter... #68 69. The range of a projectile is its maximum ______________ displacement. horizontal Tippens - 006 Chapter... #69 70. If t F is the time of flight, the range of a projectile of initial speed v o and initial angle a can be calculated from v o ___ (a) t F. cos Tippens - 006 Chapter... #70 71. Projectiles fired upward, downward, or at an angle all have the same ____________________. acceleration Tippens - 006 Chapter... #71 72. The only force acting on a projectile is its ____________________. weight Tippens - 006 Chapter... #72 73. At the maximum height of a projectile, the velocity is always the ___________ component of the initial velocity. horizontal Tippens - 006 Chapter... #73 74. For projectile motion, the ____________________ component of the _____________________ is constant. horizontal, velocity Tippens - 006 Chapter... #74 75. The _____________ position of a projectile fired horizontally can be calculated from y = 1/2 gt2 vertical Tippens - 006 Chapter... #75 ch6 Summary Category Tippens - 006 Chapter... # of Questions 75 ch7 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The kilogram is the metric unit of weight. True False 2. The mass of an object on the moon is the same as its mass on earth. True False 3. The mass of an object is a vector quantity that points to the center of the earth. True False 4. If the net force on an object is tripled, its acceleration will triple. True False 5. The mass of a body is dependent on the acceleration due to gravity. True False 6. If the acceleration of an object is zero, there are no forces acting on the object. True False 7. The weight of the object is zero when the object is in freefall. True False 8. If the resultant force is zero in the x-direction, the motion of the object is only in the y-direction. True False 9. The weight of a body whose mass is 1 slug is equal to approximately 32 lb. True False 10. The weight of a 9.8-kg body is 1 N. True False 11. The mass of an 80-lb sled is ____. A. 5 slugs B. 2.5 slugs C. 2.5 kg D. 256 slugs 12. An astronaut weighs 185 lb on earth. What is her weight on the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is 5.28 ft/s2? A. 185 lb B. 1813 lb C. 30.5 lb D. 36.0 lb 13. When a 1-N force acts on a 1-kg body, the body receives ____. A. an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2 B. a speed of 1 m/s C. an acceleration of 980 m/s2 D. an acceleration of 1 m/s2 14. A force of 20 N gives an object an acceleration of 5 m/s2. What force will give the same object an acceleration of 16 m/s2? A. 64 N B. 32 N C. 4 N D. 256 N 15. In Figure 7.1, the mass m required to give the system an acceleration of 6 m/s2 is approximately ____. A. 31.0 kg B. 31.6 kg C. 32.6 kg D. 41.9 kg 16. The gravitational force exerted by a large body, such as Earth, is ____. A. acceleration B. inertial mass C. weight D. mass 17. Mass and weight are related by ____. A. friction B. acceleration of gravity C. newtons D. pounds 18. As the angle of an inclined plane increases, the acceleration of an object on the plane approaches ____. A. zero B. 9.80 m/s2 C. the mass of the object D. the weight of the object 19. As the angle of an inclined plane increases, the normal force between the plane and an object on the plane approaches ____. A. the weight of the object B. 9.80 m/s2 C. zero D. the mass of the object 20. An airplane of weight 18 tons is traveling with a constant horizontal acceleration of 8.0 ft/s2. If the frictional force due to air drag is 13,000 lb, the engine thrust is ____. A. 31,000 lb B. 13,000 lb C. 12,000 lb D. 22,000 lb 21. A 5.0 kg crate slides down a 60.0 incline with an acceleration of 1.9 m/s2. What is the frictional force between the crate and the incline surface? A. 15 N B. 49 N C. 52 N D. 33 N 22. An upward force of 180 N is applied to a 15 kg object. If a downward drag force of 30 N acts on the object, what is the acceleration of the object? A. 10 m/s2, up B. 10 m/s2, down C. 0.2 m/s2, up D. 0.2 m/s2, down 23. The weight of a person of mass 6 slugs is _______. A. 60 lb B. 150 lb C. 192 lb D. 225 lb 24. A 50 N force gives an object an acceleration of 2.5 m/s2. If the force is suddenly reduced to 20 N, what is the new acceleration? A. 1.0 m/s2 B. 6.3 m/s2 C. 2.5 m/s2 D. 0.3 m/s2 25. A train with mass 4.5 × 105 kg in moving with speed 120 km/hr. What magnitude net force is required to bring the train to rest in 1 min? A. 1.5 × 107 N B. 2.5 × 105 N C. 4.4 × 106 N D. 5.4 × 107 N 26. A 50 g ball is falling with an acceleration of 7.8 m/s2. What is the frictional drag force opposing the motion of the ball? A. 0.49 N B. 0.88 N C. 4.9 N D. 0.10 N 27. Mass 1 (5.20 kg) and mass 2 (3.80 kg) are connected by a cord and hung over a single pulley of negligible weight. What is the acceleration of the system? A. 1.53 m/s2 B. 1.09 m/s2 C. 5.20 m/s2 D. 9.80 m/s2 28. Mass 1 (5.20 kg) and mass 2 (3.80 kg) are connected by a cord and hung over a single pulley of negligible weight. What is the tension in the cord? A. 14 N B. 27 N C. 43 N D. 59 N 29. A15 kg object is raised by a rope and moves with a constant acceleration of 2.0 m/s2. What is the tension in the rope? A. 147 N B. 480 N C. 177 N D. 117 N 30. The net horizontal force on a 1800 kg car is 1100 N. If the car starts from rest, what is its velocity after 3.0 s? A. 0.61 m/s B. 1.8 m/s C. 12 m/s D. 4.9 m/s 31. The acceleration an object receives is directly proportional to the __________ __________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________. ________________________________________ 32. Newton's ____ law states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the net force on and inversely proportional to its mass. ________________________________________ 33. In the USCS, the mass unit, called a ____________________, is derived from the chosen unit of ____________________ for force. ________________________________________ 34. In the SI system, the mass unit is the ____________________, and the derived unit is the ____________________. ________________________________________ 35. The acceleration of gravity on the moon is approximately 1/6 that on the earth. A 360 lb weight on the earth will weigh _______ on the moon. ________________________________________ 36. An object of mass m is acted on by a force F which results in an acceleration a. If the mass is doubled and the force is tripled, the new acceleration is ___ times the old acceleration. ________________________________________ 37. In the metric system, objects are usually described by giving their ____________________. In the USCS, objects are described by giving their ____________________. ________________________________________ 38. A block of weight w is at rest on an incline of angle θ. The component of the weight parallel to the incline surface is ________θ. ________________________________________ 39. A block of weight w is at rest on an incline of angle θ. The normal force exerted by the surface on the weight is ________θ. ________________________________________ 40. If the unit of mass is the kilogram, the unit of force will be the ____________________ and the unit for acceleration will be m/s2. ________________________________________ ch7 Key 1. The kilogram is the metric unit of weight. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #1 2. The mass of an object on the moon is the same as its mass on earth. TRUE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #2 3. The mass of an object is a vector quantity that points to the center of the earth. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #3 4. If the net force on an object is tripled, its acceleration will triple. TRUE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #4 5. The mass of a body is dependent on the acceleration due to gravity. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #5 6. If the acceleration of an object is zero, there are no forces acting on the object. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #6 7. The weight of the object is zero when the object is in freefall. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #7 8. If the resultant force is zero in the x-direction, the motion of the object is only in the y-direction. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #8 9. The weight of a body whose mass is 1 slug is equal to approximately 32 lb. TRUE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #9 10. The weight of a 9.8-kg body is 1 N. FALSE Tippens - 007 Chapter... #10 11. The mass of an 80-lb sled is ____. A. 5 slugs B. 2.5 slugs C. 2.5 kg D. 256 slugs Tippens - 007 Chapter... #11 12. An astronaut weighs 185 lb on earth. What is her weight on the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is 5.28 ft/s2? A. 185 lb B. 1813 lb C. 30.5 lb D. 36.0 lb Tippens - 007 Chapter... #12 13. When a 1-N force acts on a 1-kg body, the body receives ____. A. an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2 B. a speed of 1 m/s C. an acceleration of 980 m/s2 D. an acceleration of 1 m/s2 Tippens - 007 Chapter... #13 14. A force of 20 N gives an object an acceleration of 5 m/s2. What force will give the same object an acceleration of 16 m/s2? A. 64 N B. 32 N C. 4 N D. 256 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #14 15. In Figure 7.1, the mass m required to give the system an acceleration of 6 m/s2 is approximately ____. A. 31.0 kg B. 31.6 kg C. 32.6 kg D. 41.9 kg Tippens - 007 Chapter... #15 16. The gravitational force exerted by a large body, such as Earth, is ____. A. acceleration B. inertial mass C. weight D. mass Tippens - 007 Chapter... #16 17. Mass and weight are related by ____. A. friction B. acceleration of gravity C. newtons D. pounds Tippens - 007 Chapter... #17 18. As the angle of an inclined plane increases, the acceleration of an object on the plane approaches ____. A. zero B. 9.80 m/s2 C. the mass of the object D. the weight of the object Tippens - 007 Chapter... #18 19. As the angle of an inclined plane increases, the normal force between the plane and an object on the plane approaches ____. A. the weight of the object B. 9.80 m/s2 C. zero D. the mass of the object Tippens - 007 Chapter... #19 20. An airplane of weight 18 tons is traveling with a constant horizontal acceleration of 8.0 ft/s2. If the frictional force due to air drag is 13,000 lb, the engine thrust is ____. A. 31,000 lb B. 13,000 lb C. 12,000 lb D. 22,000 lb Tippens - 007 Chapter... #20 21. A 5.0 kg crate slides down a 60.0 incline with an acceleration of 1.9 m/s2. What is the frictional force between the crate and the incline surface? A. 15 N B. 49 N C. 52 N D. 33 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #21 22. An upward force of 180 N is applied to a 15 kg object. If a downward drag force of 30 N acts on the object, what is the acceleration of the object? A. 10 m/s2, up B. 10 m/s2, down C. 0.2 m/s2, up D. 0.2 m/s2, down Tippens - 007 Chapter... #22 23. The weight of a person of mass 6 slugs is _______. A. 60 lb B. 150 lb C. 192 lb D. 225 lb Tippens - 007 Chapter... #23 24. A 50 N force gives an object an acceleration of 2.5 m/s2. If the force is suddenly reduced to 20 N, what is the new acceleration? A. 1.0 m/s2 B. 6.3 m/s2 C. 2.5 m/s2 D. 0.3 m/s2 Tippens - 007 Chapter... #24 25. A train with mass 4.5 × 105 kg in moving with speed 120 km/hr. What magnitude net force is required to bring the train to rest in 1 min? A. 1.5 × 107 N B. 2.5 × 105 N C. 4.4 × 106 N D. 5.4 × 107 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #25 26. A 50 g ball is falling with an acceleration of 7.8 m/s2. What is the frictional drag force opposing the motion of the ball? A. 0.49 N B. 0.88 N C. 4.9 N D. 0.10 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #26 27. Mass 1 (5.20 kg) and mass 2 (3.80 kg) are connected by a cord and hung over a single pulley of negligible weight. What is the acceleration of the system? A. 1.53 m/s2 B. 1.09 m/s2 C. 5.20 m/s2 D. 9.80 m/s2 Tippens - 007 Chapter... #27 28. Mass 1 (5.20 kg) and mass 2 (3.80 kg) are connected by a cord and hung over a single pulley of negligible weight. What is the tension in the cord? A. 14 N B. 27 N C. 43 N D. 59 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #28 29. A15 kg object is raised by a rope and moves with a constant acceleration of 2.0 m/s2. What is the tension in the rope? A. 147 N B. 480 N C. 177 N D. 117 N Tippens - 007 Chapter... #29 30. The net horizontal force on a 1800 kg car is 1100 N. If the car starts from rest, what is its velocity after 3.0 s? A. 0.61 m/s B. 1.8 m/s C. 12 m/s D. 4.9 m/s Tippens - 007 Chapter... #30 31. The acceleration an object receives is directly proportional to the __________ __________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________. resultant force, mass Tippens - 007 Chapter... #31 32. Newton's ____ law states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the net force on and inversely proportional to its mass. second Tippens - 007 Chapter... #32 33. In the USCS, the mass unit, called a ____________________, is derived from the chosen unit of ____________________ for force. slug, pounds Tippens - 007 Chapter... #33 34. In the SI system, the mass unit is the ____________________, and the derived unit is the ____________________. kilogram, Newton Tippens - 007 Chapter... #34 35. The acceleration of gravity on the moon is approximately 1/6 that on the earth. A 360 lb weight on the earth will weigh _______ on the moon. 60 lb Tippens - 007 Chapter... #35 36. An object of mass m is acted on by a force F which results in an acceleration a. If the mass is doubled and the force is tripled, the new acceleration is ___ times the old acceleration. 3/2 Tippens - 007 Chapter... #36 37. In the metric system, objects are usually described by giving their ____________________. In the USCS, objects are described by giving their ____________________. mass, weight Tippens - 007 Chapter... #37 38. A block of weight w is at rest on an incline of angle θ. The component of the weight parallel to the incline surface is ________θ. wsin Tippens - 007 Chapter... #38 39. A block of weight w is at rest on an incline of angle θ. The normal force exerted by the surface on the weight is ________θ. wcos Tippens - 007 Chapter... #39 40. If the unit of mass is the kilogram, the unit of force will be the ____________________ and the unit for acceleration will be m/s2. Newton Tippens - 007 Chapter... #40 ch7 Summary Category Tippens - 007 Chapter... # of Questions 40 ch8 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. In the absence of friction, air resistance, or other dissipative forces, the total kinetic energy remains constant. True False 2. If a force does work on a body, the work is negative. True False 3. The work done by a force directed perpendicular to the displacement is zero. True False 4. If a system conserves mechanical energy, the resultant work done on the system is the initial potential energy minus the final initial energy. True False 5. As a body falls, its potential energy increases with its speed. True False 6. A 1-hp engine will do work at a faster rate than a 1-kW engine. True False 7. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of energy. True False 8. As an object falls freely from the top of a building, its total energy remains constant. True False 9. If the resultant force on a body is zero, and no resistive forces act on the body, the speed of the object is constant. True False 10. Two similar objects are taken to the top of a building. Object A is taken by elevator and object B is carried up the steps. The potential energy gained by B is greater than the potential energy gained by A. True False 11. For freefall motion, which of the following is constant? A. mgh B. Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.1/2mv2 + mgh C. 1/2mv2 D. 1/2mv2 - mgh 12. Which of the following is not a unit of work or energy? A. Newton-meter B. joule C. foot-pound per second D. kilowatt-hour 13. A baseball is thrown straight up with an initial speed of 25 m/s. How far will it rise if air resistance is neglected? A. 12 m B. 32 m C. 1.3 m D. unknown since the mass of the baseball is not known 14. A stone is dropped from the top of a building 140 m. What is its speed when it is 20 m above the ground? A. 14 m/s B. 48.5 m/s C. 52.4 m/s D. 230 m/s 15. A puck slides down an icy incline of height 4.00 m and slope distance 5.00 m. If the puck started from rest at the top, what is it speed at the bottom? A. 8.85 m/s B. 9.90 m/s C. 78.4 m/s D. 98 m/s 16. A 1-hp motor will lift a 200-lb block to what height in 2 s? A. 0.01 ft B. 0.727 ft C. 100 ft D. 5.5 ft 17. A 5 kg cart rolls on a track as shown in Figure 8.1. The track is frictionless from A to B. If the cart starts from rest at point A, what is the speed of the cart at point B. A. 290 m/s B. 150 m/s C. 31 m/s D. 17 m/s 18. A 5 kg cart rolls on a track as shown in Figure 8.1. The track is frictionless from A to B but not from B to C. If the cart starts from rest at point A, and comes to rest at point C, what energy was lost to friction? A. 392 J B. 343 J C. 123 J D. 0 19. A bullet whose initial kinetic energy is 400 J strikes a block where an 8000-N resistive force brings it to a stop. The depth of penetration into the wood is approximately ____. A. unknown for lack of information B. 0.2 m C. 0.5 m D. 0.05 m 20. When a force is exerted on an object, work is done only if the object ____. A. is heavy B. is displaced and the force is perpendicular to the displacement C. is displaced and a component of a force is parallel to the displacement D. remains stationary 21. In which of the following situations is no work done on a football? A. picking up the football B. dropping the football C. carrying the football down the field D. all of these answers 22. In which of the following situations is work done on the football by a person? A. dropping the football B. carrying the football down the field C. picking up the football D. all of these answers 23. In which of the following situations is work done on the football by gravity? A. carrying the football down the field B. picking up the football C. dropping the football D. all of these answers 24. What is the kinetic energy of a 900 kg car moving at 30 km/hr? A. 3.1 × 104 J B. 3.8 × 103 J C. 8.1 × 105 J D. 1.4 × 104 J 25. A person of mass 75 kg runs to the top of a building 45 m high in 2 min. What is the average power expended? A. 150 W B. 276 W C. 28 W D. 4.60 W 26. A 1100 kg car increases its speed from 40 km/hr to 60 km/hr in 5 sec. What is the resultant work done on the car? A. 1.54 kJ B. 3.06 kJ C. 7.72 kJ D. 84.9 kJ 27. Which of these is NOT required to find the kinetic energy of an object? A. its mass B. its shape C. None of these quantities is required to find the kinetic energy. D. its velocity 28. An object has a mass of 1 kg and is originally traveling at 1 m/s. If a 1 N force acts on the object for 1 s, what is the change in kinetic energy? A. 0 J B. 1.0 J C. 1.5 J D. 2.0 J 29. The total amount of energy in an isolated, closed system ____. A. cannot be measured accurately B. is constantly decreasing C. remains constant D. is constantly increasing 30. What work is required to bring a 0.15 kg baseball that is moving at 120 km/hr to rest. A. 83.4 J B. 18.0 J C. 2.50 J D. 1.00 J 31. A change in the kinetic energy of an object is equal to the ____. A. force exerted on the object B. change in its mass C. net work done on the object D. velocity of the object 32. The gravitational potential energy of an object close to Earth is directly related to ____. A. both the mass and the height of the object B. the velocity of the object C. the height of the object D. the mass of the object 33. The largest unit of power is the ____. A. kilowatt B. watt C. foot-pound per second D. horsepower 34. A 10-kg block is lifted 20 m above the ground in a gravitational field. The work done by the field is ____. A. negative B. positive C. equal to the final potential energy D. a vector quantity 35. How much work is done if you raise a 6.0 N weight 1.5 m above the ground? A. 4.0 J B. 7.5 J C. 9.0 J D. 0.0 J 36. An object has energy due to its motion. This is ____. A. potential energy B. kinetic energy C. chemical energy D. acceleration 37. The kinetic energy of a boulder weighing 50.0 N perched on the edge of a cliff 25.0 m high is ____. A. 25.0 J B. 750.0 J C. 2.0 J D. 0 J 38. Three examples of potential energy are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. A force will do negative work on an object if its direction is _______ the object's displacement. ________________________________________ 40. The total mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its ____________and _________ energies. This total is ____________________ in the absence of resistive or dissipative forces.. ________________________________________ 41. If the kinetic energy of an object increases, _______ has been done on the object. ________________________________________ 42. ____________________ is the rate at which work is done. ________________________________________ 43. The net work done by a number of forces acting on the same object is equal to the work of ____________________ force. ________________________________________ 44. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of ____________________. ________________________________________ 45. The SI unit for work and energy is the __________. ________________________________________ 46. A block slides down an incline with a 30º slope. The weight, friction, and normal forces act on the block. The ___________ force does no work on the block. ________________________________________ 47. The product of force and velocity is a measure of ____________________. ________________________________________ ch8 Key 1. In the absence of friction, air resistance, or other dissipative forces, the total kinetic energy remains constant. FALSE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #1 2. If a force does work on a body, the work is negative. FALSE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #2 3. The work done by a force directed perpendicular to the displacement is zero. TRUE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #3 4. If a system conserves mechanical energy, the resultant work done on the system is the initial potential energy minus the final initial energy. TRUE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #4 5. As a body falls, its potential energy increases with its speed. FALSE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #5 6. A 1-hp engine will do work at a faster rate than a 1-kW engine. FALSE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #6 7. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of energy. TRUE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #7 8. As an object falls freely from the top of a building, its total energy remains constant. TRUE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #8 9. If the resultant force on a body is zero, and no resistive forces act on the body, the speed of the object is constant. TRUE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #9 10. Two similar objects are taken to the top of a building. Object A is taken by elevator and object B is carried up the steps. The potential energy gained by B is greater than the potential energy gained by A. FALSE Tippens - 008 Chapter... #10 11. For freefall motion, which of the following is constant? A. mgh B. Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.1/2mv2 + mgh C. 1/2mv2 D. 1/2mv2 - mgh Tippens - 008 Chapter... #11 12. Which of the following is not a unit of work or energy? A. Newton-meter B. joule C. foot-pound per second D. kilowatt-hour Tippens - 008 Chapter... #12 13. A baseball is thrown straight up with an initial speed of 25 m/s. How far will it rise if air resistance is neglected? A. 12 m B. 32 m C. 1.3 m D. unknown since the mass of the baseball is not known Tippens - 008 Chapter... #13 14. A stone is dropped from the top of a building 140 m. What is its speed when it is 20 m above the ground? A. 14 m/s B. 48.5 m/s C. 52.4 m/s D. 230 m/s Tippens - 008 Chapter... #14 15. A puck slides down an icy incline of height 4.00 m and slope distance 5.00 m. If the puck started from rest at the top, what is it speed at the bottom? A. 8.85 m/s B. 9.90 m/s C. 78.4 m/s D. 98 m/s Tippens - 008 Chapter... #15 16. A 1-hp motor will lift a 200-lb block to what height in 2 s? A. 0.01 ft B. 0.727 ft C. 100 ft D. 5.5 ft Tippens - 008 Chapter... #16 Tippens - 008 Chapter... 17. A 5 kg cart rolls on a track as shown in Figure 8.1. The track is frictionless from A to B. If the cart starts from rest at point A, what is the speed of the cart at point B. A. 290 m/s B. 150 m/s C. 31 m/s D. 17 m/s Tippens - 008 Chapter... #17 18. A 5 kg cart rolls on a track as shown in Figure 8.1. The track is frictionless from A to B but not from B to C. If the cart starts from rest at point A, and comes to rest at point C, what energy was lost to friction? A. 392 J B. 343 J C. 123 J D. 0 Tippens - 008 Chapter... #18 19. A bullet whose initial kinetic energy is 400 J strikes a block where an 8000-N resistive force brings it to a stop. The depth of penetration into the wood is approximately ____. A. unknown for lack of information B. 0.2 m C. 0.5 m D. 0.05 m Tippens - 008 Chapter... #19 20. When a force is exerted on an object, work is done only if the object ____. A. is heavy B. is displaced and the force is perpendicular to the displacement C. is displaced and a component of a force is parallel to the displacement D. remains stationary Tippens - 008 Chapter... #20 21. In which of the following situations is no work done on a football? A. picking up the football B. dropping the football C. carrying the football down the field D. all of these answers Tippens - 008 Chapter... #21 22. In which of the following situations is work done on the football by a person? A. dropping the football B. carrying the football down the field C. picking up the football D. all of these answers Tippens - 008 Chapter... #22 23. In which of the following situations is work done on the football by gravity? A. carrying the football down the field B. picking up the football C. dropping the football D. all of these answers Tippens - 008 Chapter... #23 24. What is the kinetic energy of a 900 kg car moving at 30 km/hr? A. 3.1 × 104 J B. 3.8 × 103 J C. 8.1 × 105 J D. 1.4 × 104 J Tippens - 008 Chapter... #24 25. A person of mass 75 kg runs to the top of a building 45 m high in 2 min. What is the average power expended? A. 150 W B. 276 W C. 28 W D. 4.60 W Tippens - 008 Chapter... #25 26. A 1100 kg car increases its speed from 40 km/hr to 60 km/hr in 5 sec. What is the resultant work done on the car? A. 1.54 kJ B. 3.06 kJ C. 7.72 kJ D. 84.9 kJ Tippens - 008 Chapter... #26 27. Which of these is NOT required to find the kinetic energy of an object? A. its mass B. its shape C. None of these quantities is required to find the kinetic energy. D. its velocity Tippens - 008 Chapter... #27 28. An object has a mass of 1 kg and is originally traveling at 1 m/s. If a 1 N force acts on the object for 1 s, what is the change in kinetic energy? A. 0 J B. 1.0 J C. 1.5 J D. 2.0 J Tippens - 008 Chapter... #28 29. The total amount of energy in an isolated, closed system ____. A. cannot be measured accurately B. is constantly decreasing C. remains constant D. is constantly increasing Tippens - 008 Chapter... #29 30. What work is required to bring a 0.15 kg baseball that is moving at 120 km/hr to rest. A. 83.4 J B. 18.0 J C. 2.50 J D. 1.00 J Tippens - 008 Chapter... #30 31. A change in the kinetic energy of an object is equal to the ____. A. force exerted on the object B. change in its mass C. net work done on the object D. velocity of the object Tippens - 008 Chapter... #31 32. The gravitational potential energy of an object close to Earth is directly related to ____. A. both the mass and the height of the object B. the velocity of the object C. the height of the object D. the mass of the object Tippens - 008 Chapter... #32 33. The largest unit of power is the ____. A. kilowatt B. watt C. foot-pound per second D. horsepower Tippens - 008 Chapter... #33 34. A 10-kg block is lifted 20 m above the ground in a gravitational field. The work done by the field is ____. A. negative B. positive C. equal to the final potential energy D. a vector quantity Tippens - 008 Chapter... #34 35. How much work is done if you raise a 6.0 N weight 1.5 m above the ground? A. 4.0 J B. 7.5 J C. 9.0 J D. 0.0 J Tippens - 008 Chapter... #35 36. An object has energy due to its motion. This is ____. A. potential energy B. kinetic energy C. chemical energy D. acceleration Tippens - 008 Chapter... #36 37. The kinetic energy of a boulder weighing 50.0 N perched on the edge of a cliff 25.0 m high is ____. A. 25.0 J B. 750.0 J C. 2.0 J D. 0 J Tippens - 008 Chapter... #37 38. Three examples of potential energy are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________. a compressed spring, an elevated mass, a cocked rifle Tippens - 008 Chapter... #38 39. A force will do negative work on an object if its direction is _______ the object's displacement. opposite Tippens - 008 Chapter... #39 40. The total mechanical energy of a body is the sum of its ____________and _________ energies. This total is ____________________ in the absence of resistive or dissipative forces.. kinetic, potential, constant Tippens - 008 Chapter... #40 41. If the kinetic energy of an object increases, _______ has been done on the object. work Tippens - 008 Chapter... #41 42. ____________________ is the rate at which work is done. Power Tippens - 008 Chapter... #42 43. The net work done by a number of forces acting on the same object is equal to the work of ____________________ force. resultant Tippens - 008 Chapter... #43 44. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of ____________________. energy Tippens - 008 Chapter... #44 45. The SI unit for work and energy is the __________. Joule Tippens - 008 Chapter... #45 46. A block slides down an incline with a 30º slope. The weight, friction, and normal forces act on the block. The ___________ force does no work on the block. normal Tippens - 008 Chapter... #46 47. The product of force and velocity is a measure of ____________________. power Tippens - 008 Chapter... #47 ch8 Summary Category Tippens - 008 Chapter... # of Questions 48 ch9 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. If the kinetic energy of a system decreases, momentum is never conserved. True False 2. The vigor with which a body restores itself to its original shape after deformation is a measure of its elasticity or restitution. True False 3. A coefficient of restitution equal to 0.5 is an indication that the collision is inelastic. True False 4. The units for impulse are equivalent to the units for momentum. True False 5. An object that has linear momentum also has kinetic energy. True False 6. In a perfectly elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is exactly 1. True False 7. An object bouncing against a floor with perfectly elastic collisions will continue to bounce at the same height. True False 8. When calculating the momentum of an object, only the mass and speed are required. True False 9. Momentum is conserved in all collisions. True False 10. If the resultant external force acting on a system remains constant, the momentum of the system is conserved. True False 11. Some kinetic energy is lost but momentum is conserved in partially inelastic collisions. True False 12. Which of the following is not a unit of impulse? A. Pound-second B. Newton-second C. Pound-hour D. Newton-meter 13. When the velocity of a body is doubled, ____. A. its kinetic energy is doubled B. its momentum is doubled C. its acceleration is doubled D. its potential energy is doubled 14. A 100-kg astronaut releases 1 g of gas from a special pistol at a speed of 50 m/s. As a result, he moves in the opposite direction at ____. A. 5 m/s B. 50 cm/s C. 0.5 cm/s D. 0.05 cm/s 15. The dimensions of impulse are A. Mass × Length/Time B. Mass × Length/Time2 C. Mass2 × Length/Time D. Mass × Length2/Time2 16. The face of a golf club exerts an average force of 4000 N while it is in contact with the golf ball. If the impulse is 80 N s, the time of contact is ____. A. 0.2 s B. 0.02 s C. 2 s D. 0.002 s 17. In a completely elastic collision, which of the following quantities need not be conserved? A. kinetic energy B. momentum C. mass D. potential energy 18. When a tennis racket hits a tennis ball, the tennis racket provides an impulse to the ball. Which of the following does not affect the impulse? A. the contact time between racket and ball B. the average force exerted on the ball by the racket C. the acceleration of the racket D. the potential energy of the racket 19. A 40-kg cart moving at 3 m/s makes a head-on collision with a 20-kg cart at rest, as illustrated in Fig. 9-1. If the collision is completely inelastic, the speed with which the carts leave the impact is approximately ____. A. 2 m/s B. 6 m/s C. 20 m/s D. 0.2 m/s 20. Refer to Figure 9-1. If this collision is completely elastic, the speed of the 20-kg cart after collision will be approximately ____. A. 6 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 2 m/s 21. A 10-g bullet is fired up into a 2-kg block of wood suspended from a cord. If the block and bullet rise to a height of 10 cm after impact, the initial velocity of the bullet was approximately ____. A. 2.8 m/s B. 281 m/s C. 235 m/s D. 28.1 m/s 22. Skater A has a mass of 60 kg and skater B a mass of 70 kg. If the two push each other and skater A has a resulting velocity of -2.1 m/s, skater B will have a velocity of ________. A. 0.0 B. +1.8 m/s C. +2.0 m/s D. +2.5 m/s 23. What is the momentum of a 980 N running back moving at 3.5 m/s? A. 350 kg m/s B. 500 kg m/s C. 610 kg m/s D. 3400 kg m/s 24. A 100 kg running back is moving with a speed of 4.0 m/s. What average force must be applied to stop him in 0.25 s? A. 100 N B. 400 N C. 1200 N D. 1600 N 25. A ball is dropped from a height of 8.0 ft from a floor. If the ball rebounds to a height of 2.0 ft, the coefficient of restitution is ____. A. 4.0 B. 2.0 C. 0.25 D. 0.50 26. If an object with a velocity of 50 m/s has the same momentum as that of a 10 kg mass having a velocity of 20 m/s, the mass of the object is ____. A. 0.25 kg B. 16 kg C. 10 kg D. 4.0 kg 27. An object has kinetic energy K. What is the momentum of a body? A. K/m B. K2/2m C. D. mK 28. When a golfer hits a golf ball, the force exerted by the ball on the club is ____ that exerted by the club on the ball. A. greater than B. equal to C. The answer depends on the speed of the club. D. less than 29. If an object moving at a rate of 20 m/s collides with a stationary object and the two objects move away stuck together, the velocity of the combined objects will be ____. A. greater than 20 m/s B. 20 m/s C. less than 20 m/s 30. An internal force ____ the total momentum of a system. A. decreases B. does not change C. increases 31. Two moving objects collide and move apart on paths that are 120 m apart. The total momentum of the objects after the collision is ____ the total momentum before the collision. A. less than B. greater than C. equal to 32. If two bodies meet in a partially elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is ____. A. greater than 0 but less than 1 B. 1 C. 0 D. less than 0 33. A ball is dropped from a height of 5.67 m. If the ball rebounds with a speed of 4.22 m/s, what is the coefficient of restitution? A. 0.40 B. 0.56 C. 0.74 D. 1.23 34. A 3.2 kg ball moving with a velocity of 4.1 m/s eastward strikes head-on and sticks to a 1.8 kg ball of clay moving with a velocity 5.7 m/s westward. What is the final velocity of the combination? A. 0.57 m/s, eastward B. 0.57 m/s, westward C. 4.7 m/s, eastward D. 4.7 m/s, westward 35. A 2.0 kg object moving with velocity +3.0 m/s collides with a 3.0 kg object moving with velocity -2.0 m/s in a perfectly elastic collision. How much kinetic energy is lost in the collision? A. 0 J B. 6 J C. 12 J D. 15 J 36. An elastic collision is one in which both ____________________ and __________ __________ are conserved. ________________________________________ 37. A change in momentum equals _________. ________________________________________ 38. The negative ratio of the relative velocities after impact to the relative velocities before impact is known as the __________ __ _____________. ________________________________________ 39. The product of the average force acting on a body and the time of action is called ____________________, and it is equal to the _________ __ _________ of the body. ________________________________________ 40. The coefficient of restitution has a maximum value of ____________________ for a perfectly ____________________ impact and a minimum value of ____________________ for a perfectly ____________________ impact. ________________________________________ 41. If two colliding bodies stick together after impact and move off with the same velocity, the impact is said to be _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 42. The impulse on a freely falling body is provided by ________. ________________________________________ 43. If only ___________ forces act on a system, momentum is conserved. ________________________________________ 44. The square root of the ratio of the height to which a ball bounces to its original height is a measure of the ________ __ __________. ________________________________________ 45. The vigor with which an object restores itself to its original shape after deformation is a measure of its ____________________. ________________________________________ 46. A bomb resting on a tower explodes. The total momentum after the explosion is ________. ________________________________________ 47. If two particles undergo an inelastic collision, _______ _______ is lost. ________________________________________ ch9 Key 1. If the kinetic energy of a system decreases, momentum is never conserved. FALSE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #1 2. The vigor with which a body restores itself to its original shape after deformation is a measure of its elasticity or restitution. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #2 3. A coefficient of restitution equal to 0.5 is an indication that the collision is inelastic. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #3 4. The units for impulse are equivalent to the units for momentum. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #4 5. An object that has linear momentum also has kinetic energy. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #5 6. In a perfectly elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is exactly 1. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #6 7. An object bouncing against a floor with perfectly elastic collisions will continue to bounce at the same height. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #7 8. When calculating the momentum of an object, only the mass and speed are required. FALSE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #8 9. Momentum is conserved in all collisions. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #9 10. If the resultant external force acting on a system remains constant, the momentum of the system is conserved. FALSE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #10 11. Some kinetic energy is lost but momentum is conserved in partially inelastic collisions. TRUE Tippens - 009 Chapter... #11 12. Which of the following is not a unit of impulse? A. Pound-second B. Newton-second C. Pound-hour D. Newton-meter Tippens - 009 Chapter... #12 13. When the velocity of a body is doubled, ____. A. its kinetic energy is doubled B. its momentum is doubled C. its acceleration is doubled D. its potential energy is doubled Tippens - 009 Chapter... #13 14. A 100-kg astronaut releases 1 g of gas from a special pistol at a speed of 50 m/s. As a result, he moves in the opposite direction at ____. A. 5 m/s B. 50 cm/s C. 0.5 cm/s D. 0.05 cm/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #14 15. The dimensions of impulse are A. Mass × Length/Time B. Mass × Length/Time2 C. Mass2 × Length/Time D. Mass × Length2/Time2 Tippens - 009 Chapter... #15 16. The face of a golf club exerts an average force of 4000 N while it is in contact with the golf ball. If the impulse is 80 N s, the time of contact is ____. A. 0.2 s B. 0.02 s C. 2 s D. 0.002 s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #16 17. In a completely elastic collision, which of the following quantities need not be conserved? A. kinetic energy B. momentum C. mass D. potential energy Tippens - 009 Chapter... #17 18. When a tennis racket hits a tennis ball, the tennis racket provides an impulse to the ball. Which of the following does not affect the impulse? A. the contact time between racket and ball B. the average force exerted on the ball by the racket C. the acceleration of the racket D. the potential energy of the racket Tippens - 009 Chapter... #18 Tippens - 009 Chapter... 19. A 40-kg cart moving at 3 m/s makes a head-on collision with a 20-kg cart at rest, as illustrated in Fig. 9-1. If the collision is completely inelastic, the speed with which the carts leave the impact is approximately ____. A. 2 m/s B. 6 m/s C. 20 m/s D. 0.2 m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #19 20. Refer to Figure 9-1. If this collision is completely elastic, the speed of the 20-kg cart after collision will be approximately ____. A. 6 m/s B. 3 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 2 m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #20 21. A 10-g bullet is fired up into a 2-kg block of wood suspended from a cord. If the block and bullet rise to a height of 10 cm after impact, the initial velocity of the bullet was approximately ____. A. 2.8 m/s B. 281 m/s C. 235 m/s D. 28.1 m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #21 22. Skater A has a mass of 60 kg and skater B a mass of 70 kg. If the two push each other and skater A has a resulting velocity of -2.1 m/s, skater B will have a velocity of ________. A. 0.0 B. +1.8 m/s C. +2.0 m/s D. +2.5 m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #22 23. What is the momentum of a 980 N running back moving at 3.5 m/s? A. 350 kg m/s B. 500 kg m/s C. 610 kg m/s D. 3400 kg m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #23 24. A 100 kg running back is moving with a speed of 4.0 m/s. What average force must be applied to stop him in 0.25 s? A. 100 N B. 400 N C. 1200 N D. 1600 N Tippens - 009 Chapter... #24 25. A ball is dropped from a height of 8.0 ft from a floor. If the ball rebounds to a height of 2.0 ft, the coefficient of restitution is ____. A. 4.0 B. 2.0 C. 0.25 D. 0.50 Tippens - 009 Chapter... #25 26. If an object with a velocity of 50 m/s has the same momentum as that of a 10 kg mass having a velocity of 20 m/s, the mass of the object is ____. A. 0.25 kg B. 16 kg C. 10 kg D. 4.0 kg Tippens - 009 Chapter... #26 27. An object has kinetic energy K. What is the momentum of a body? A. K/m B. K2/2m C. D. mK Tippens - 009 Chapter... #27 28. When a golfer hits a golf ball, the force exerted by the ball on the club is ____ that exerted by the club on the ball. A. greater than B. equal to C. The answer depends on the speed of the club. D. less than Tippens - 009 Chapter... #28 29. If an object moving at a rate of 20 m/s collides with a stationary object and the two objects move away stuck together, the velocity of the combined objects will be ____. A. greater than 20 m/s B. 20 m/s C. less than 20 m/s Tippens - 009 Chapter... #29 30. An internal force ____ the total momentum of a system. A. decreases B. does not change C. increases Tippens - 009 Chapter... #30 31. Two moving objects collide and move apart on paths that are 120 m apart. The total momentum of the objects after the collision is ____ the total momentum before the collision. A. less than B. greater than C. equal to Tippens - 009 Chapter... #31 32. If two bodies meet in a partially elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution is ____. A. greater than 0 but less than 1 B. 1 C. 0 D. less than 0 Tippens - 009 Chapter... #32 33. A ball is dropped from a height of 5.67 m. If the ball rebounds with a speed of 4.22 m/s, what is the coefficient of restitution? A. 0.40 B. 0.56 C. 0.74 D. 1.23 Tippens - 009 Chapter... #33 34. A 3.2 kg ball moving with a velocity of 4.1 m/s eastward strikes head-on and sticks to a 1.8 kg ball of clay moving with a velocity 5.7 m/s westward. What is the final velocity of the combination? A. 0.57 m/s, eastward B. 0.57 m/s, westward C. 4.7 m/s, eastward D. 4.7 m/s, westward Tippens - 009 Chapter... #34 35. A 2.0 kg object moving with velocity +3.0 m/s collides with a 3.0 kg object moving with velocity -2.0 m/s in a perfectly elastic collision. How much kinetic energy is lost in the collision? A. 0 J B. 6 J C. 12 J D. 15 J Tippens - 009 Chapter... #35 36. An elastic collision is one in which both ____________________ and __________ __________ are conserved. momentum, kinetic energy Tippens - 009 Chapter... #36 37. A change in momentum equals _________. impulse Tippens - 009 Chapter... #37 38. The negative ratio of the relative velocities after impact to the relative velocities before impact is known as the __________ __ _____________. coefficient of restitution Tippens - 009 Chapter... #38 39. The product of the average force acting on a body and the time of action is called ____________________, and it is equal to the _________ __ _________ of the body. impulse, change in momentum Tippens - 009 Chapter... #39 40. The coefficient of restitution has a maximum value of ____________________ for a perfectly ____________________ impact and a minimum value of ____________________ for a perfectly ____________________ impact. 1, elastic, 0, inelastic Tippens - 009 Chapter... #40 41. If two colliding bodies stick together after impact and move off with the same velocity, the impact is said to be _________ ___________. completely inelastic Tippens - 009 Chapter... #41 42. The impulse on a freely falling body is provided by ________. gravity Tippens - 009 Chapter... #42 43. If only ___________ forces act on a system, momentum is conserved. internal Tippens - 009 Chapter... #43 44. The square root of the ratio of the height to which a ball bounces to its original height is a measure of the ________ __ __________. coefficient of restitution Tippens - 009 Chapter... #44 45. The vigor with which an object restores itself to its original shape after deformation is a measure of its ____________________. elasticity Tippens - 009 Chapter... #45 46. A bomb resting on a tower explodes. The total momentum after the explosion is ________. zero Tippens - 009 Chapter... #46 47. If two particles undergo an inelastic collision, _______ _______ is lost. kinetic energy Tippens - 009 Chapter... #47 ch9 Summary Category Tippens - 009 Chapter... # of Questions 48 ch10 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. True False 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. True False 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. True False 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. True False 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. True False 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. True False 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. True False 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. True False 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. True False 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. True False 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. True False 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. ________________________________________ 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. ________________________________________ 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. ________________________________________ 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. ________________________________________ 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. ________________________________________ 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. ________________________________________ 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. ________________________________________ 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. ________________________________________ 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. ________________________________________ ch10 Key 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #1 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #2 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #3 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #4 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #5 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #6 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #7 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #8 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #9 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #10 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #11 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these Tippens - 010 Chapter... #12 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated Tippens - 010 Chapter... #13 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #14 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass Tippens - 010 Chapter... #15 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #16 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #17 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #18 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° Tippens - 010 Chapter... #19 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #20 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #21 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r Tippens - 010 Chapter... #22 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses Tippens - 010 Chapter... #23 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases Tippens - 010 Chapter... #24 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth Tippens - 010 Chapter... #25 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation Tippens - 010 Chapter... #26 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle Tippens - 010 Chapter... #27 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times Tippens - 010 Chapter... #28 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers Tippens - 010 Chapter... #29 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #30 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #31 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #32 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #33 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #34 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #35 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #36 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day Tippens - 010 Chapter... #37 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. speed, direction Tippens - 010 Chapter... #38 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. frequency, period Tippens - 010 Chapter... #39 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. 4 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #40 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. masses, square, distance Tippens - 010 Chapter... #41 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. centripetal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #42 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. tan Tippens - 010 Chapter... #43 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. center Tippens - 010 Chapter... #44 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. normal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #45 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. critical Tippens - 010 Chapter... #46 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. lb Tippens - 010 Chapter... #47 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. 9 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #48 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. cube Tippens - 010 Chapter... #49 ch10 Summary Category Tippens - 010 Chapter... # of Questions 49 ch11 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. If the sum of the external torques acting on a body or system of bodies is zero, the angular momentum is also zero. True False 2. An angle of 1 rad is an angle whose arc distance s is equal in length to the radius R. True False 3. Angular frequency and angular velocity are representations of the same physical quantity. True False 4. Both angular acceleration and tangential acceleration represent a rate of change in angular velocity. True False 5. The moment of inertia of a hoop of radius r and mass m is the same as a point particle of the same mass rotating about a radius r. True False 6. A solid disk of mass M will roll to the bottom of an incline quicker than a circular hoop of the same mass and diameter. True False 7. Torque is the rotational analog of linear force. True False 8. An object is rotating about a fixed axis in space. Since there is no translational motion, no work is done. True False 9. An arc length of a circle is related to the circle's radius by the angle in degrees. True False 10. For a rotating rigid body, the ratio of linear speed to angular speed is equal to the radius of revolution. True False 11. In the equation a = αr, α must be in units of rad/time2. True False 12. In the equation ω = ω o + αt, radians must be used for the angular measurements. True False 13. Increasing the angular speed of a rotating body will not cause an increase in ____. A. rotational kinetic energy B. angular momentum C. the moment of inertia D. linear speed 14. A wheel starts from rest and rotates about an axis with constant angular acceleration. After 5.2 sec have elapsed, it has turned though 25 revolutions. What is the angular acceleration? A. 4.81 rev/s2 B. 9.62 rev/s2 C. 11.6 rev/s2 D. 1.85 rev/s2 15. A point on the edge of a rotating disk of radius 8 m moves through an angle of 2 rad. The length of the arc described by the point is ____. A. 4 m B. 0.25 m C. 16 m D. 4π rad 16. If the frequency is 2 rev/s, the angular speed is ____. A. 4π rad/s B. 2π rad/s C. π rad/s D. 4 rad/s 17. A flywheel increases its angular speed from 4 to 12 rad/s in 4 s. Its angular acceleration is ____. A. 3 rad/s2 B. 12 rad/s2 C. 4 rad/s2 D. 2 rad/s2 18. A drive shaft has a frequency of rotation of 1200 rpm. The linear speed of flyweights positioned 2 ft from the axis is approximately ____. A. 80π ft/s B. 40π ft/s C. 40 ft/s D. 20 ft/s 19. A circular disk has a moment of inertia of 2 kgm2 and a rotational kinetic energy of 400 J. The angular speed must be approximately ____. A. 200 rad/s B. 40 rad/s C. 400 rad/s D. 20 rad/s 20. Which of the following objects has the largest moment of inertia, assuming they all have the same mass and the same radius? A. a solid sphere B. a solid disk C. a circular hoop D. a solid cylinder 21. A circular grinding disk of radius 0.5 ft has a moment of inertia of 16 slugft2 and is rotating at 600 rpm. The frictional force applied to the edge of the disk to stop the wheel in 10 s, is approximately ____. A. 201 lb B. 100 lb C. 402 lb D. 32 lb 22. A wheel with angular momentum of 10 kgm2/s has a moment of inertia equal to 0.5 kgm2. Its angular velocity is ____. A. 40 rad/s B. 20 rad/s C. 5 rad/s D. 0.05 rad/s 23. A cord is wrapped around a wheel of diameter 1.0 ft. If the cord is pulled down 3.0 ft, how many revolutions has the wheel rotated? A. 6.0 rev B. 0.95 rev C. 3.0 rev D. 38 rev 24. A runner is on the outside of a circular track of radius 21 m. If the runner travels with an average speed of 5.0 m/s, how long will it take her to run 4 laps? A. 0.53 min B. 4.0 min C. 13 min D. 1.8 min 25. The moment of gyration of a hoop is its radius r. In rolling motion, what is the ratio of a hoop's rotational kinetic energy to its translational kinetic energy? A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 1/2 26. When a motor turns through 20 revolutions, the angle in radians is A. 2π B. 360 C. 20π D. 40π 27. For which of the following is the radius of gyration equal to its radius? A. solid sphere rotating about any diameter B. thin hoop rotating about the cylindrical axis C. solid cylinder rotating about the cylindrical axis D. thin spherical shell rotating about any diameter 28. A wheel initially rotating at 12 rad/s has a constant angular acceleration of -2.0 rad/s2. By the time it stops it has turned through ____ rad. A. 36 B. 2.0 C. 18 D. 6.0 29. A disk of radius 0.25 m is rotating with a constant angular acceleration of 12 rad/s2. At the instant the angular velocity is 4.0 rad/s2, the resultant acceleration vector has a magnitude of ____. A. 5.0 m/s2 B. 16 m/s2 C. 13 m/s2 D. 4.1 m/s2 30. An ice skater is rotating at 3.5 rev/sec while her arms are beside her. The moment of inertia of the skater is 5 kg.m2. If she extends her arms so her new moment of inertia is 7 kg.m2, what is her new angular velocity? A. 2.5 rev/sec B. 3.5 rev/sec C. 4.9 rev/sec D. 18 rev/sec 31. A thin rod of mass 2.0 kg and length 1.5 m is rotated about an axis through one end point with a constant angular velocity of 3.0 rev/s. Its angular momentum is ____. A. 42 kgm2/s B. 84 kgm2/s C. 28 kgm2/s D. 9.0 kgm2/s 32. If a motor delivers a torque of 35 ftlb on a flywheel rotating at 3000 rev/min, what horsepower is the motor delivering? (1 hp = 550 ftlb/s) A. 300 hp B. 200 hp C. 20 hp D. 2000 hp 33. A 2.5 mm drill bit rotates at a 6.2 × 104 rev/min. What is the linear speed at the drill bit edge? A. 1030 m/s B. 6500 m/s C. 16.2 m/s D. 1620 m/s 34. A car is traveling at a constant speed of 25 m/s around a curve of radius 75 m. What is the centripetal acceleration of the car? A. 0 B. 0.33 m/s2 C. 8.33 m/s2 D. 1800 m/s2 35. A car is traveling at a constant speed of 25 m/s around a curve of radius 75 m. What is the translational acceleration of the car? A. 0 B. 0.33 m/s2 C. 8.33 m/s2 D. 1800 m/s2 36. A single particle of mass m rotates about a radius r with angular velocity w. If the same mass rotates about a new radius that is double the old radius with the same angular velocity, the ratio of its new angular momentum to the old angular momentum (Lnew /L old ) is _____. A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 2 D. 4 37. Two point particles of mass 2.00 kg and 3.00 kg are attached to the ends of a light meter stick. What is the moment of inertia about the 50.0 cm mark of the meter stick? A. 2.50 kg.m2 B. 1.25 kg.m2 C. 5.00 kg.m2 D. 1.00 kg.m2 38. A bicycle wheel of diameter 65 cm and mass 3.5 kg rolls on a horizontal surface at 20 km/hr. What is the total kinetic energy of the wheel (assume the wheel is a hoop)? A. 3.0 J B. 54 J C. 108 J D. 1400 J 39. The angular displacement in ____________________ is the ratio of the length of arc to its ____________________. ________________________________________ 40. If the sum of the external ____________________ acting on a body or system of bodies is zero, the angular ____________________ remains unchanged. This is a statement of the conservation of _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 41. Rotational work is the scalar product of ____________________ and _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 42. A resultant torque applied to a rigid body will always result in a(n) __________ __________ that is directly proportional to the applied ____________________ and inversely proportional to the body's _________ __ _________. ________________________________________ 43. The ratio of the tangential acceleration to the __________ __________ is equal to the radius of revolution. ________________________________________ 44. In rotational motion, the final angular velocity is equal to the initial __________ __________ plus the product of the angular ____________________ and ____________________. ________________________________________ 45. The ________ __ __________ is the radial distance from the center of rotation to a point at which the total mass of the body might be concentrated without changing its _________ __ _________. ________________________________________ 46. The linear speed divided by the radius of rotation is the __________ __________ of the body. ________________________________________ 47. Rotational power is equal to the product of ____________________ and angular ____________________. ________________________________________ 48. The angular velocity of the minute hand of a clock is 1 rev per _______seconds. ________________________________________ 49. Comparing linear to angular quantities - ________ ________is to linear velocity as _________ __ _________ is to mass. ________________________________________ 50. If no net external torque acts on a system, the product of the ________ __ _________ and ______ ________ remains constant. ________________________________________ 51. Rolling motion consists of ____ and _____ kinetic energies. ________________________________________ 52. A toy top revolves around at a constant angular velocity. The _______ _______ will also remain constant. ________________________________________ ch11 Key 1. If the sum of the external torques acting on a body or system of bodies is zero, the angular momentum is also zero. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #1 2. An angle of 1 rad is an angle whose arc distance s is equal in length to the radius R. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #2 3. Angular frequency and angular velocity are representations of the same physical quantity. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #3 4. Both angular acceleration and tangential acceleration represent a rate of change in angular velocity. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #4 5. The moment of inertia of a hoop of radius r and mass m is the same as a point particle of the same mass rotating about a radius r. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #5 6. A solid disk of mass M will roll to the bottom of an incline quicker than a circular hoop of the same mass and diameter. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #6 7. Torque is the rotational analog of linear force. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #7 8. An object is rotating about a fixed axis in space. Since there is no translational motion, no work is done. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #8 9. An arc length of a circle is related to the circle's radius by the angle in degrees. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #9 10. For a rotating rigid body, the ratio of linear speed to angular speed is equal to the radius of revolution. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #10 11. In the equation a = αr, α must be in units of rad/time2. TRUE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #11 12. In the equation ω = ω o + αt, radians must be used for the angular measurements. FALSE Tippens - 011 Chapter... #12 13. Increasing the angular speed of a rotating body will not cause an increase in ____. A. rotational kinetic energy B. angular momentum C. the moment of inertia D. linear speed Tippens - 011 Chapter... #13 14. A wheel starts from rest and rotates about an axis with constant angular acceleration. After 5.2 sec have elapsed, it has turned though 25 revolutions. What is the angular acceleration? A. 4.81 rev/s2 B. 9.62 rev/s2 C. 11.6 rev/s2 D. 1.85 rev/s2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #14 15. A point on the edge of a rotating disk of radius 8 m moves through an angle of 2 rad. The length of the arc described by the point is ____. A. 4 m B. 0.25 m C. 16 m D. 4π rad Tippens - 011 Chapter... #15 16. If the frequency is 2 rev/s, the angular speed is ____. A. 4π rad/s B. 2π rad/s C. π rad/s D. 4 rad/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #16 17. A flywheel increases its angular speed from 4 to 12 rad/s in 4 s. Its angular acceleration is ____. A. 3 rad/s2 B. 12 rad/s2 C. 4 rad/s2 D. 2 rad/s2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #17 18. A drive shaft has a frequency of rotation of 1200 rpm. The linear speed of flyweights positioned 2 ft from the axis is approximately ____. A. 80π ft/s B. 40π ft/s C. 40 ft/s D. 20 ft/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #18 19. A circular disk has a moment of inertia of 2 kgm2 and a rotational kinetic energy of 400 J. The angular speed must be approximately ____. A. 200 rad/s B. 40 rad/s C. 400 rad/s D. 20 rad/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #19 20. Which of the following objects has the largest moment of inertia, assuming they all have the same mass and the same radius? A. a solid sphere B. a solid disk C. a circular hoop D. a solid cylinder Tippens - 011 Chapter... #20 21. A circular grinding disk of radius 0.5 ft has a moment of inertia of 16 slugft2 and is rotating at 600 rpm. The frictional force applied to the edge of the disk to stop the wheel in 10 s, is approximately ____. A. 201 lb B. 100 lb C. 402 lb D. 32 lb Tippens - 011 Chapter... #21 22. A wheel with angular momentum of 10 kgm2/s has a moment of inertia equal to 0.5 kgm2. Its angular velocity is ____. A. 40 rad/s B. 20 rad/s C. 5 rad/s D. 0.05 rad/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #22 23. A cord is wrapped around a wheel of diameter 1.0 ft. If the cord is pulled down 3.0 ft, how many revolutions has the wheel rotated? A. 6.0 rev B. 0.95 rev C. 3.0 rev D. 38 rev Tippens - 011 Chapter... #23 24. A runner is on the outside of a circular track of radius 21 m. If the runner travels with an average speed of 5.0 m/s, how long will it take her to run 4 laps? A. 0.53 min B. 4.0 min C. 13 min D. 1.8 min Tippens - 011 Chapter... #24 25. The moment of gyration of a hoop is its radius r. In rolling motion, what is the ratio of a hoop's rotational kinetic energy to its translational kinetic energy? A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 1/2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #25 26. When a motor turns through 20 revolutions, the angle in radians is A. 2π B. 360 C. 20π D. 40π Tippens - 011 Chapter... #26 27. For which of the following is the radius of gyration equal to its radius? A. solid sphere rotating about any diameter B. thin hoop rotating about the cylindrical axis C. solid cylinder rotating about the cylindrical axis D. thin spherical shell rotating about any diameter Tippens - 011 Chapter... #27 28. A wheel initially rotating at 12 rad/s has a constant angular acceleration of -2.0 rad/s2. By the time it stops it has turned through ____ rad. A. 36 B. 2.0 C. 18 D. 6.0 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #28 29. A disk of radius 0.25 m is rotating with a constant angular acceleration of 12 rad/s2. At the instant the angular velocity is 4.0 rad/s2, the resultant acceleration vector has a magnitude of ____. A. 5.0 m/s2 B. 16 m/s2 C. 13 m/s2 D. 4.1 m/s2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #29 30. An ice skater is rotating at 3.5 rev/sec while her arms are beside her. The moment of inertia of the skater is 5 kg.m2. If she extends her arms so her new moment of inertia is 7 kg.m2, what is her new angular velocity? A. 2.5 rev/sec B. 3.5 rev/sec C. 4.9 rev/sec D. 18 rev/sec Tippens - 011 Chapter... #30 31. A thin rod of mass 2.0 kg and length 1.5 m is rotated about an axis through one end point with a constant angular velocity of 3.0 rev/s. Its angular momentum is ____. A. 42 kgm2/s B. 84 kgm2/s C. 28 kgm2/s D. 9.0 kgm2/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #31 32. If a motor delivers a torque of 35 ftlb on a flywheel rotating at 3000 rev/min, what horsepower is the motor delivering? (1 hp = 550 ftlb/s) A. 300 hp B. 200 hp C. 20 hp D. 2000 hp Tippens - 011 Chapter... #32 33. A 2.5 mm drill bit rotates at a 6.2 × 104 rev/min. What is the linear speed at the drill bit edge? A. 1030 m/s B. 6500 m/s C. 16.2 m/s D. 1620 m/s Tippens - 011 Chapter... #33 34. A car is traveling at a constant speed of 25 m/s around a curve of radius 75 m. What is the centripetal acceleration of the car? A. 0 B. 0.33 m/s2 C. 8.33 m/s2 D. 1800 m/s2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #34 35. A car is traveling at a constant speed of 25 m/s around a curve of radius 75 m. What is the translational acceleration of the car? A. 0 B. 0.33 m/s2 C. 8.33 m/s2 D. 1800 m/s2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #35 36. A single particle of mass m rotates about a radius r with angular velocity w. If the same mass rotates about a new radius that is double the old radius with the same angular velocity, the ratio of its new angular momentum to the old angular momentum (Lnew /L old ) is _____. A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 2 D. 4 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #36 37. Two point particles of mass 2.00 kg and 3.00 kg are attached to the ends of a light meter stick. What is the moment of inertia about the 50.0 cm mark of the meter stick? A. 2.50 kg.m2 B. 1.25 kg.m2 C. 5.00 kg.m2 D. 1.00 kg.m2 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #37 38. A bicycle wheel of diameter 65 cm and mass 3.5 kg rolls on a horizontal surface at 20 km/hr. What is the total kinetic energy of the wheel (assume the wheel is a hoop)? A. 3.0 J B. 54 J C. 108 J D. 1400 J Tippens - 011 Chapter... #38 39. The angular displacement in ____________________ is the ratio of the length of arc to its ____________________. radians, radius Tippens - 011 Chapter... #39 40. If the sum of the external ____________________ acting on a body or system of bodies is zero, the angular ____________________ remains unchanged. This is a statement of the conservation of _________ ___________. torques, momentum, angular momentum Tippens - 011 Chapter... #40 41. Rotational work is the scalar product of ____________________ and _________ ___________. torque, angular displacement Tippens - 011 Chapter... #41 42. A resultant torque applied to a rigid body will always result in a(n) __________ __________ that is directly proportional to the applied ____________________ and inversely proportional to the body's _________ __ _________. angular acceleration, torque, moment of inertia Tippens - 011 Chapter... #42 43. The ratio of the tangential acceleration to the __________ __________ is equal to the radius of revolution. angular acceleration Tippens - 011 Chapter... #44 44. In rotational motion, the final angular velocity is equal to the initial __________ __________ plus the product of the angular ____________________ and ____________________. angular velocity, acceleration, time Tippens - 011 Chapter... #45 45. The ________ __ __________ is the radial distance from the center of rotation to a point at which the total mass of the body might be concentrated without changing its _________ __ _________. radius of gyration, moment of inertia Tippens - 011 Chapter... #46 46. The linear speed divided by the radius of rotation is the __________ __________ of the body. angular velocity Tippens - 011 Chapter... #47 47. Rotational power is equal to the product of ____________________ and angular ____________________. torque, velocity Tippens - 011 Chapter... #48 48. The angular velocity of the minute hand of a clock is 1 rev per _______seconds. 3600 Tippens - 011 Chapter... #49 49. Comparing linear to angular quantities - ________ ________is to linear velocity as _________ __ _________ is to mass. angular velocity, moment of inertia Tippens - 011 Chapter... #50 50. If no net external torque acts on a system, the product of the ________ __ _________ and ______ ________ remains constant. moment of inertia , angular velocity Tippens - 011 Chapter... #51 51. Rolling motion consists of ____ and _____ kinetic energies. translational, rotational Tippens - 011 Chapter... #52 52. A toy top revolves around at a constant angular velocity. The _______ _______ will also remain constant. angular momentum Tippens - 011 Chapter... #53 ch11 Summary Category Tippens - 011 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch12 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The efficiency of a machine is defined as the ratio of the work input to the work output. True False 2. The purpose of all machines is to have mechanical advantages greater than 1. True False 3. A pulley system is an example of the lever principle. True False 4. A single fixed pulley offers no mechanical advantage; it changes only the direction of an input force. True False 5. In a pulley system with a speed ratio greater than 1, the output torque is less than the input torque. True False 6. In a machine using two gears in which the number of teeth on the input gear is greater than the number of teeth on the output gear, there will be a reduction in the output torque. True False 7. The speed ratio w i /w o represents the ideal mechanical advantage and not the actual mechanical advantage. True False 8. In a belt drive, maximum efficiency is obtained for minimum belt tension. True False 9. For an inclined plane, the actual mechanical advantage is the ratio of the slope distance to the height of the plane. True False 10. For a screw jack, a larger pitch results in a smaller mechanical advantage. True False 11. The efficiency of a lever depends on the placement of the fulcrum. True False 12. The efficiency of a machine is the ratio of the actual to ideal mechanical advantage. True False 13. The mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is 2. True False 14. Which of the following ratios does not represent the mechanical advantage of a machine? A. D o /D i B. ω o /ωi C . N o /N i D. F o /F i 15. Which of the following is not an indication of the efficiency of a machine? A. M A /M I B. P o /P i C. F o r o /(F i r i ) D. L o w o /(L i w i ) 16. A machine that is 55% efficient inputs 520 J of work. How much useful work is performed? A. 520 J B. 234 J C. 286 J D. 28600 J 17. Which of the following machines is not an application of the level principle? A. screw jack B. wheelbarrow C. wheel and axle D. pliers 18. An 80-hp motor has an efficiency of 60 percent. The output power is approximately ____. A. 133 hp B. 75 hp C. 60 hp D. 48 hp 19. An iron pipe 10 ft long is used to lift a 400-lb weight. If the fulcrum is placed 2 ft from the weight, the force that must be exerted at the end of the pipe is approximately ____. A. 200 lb B. 100 lb C. 40 lb D. 80 lb 20. The ideal mechanical advantage of a belt drive is 4.0. If the angular speed of the input pulley is 8 rad/s, the angular speed of the output pulley is ____. A. 2 rad/s B. 32 rad/s C. 0.5 rad/s D. 4 rad/s 21. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the ideal mechanical advantage? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 22. Consider a belt drive in which the diameter of the driving pulley is 8 cm and the diameter of the driven pulley is 24 cm. If the efficiency is 50 percent, what is the actual mechanical advantage? A. 15 B. 6 C. 1.5 D. 3 23. In the operation of a screw jack of pitch 0.1 in., the input force of 4 lb turns through a circle of radius 2 ft, lifting an 80-lb weight. The efficiency is approximately ____. A. 48 percent B. 14.4 percent C. 20 percent D. 1.3 percent 24. A machine with a mechanical advantage greater than one ____. A. increases friction B. increases energy C. has an output force greater than the input force D. has no friction 25. A 4.0 m lever is used to lift a 320 lb object. If the maximum force a person can deliver is 100 lb, how far from the person should the fulcrum be placed? A. 3.1 m B. 1.0 m C. 0.95 m D. 2.0 m 26. A 4.0 m lever is used to lift a 320 lb object. If the maximum force a person can deliver is 100 lb, what is the ideal mechanical advantage? A. 3.2 B. 0.50 C. 0.31 D. 2.0 27. Which of the following objects is not being used as a simple machine? A. a pulley used to lift a heavy object B. a screwdriver used to pry open a can of paint C. a wedge used to split wood D. a stick used to hold up a wilted plant 28. Using an ideal lever, a worker exerts an input force of 5.0 N to move a 12.0 N weight a distance of 3.0 m. The input distance is ____. A. greater than 3.0 m B. less than 3.0 m C. 3.0 m 29. If 50 J of work is input to a machine that is 80% efficient, what work was done against friction? A. 40 J B. 30 J C. 20 J D. 10 J 30. An input force F moves through a distance of d. If the output force is 4F and moves through a distance d/16, the efficiency is ____. A. 40% B. 80% C. 16% D. 25% 31. What diameter wheel should be placed on a 0.40 m axle so that a 110 N input force can lift 880 N? Neglect friction. A. 3.2 m B. 32 m C. 0.5 m D. 0.05 m 32. In a belt drive system, an output torque of 840 Nm is required. If the output pulley is 80 cm in diameter and the input pulley is 20 cm in diameter, what input torque is required if the system is 60% efficient? A. 210 Nm B. 350 Nm C. 480 Nm D. 504 Nm 33. A plank used as a lever has a mechanical advantage of 2.5. If an input force is applied over an arc length of 65 cm, through what arc length does the output force move? A. 65 cm B. The output force must be given. C. 26 cm D. 160 cm 34. A 120 W motor is 37% efficient. What useful work does the motor do every hour? A. 7.20 × 103 J B. 2.7 × 105 J C. 4.4 × 103 J D. 1.6 × 105 J 35. A 120 W motor is 37% efficient. How much energy is lost to friction in 1 hour? A. 7.20 × 103 J B. 2.7 × 105 J C. 4.4 × 103 J D. 1.6 × 105 J 36. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 37. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the efficiency? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 38. A set of spur gears has 50 teeth and 10 teeth. What is the angular velocity of the larger gear if the smaller gear rotates at 150 rev/min? A. 30 rev/min B. 150 rev/min C. 500 rev/min D. 750 rev/min 39. The efficiency of a machine is defined as the ratio of the __________ __________ to the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 40. In general, for a simple machine the _________ _______ _________ is defined as the ratio of the output force to the input force. The ________ _________ ________ is the ratio of the distance the ________ force moves to the distance the _______ force moves. ________________________________________ 41. Three applications of the lever principle are demonstrated by the following tools: _______________, ______________, and _______________. ________________________________________ 42. If the speed ratio is greater than 1, the machine produces an output torque ___________ than the input torque. ________________________________________ 43. Three common types of gears are _______________, _______________, and ______________. ________________________________________ 44. When the actual and ideal mechanical advantages are equal, the efficiency is ____. ________________________________________ 45. For a simple machine, the work input is equal to the _______ _______ ______ plus the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 46. In a spur gear, the ideal mechanical advantage can be calculated from the ratio of the number of ________ or the ratio of the gears' _______. ________________________________________ 47. For a screw jack, the reciprocal of the number of threads per inch is the _____________ of the screw. ________________________________________ 48. For a single __________ pulley, the ideal mechanical advantage is 2. ________________________________________ 49. The _____ is a simple machine where the efficiency is 100%. ________________________________________ 50. An engine wastes 1/4 of its input energy due to friction. The efficiency of the engine is _____ %. ________________________________________ ch12 Key 1. The efficiency of a machine is defined as the ratio of the work input to the work output. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #1 2. The purpose of all machines is to have mechanical advantages greater than 1. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #2 3. A pulley system is an example of the lever principle. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #3 4. A single fixed pulley offers no mechanical advantage; it changes only the direction of an input force. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #4 5. In a pulley system with a speed ratio greater than 1, the output torque is less than the input torque. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #5 6. In a machine using two gears in which the number of teeth on the input gear is greater than the number of teeth on the output gear, there will be a reduction in the output torque. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #6 7. The speed ratio w i /w o represents the ideal mechanical advantage and not the actual mechanical advantage. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #7 8. In a belt drive, maximum efficiency is obtained for minimum belt tension. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #8 9. For an inclined plane, the actual mechanical advantage is the ratio of the slope distance to the height of the plane. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #9 10. For a screw jack, a larger pitch results in a smaller mechanical advantage. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #10 11. The efficiency of a lever depends on the placement of the fulcrum. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #11 12. The efficiency of a machine is the ratio of the actual to ideal mechanical advantage. TRUE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #12 13. The mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley is 2. FALSE Tippens - 012 Chapter... #13 14. Which of the following ratios does not represent the mechanical advantage of a machine? A. D o /D i B. ω o / ω i C . N o /N i D. F o /F i Tippens - 012 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following is not an indication of the efficiency of a machine? A. M A /M I B. P o /P i C. F o r o /(F i r i ) D. L o w o /(L i w i ) Tippens - 012 Chapter... #15 16. A machine that is 55% efficient inputs 520 J of work. How much useful work is performed? A. 520 J B. 234 J C. 286 J D. 28600 J Tippens - 012 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following machines is not an application of the level principle? A. screw jack B. wheelbarrow C. wheel and axle D. pliers Tippens - 012 Chapter... #17 18. An 80-hp motor has an efficiency of 60 percent. The output power is approximately ____. A. 133 hp B. 75 hp C. 60 hp D. 48 hp Tippens - 012 Chapter... #18 19. An iron pipe 10 ft long is used to lift a 400-lb weight. If the fulcrum is placed 2 ft from the weight, the force that must be exerted at the end of the pipe is approximately ____. A. 200 lb B. 100 lb C. 40 lb D. 80 lb Tippens - 012 Chapter... #19 20. The ideal mechanical advantage of a belt drive is 4.0. If the angular speed of the input pulley is 8 rad/s, the angular speed of the output pulley is ____. A. 2 rad/s B. 32 rad/s C. 0.5 rad/s D. 4 rad/s Tippens - 012 Chapter... #20 21. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the ideal mechanical advantage? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #21 22. Consider a belt drive in which the diameter of the driving pulley is 8 cm and the diameter of the driven pulley is 24 cm. If the efficiency is 50 percent, what is the actual mechanical advantage? A. 15 B. 6 C. 1.5 D. 3 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #22 23. In the operation of a screw jack of pitch 0.1 in., the input force of 4 lb turns through a circle of radius 2 ft, lifting an 80-lb weight. The efficiency is approximately ____. A. 48 percent B. 14.4 percent C. 20 percent D. 1.3 percent Tippens - 012 Chapter... #23 24. A machine with a mechanical advantage greater than one ____. A. increases friction B. increases energy C. has an output force greater than the input force D. has no friction Tippens - 012 Chapter... #24 25. A 4.0 m lever is used to lift a 320 lb object. If the maximum force a person can deliver is 100 lb, how far from the person should the fulcrum be placed? A. 3.1 m B. 1.0 m C. 0.95 m D. 2.0 m Tippens - 012 Chapter... #25 26. A 4.0 m lever is used to lift a 320 lb object. If the maximum force a person can deliver is 100 lb, what is the ideal mechanical advantage? A. 3.2 B. 0.50 C. 0.31 D. 2.0 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #26 27. Which of the following objects is not being used as a simple machine? A. a pulley used to lift a heavy object B. a screwdriver used to pry open a can of paint C. a wedge used to split wood D. a stick used to hold up a wilted plant Tippens - 012 Chapter... #27 28. Using an ideal lever, a worker exerts an input force of 5.0 N to move a 12.0 N weight a distance of 3.0 m. The input distance is ____. A. greater than 3.0 m B. less than 3.0 m C. 3.0 m Tippens - 012 Chapter... #28 29. If 50 J of work is input to a machine that is 80% efficient, what work was done against friction? A. 40 J B. 30 J C. 20 J D. 10 J Tippens - 012 Chapter... #29 30. An input force F moves through a distance of d. If the output force is 4F and moves through a distance d/16, the efficiency is ____. A. 40% B. 80% C. 16% D. 25% Tippens - 012 Chapter... #30 31. What diameter wheel should be placed on a 0.40 m axle so that a 110 N input force can lift 880 N? Neglect friction. A. 3.2 m B. 32 m C. 0.5 m D. 0.05 m Tippens - 012 Chapter... #31 32. In a belt drive system, an output torque of 840 Nm is required. If the output pulley is 80 cm in diameter and the input pulley is 20 cm in diameter, what input torque is required if the system is 60% efficient? A. 210 Nm B. 350 Nm C. 480 Nm D. 504 Nm Tippens - 012 Chapter... #32 33. A plank used as a lever has a mechanical advantage of 2.5. If an input force is applied over an arc length of 65 cm, through what arc length does the output force move? A. 65 cm B. The output force must be given. C. 26 cm D. 160 cm Tippens - 012 Chapter... #33 34. A 120 W motor is 37% efficient. What useful work does the motor do every hour? A. 7.20 × 103 J B. 2.7 × 105 J C. 4.4 × 103 J D. 1.6 × 105 J Tippens - 012 Chapter... #34 35. A 120 W motor is 37% efficient. How much energy is lost to friction in 1 hour? A. 7.20 × 103 J B. 2.7 × 105 J C. 4.4 × 103 J D. 1.6 × 105 J Tippens - 012 Chapter... #35 36. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #36 37. A large piano that weighs 4100 N is to be moved into a house by way of an opening that is 1.5 m from the ground. If the movers use an 18 m plank as an incline and a force of 600 N, what is the efficiency? A. 12.0 B. 6.83 C. 1.0 D. 0.57 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #37 38. A set of spur gears has 50 teeth and 10 teeth. What is the angular velocity of the larger gear if the smaller gear rotates at 150 rev/min? A. 30 rev/min B. 150 rev/min C. 500 rev/min D. 750 rev/min Tippens - 012 Chapter... #38 39. The efficiency of a machine is defined as the ratio of the __________ __________ to the _________ ___________. work output, work input Tippens - 012 Chapter... #39 40. In general, for a simple machine the _________ _______ _________ is defined as the ratio of the output force to the input force. The ________ _________ ________ is the ratio of the distance the ________ force moves to the distance the _______ force moves. actual mechanical advantage, ideal mechanical advantage, input, output Tippens - 012 Chapter... #40 41. Three applications of the lever principle are demonstrated by the following tools: _______________, ______________, and _______________. nutcracker, wheelbarrow, crowbar Tippens - 012 Chapter... #41 42. If the speed ratio is greater than 1, the machine produces an output torque ___________ than the input torque. greater Tippens - 012 Chapter... #42 43. Three common types of gears are _______________, _______________, and ______________. planetary, bevel, helical Tippens - 012 Chapter... #43 44. When the actual and ideal mechanical advantages are equal, the efficiency is ____. 1 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #44 45. For a simple machine, the work input is equal to the _______ _______ ______ plus the _________ ___________. work against friction, work output Tippens - 012 Chapter... #45 46. In a spur gear, the ideal mechanical advantage can be calculated from the ratio of the number of ________ or the ratio of the gears' _______. teeth, diameters Tippens - 012 Chapter... #46 47. For a screw jack, the reciprocal of the number of threads per inch is the _____________ of the screw. pitch Tippens - 012 Chapter... #47 48. For a single __________ pulley, the ideal mechanical advantage is 2. movable Tippens - 012 Chapter... #48 49. The _____ is a simple machine where the efficiency is 100%. lever Tippens - 012 Chapter... #49 50. An engine wastes 1/4 of its input energy due to friction. The efficiency of the engine is _____ %. 75 Tippens - 012 Chapter... #50 ch12 Summary Category Tippens - 012 Chapter... # of Questions 50 ch13 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A material having a large spring constant will experience a greater change in length for a given applied force than a material with a small spring constant. True False 2. Young's modulus, like all moduli, has dimensions of force/area. True False 3. The dimensions of a spring constant are force/area. True False 4. The smaller the bulk modulus of a material, the higher its compressibility. True False 5. The radian may be a unit of strain. True False 6. Shearing stress will always increase the total volume of a body. True False 7. Young's modulus is constant for a particular material but varies with the length and cross-sectional area of a wire. True False 8. Water has a greater compressibility than steel. True False 9. Usually the shearing strain can be approximated by the tangent of the shearing angle. True False 10. Young's modulus applies for compressive stresses as well as tensile stresses. True False 11. Materials will break when the elastic limit is surpassed. True False 12. If a material has a high measure of hardness, it will also be very malleable. True False 13. Two wires, A and B, are made of the same material and are subjected to the same loads. The strain is greater for A when ____. A. A is twice as long as B B. A has twice the diameter of B C. A has twice the length and half the diameter D. A has twice the diameter and half the length 14. A shearing stress acting on a body changes its ____. A. shape B. volume C. length D. area 15. A unit for strain is the ____. A. inch B. pound per square inch C. newton per centimeter D. radian 16. The volume strain for a constant applied force increases directly with an increase in ____. A. surface area B. compressibility C. volume D. bulk modulus 17. A strip of rubber elongates 4.5 cm when a 9.0 N load is attached. How far is it stretched if 18 N is added to the 9N load? A. 54 cm B. 14 cm C. 4.0 cm D. 18 cm 18. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m. What is the longitudinal stress? A. 77.8 MPa B. 0.117 MPa C. 2.08 MPa D. 375 MPa 19. When a force of 20 N produces an elongation of 0.4 cm, the spring constant is ____. A. 5 N/cm B. 50 N/cm C. 8 N cm D. 0.02 cm/N 20. The cross-sectional area of a 20-in. copper wire is 0.001 in.2. A force of 400 lb causes a stress of ____. A. 4 x 105 lb/in.2 B. 0.4 lb/in.2 C. 20 lb/in. D. 50 lb/in. 21. A mechanical press contains 2 m3 of oil (B = 1700 MPa). If the volume of the oil decreases by 2 × 10-8 m3, the applied pressure must be approximately ____. A. 17 Pa B. 68 Pa C. 0.06 Pa D. 1.7 × 1017 Pa 22. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m. What is the longitudinal strain? A. 1.17 × 10-2 B. 3.45 × 10-2 C. 2.08 × 10-3 D. 8.78 × 10-3 23. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m, what is Young's modulus for the cable? A. 44.8 MPa B. 77.8 MPa C. 37,400 MPa D. 74,300 MPa 24. The elastic limit of a ductile material is usually ____ the breaking strength. A. larger than B. smaller than C. the same as 25. A liquid compresses 2.0 percent when subjected to a pressure of 34 MPa. What is the bulk modulus of the liquid? A. 17 MPa B. 1700 MPa C. 68 MPa D. 7700 MPa 26. The spring constant for a stiff spring is 8400 N/m. What force will elongate the spring 1.5 cm? A. 126 N B. 56 N C. 5600 N D. 12600 N 27. Young's modulus applies to A. solids B. liquids C. gases D. solids and liquids 28. A shearing force of 4.6 × 104 N is applied to a cube of copper (S=4.23 × 1010 Pa) that measures 15 cm on a side. What is the shear strain? A. 8.03 × 10-4 B. b.7.25 × 10-6 C. 8.03 × 10-5 D. 4.83 × 10-5 29. If the longitudinal strain due to tension stress on an object is 3.0000 × 10-4 and the original length of the object is 60.000 cm, what is the final length? A. 60.018 cm B. 60.013 cm C. 59.997 cm D. 59.982 cm 30. Which of the following never changes the volume of an object under stress? A. compression B. tension C. bulk compression D. shear 31. A rectangular beam supporting a load F is compressed an amount ∆1. If another beam made of the same material, with double the length, double the width, and double the thickness, supports a load of the same force F, its compression will be ____. A. 2∆1 B. ∆1 C. 4∆1 D. ∆1/2 32. A spring 0.40 m long is stretched 0.25 m when a 100.0 N force is applied. The spring constant is ____. A. 150 N/m B. 400 N/m C. 65 N/m D. 25 N/m 33. A steel rivet 1.50 cm long and 1.5 mm radius has one end attached to a wall. If the other end is subjected to a shearing force of 6.0 × 104 N, what is the downward deflection? The shear modulus for steel is 8.27 × 1010 Pa. A. 0.75 mm B. 1.54 mm C. 8.61 mm D. 10.1 mm 34. Determine the compressibility of an fluid that compresses 0.65% under a pressure of 8.5 Mpa. A. 7.65 × 10-10 m2/N B. 1.34 × 10-10 m2/N C. 8.13 × 10-9 m2/N D. 5.68 × 10-9 m2/N 35. Three types of stress are _______________, ________________, and ________________. ________________________________________ 36. The constant ratio of stress to strain is called the _________ ____ ________. ________________________________________ 37. _____________ is the relative change in the dimensions or shape of a body as a result of an applied force. ________________________________________ 38. Whenever a shearing stress is applied, the strain can be approximated by _______ θ. ________________________________________ 39. The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called _____________________ and is denoted by the symbol _____. ________________________________________ 40. The stress on a body is the ratio of ______________________ to ______________________. ________________________________________ 41. The ultimate strength of a material is always ______________________ its elastic limit. ________________________________________ 42. The SI units for elastic modulus are ______ or N/m2. ________________________________________ 43. The term elastic limit refers to the maximum ____________________ a body can experience without becoming permanently deformed. ________________________________________ 44. The only elastic modulus that applies for liquids is the __________ ___________. ________________________________________ 45. A linear relationship between the elongation of an object and the applied force is known as __________ Law. ________________________________________ 46. Shearing stress changes the ______ of a body, leaving the ________ unchanged. ________________________________________ 47. The ________ __________ is the greatest stress a material can withstand without breaking. ________________________________________ 48. In addition to elastic moduli, three other important measures of the properties of materials are ________, ________, and ____________. ________________________________________ ch13 Key 1. A material having a large spring constant will experience a greater change in length for a given applied force than a material with a small spring constant. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #1 2. Young's modulus, like all moduli, has dimensions of force/area. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #2 3. The dimensions of a spring constant are force/area. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #3 4. The smaller the bulk modulus of a material, the higher its compressibility. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #4 5. The radian may be a unit of strain. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #5 6. Shearing stress will always increase the total volume of a body. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #6 7. Young's modulus is constant for a particular material but varies with the length and cross-sectional area of a wire. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #7 8. Water has a greater compressibility than steel. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #8 9. Usually the shearing strain can be approximated by the tangent of the shearing angle. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #9 10. Young's modulus applies for compressive stresses as well as tensile stresses. TRUE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #10 11. Materials will break when the elastic limit is surpassed. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #11 12. If a material has a high measure of hardness, it will also be very malleable. FALSE Tippens - 013 Chapter... #12 13. Two wires, A and B, are made of the same material and are subjected to the same loads. The strain is greater for A when ____. A. A is twice as long as B B. A has twice the diameter of B C. A has twice the length and half the diameter D. A has twice the diameter and half the length Tippens - 013 Chapter... #13 14. A shearing stress acting on a body changes its ____. A. shape B. volume C. length D. area Tippens - 013 Chapter... #14 15. A unit for strain is the ____. A. inch B. pound per square inch C. newton per centimeter D. radian Tippens - 013 Chapter... #15 16. The volume strain for a constant applied force increases directly with an increase in ____. A. surface area B. compressibility C. volume D. bulk modulus Tippens - 013 Chapter... #16 17. A strip of rubber elongates 4.5 cm when a 9.0 N load is attached. How far is it stretched if 18 N is added to the 9N load? A. 54 cm B. 14 cm C. 4.0 cm D. 18 cm Tippens - 013 Chapter... #17 18. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m. What is the longitudinal stress? A. 77.8 MPa B. 0.117 MPa C. 2.08 MPa D. 375 MPa Tippens - 013 Chapter... #18 19. When a force of 20 N produces an elongation of 0.4 cm, the spring constant is ____. A. 5 N/cm B. 50 N/cm C. 8 N cm D. 0.02 cm/N Tippens - 013 Chapter... #19 20. The cross-sectional area of a 20-in. copper wire is 0.001 in.2. A force of 400 lb causes a stress of ____. A. 4 x 105 lb/in.2 B. 0.4 lb/in.2 C. 20 lb/in. D. 50 lb/in. Tippens - 013 Chapter... #20 21. A mechanical press contains 2 m3 of oil (B = 1700 MPa). If the volume of the oil decreases by 2 × 10-8 m3, the applied pressure must be approximately ____. A. 17 Pa B. 68 Pa C. 0.06 Pa D. 1.7 × 1017 Pa Tippens - 013 Chapter... #21 22. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m. What is the longitudinal strain? A. 1.17 × 10-2 B. 3.45 × 10-2 C. 2.08 × 10-3 D. 8.78 × 10-3 Tippens - 013 Chapter... #22 23. A cable 24 m long and 1.5 mm radius is stretched by a force of 550 N. If the length after stretching is 24.05 m, what is Young's modulus for the cable? A. 44.8 MPa B. 77.8 MPa C. 37,400 MPa D. 74,300 MPa Tippens - 013 Chapter... #23 24. The elastic limit of a ductile material is usually ____ the breaking strength. A. larger than B. smaller than C. the same as Tippens - 013 Chapter... #24 25. A liquid compresses 2.0 percent when subjected to a pressure of 34 MPa. What is the bulk modulus of the liquid? A. 17 MPa B. 1700 MPa C. 68 MPa D. 7700 MPa Tippens - 013 Chapter... #25 26. The spring constant for a stiff spring is 8400 N/m. What force will elongate the spring 1.5 cm? A. 126 N B. 56 N C. 5600 N D. 12600 N Tippens - 013 Chapter... #26 27. Young's modulus applies to A. solids B. liquids C. gases D. solids and liquids Tippens - 013 Chapter... #27 28. A shearing force of 4.6 × 104 N is applied to a cube of copper (S=4.23 × 1010 Pa) that measures 15 cm on a side. What is the shear strain? A. 8.03 × 10-4 B. b.7.25 × 10-6 C. 8.03 × 10-5 D. 4.83 × 10-5 Tippens - 013 Chapter... #28 29. If the longitudinal strain due to tension stress on an object is 3.0000 × 10-4 and the original length of the object is 60.000 cm, what is the final length? A. 60.018 cm B. 60.013 cm C. 59.997 cm D. 59.982 cm Tippens - 013 Chapter... #29 30. Which of the following never changes the volume of an object under stress? A. compression B. tension C. bulk compression D. shear Tippens - 013 Chapter... #30 31. A rectangular beam supporting a load F is compressed an amount ∆1. If another beam made of the same material, with double the length, double the width, and double the thickness, supports a load of the same force F, its compression will be ____. A. 2∆1 B. ∆1 C. 4∆1 D. ∆1/2 Tippens - 013 Chapter... #31 32. A spring 0.40 m long is stretched 0.25 m when a 100.0 N force is applied. The spring constant is ____. A. 150 N/m B. 400 N/m C. 65 N/m D. 25 N/m Tippens - 013 Chapter... #32 33. A steel rivet 1.50 cm long and 1.5 mm radius has one end attached to a wall. If the other end is subjected to a shearing force of 6.0 × 104 N, what is the downward deflection? The shear modulus for steel is 8.27 × 1010 Pa. A. 0.75 mm B. 1.54 mm C. 8.61 mm D. 10.1 mm Tippens - 013 Chapter... #33 34. Determine the compressibility of an fluid that compresses 0.65% under a pressure of 8.5 Mpa. A. 7.65 × 10-10 m2/N B. 1.34 × 10-10 m2/N C. 8.13 × 10-9 m2/N D. 5.68 × 10-9 m2/N Tippens - 013 Chapter... #34 35. Three types of stress are _______________, ________________, and ________________. tensile, compressive, shearing Tippens - 013 Chapter... #35 36. The constant ratio of stress to strain is called the _________ ____ ________. modulus of elasticity Tippens - 013 Chapter... #36 37. _____________ is the relative change in the dimensions or shape of a body as a result of an applied force. Strain Tippens - 013 Chapter... #37 38. Whenever a shearing stress is applied, the strain can be approximated by _______ θ. tan Tippens - 013 Chapter... #38 39. The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called _____________________ and is denoted by the symbol _____. compressibility, k Tippens - 013 Chapter... #39 40. The stress on a body is the ratio of ______________________ to ______________________. applied force, surface area Tippens - 013 Chapter... #40 41. The ultimate strength of a material is always ______________________ its elastic limit. greater than Tippens - 013 Chapter... #41 42. The SI units for elastic modulus are ______ or N/m2. Pa Tippens - 013 Chapter... #42 43. The term elastic limit refers to the maximum ____________________ a body can experience without becoming permanently deformed. stress Tippens - 013 Chapter... #43 44. The only elastic modulus that applies for liquids is the __________ ___________. bulk modulus Tippens - 013 Chapter... #44 45. A linear relationship between the elongation of an object and the applied force is known as __________ Law. Hooke's Tippens - 013 Chapter... #45 46. Shearing stress changes the ______ of a body, leaving the ________ unchanged. shape, volume Tippens - 013 Chapter... #46 47. The ________ __________ is the greatest stress a material can withstand without breaking. ultimate strength Tippens - 013 Chapter... #47 48. In addition to elastic moduli, three other important measures of the properties of materials are ________, ________, and ____________. hardness, ductility, malleability Tippens - 013 Chapter... #48 ch13 Summary Category Tippens - 013 Chapter... # of Questions 48 ch14 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. True False 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. True False 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. True False 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. True False 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. True False 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. True False 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. True False 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. True False 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. True False 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. True False 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. True False 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. ________________________________________ 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. ________________________________________ 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. ________________________________________ 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. ________________________________________ 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. ________________________________________ 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. ________________________________________ 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. ________________________________________ 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. ________________________________________ 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. ________________________________________ ch14 Key 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #1 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #2 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #3 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #4 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #5 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #6 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #7 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #8 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #9 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #10 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #11 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these Tippens - 010 Chapter... #12 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated Tippens - 010 Chapter... #13 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #14 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass Tippens - 010 Chapter... #15 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #16 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #17 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #18 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° Tippens - 010 Chapter... #19 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #20 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #21 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r Tippens - 010 Chapter... #22 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses Tippens - 010 Chapter... #23 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases Tippens - 010 Chapter... #24 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth Tippens - 010 Chapter... #25 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation Tippens - 010 Chapter... #26 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle Tippens - 010 Chapter... #27 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times Tippens - 010 Chapter... #28 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers Tippens - 010 Chapter... #29 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #30 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #31 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #32 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #33 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #34 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #35 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #36 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day Tippens - 010 Chapter... #37 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. speed, direction Tippens - 010 Chapter... #38 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. frequency, period Tippens - 010 Chapter... #39 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. 4 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #40 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. masses, square, distance Tippens - 010 Chapter... #41 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. centripetal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #42 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. tan Tippens - 010 Chapter... #43 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. center Tippens - 010 Chapter... #44 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. normal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #45 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. critical Tippens - 010 Chapter... #46 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. lb Tippens - 010 Chapter... #47 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. 9 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #48 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. cube Tippens - 010 Chapter... #49 ch14 Summary Category Tippens - 010 Chapter... # of Questions 49 ch15 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. True False 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. True False 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. True False 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. True False 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. True False 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. True False 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. True False 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. True False 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. True False 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. True False 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. True False 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. ________________________________________ 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. ________________________________________ 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. ________________________________________ 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. ________________________________________ 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. ________________________________________ 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. ________________________________________ 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. ________________________________________ 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. ________________________________________ 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. ________________________________________ ch15 Key 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #1 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #2 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #3 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #4 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #5 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #6 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #7 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #8 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #9 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #10 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #11 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these Tippens - 010 Chapter... #12 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated Tippens - 010 Chapter... #13 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #14 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass Tippens - 010 Chapter... #15 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #16 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #17 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #18 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° Tippens - 010 Chapter... #19 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #20 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #21 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r Tippens - 010 Chapter... #22 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses Tippens - 010 Chapter... #23 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases Tippens - 010 Chapter... #24 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth Tippens - 010 Chapter... #25 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation Tippens - 010 Chapter... #26 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle Tippens - 010 Chapter... #27 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times Tippens - 010 Chapter... #28 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers Tippens - 010 Chapter... #29 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #30 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #31 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #32 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #33 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #34 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #35 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #36 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day Tippens - 010 Chapter... #37 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. speed, direction Tippens - 010 Chapter... #38 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. frequency, period Tippens - 010 Chapter... #39 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. 4 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #40 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. masses, square, distance Tippens - 010 Chapter... #41 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. centripetal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #42 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. tan Tippens - 010 Chapter... #43 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. center Tippens - 010 Chapter... #44 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. normal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #45 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. critical Tippens - 010 Chapter... #46 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. lb Tippens - 010 Chapter... #47 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. 9 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #48 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. cube Tippens - 010 Chapter... #49 ch15 Summary Category Tippens - 010 Chapter... # of Questions 49 ch16 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. True False 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. True False 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. True False 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. True False 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. True False 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. True False 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. True False 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. True False 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. True False 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. True False 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. True False 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. ________________________________________ 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. ________________________________________ 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. ________________________________________ 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. ________________________________________ 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. ________________________________________ 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. ________________________________________ 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. ________________________________________ 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. ________________________________________ 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. ________________________________________ ch16 Key 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #1 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #2 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #3 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #4 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #5 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #6 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #7 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #8 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #9 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #10 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #11 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these Tippens - 010 Chapter... #12 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated Tippens - 010 Chapter... #13 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #14 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass Tippens - 010 Chapter... #15 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #16 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #17 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #18 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° Tippens - 010 Chapter... #19 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #20 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #21 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r Tippens - 010 Chapter... #22 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses Tippens - 010 Chapter... #23 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases Tippens - 010 Chapter... #24 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth Tippens - 010 Chapter... #25 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation Tippens - 010 Chapter... #26 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle Tippens - 010 Chapter... #27 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times Tippens - 010 Chapter... #28 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers Tippens - 010 Chapter... #29 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #30 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #31 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #32 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #33 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #34 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #35 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #36 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day Tippens - 010 Chapter... #37 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. speed, direction Tippens - 010 Chapter... #38 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. frequency, period Tippens - 010 Chapter... #39 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. 4 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #40 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. masses, square, distance Tippens - 010 Chapter... #41 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. centripetal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #42 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. tan Tippens - 010 Chapter... #43 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. center Tippens - 010 Chapter... #44 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. normal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #45 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. critical Tippens - 010 Chapter... #46 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. lb Tippens - 010 Chapter... #47 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. 9 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #48 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. cube Tippens - 010 Chapter... #49 ch16 Summary Category Tippens - 010 Chapter... # of Questions 49 ch17 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. True False 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. True False 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. True False 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. True False 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. True False 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. True False 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. True False 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. True False 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. True False 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. True False 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. True False 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. ________________________________________ 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. ________________________________________ 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. ________________________________________ 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. ________________________________________ 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. ________________________________________ 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. ________________________________________ 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. ________________________________________ 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. ________________________________________ 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. ________________________________________ 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. ________________________________________ ch17 Key 1. When a rock is made to move in a circular path at the end of a string, an outward force is exerted on the rock. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #1 2. In order for an object to undergo circular motion, a force must be applied having a component pointing toward the center of the circle. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #2 3. When a car moves in a horizontal circle on a level road, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force between the tires and the road. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #3 4. The maximum speed with which a car can negotiate a curve does not depend on the weight of the car. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #4 5. A ball connected to a string travels in a circle on a horizontal table. If the string breaks, the ball will travel in a straight line on the table. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #5 6. Just as a resultant force is needed to change the speed of a body, a resultant force is necessary to change its direction. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #6 7. Uniform circular motion is motion in which the linear speed changes at a constant rate. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #7 8. From Kepler's Laws, all lines connecting the planets to the sun travel with the same velocity. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #8 9. If two masses are separated by twice the distance, they will experience one-half the gravitational attraction. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #9 10. An object is rotating in a vertical circle. If the velocity at the top of the path falls below the critical velocity, the object will travel in a parabolic path. TRUE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #10 11. A ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle. The tension in the cord is always greater at the top than at the bottom. FALSE Tippens - 010 Chapter... #11 12. A ball is tied to a string and swung in a horizontal circle. When the string breaks, the ball will follow a path that is ____. A. toward the center B. away from the center C. at a tangent to its circular path D. none of these Tippens - 010 Chapter... #12 13. A body traveling in a circular path at constant speed ____. A. has an outward acceleration B. has inward acceleration C. has constant velocity D. is not accelerated Tippens - 010 Chapter... #13 14. An object rotates in a circle of radius 40 cm with a period of 0.25s. What is the frequency of revolution? A. 0.25 rev/s B. 4 rev/s C. 8 rev/s D. 10 rev/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #14 15. An object swings at the end of a string in uniform circular motion. Which of the following changes would not cause an increased centripetal force? A. a longer string B. a shorter string C. a greater linear speed D. a larger mass Tippens - 010 Chapter... #15 16. What is the speed of a object in uniform circular motion if the radius of curvature is 3m and the frequency of rotation is 15 rev/s? A. 45 m/s B. 90 m/s C. 150 m/s D. 283 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #16 17. The centripetal acceleration of a 2-kg mass swinging in a 0.4-m radius with a linear speed of 4 m/s is ____. A. 4 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. 20 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #17 18. An 8-kg ball is swung in a horizontal circle by a cord of length 2 m. If the period is 0.5 s, the tension in the cord is approximately ____. A. 264 N B. 202 N C. 1200 N D. 2527 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #18 19. The banking angle for a curve of radius 400 ft for a speed of 60 mi/h should be approximately ____. A. 31° B. 16° C. 26° D. 37° Tippens - 010 Chapter... #19 20. The gravitational constant is 6.67 × 10-11 N . m2/kg2. What is the gravitational force between two 4-kg balls separated by 0.2 m? A. 5.34 × 10-7 N B. 2.67 × 10-8 N C. 1.33 × 10-8 N D. 6.67 × 10-8 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #20 21. A car traveling on an unbanked road can attain a maximum speed of 55 mi/hr and stay on the road. If the radius of the road is 300 ft, what is the coefficient of static friction between the tires and the road? A. 0.01 B. 0.68 C. 0.08 D. 0.34 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #21 22. An object in circular motion travels a distance of ____ during one period of its motion. A. v2/r B. 2πr C. 4πr2 D. r Tippens - 010 Chapter... #22 23. According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two masses is directly proportional to ____. A. the product of the two masses B. the velocity of the two masses C. the distance between the two masses D. the sum of the two masses Tippens - 010 Chapter... #23 24. As the distance between two bodies increases, the force of attraction between the bodies ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases Tippens - 010 Chapter... #24 25. Astronauts in an orbiting space shuttle experience a sensation of weightlessness because ____. A. the space shuttle is moving away from Earth B. the mass of the space shuttle decreases as the distance from Earth increases C. the space shuttle is not affected by Earth's gravity D. the space shuttle is falling freely toward Earth Tippens - 010 Chapter... #25 26. According to ____, an imaginary line from the sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal time intervals. A. Kepler's second law of planetary motion B. Newton's third law of motion C. Cavendish's experiment D. Newton's law of universal gravitation Tippens - 010 Chapter... #26 27. An object attached to a string is swung around in a horizontal circle on a table. If the string suddenly breaks, the motion of the object is ____. A. tangent to the circle when the string breaks B. toward the circumference of the circle C. toward the center of the circle D. away from the center of the circle Tippens - 010 Chapter... #27 28. An object is rotating with uniform circular motion. If the original speed is doubled and the radius is cut in half, the new centripetal force is ____ the original centripetal force. A. four times B. the same as C. two times D. eight times Tippens - 010 Chapter... #28 29. In a conical pendulum, if the angle with the vertical is increased, which of the following increases? A. the linear speed B. the tension in the string C. the frequency of revolution D. all of these answers Tippens - 010 Chapter... #29 30. A stone tied to a string of length 0.40 m is moving with uniform circular motion. If it makes 3.0 revolutions each second, its centripetal acceleration is ____. A. 140 m/s2 B. 36 m/s2 C. 19 m/s2 D. 22 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #30 31. What is the linear speed at a point 4.0 cm from the axis of an ultracentrifuge such that the centripetal acceleration is 106g (i.e., 106 times acceleration of gravity)? A. 4.0 × 104 m/s B. 200 m/s C. 3.9 × 104 m/s D. 630 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #31 32. If the mass of Mars is 6.42 × 1023 kg and its radius is 3.38 × 106 m, find the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars. A. 1.67 m/s2 B. 3.75 m/s2 C. 6.67 m/s2 D. 9.81 m/s2 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #32 33. A 3 kg ball attached to a sting swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the minimum speed of the ball for circular motion at the top of its path? A. 1.2 m/s B. 2.7 m/s C. 7.4 m/s D. 9.8 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #33 34. Without the aid of friction, how fast can a car travel around a 45.0 m radius circle banked at 20.0o? A. 12.7 m/s B. 23.0 m/s C. 56.1 m/s D. 160 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #34 35. A satellite is circling the earth at 7.26 × 106 m with speed 7400 m/s. A second satellite with twice the mass is traveling at the same radius. What is the speed of the second satellite? A. 1850 m/s B. 3700 m/s C. 7400 m/s D. 14800 m/s Tippens - 010 Chapter... #35 36. A 3 kg ball attached to a string swings in a vertical circle of radius 75 cm. What is the tension in the string at the top of the ball's path if its linear velocity is 3.46 m/s? A. 0 B. 18.5 N C. 29.4 N D. 77.4 N Tippens - 010 Chapter... #36 37. What is the frequency of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around the earth's surface? A. 1.16 × 10-5 rev/s B. 7.27 × 10-5 rev/s C. 1 rev/s D. 1 day Tippens - 010 Chapter... #37 38. Uniform circular motion is motion in which there is no change in ____________________ but only a change in ____________________. speed, direction Tippens - 010 Chapter... #38 39. The ____________________ is the number of revolutions per unit of time, whereas the ____________________ is the time for one revolution. frequency, period Tippens - 010 Chapter... #39 40. For a body moving in a horizontal circle, doubling the linear speed has the effect of increasing the centripetal acceleration by a factor of _____. 4 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #40 41. The gravitational force between two particles is directly proportional to the product of their ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________ of the ____________________ between them. masses, square, distance Tippens - 010 Chapter... #41 42. The force required to keep a mass moving in a circular path at constant speed v is called the ____________________ force and has a magnitude equal to mv2/R, where R is the radius of the circle. centripetal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #42 43. The proper banking angle to eliminate the necessity for a frictional force is given by the relation ___ q = v2/(gR), where v is the velocity, R is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. tan Tippens - 010 Chapter... #43 44. In uniform circular motion, the direction of the centripetal force always points toward the _______. center Tippens - 010 Chapter... #44 45. In the absence of friction, a car on a banked road has a centripetal force provided by a component of the _____________ force. normal Tippens - 010 Chapter... #45 46. The ____________________ speed is the minimum speed needed to maintain circular motion in a vertical plane. critical Tippens - 010 Chapter... #46 47. The correct set of USCS units for the gravitational constant is ____ · ft2/slug2. lb Tippens - 010 Chapter... #47 48. If the distance between two masses is tripled, the gravitational force between them is reduced by a factor of _____. 9 Tippens - 010 Chapter... #48 49. From Kepler's Third Law, the square of the period of any planet is proportional to the _______ of the average distance from the planet to the sun. cube Tippens - 010 Chapter... #49 ch17 Summary Category Tippens - 010 Chapter... # of Questions 49 ch18 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A material with a high thermal conductivity is a good conductor of heat. True False 2. The quantity of heat transferred through a slab of area 4 ft2 is greater than the quantity of heat conducted through an area of 8 ft2, assuming that all other parameters are constant. True False 3. When a radiator is used to heat a room, the principal method of heat transfer warming the room is convection. True False 4. A material with a low emissivity is a good reflector of radiation. True False 5. All objects emit electromagnetic radiation, regardless of their temperature or the temperature of their surroundings. True False 6. An object that absorbs a large percentage of incident radiation will be a poor emitter of radiation. True False 7. Because of a similarity in the definition of heat units, the thermal conductivities are the same numerically in the engineering system and the metric system of units. True False 8. A body at the same temperature as its surroundings radiates and absorbs heat at the same rate. True False 9. In a composite wall of two or more different materials, the same number of calories is transferred per unit area per unit time through each material after time is allowed for steady flow to be established. True False 10. A material with a low thermal conductivity has a low R-value. True False 11. As the temperature of an object increases, the measured wavelengths of emitted radiation will increase. True False 12. The R-value of insulation does not depend on the cross-sectional area. True False 13. Which of the following geometries will result in the largest convection coefficient? A. Vertical plate B. Horizontal plate, facing upward C. Diagonal plate D. Horizontal plate, facing downward 14. You are standing on the beach. The heat transfer from the sand to your feet is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and convection 15. The dead airspace between the walls of a calorimeter cup and its outside container minimizes heat loss primarily due to ____. A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. contamination 16. You are standing on the beach. The transfer of heat you feel due to a cool breeze is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and radiation 17. You are standing on the beach. The heat transfer due to the sun is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and convection 18. 18.Which of the following does not indicate heat flow as a quantity of heat per unit time? A. kA ∆t/L B. hA∆t C. H D. eσT4 19. The thermal conductivity of a plate is 0.01 kcal/sm2C°. The plate is 2 cm thick and has a cross-section of 4000 cm2. If one side is at 150°C and the other at 50°C, the number of kilocalories transferred every second is approximately ____. A. 10 kcal B. 20 kcal C. 40 kcal D. 80 kcal 20. The convection coefficient for a vertical plate is 12.7 × 10-4 kcal/sm2C° when the difference of temperature between the plate and its surroundings is 810°C. How much heat is transferred by convection from each side of the plate in 1 h if the area is 20cm2? A. 0.206 cal B. 12.4 cal C. 7410 cal D. 8410 cal 21. A body having an emissivity of 0.2 and a surface area of 0.2 m2 is heated to 727°C. The power radiated from the surface is approximately ____. A. 634 W B. 1134 W C. 1830 W D. 2268 W 22. A blackbody is emitting radiation at a rate of 25 W at 27oC. If the temperature of the body is raised to 327oC, what is the rate of emission? A. 25 W B. 125 W C. 300 W D. 400 W 23. A poor emitter of radiation is ____. A. a good absorber of radiation B. always dark C. a blackbody radiator D. a poor absorber of radiation 24. Twenty-five W/m2 of heat transfer occurs when the temperature difference between two faces of insulation 3.0 cm apart is 25oC. What is the thermal conductivity of the insulation? A. 0.02 W/(m. K) B. 0.03 W/(m. K) C. 3.70 W/(m. K) D. 6.60 W/(m. K) 25. The rate of radiation for a blackbody is 50.0 W/m2 at 27.0°C. What is the rate of radiation when the temperature of the blackbody is 127°C? A. 158 W/m2 B. 2.40 × 104 W/m2 C. 67 W/m2 D. 235 W/m2 26. A wall with an R-value of 7.00 ft2F°h/Btu allows heat flow per unit time of 2.00 Btu/h. If insulation of R-value 17.00 ft2·F·h/Btu is placed next to the wall, the new value for the heat flow per unit time is ____. A. 0.580 Btu/h B. 2.08 Btu/h C. 2.82 Btu/h D. 0.200 Btu/h 27. Which of the following is an example of convection heating? A. placing one end of a hot poker in the fireplace B. microwave cooking C. heating a container of water D. solar cells 28. Which of the following has the lowest emissivity? A. aluminum foil B. a red balloon C. a blackboard D. the sun 29. A compound wall consisting of 2 in. of drywall (k = 0.16W/m×K) and 3 in. of fiberglass (k = 0.04 W/m×K) transfers 20 W of heat through the drywall. What is the rate of heat transfer through the fiberglass? A. 30 W B. 20 W C. 10 W D. 80 W 30. A vacuum bottle minimizes heat transfer by convection because ____. A. lightweight materials are used B. there is a vacuum between the walls C. the sides are silvered D. plastic and glass are insulators 31. A copper cylinder conducts heat at a rate of 25 W. Another copper rod that is twice as long and has twice the diameter as the first will conduct heat at a rate of ____. A. 100 W B. 50 W C. 25 W D. 800 W 32. A wall of a house has an area of 12 m × 5 m and is 15 cm thick. If the outside temperature is 27oC and the inside temperature is kept at 23oC, how much heat energy flows through the wall in one day? The thermal conductivity of the wall is 0.75 W/(m . K) A. 1200 J B. 4.32 MJ C. 104 MJ D. 18 MJ 33. A 50 W lightbulb is operating at a temperature of 675oC. What is the surface area of the filament if its emissivity is 0.65? A. 16.8 cm2 B. 65.4 cm2 C. 1.43 cm2 D. 34.8 cm2 34. Which of the following does not rely on convection currents? A. heating systems B. radiators C. fireplaces D. solar cells 35. A vacuum bottle uses insulating materials, has an air space between the bottles' outside and inside container, and has a highly reflective inner container. What form of heat transfer does it minimize? A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. conduction, convection, and radiation. 36. What is the R-value in metric units? A. m2. K . s/J B. W/(m . K) C. J . K . s/W D. cal/ (K . s) 37. Two types of convection that apply to most heating systems are _______________ convection and _________________ convection. ________________________________________ 38. For the common laboratory calorimeter, heat losses resulting from ________________ are minimized by a dead airspace. The rubber ring prevents heat losses by _________________, and radiation losses are minimized by the _______ ______ _______. ________________________________________ 39. Heat is transferred from the sun to the earth by means of ____________________. ________________________________________ 40. The rate at which thermal radiation is emitted from a surface varies directly with the _____________ power of the __________ ____________. ________________________________________ 41. The ____________________ of a body is a measure of its ability to absorb or emit thermal radiation, and it may vary from a value of ________ to a value of ________. ________________________________________ 42. The convection coefficient is not a property of the solid or fluid but depends primarily on the _______________ of the solid. The convection coefficients for a wall, a floor, and a ceiling are largest for the _______________ and lowest for the _________________. ________________________________________ 43. The British units commonly used for thermal conductivity are the ________/(ft2×h×F°), and the metric units are the ___________/(m×s×C°). __________ 44. A body that has a high emissivity is a _________ reflector of radiation. ________________________________________ 45. The warm air over a burning fire will rise under the influence of _________________ currents. ________________________________________ 46. On a cold day, a piece of iron feels colder to the touch than a piece of wood at the same temperature because the iron has a higher ____________ _____________. ________________________________________ 47. Poor conductors have a _____ R-value. ________________________________________ 48. Doubling the absolute temperature of a blackbody will increase its rate of thermal energy emitted by a factor of ____. ________________________________________ 49. The sea breeze from a body of water to a beach is an example of ___________ convection. ________________________________________ 50. The amount of heat transferred between two faces of a slab due to conduction depends on __________ __________, _____ __ _______, and _______ __ _______. ________________________________________ ch18 Key 1. A material with a high thermal conductivity is a good conductor of heat. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #1 2. The quantity of heat transferred through a slab of area 4 ft2 is greater than the quantity of heat conducted through an area of 8 ft2, assuming that all other parameters are constant. FALSE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #2 3. When a radiator is used to heat a room, the principal method of heat transfer warming the room is convection. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #3 4. A material with a low emissivity is a good reflector of radiation. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #4 5. All objects emit electromagnetic radiation, regardless of their temperature or the temperature of their surroundings. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #5 6. An object that absorbs a large percentage of incident radiation will be a poor emitter of radiation. FALSE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #6 7. Because of a similarity in the definition of heat units, the thermal conductivities are the same numerically in the engineering system and the metric system of units. FALSE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #7 8. A body at the same temperature as its surroundings radiates and absorbs heat at the same rate. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #8 9. In a composite wall of two or more different materials, the same number of calories is transferred per unit area per unit time through each material after time is allowed for steady flow to be established. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #9 10. A material with a low thermal conductivity has a low R-value. FALSE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #10 11. As the temperature of an object increases, the measured wavelengths of emitted radiation will increase. FALSE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #11 12. The R-value of insulation does not depend on the cross-sectional area. TRUE Tippens - 018 Chapter... #12 13. Which of the following geometries will result in the largest convection coefficient? A. Vertical plate B. Horizontal plate, facing upward C. Diagonal plate D. Horizontal plate, facing downward Tippens - 018 Chapter... #13 14. You are standing on the beach. The heat transfer from the sand to your feet is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and convection Tippens - 018 Chapter... #14 15. The dead airspace between the walls of a calorimeter cup and its outside container minimizes heat loss primarily due to ____. A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. contamination Tippens - 018 Chapter... #15 16. You are standing on the beach. The transfer of heat you feel due to a cool breeze is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and radiation Tippens - 018 Chapter... #16 17. You are standing on the beach. The heat transfer due to the sun is due to A. conduction B. convection. C. radiation D. conduction and convection Tippens - 018 Chapter... #17 18. 18.Which of the following does not indicate heat flow as a quantity of heat per unit time? A. kA ∆t/L B. hA∆t C. H D. eσT4 Tippens - 018 Chapter... #18 19. The thermal conductivity of a plate is 0.01 kcal/sm2C°. The plate is 2 cm thick and has a cross-section of 4000 cm2. If one side is at 150°C and the other at 50°C, the number of kilocalories transferred every second is approximately ____. A. 10 kcal B. 20 kcal C. 40 kcal D. 80 kcal Tippens - 018 Chapter... #19 20. The convection coefficient for a vertical plate is 12.7 × 10-4 kcal/sm2C° when the difference of temperature between the plate and its surroundings is 810°C. How much heat is transferred by convection from each side of the plate in 1 h if the area is 20cm2? A. 0.206 cal B. 12.4 cal C. 7410 cal D. 8410 cal Tippens - 018 Chapter... #20 21. A body having an emissivity of 0.2 and a surface area of 0.2 m2 is heated to 727°C. The power radiated from the surface is approximately ____. A. 634 W B. 1134 W C. 1830 W D. 2268 W Tippens - 018 Chapter... #21 22. A blackbody is emitting radiation at a rate of 25 W at 27oC. If the temperature of the body is raised to 327oC, what is the rate of emission? A. 25 W B. 125 W C. 300 W D. 400 W Tippens - 018 Chapter... #22 23. A poor emitter of radiation is ____. A. a good absorber of radiation B. always dark C. a blackbody radiator D. a poor absorber of radiation Tippens - 018 Chapter... #23 24. Twenty-five W/m2 of heat transfer occurs when the temperature difference between two faces of insulation 3.0 cm apart is 25oC. What is the thermal conductivity of the insulation? A. 0.02 W/(m. K) B. 0.03 W/(m. K) C. 3.70 W/(m. K) D. 6.60 W/(m. K) Tippens - 018 Chapter... #24 25. The rate of radiation for a blackbody is 50.0 W/m2 at 27.0°C. What is the rate of radiation when the temperature of the blackbody is 127°C? A. 158 W/m2 B. 2.40 × 104 W/m2 C. 67 W/m2 D. 235 W/m2 Tippens - 018 Chapter... #25 26. A wall with an R-value of 7.00 ft2F°h/Btu allows heat flow per unit time of 2.00 Btu/h. If insulation of R-value 17.00 ft2·F·h/Btu is placed next to the wall, the new value for the heat flow per unit time is ____. A. 0.580 Btu/h B. 2.08 Btu/h C. 2.82 Btu/h D. 0.200 Btu/h Tippens - 018 Chapter... #26 27. Which of the following is an example of convection heating? A. placing one end of a hot poker in the fireplace B. microwave cooking C. heating a container of water D. solar cells Tippens - 018 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following has the lowest emissivity? A. aluminum foil B. a red balloon C. a blackboard D. the sun Tippens - 018 Chapter... #28 29. A compound wall consisting of 2 in. of drywall (k = 0.16W/m×K) and 3 in. of fiberglass (k = 0.04 W/m×K) transfers 20 W of heat through the drywall. What is the rate of heat transfer through the fiberglass? A. 30 W B. 20 W C. 10 W D. 80 W Tippens - 018 Chapter... #29 30. A vacuum bottle minimizes heat transfer by convection because ____. A. lightweight materials are used B. there is a vacuum between the walls C. the sides are silvered D. plastic and glass are insulators Tippens - 018 Chapter... #30 31. A copper cylinder conducts heat at a rate of 25 W. Another copper rod that is twice as long and has twice the diameter as the first will conduct heat at a rate of ____. A. 100 W B. 50 W C. 25 W D. 800 W Tippens - 018 Chapter... #31 32. A wall of a house has an area of 12 m × 5 m and is 15 cm thick. If the outside temperature is 27oC and the inside temperature is kept at 23oC, how much heat energy flows through the wall in one day? The thermal conductivity of the wall is 0.75 W/(m . K) A. 1200 J B. 4.32 MJ C. 104 MJ D. 18 MJ Tippens - 018 Chapter... #32 33. A 50 W lightbulb is operating at a temperature of 675oC. What is the surface area of the filament if its emissivity is 0.65? A. 16.8 cm2 B. 65.4 cm2 C. 1.43 cm2 D. 34.8 cm2 Tippens - 018 Chapter... #33 34. Which of the following does not rely on convection currents? A. heating systems B. radiators C. fireplaces D. solar cells Tippens - 018 Chapter... #34 35. A vacuum bottle uses insulating materials, has an air space between the bottles' outside and inside container, and has a highly reflective inner container. What form of heat transfer does it minimize? A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. conduction, convection, and radiation. Tippens - 018 Chapter... #35 36. What is the R-value in metric units? A. m2. K . s/J B. W/(m . K) C. J . K . s/W D. cal/ (K . s) Tippens - 018 Chapter... #36 37. Two types of convection that apply to most heating systems are _______________ convection and _________________ convection. natural, forced Tippens - 018 Chapter... #37 38. For the common laboratory calorimeter, heat losses resulting from ________________ are minimized by a dead airspace. The rubber ring prevents heat losses by _________________, and radiation losses are minimized by the _______ ______ _______. convection, conduction, polished aluminum surfaces Tippens - 018 Chapter... #38 39. Heat is transferred from the sun to the earth by means of ____________________. radiation Tippens - 018 Chapter... #39 40. The rate at which thermal radiation is emitted from a surface varies directly with the _____________ power of the __________ ____________. fourth, absolute temperature Tippens - 018 Chapter... #40 41. The ____________________ of a body is a measure of its ability to absorb or emit thermal radiation, and it may vary from a value of ________ to a value of ________. emissivity, 0, 1 Tippens - 018 Chapter... #41 42. The convection coefficient is not a property of the solid or fluid but depends primarily on the _______________ of the solid. The convection coefficients for a wall, a floor, and a ceiling are largest for the _______________ and lowest for the _________________. geometry, floor, ceiling Tippens - 018 Chapter... #42 43. The British units commonly used for thermal conductivity are the ________/(ft2×h×F°), and the metric units are the ___________/(m×s×C°). Btu x inkcal Tippens - 018 Chapter... #43 44. A body that has a high emissivity is a _________ reflector of radiation. poor Tippens - 018 Chapter... #44 45. The warm air over a burning fire will rise under the influence of _________________ currents. convection Tippens - 018 Chapter... #45 46. On a cold day, a piece of iron feels colder to the touch than a piece of wood at the same temperature because the iron has a higher ____________ _____________. thermal conductivity Tippens - 018 Chapter... #46 47. Poor conductors have a _____ R-value. high Tippens - 018 Chapter... #47 48. Doubling the absolute temperature of a blackbody will increase its rate of thermal energy emitted by a factor of ____. 16 Tippens - 018 Chapter... #48 49. The sea breeze from a body of water to a beach is an example of ___________ convection. natural Tippens - 018 Chapter... #49 50. The amount of heat transferred between two faces of a slab due to conduction depends on __________ __________, _____ __ _______, and _______ __ _______. temperature difference, area of slab, thickness of slab. Tippens - 018 Chapter... #50 ch18 Summary Category Tippens - 018 Chapter... # of Questions 50 ch19 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Provided that the mass and temperature of an ideal gas are maintained constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute pressure. True False 2. If the mass and volume of a gas remain constant, doubling the pressure will also double the temperature. True False 3. The mass of a single molecule of a substance is known as its molecular mass. True False 4. At a temperature of 273 K and a pressure of 1 atm, 1 mol of any gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 L. True False 5. Only absolute temperatures and absolute pressures can be used in applying the general gas laws. True False 6. An ideal gas never turns into a liquid, no matter what the pressure, volume, or temperature conditions. True False 7. The saturated vapor pressure for a substance is greater at higher temperatures. True False 8. Multiply absolute humidity by 100% gives the relative humidity. True False 9. It is possible for ice to be in thermal equilibrium with boiling water. True False 10. The same mass of any ideal gas will occupy the same volume at standard temperature and pressure. True False 11. A plot of volume vs temperature for a gas will always extrapolate to 0oC at zero volume. True False 12. One mole of carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) has the same amount of molecules as one mole of carbon monoxide (CO). True False 13. The point on a P vs T graph where solid, liquid, and gas phases co-exist is the triple point. True False 14. Boyle's law states that, when other parameters are held constant, ____. A. pressure varies directly with volume B. pressure varies directly with temperature C. pressure varies inversely with volume D. volume varies directly with temperature 15. If the mass and pressure of a gas are held constant while its volume doubles, the temperature is changed by a factor of ____. A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 2 D. 4 16. The amount of water contained in the air of a given room is described most accurately by the ____. A. absolute humidity B. relative humidity C. vapor pressure D. dew point 17. It is possible for a substance to coexist in all three of its phases in equilibrium when the substance is at its ____. A. critical pressure B. critical temperature C. triple point D. dew point 18. At a temperature of 273 K and a pressure of 1 atm, 1 mol of any gas will occupy a volume ____. A. of 1 L B. of 22.4 m3 C. equal to its molecular mass D. of 22.4 L 19. A weather balloon is filled to a volume of 400 L at 0°C. What will its volume be at 100°C if the pressure is constant? A. 147 L B. 255 L C. 293 L D. 547 L 20. What is the molecular mass of C 2 H 4 O 2 . (The molecular masses are C =12u, O=16u, and H 1u.) A. 8u B. 16u C. 32u D. 60u 21. How many atoms are in one mole of water (H 2 O)? A. 3.01 × 1023 B. 6.02 × 1023 C. 1.20 × 1024 D. 1.81 × 1024 22. An ideal gas is in a container with a piston at 20oC. If the pressure is doubled and the volume halved, what is the new temperature? A. 20oC B. 273oC C. 213oC D. -126oC 23. A 5000-cm3 container holds 6 g of gas under a pressure of 2 atm and a temperature of 20°C. When 10 g of the same gas fills a 2500-cm3 container, the temperature rises to 30°C. The new pressure is ____. A. 2.71 atm B. 3.3 atm C. 6.89 atm D. 9.31 atm 24. Ten liters of ideal gas at an absolute pressure of 2.0 atm and a temperature of 0.0°C is heated at a constant pressure until the temperature is 100.0°C. What is the new volume? A. 7.3 liters B. 14 liters C. 5.0 liters D. 100 liters 25. If the pressure and absolute temperature of an ideal gas are both tripled, the volume is ____. A. decreased to one ninth B. not changed C. increased nine times D. decreased to one third 26. Real gases behave like ideal gases at ____. A. low pressures and low temperatures B. high pressures and high temperatures C. high pressures and low temperatures D. low pressures and high temperatures 27. An ideal gas is contained in a tank at 23oC and a pressure of 1 atm. If the temperature is increased to 46oC, what is the new pressure? A. 0.56 atm B. 1.00 atm C. 1.08 atm D. 2.00 atm 28. The units for dew point are ____. A. mm Hg B. g/cm3 C. % D. °C 29. A fusion curve separates which two phases? A. liquid/gas B. solid/liquid C. solid/gas 30. What is the number of kg of air in a 0.50 m3 container compressed to 200.0 kPa at a temperature of 27.0°C? (M = 29 g/mol) A. 0.40 kg B. 12.9kg C. 1.16 kg D. 40.0 kg 31. An ideal gas in a tank has a density P. If the temperature of the gas is doubled while the pressure is cut in half, the new density of the gas is ____. A. P/4 B. P/2 C. 4P D. P 32. Which quantities are held constant in Boyle's law? A. mass and volume B. pressure only C. mass and pressure D. mass and temperature 33. The units for absolute humidity are ____. A. % B. mm Hg C. g/cm3 D. °C 34. An ideal gas is at 30oC in a container. If the pressure and volume are both doubled, what is the new temperature? A. 60oC B. 120oC C. 333oC D. 939oC. 35. What is the mass of 0.12 moles of H 2 O? (M = 1 g/mole for H and 16 g/mole for O). A. 2.16 g B. 18.0 g C. 150 g D. 6.02 g 36. The gauge pressure of a tire is 35.0 lb/in2, before driving, when the temperature is 23.0oC. If the measured gauge pressure after a trip is 39.0 lb/in2, what is the tire's temperature? Assume no leaks and a constant volume. A. 25.5oC B. 46.7oC C. 52.2oC D. 55.6oC 37. A 50 L tank can withstand a maximum absolute pressure of 6 atm at 27oC. How much oxygen gas (M = 32 g/mol) can be put into the tank? A. 3.8 g B. 390 g C. 4300 g D. 1500 g 38. A tire pressure gauge measures 190 kPa when the atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa. What is the absolute pressure in the tire? A. 89 kPa B. 101 kPa C. 190 kPa D. 291 kPa 39. What is the mass of one million lead atoms (M = 207 g/mol)? A. 207 × 10-6 g B. 3.44 × 10-16 g C. 1.87 × 10-12 g D. 5.92 × 10-15 g 40. When a plot of volume vs temperature is extrapolated to zero volume, the temperature will always approach _______ ________________________________________ 41. In the ideal gas law, the ratio of __________ to ____________ is always equal to constant R, known as the _________ _________ constant. ________________________________________ 42. The temperature above which a gas will not liquefy, regardless of the pressure applied, is called the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 43. Three types of vaporization are _______________, _______________, and _______________. ________________________________________ 44. The temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce saturation is called the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 45. _______________ humidity represents the quantity of water vapor per unit volume. _______________ humidity, however, is a percentage based on the ratio of _______ _______ _________ to ________ _________ ________. ________________________________________ 46. A ___________ is that quantity of a substance that contains the same number of particles as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon 12. ________________________________________ 47. The critical temperature of an ideal gas is _______ Kelvin. ________________________________________ 48. A mole of any gas contains ________× 1023 molecules. This number is referred to as __________ number. ________________________________________ 49. The normal boiling point of a liquid at sea level is _______ than the boiling point at a high elevation. ________________________________________ 50. Relative humidity can vary from __% to ____%. ________________________________________ 51. Condensation will appear on leaves of grass when the atmospheric temperature is below the _________ _________. ________________________________________ ch19 Key 1. Provided that the mass and temperature of an ideal gas are maintained constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute pressure. FALSE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #1 2. If the mass and volume of a gas remain constant, doubling the pressure will also double the temperature. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #2 3. The mass of a single molecule of a substance is known as its molecular mass. FALSE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #3 4. At a temperature of 273 K and a pressure of 1 atm, 1 mol of any gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 L. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #4 5. Only absolute temperatures and absolute pressures can be used in applying the general gas laws. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #5 6. An ideal gas never turns into a liquid, no matter what the pressure, volume, or temperature conditions. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #6 7. The saturated vapor pressure for a substance is greater at higher temperatures. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #7 8. Multiply absolute humidity by 100% gives the relative humidity. FALSE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #8 9. It is possible for ice to be in thermal equilibrium with boiling water. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #9 10. The same mass of any ideal gas will occupy the same volume at standard temperature and pressure. FALSE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #10 11. A plot of volume vs temperature for a gas will always extrapolate to 0oC at zero volume. FALSE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #11 12. One mole of carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) has the same amount of molecules as one mole of carbon monoxide (CO). TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #12 13. The point on a P vs T graph where solid, liquid, and gas phases co-exist is the triple point. TRUE Tippens - 019 Chapter... #13 14. Boyle's law states that, when other parameters are held constant, ____. A. pressure varies directly with volume B. pressure varies directly with temperature C. pressure varies inversely with volume D. volume varies directly with temperature Tippens - 019 Chapter... #14 15. If the mass and pressure of a gas are held constant while its volume doubles, the temperature is changed by a factor of ____. A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 2 D. 4 Tippens - 019 Chapter... #15 16. The amount of water contained in the air of a given room is described most accurately by the ____. A. absolute humidity B. relative humidity C. vapor pressure D. dew point Tippens - 019 Chapter... #16 17. It is possible for a substance to coexist in all three of its phases in equilibrium when the substance is at its ____. A. critical pressure B. critical temperature C. triple point D. dew point Tippens - 019 Chapter... #17 18. At a temperature of 273 K and a pressure of 1 atm, 1 mol of any gas will occupy a volume ____. A. of 1 L B. of 22.4 m3 C. equal to its molecular mass D. of 22.4 L Tippens - 019 Chapter... #18 19. A weather balloon is filled to a volume of 400 L at 0°C. What will its volume be at 100°C if the pressure is constant? A. 147 L B. 255 L C. 293 L D. 547 L Tippens - 019 Chapter... #19 20. What is the molecular mass of C 2 H 4 O 2 . (The molecular masses are C =12u, O=16u, and H 1u.) A. 8u B. 16u C. 32u D. 60u Tippens - 019 Chapter... #20 21. How many atoms are in one mole of water (H 2 O)? A. 3.01 × 1023 B. 6.02 × 1023 C. 1.20 × 1024 D. 1.81 × 1024 Tippens - 019 Chapter... #21 22. An ideal gas is in a container with a piston at 20oC. If the pressure is doubled and the volume halved, what is the new temperature? A. 20oC B. 273oC C. 213oC D. -126oC Tippens - 019 Chapter... #22 23. A 5000-cm3 container holds 6 g of gas under a pressure of 2 atm and a temperature of 20°C. When 10 g of the same gas fills a 2500-cm3 container, the temperature rises to 30°C. The new pressure is ____. A. 2.71 atm B. 3.3 atm C. 6.89 atm D. 9.31 atm Tippens - 019 Chapter... #23 24. Ten liters of ideal gas at an absolute pressure of 2.0 atm and a temperature of 0.0°C is heated at a constant pressure until the temperature is 100.0°C. What is the new volume? A. 7.3 liters B. 14 liters C. 5.0 liters D. 100 liters Tippens - 019 Chapter... #24 25. If the pressure and absolute temperature of an ideal gas are both tripled, the volume is ____. A. decreased to one ninth B. not changed C. increased nine times D. decreased to one third Tippens - 019 Chapter... #25 26. Real gases behave like ideal gases at ____. A. low pressures and low temperatures B. high pressures and high temperatures C. high pressures and low temperatures D. low pressures and high temperatures Tippens - 019 Chapter... #26 27. An ideal gas is contained in a tank at 23oC and a pressure of 1 atm. If the temperature is increased to 46oC, what is the new pressure? A. 0.56 atm B. 1.00 atm C. 1.08 atm D. 2.00 atm Tippens - 019 Chapter... #27 28. The units for dew point are ____. A. mm Hg B. g/cm3 C. % D. °C Tippens - 019 Chapter... #28 29. A fusion curve separates which two phases? A. liquid/gas B. solid/liquid C. solid/gas Tippens - 019 Chapter... #29 30. What is the number of kg of air in a 0.50 m3 container compressed to 200.0 kPa at a temperature of 27.0°C? (M = 29 g/mol) A. 0.40 kg B. 12.9kg C. 1.16 kg D. 40.0 kg Tippens - 019 Chapter... #30 31. An ideal gas in a tank has a density P. If the temperature of the gas is doubled while the pressure is cut in half, the new density of the gas is ____. A. P/4 B. P/2 C. 4P D. P Tippens - 019 Chapter... #31 32. Which quantities are held constant in Boyle's law? A. mass and volume B. pressure only C. mass and pressure D. mass and temperature Tippens - 019 Chapter... #32 33. The units for absolute humidity are ____. A. % B. mm Hg C. g/cm3 D. °C Tippens - 019 Chapter... #33 34. An ideal gas is at 30oC in a container. If the pressure and volume are both doubled, what is the new temperature? A. 60oC B. 120oC C. 333oC D. 939oC. Tippens - 019 Chapter... #34 35. What is the mass of 0.12 moles of H 2 O? (M = 1 g/mole for H and 16 g/mole for O). A. 2.16 g B. 18.0 g C. 150 g D. 6.02 g Tippens - 019 Chapter... #35 36. The gauge pressure of a tire is 35.0 lb/in2, before driving, when the temperature is 23.0oC. If the measured gauge pressure after a trip is 39.0 lb/in2, what is the tire's temperature? Assume no leaks and a constant volume. A. 25.5oC B. 46.7oC C. 52.2oC D. 55.6oC Tippens - 019 Chapter... #36 37. A 50 L tank can withstand a maximum absolute pressure of 6 atm at 27oC. How much oxygen gas (M = 32 g/mol) can be put into the tank? A. 3.8 g B. 390 g C. 4300 g D. 1500 g Tippens - 019 Chapter... #37 38. A tire pressure gauge measures 190 kPa when the atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa. What is the absolute pressure in the tire? A. 89 kPa B. 101 kPa C. 190 kPa D. 291 kPa Tippens - 019 Chapter... #38 39. What is the mass of one million lead atoms (M = 207 g/mol)? A. 207 × 10-6 g B. 3.44 × 10-16 g C. 1.87 × 10-12 g D. 5.92 × 10-15 g Tippens - 019 Chapter... #39 40. When a plot of volume vs temperature is extrapolated to zero volume, the temperature will always approach _______ 0K Tippens - 019 Chapter... #40 41. In the ideal gas law, the ratio of __________ to ____________ is always equal to constant R, known as the _________ _________ constant. PV, nT, universal gas Tippens - 019 Chapter... #41 42. The temperature above which a gas will not liquefy, regardless of the pressure applied, is called the _________ ___________. critical temperature Tippens - 019 Chapter... #42 43. Three types of vaporization are _______________, _______________, and _______________. evaporation, boiling, sublimation Tippens - 019 Chapter... #43 44. The temperature to which air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce saturation is called the _________ ___________. dew point Tippens - 019 Chapter... #44 45. _______________ humidity represents the quantity of water vapor per unit volume. _______________ humidity, however, is a percentage based on the ratio of _______ _______ _________ to ________ _________ ________. Absolute, relative, actual vapor pressure, saturated vapor pressure Tippens - 019 Chapter... #45 46. A ___________ is that quantity of a substance that contains the same number of particles as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon 12. mole Tippens - 019 Chapter... #46 47. The critical temperature of an ideal gas is _______ Kelvin. zero Tippens - 019 Chapter... #47 48. A mole of any gas contains ________× 1023 molecules. This number is referred to as __________ number. 6.023, Avogadro's Tippens - 019 Chapter... #48 49. The normal boiling point of a liquid at sea level is _______ than the boiling point at a high elevation. higher Tippens - 019 Chapter... #49 50. Relative humidity can vary from __% to ____%. 0, 100 Tippens - 019 Chapter... #50 51. Condensation will appear on leaves of grass when the atmospheric temperature is below the _________ _________. dew point Tippens - 019 Chapter... #51 ch19 Summary Category Tippens - 019 Chapter... # of Questions 51 ch20 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. In the absence of friction, heat engines are 100 percent efficient. True False 2. If the first law of thermodynamics is satisfied, the second law will also be satisfied. True False 3. In every thermodynamic process, the heat absorbed by a system must equal the sum of the work done by the system and its change in internal energy. True False 4. An isochoric process is graphed as a vertical line on a P-V diagram. True False 5. In an adiabatic process, the internal energy will increase when work is done on the system, whereas it will decrease when work is done by the system. True False 6. A Carnot engine has the maximum possible efficiency of any engine operating between the same hot and cold temperatures. True False 7. All Carnot engines are perfect engines and, therefore, operate at 100 percent efficiency. True False 8. The greater the difference between the input and output temperatures of a steam engine, the greater the efficiency of the engine. True False 9. A high compression ratio of an internal combustion engine means a higher operating efficiency. True False 10. The coefficient of performance for a refrigerator is a measure of cooling efficiency and is expressed as a percentage. True False 11. In an isochoric process the pressure is kept constant. True False 12. For an internal combustion engine, the efficiency is e = True False 13. A refrigerator can be thought of as a heat engine operating in reverse. True False 14. Half of the strokes in a diesel cycle are isochoric. True False 15. When a system changes its volume, the work is always A. ∆Q B. ∆U C. P∆V D. The area under the curve of a P-V diagram. 16. The net work accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic compression is equal to ____. A. ∆U B. -∆U C. ∆Q D. -∆Q 17. An engine that operates with 100 percent efficiency ____. A. is a Carnot engine B. violates the first law C. has an Otto cycle D. violates the second law 18. A heat engine absorbs 8.00 cal from a high temperature reservoir and does 9.45 J of work. What is the efficiency of the engine? A. 84.7% B. 118% C. 28.2% D. 41.8% 19. In a Carnot cycle, 1600 cal is absorbed at 600 K, and 400 cal is exhausted to a cold reservoir. The temperature of the cold reservoir is ____. A. 150 K B. 200 K C. 450 K D. 800 K 20. An adiabatic process is one in which ____. A. the temperature is constant B. the pressure is constant C. the volume is constant D. no heat enters or leaves the system 21. If the adiabatic constant is 1.4 and the compression ratio is 6, a gasoline engine has an efficiency of ____. A. 45 % B. 51 % C. 56 % D. 64 % 22. The coils of a refrigerator are at -28oC and the condenser is held at 55oC. The coefficient of performance is A. 2.95 B. 1.00 C. 9.07 D. 0.11 23. An engine that is 25% efficient does 645 J of work per cycle. How much heat does it take from the hot temperature reservoir per cycle? A. 25.8 J B. 161 J C. 1935 J D. 2580 J 24. In a typical refrigerator, heat is extracted from the interior by the ____. A. compressor B. evaporator C. condenser D. throttling valve 25. In an isochoric process, ____. A. the change in internal energy is zero B. the gas must expand C. no work is done during the process D. no heat is transferred into or out of the gas 26. A heat engine converts ____. A. mechanical energy to chemical energy B. thermal energy to mechanical energy C. mechanical energy to thermal energy D. thermal energy to chemical energy 27. The total increase in the internal energy of a system is the heat added to it ____ the work done to it. A. divided by B. multiplied by C. plus D. minus 28. A system absorbs 300 J of heat while 200 J of work is done on the system. The change in internal energy of the system is ____. A. 0 J B. 500 J C. –100 J D. 100 J 29. An engine that is 25% efficient does 645 J of work per cycle. How much heat does it expel to the cold temperature reservoir per cycle? A. 25.8 J B. 161 J C. 1935 J D. 2580 J 30. In an adiabatic process, ____. A. no heat is transferred into or out of the gas B. the gas must expand C. no work is done during the process D. the change in internal energy is zero 31. An engine that is 25% efficient absorbs 200.0 J per cycle. How much heat is rejected per cycle? A. 75 J B. 150 J C. 50 J D. 100 J 32. An ideal gas undergoes a process where the net heat absorbed by a system is converted into work. This process is A. isochoric B. isothermal C. adiabatic D. done at constant pressure 33. A gas is compressed adiabatically by a constant force of 10 N that acts over a 0.5 m distance. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas? A. 10 J B. –10 J C. 5 J D. –5 J 34. Throttling is an ____ process. A. isothermal B. isobaric C. isochoric D. adiabatic 35. An engine working at maximum efficiency between reservoir temperatures of 100oC and 250oC expels 1500 J of work. How much work is performed? A. 600 J B. 750 J C. 2250 J D. 3750 J 36. An engine working at maximum efficiency between reservoir temperatures of 100oC and 250oC expels 1500 J of work. How much heat is input? A. 600 J B. 750 J C. 2250 J D. 3750 J 37. It is desired to have an Otto cycle perform at 75% efficiency. If the adiabatic constant of the fuel is 1.5, what should be the compression ratio? A. 4/3 B. 6 C. 16 D. 32 38. In an isochoric process, 250 J of heat are input and the temperature is increases from 200 K to 300 K. What is the work done? A. 0 B. 83 J C. 125 J D. 250 J 39. In a(n) _________ process, a decrease in internal energy will be equal to the positive work done. ________________________________________ 40. A(n) ______________ process is one in which the volume remains constant, whereas in a(n) ______________ process the temperature is constant. ________________________________________ 41. The throttling process is an example of a(n) ____________________ process. ________________________________________ 42. The area under the curve on a P-V diagram represents the ______ ______ ___ ____ ___ ___ ________ in a thermodynamic process. ________________________________________ 43. Three coordinates used to describe the thermodynamic state of a system are _____________, _____________, and _____________. ________________________________________ 44. The ______ _____ ___ ________________ is essentially a restatement of the conservation of energy. ________________________________________ 45. A(n) ________________ is a heat engine operating in reverse. Its effectiveness is measured by the _________ ___ _____________. ________________________________________ 46. Four essential elements of a typical refrigerator include the _______________, _______________, _______________, and __________ __________. ________________________________________ 47. The fact that all natural spontaneous processes are irreversible is a consequence of the _______ ____ ___ ________________. ________________________________________ 48. A(n) ___________ engine has the maximum possible efficiency for an engine that absorbs heat from one reservoir, performs work, and rejects heat to another reservoir at a lower temperature. ________________________________________ 49. The efficiency of internal combustion engines depends on the working substance and the ________ ________. ________________________________________ 50. In the Otto cycle, two of the four strokes are __________ and the other two ______________. ________________________________________ 51. In an ideal diesel cycle, two of the four strokes are ____________. ________________________________________ 52. In a thermodynamic process that goes from one thermodynamic state (P 1 ,V 1 ,T 1 ) to another thermodynamic state (P 2 ,V 2 ,T 2 ) , the change in _______ ______ does not depend on the path taken. ________________________________________ ch20 Key 1. In the absence of friction, heat engines are 100 percent efficient. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #1 2. If the first law of thermodynamics is satisfied, the second law will also be satisfied. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #2 3. In every thermodynamic process, the heat absorbed by a system must equal the sum of the work done by the system and its change in internal energy. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #3 4. An isochoric process is graphed as a vertical line on a P-V diagram. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #4 5. In an adiabatic process, the internal energy will increase when work is done on the system, whereas it will decrease when work is done by the system. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #5 6. A Carnot engine has the maximum possible efficiency of any engine operating between the same hot and cold temperatures. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #6 7. All Carnot engines are perfect engines and, therefore, operate at 100 percent efficiency. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #7 8. The greater the difference between the input and output temperatures of a steam engine, the greater the efficiency of the engine. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #8 9. A high compression ratio of an internal combustion engine means a higher operating efficiency. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #9 10. The coefficient of performance for a refrigerator is a measure of cooling efficiency and is expressed as a percentage. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #10 11. In an isochoric process the pressure is kept constant. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #11 12. For an internal combustion engine, the efficiency is e = FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #12 13. A refrigerator can be thought of as a heat engine operating in reverse. TRUE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #13 14. Half of the strokes in a diesel cycle are isochoric. FALSE Tippens - 020 Chapter... #14 15. When a system changes its volume, the work is always A. ∆Q B. ∆U C. P∆V D. The area under the curve of a P-V diagram. Tippens - 020 Chapter... #15 16. The net work accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic compression is equal to ____. A. ∆U B. -∆U C. ∆Q D. -∆Q Tippens - 020 Chapter... #16 17. An engine that operates with 100 percent efficiency ____. A. is a Carnot engine B. violates the first law C. has an Otto cycle D. violates the second law Tippens - 020 Chapter... #17 18. A heat engine absorbs 8.00 cal from a high temperature reservoir and does 9.45 J of work. What is the efficiency of the engine? A. 84.7% B. 118% C. 28.2% D. 41.8% Tippens - 020 Chapter... #18 19. In a Carnot cycle, 1600 cal is absorbed at 600 K, and 400 cal is exhausted to a cold reservoir. The temperature of the cold reservoir is ____. A. 150 K B. 200 K C. 450 K D. 800 K Tippens - 020 Chapter... #19 20. An adiabatic process is one in which ____. A. the temperature is constant B. the pressure is constant C. the volume is constant D. no heat enters or leaves the system Tippens - 020 Chapter... #20 21. If the adiabatic constant is 1.4 and the compression ratio is 6, a gasoline engine has an efficiency of ____. A. 45 % B. 51 % C. 56 % D. 64 % Tippens - 020 Chapter... #21 22. The coils of a refrigerator are at -28oC and the condenser is held at 55oC. The coefficient of performance is A. 2.95 B. 1.00 C. 9.07 D. 0.11 Tippens - 020 Chapter... #22 23. An engine that is 25% efficient does 645 J of work per cycle. How much heat does it take from the hot temperature reservoir per cycle? A. 25.8 J B. 161 J C. 1935 J D. 2580 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #23 24. In a typical refrigerator, heat is extracted from the interior by the ____. A. compressor B. evaporator C. condenser D. throttling valve Tippens - 020 Chapter... #24 25. In an isochoric process, ____. A. the change in internal energy is zero B. the gas must expand C. no work is done during the process D. no heat is transferred into or out of the gas Tippens - 020 Chapter... #25 26. A heat engine converts ____. A. mechanical energy to chemical energy B. thermal energy to mechanical energy C. mechanical energy to thermal energy D. thermal energy to chemical energy Tippens - 020 Chapter... #26 27. The total increase in the internal energy of a system is the heat added to it ____ the work done to it. A. divided by B. multiplied by C. plus D. minus Tippens - 020 Chapter... #27 28. A system absorbs 300 J of heat while 200 J of work is done on the system. The change in internal energy of the system is ____. A. 0 J B. 500 J C. –100 J D. 100 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #28 29. An engine that is 25% efficient does 645 J of work per cycle. How much heat does it expel to the cold temperature reservoir per cycle? A. 25.8 J B. 161 J C. 1935 J D. 2580 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #29 30. In an adiabatic process, ____. A. no heat is transferred into or out of the gas B. the gas must expand C. no work is done during the process D. the change in internal energy is zero Tippens - 020 Chapter... #30 31. An engine that is 25% efficient absorbs 200.0 J per cycle. How much heat is rejected per cycle? A. 75 J B. 150 J C. 50 J D. 100 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #31 32. An ideal gas undergoes a process where the net heat absorbed by a system is converted into work. This process is A. isochoric B. isothermal C. adiabatic D. done at constant pressure Tippens - 020 Chapter... #32 33. A gas is compressed adiabatically by a constant force of 10 N that acts over a 0.5 m distance. What is the change in the internal energy of the gas? A. 10 J B. –10 J C. 5 J D. –5 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #33 34. Throttling is an ____ process. A. isothermal B. isobaric C. isochoric D. adiabatic Tippens - 020 Chapter... #34 35. An engine working at maximum efficiency between reservoir temperatures of 100oC and 250oC expels 1500 J of work. How much work is performed? A. 600 J B. 750 J C. 2250 J D. 3750 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #35 36. An engine working at maximum efficiency between reservoir temperatures of 100oC and 250oC expels 1500 J of work. How much heat is input? A. 600 J B. 750 J C. 2250 J D. 3750 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #36 37. It is desired to have an Otto cycle perform at 75% efficiency. If the adiabatic constant of the fuel is 1.5, what should be the compression ratio? A. 4/3 B. 6 C. 16 D. 32 Tippens - 020 Chapter... #37 38. In an isochoric process, 250 J of heat are input and the temperature is increases from 200 K to 300 K. What is the work done? A. 0 B. 83 J C. 125 J D. 250 J Tippens - 020 Chapter... #38 39. In a(n) _________ process, a decrease in internal energy will be equal to the positive work done. adiabatic Tippens - 020 Chapter... #39 40. A(n) ______________ process is one in which the volume remains constant, whereas in a(n) ______________ process the temperature is constant. isochoric, isothermal Tippens - 020 Chapter... #40 41. The throttling process is an example of a(n) ____________________ process. adiabatic Tippens - 020 Chapter... #41 42. The area under the curve on a P-V diagram represents the ______ ______ ___ ____ ___ ___ ________ in a thermodynamic process. work done on or by the system Tippens - 020 Chapter... #42 43. Three coordinates used to describe the thermodynamic state of a system are _____________, _____________, and _____________. pressure, volume, temperature Tippens - 020 Chapter... #43 44. The ______ _____ ___ ________________ is essentially a restatement of the conservation of energy. first law of thermodynamics Tippens - 020 Chapter... #44 45. A(n) ________________ is a heat engine operating in reverse. Its effectiveness is measured by the _________ ___ _____________. refrigerator, coefficient of performance Tippens - 020 Chapter... #45 46. Four essential elements of a typical refrigerator include the _______________, _______________, _______________, and __________ __________. compressor, condenser, evaporator, throttling valve Tippens - 020 Chapter... #46 47. The fact that all natural spontaneous processes are irreversible is a consequence of the _______ ____ ___ ________________. second law of thermodynamics Tippens - 020 Chapter... #47 48. A(n) ___________ engine has the maximum possible efficiency for an engine that absorbs heat from one reservoir, performs work, and rejects heat to another reservoir at a lower temperature. Carnot Tippens - 020 Chapter... #48 49. The efficiency of internal combustion engines depends on the working substance and the ________ ________. compression ratio Tippens - 020 Chapter... #49 50. In the Otto cycle, two of the four strokes are __________ and the other two ______________. adiabatic, isochoric Tippens - 020 Chapter... #50 51. In an ideal diesel cycle, two of the four strokes are ____________. adiabatic Tippens - 020 Chapter... #51 52. In a thermodynamic process that goes from one thermodynamic state (P 1 ,V 1 ,T 1 ) to another thermodynamic state (P 2 ,V 2 ,T 2 ) , the change in _______ ______ does not depend on the path taken. internal energy Tippens - 020 Chapter... #52 ch20 Summary Category Tippens - 020 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch21 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A physical medium is necessary for the transmission of all kinds of waves. True False 2. The speed of a wave in a string is a function of the linear density of the string but is really independent of the actual length of the string. True False 3. In a longitudinal wave, the wavelength is equal to the distance between adjacent condensations or between adjacent rarefactions. True False 4. Increasing the frequency of a wave results in a decrease in its wavelength if other parameters are held constant. True False 5. For a standing wave, the distance between adjacent nodes or between adjacent antinodes is equal to the wavelength. True False 6. The superposition principle applies only for transverse waves. True False 7. The third harmonic is equivalent to the second overtone when characteristic frequencies are described for a vibrating string. True False 8. Constructive interference results in a wave of greater energy than the sum of the energies of its component waves. True False 9. All waves move energy. True False 10. Two waves have the same amplitude and frequency. If they meet at the same time and place, there will always be constructive interference. True False 11. Light waves require an elastic medium in which to travel. True False 12. The wave speed is always equal to the speed of the particles in the elastic medium. True False 13. Vibrating strings have nodes at each end. True False 14. A water wave is both longitudinal and transverse. The motion of the individual water particles moves ____. A. with the water wave. B. in ellipses. C. parallel to wave propagation D. perpendicular to wave propagation 15. For a vibrating string, the third overtone will be the same as the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic 16. The crests of a wave pass an observer 5 times every minute. If the crests are spaced 15 cm apart, what is the speed of the wave? A. 1.25 cm/s B. 3.00 cm/s C. 7.5 cm/s D. 75 cm/s 17. A longitudinal wave traveling at 300 m/s has a wavelength of 2 m. Its frequency is ____. A. 100 Hz B. 150 Hz C. 167 Hz D. 600 Hz 18. If 120 waves strike a wall in 1 min and the distance between adjacent crests is 2 m, the speed of the waves is ____. A. 2 m/s B. 4 m/s C. 8 m/s D. 30 m/s 19. A flexible cable 20 m long weighs 16 N and is stretched between two poles with a force of 450 N. The speed of a transverse wave through this medium is ____. A. 16 m/s B. 23.7 m/s C. 57.3 m/s D. 74.2 m/s 20. The fundamental frequency of a wave is 440 Hz. What is the third overtone? A. 147 Hz B. 880 Hz C. 1320 Hz D. 1760 Hz 21. A metal string of mass 250 g and length 25 cm is under a tension of 400 N. The fundamental frequency for this string is ____. A. 40 Hz B. 400 Hz C. 126 Hz D. 800 Hz 22. The rate at which energy is propagated down a string is not dependent on the ____. A. frequency B. amplitude C. linear density D. length of the string 23. The ratio of the wavelength to the period is a measure of ____. A. frequency B. speed C. period D. amplitude 24. Waves on guitar strings are ____ waves. A. surface B. electromagnetic C. longitudinal D. transverse 25. A longitudinal wave has a frequency of 440 Hz and a wavelength of 2.1 cm. What is the speed of the wave? A. 9.2 m/s B. 210 m/s C. 2.1 m/s D. 87 m/s 26. The shortest distance between two points on a wave where the wave pattern is repeated is the ____. A. period B. wavelength C. frequency D. amplitude 27. The shortest distance between a node and an antinode is ____. A. λ2 B. 2λ C. λ D. λ/4 28. The number of complete vibrations per second is the ____. A. frequency B. wave pulse C. wavelength D. period 29. The shortest time interval during which wave motion repeats is the ____. A. period B. frequency C. wavelength D. wave pulse 30. During constructive interference, the individual wave pulses ____. A. change both their sizes and shapes B. retain their original sizes and shapes C. change their sizes D. change their shapes 31. A(n) ____ is produced during destructive interference of waves. A. antinode B. higher crest C. node D. lower trough 32. A standing wave on a string 2.0 m long has a fundamental frequency of 400.0 Hz. If the string is pressed 0.40 m from one end, the fundamental frequency of the 1.6 m length is ____. A. 250 Hz B. 800 Hz C. 500 Hz D. 320 Hz 33. The 10th harmonic is the ____ overtone. A. 11th B. 10th C. 9th D. 8th 34. A wave in a string travels at 15 m/s. If the tension of the string is tripled, what is the new wave speed? A. 26 m/s B. 45 m/s C. 5.0 m/s D. 8.7 m/s 35. A string vibrates with standing waves. If the tension is doubled, which of the following does NOT change? A. wave speed B. fundamental frequency C. longest wavelength D. 1st overtone 36. What tension is required to vibrate a string at 200 Hz with a wavelength of 15 cm. Assume the string is 3 m long and has a mass of 6 grams. A. 1.8 N B. 0.06 N C. 180 N D. 6.0 N 37. A guitar string has a total length of 1.2 m and has a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. How long should the string be if you want a fundamental frequency of 150 Hz. Assume the tension remains constant. A. 0.80 m B. 1.60 m C. 2.40 m D. 4.80 m 38. Which of the following is NOT an overtone of a standing wave on a string that has a fundamental frequency of 320 Hz. A. 960 Hz B. 1440 Hz C. 2240 Hz D. 3200 Hz 39. A pulse travels on a string 8.0 m long and 12 g mass. If the tension in the string is 32 N, how long does it take the pulse to travel the length of the string? A. 16.2 ms B. 0.25 s C. 54.8 ms D. 0.58 s 40. In a(n) _________________ wave, the vibration of the individual particles is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. ________________________________________ 41. The separation of adjacent antinodes is always λ/____. ________________________________________ 42. The distance between any two particles that are in phase is known as the _________________. ________________________________________ 43. The energy transmitted per unit length of a string is proportional to the square of the __________________ and to the square of the ___________________. ________________________________________ 44. For characteristic frequencies of a vibrating string, the fifth harmonic is the ______________ overtone. ________________________________________ 45. In a transverse wave, the motion of the particles in the medium is ______________ to the direction of the energy propagation. ________________________________________ 46. For a standing wave, the points along a vibrating string that remain at rest are called ______________. The points where the amplitude is a maximum are called _______________. ________________________________________ 47. The speed of any wave may be found from the product of ____________________ and _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 48. In a longitudinal wave, the motion of the particles in the medium is _______ to the direction of the energy propagation. ________________________________________ 49. The characteristic frequencies consisting of the fundamental and all its overtones are known as the ____________________ series. ________________________________________ 50. Wave A has an amplitude twice that of wave B. The rate of energy propagation of wave A is ____ times that of wave B. ________________________________________ 51. If the tension in a string is __________, the fundamental frequency will increase by ________________________________________ . ch21 Key 1. A physical medium is necessary for the transmission of all kinds of waves. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #1 2. The speed of a wave in a string is a function of the linear density of the string but is really independent of the actual length of the string. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #2 3. In a longitudinal wave, the wavelength is equal to the distance between adjacent condensations or between adjacent rarefactions. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #3 4. Increasing the frequency of a wave results in a decrease in its wavelength if other parameters are held constant. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #4 5. For a standing wave, the distance between adjacent nodes or between adjacent antinodes is equal to the wavelength. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #5 6. The superposition principle applies only for transverse waves. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #6 7. The third harmonic is equivalent to the second overtone when characteristic frequencies are described for a vibrating string. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #7 8. Constructive interference results in a wave of greater energy than the sum of the energies of its component waves. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #8 9. All waves move energy. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #9 10. Two waves have the same amplitude and frequency. If they meet at the same time and place, there will always be constructive interference. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #10 11. Light waves require an elastic medium in which to travel. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #11 12. The wave speed is always equal to the speed of the particles in the elastic medium. FALSE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #12 13. Vibrating strings have nodes at each end. TRUE Tippens - 021 Chapter... #13 14. A water wave is both longitudinal and transverse. The motion of the individual water particles moves ____. A. with the water wave. B. in ellipses. C. parallel to wave propagation D. perpendicular to wave propagation Tippens - 021 Chapter... #14 15. For a vibrating string, the third overtone will be the same as the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic Tippens - 021 Chapter... #15 16. The crests of a wave pass an observer 5 times every minute. If the crests are spaced 15 cm apart, what is the speed of the wave? A. 1.25 cm/s B. 3.00 cm/s C. 7.5 cm/s D. 75 cm/s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #16 17. A longitudinal wave traveling at 300 m/s has a wavelength of 2 m. Its frequency is ____. A. 100 Hz B. 150 Hz C. 167 Hz D. 600 Hz Tippens - 021 Chapter... #17 18. If 120 waves strike a wall in 1 min and the distance between adjacent crests is 2 m, the speed of the waves is ____. A. 2 m/s B. 4 m/s C. 8 m/s D. 30 m/s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #18 19. A flexible cable 20 m long weighs 16 N and is stretched between two poles with a force of 450 N. The speed of a transverse wave through this medium is ____. A. 16 m/s B. 23.7 m/s C. 57.3 m/s D. 74.2 m/s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #19 20. The fundamental frequency of a wave is 440 Hz. What is the third overtone? A. 147 Hz B. 880 Hz C. 1320 Hz D. 1760 Hz Tippens - 021 Chapter... #20 21. A metal string of mass 250 g and length 25 cm is under a tension of 400 N. The fundamental frequency for this string is ____. A. 40 Hz B. 400 Hz C. 126 Hz D. 800 Hz Tippens - 021 Chapter... #21 22. The rate at which energy is propagated down a string is not dependent on the ____. A. frequency B. amplitude C. linear density D. length of the string Tippens - 021 Chapter... #22 23. The ratio of the wavelength to the period is a measure of ____. A. frequency B. speed C. period D. amplitude Tippens - 021 Chapter... #23 24. Waves on guitar strings are ____ waves. A. surface B. electromagnetic C. longitudinal D. transverse Tippens - 021 Chapter... #24 25. A longitudinal wave has a frequency of 440 Hz and a wavelength of 2.1 cm. What is the speed of the wave? A. 9.2 m/s B. 210 m/s C. 2.1 m/s D. 87 m/s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #25 26. The shortest distance between two points on a wave where the wave pattern is repeated is the ____. A. period B. wavelength C. frequency D. amplitude Tippens - 021 Chapter... #26 27. The shortest distance between a node and an antinode is ____. A. λ2 B. 2λ C. λ D. λ/4 Tippens - 021 Chapter... #27 28. The number of complete vibrations per second is the ____. A. frequency B. wave pulse C. wavelength D. period Tippens - 021 Chapter... #28 29. The shortest time interval during which wave motion repeats is the ____. A. period B. frequency C. wavelength D. wave pulse Tippens - 021 Chapter... #29 30. During constructive interference, the individual wave pulses ____. A. change both their sizes and shapes B. retain their original sizes and shapes C. change their sizes D. change their shapes Tippens - 021 Chapter... #30 31. A(n) ____ is produced during destructive interference of waves. A. antinode B. higher crest C. node D. lower trough Tippens - 021 Chapter... #31 32. A standing wave on a string 2.0 m long has a fundamental frequency of 400.0 Hz. If the string is pressed 0.40 m from one end, the fundamental frequency of the 1.6 m length is ____. A. 250 Hz B. 800 Hz C. 500 Hz D. 320 Hz Tippens - 021 Chapter... #32 33. The 10th harmonic is the ____ overtone. A. 11th B. 10th C. 9th D. 8th Tippens - 021 Chapter... #33 34. A wave in a string travels at 15 m/s. If the tension of the string is tripled, what is the new wave speed? A. 26 m/s B. 45 m/s C. 5.0 m/s D. 8.7 m/s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #34 35. A string vibrates with standing waves. If the tension is doubled, which of the following does NOT change? A. wave speed B. fundamental frequency C. longest wavelength D. 1st overtone Tippens - 021 Chapter... #35 36. What tension is required to vibrate a string at 200 Hz with a wavelength of 15 cm. Assume the string is 3 m long and has a mass of 6 grams. A. 1.8 N B. 0.06 N C. 180 N D. 6.0 N Tippens - 021 Chapter... #36 37. A guitar string has a total length of 1.2 m and has a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. How long should the string be if you want a fundamental frequency of 150 Hz. Assume the tension remains constant. A. 0.80 m B. 1.60 m C. 2.40 m D. 4.80 m Tippens - 021 Chapter... #37 38. Which of the following is NOT an overtone of a standing wave on a string that has a fundamental frequency of 320 Hz. A. 960 Hz B. 1440 Hz C. 2240 Hz D. 3200 Hz Tippens - 021 Chapter... #38 39. A pulse travels on a string 8.0 m long and 12 g mass. If the tension in the string is 32 N, how long does it take the pulse to travel the length of the string? A. 16.2 ms B. 0.25 s C. 54.8 ms D. 0.58 s Tippens - 021 Chapter... #39 40. In a(n) _________________ wave, the vibration of the individual particles is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. transverse Tippens - 021 Chapter... #40 41. The separation of adjacent antinodes is always λ/____. 2 Tippens - 021 Chapter... #41 42. The distance between any two particles that are in phase is known as the _________________. wavelength Tippens - 021 Chapter... #42 43. The energy transmitted per unit length of a string is proportional to the square of the __________________ and to the square of the ___________________. frequency, amplitude Tippens - 021 Chapter... #43 44. For characteristic frequencies of a vibrating string, the fifth harmonic is the ______________ overtone. fourth Tippens - 021 Chapter... #44 45. In a transverse wave, the motion of the particles in the medium is ______________ to the direction of the energy propagation. perpendicular Tippens - 021 Chapter... #45 46. For a standing wave, the points along a vibrating string that remain at rest are called ______________. The points where the amplitude is a maximum are called _______________. nodes, antinodes Tippens - 021 Chapter... #46 47. The speed of any wave may be found from the product of ____________________ and _________ ___________. frequency, wave length Tippens - 021 Chapter... #47 48. In a longitudinal wave, the motion of the particles in the medium is _______ to the direction of the energy propagation. parallel Tippens - 021 Chapter... #48 49. The characteristic frequencies consisting of the fundamental and all its overtones are known as the ____________________ series. harmonic Tippens - 021 Chapter... #49 50. Wave A has an amplitude twice that of wave B. The rate of energy propagation of wave A is ____ times that of wave B. 4 Tippens - 021 Chapter... #50 51. If the tension in a string is __________, the fundamental frequency will increase by doubled . Tippens - 021 Chapter... #51 ch21 Summary Category Tippens - 021 Chapter... # of Questions 51 ch22 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium for transmission. True False 2. The Doppler effect is a change in frequency due to the sound waves entering different densities of air. True False 3. Sound waves travel faster in air than in metals because the air is less dense. True False 4. If the sound intensity doubles, the sound level doubles. True False 5. The quality of different sounds is demonstrated by the difference in tones when a C note is sounded on a flute, a violin, and a trumpet. True False 6. If sound and observer are moving with the same velocity, there is no measured Doppler effect. True False 7. Sound that fluctuates in intensity because of the simultaneous output of two sources is a consequence primarily of the Doppler effect. True False 8. At room temperature, the speed of sound in aluminum is faster than the speed in air. True False 9. Opening the end of a closed pipe will double the frequency produced. True False 10. The speed of sound in gases is larger for the gases with higher molecular masses. True False 11. The open end of a pipe is a region of maximum longitudinal air displacements. True False 12. 12.The speed of sound is greatest when the medium is ____. A. a vacuum B. air C. water D. metal 13. Which of the following is a sensory effect rather than a measurable physical quantity? A. Frequency B. Quality C. Intensity D. Waveform 14. For a closed pipe, the second overtone is the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic 15. Which of the following is NOT a unit for sound intensity? A. W/m2 B. µW/cm2 C. J/(s . m2) D. J m2 16. A pipe is closed at one end and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 560 Hz 17. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 331 m/s. Its speed at 30°C is approximately ____. A. 331 m/s B. 343 m/s C. 349 m/s D. 350 m/s 18. The fundamental frequency for a 20-cm closed pipe when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is ____. A. 4.25 Hz B. 8.25 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 825 Hz 19. The intensity level in decibels of a sound whose intensity is 2 x 10-6 mW/cm2 is approximately ____. A. 27 dB B. 43 dB C. 50 dB D. 103 dB 20. Compute the speed of sound in helium (M = 4.0 g/mol) at 20oC. Assume the adiabatic constant is 1.66. A. 263 m/s B. 1005 m/s C. 31.7 m/s D. 540 m/s 21. Two tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per second will be ____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 22. A pipe is open at both ends and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 520 Hz 23. The speed of any mechanical wave depends on ____. A. the medium through which it travels B. its frequency C. its reflection D. its amplitude 24. Sound is a(n) ____ wave. A. electromagnetic B. electron C. longitudinal D. transverse 25. As an ambulance approaches a stationary observer, the frequency of the sound heard by the observer ____ the frequency emitted by the ambulance. A. is the same as B. is greater than C. is less than 26. The frequency of the sound heard by an observer ____ as an approaching ambulance passes the observer. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same 27. A detected change in the frequency of a sound due to a moving source or a moving observer is ____. A. refraction B. sonar C. resonance D. the Doppler effect 28. Which of the following does NOT describe the pitch of a sound? A. a note on a musical scale B. frequency of vibration C. loud or soft D. high or low 29. A source with a sound level of 40 dB has a pressure amplitude that is ____ times greater than a source with a sound level of 20 dB. A. 100 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5 30. Which of the following is NOT true of open-pipe resonators? A. All harmonics are possible. B. There are displacement nodes at each end of the pipe. C. Nodes are separated by one-half wavelength. D. The open end of the pipe is a displacement antinode. 31. A pipe is open at both ends and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m 32. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the average power emitted by the source? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W 33. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the intensity at this point? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W 34. A pipe is closed at one end and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m 35. A source of sound is moving at 24 m/s towards a stationary listener. If the source emits a 440 Hz tone, what frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 409Hz B. 411Hz C. 460 Hz D. 473 Hz 36. A 300 Hz source of sound is moving 25 m/s north. A listener is 1 mile away and traveling 25 m/s north. What frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 279 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 324 Hz D. 340 Hz 37. The closed end of a pipe must be a displacement ____________________; the open end must be a displacement ____________________. ________________________________________ 38. If the temperature of air increases by 10oC, the speed of sound will increase approximately by__. ________________________________________ 39. The three physical properties of sound that correspond to loudness, pitch, and quality are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________, respectively. ________________________________________ 40. The __________ ____________ represents the standard zero of sound intensity. Its value is 10-16 W/cm2. ________________________________________ 41. Sound waves having frequencies below the range of audible sound are termed ____________________; sounds having frequencies above this range are termed ____________________. ________________________________________ 42. A pipe is closed at one end. The second overtone corresponds to the ______ harmonic. ________________________________________ 43. The power transmitted by a sound wave through a unit of area is a measure of ____________________. ________________________________________ 44. The _________ ___________ refers to the apparent change in frequency of a source of sound when there is relative motion between the source and the observer. The pitch heard by an observer is ____________________ when a sound approaches her or him and ____________________ when the sound leaves. ________________________________________ 45. If source and listener are receding from each other, the frequency detected by the listener is ___ than the frequency of the source. ________________________________________ 46. The separation between an adjacent compression and rarefaction is λ/_____. ________________________________________ 47. Loudness is to Intensity as pitch is to _______________ ________________________________________ ch22 Key 1. Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium for transmission. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #1 2. The Doppler effect is a change in frequency due to the sound waves entering different densities of air. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #2 3. Sound waves travel faster in air than in metals because the air is less dense. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #3 4. If the sound intensity doubles, the sound level doubles. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #4 5. The quality of different sounds is demonstrated by the difference in tones when a C note is sounded on a flute, a violin, and a trumpet. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #5 6. If sound and observer are moving with the same velocity, there is no measured Doppler effect. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #6 7. Sound that fluctuates in intensity because of the simultaneous output of two sources is a consequence primarily of the Doppler effect. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #7 8. At room temperature, the speed of sound in aluminum is faster than the speed in air. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #8 9. Opening the end of a closed pipe will double the frequency produced. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #9 10. The speed of sound in gases is larger for the gases with higher molecular masses. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #10 11. The open end of a pipe is a region of maximum longitudinal air displacements. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #11 12. 12.The speed of sound is greatest when the medium is ____. A. a vacuum B. air C. water D. metal Tippens - 022 Chapter... #12 13. Which of the following is a sensory effect rather than a measurable physical quantity? A. Frequency B. Quality C. Intensity D. Waveform Tippens - 022 Chapter... #13 14. For a closed pipe, the second overtone is the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic Tippens - 022 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following is NOT a unit for sound intensity? A. W/m2 B. µW/cm2 C. J/(s . m2) D. J m2 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #15 16. A pipe is closed at one end and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 560 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #16 17. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 331 m/s. Its speed at 30°C is approximately ____. A. 331 m/s B. 343 m/s C. 349 m/s D. 350 m/s Tippens - 022 Chapter... #17 18. The fundamental frequency for a 20-cm closed pipe when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is ____. A. 4.25 Hz B. 8.25 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 825 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #18 19. The intensity level in decibels of a sound whose intensity is 2 x 10-6 mW/cm2 is approximately ____. A. 27 dB B. 43 dB C. 50 dB D. 103 dB Tippens - 022 Chapter... #19 20. Compute the speed of sound in helium (M = 4.0 g/mol) at 20oC. Assume the adiabatic constant is 1.66. A. 263 m/s B. 1005 m/s C. 31.7 m/s D. 540 m/s Tippens - 022 Chapter... #20 21. Two tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per second will be ____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #21 22. A pipe is open at both ends and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 520 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #22 23. The speed of any mechanical wave depends on ____. A. the medium through which it travels B. its frequency C. its reflection D. its amplitude Tippens - 022 Chapter... #23 24. Sound is a(n) ____ wave. A. electromagnetic B. electron C. longitudinal D. transverse Tippens - 022 Chapter... #24 25. As an ambulance approaches a stationary observer, the frequency of the sound heard by the observer ____ the frequency emitted by the ambulance. A. is the same as B. is greater than C. is less than Tippens - 022 Chapter... #25 26. The frequency of the sound heard by an observer ____ as an approaching ambulance passes the observer. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same Tippens - 022 Chapter... #26 27. A detected change in the frequency of a sound due to a moving source or a moving observer is ____. A. refraction B. sonar C. resonance D. the Doppler effect Tippens - 022 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following does NOT describe the pitch of a sound? A. a note on a musical scale B. frequency of vibration C. loud or soft D. high or low Tippens - 022 Chapter... #28 29. A source with a sound level of 40 dB has a pressure amplitude that is ____ times greater than a source with a sound level of 20 dB. A. 100 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #29 30. Which of the following is NOT true of open-pipe resonators? A. All harmonics are possible. B. There are displacement nodes at each end of the pipe. C. Nodes are separated by one-half wavelength. D. The open end of the pipe is a displacement antinode. Tippens - 022 Chapter... #30 31. A pipe is open at both ends and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m Tippens - 022 Chapter... #31 32. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the average power emitted by the source? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W Tippens - 022 Chapter... #32 33. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the intensity at this point? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W Tippens - 022 Chapter... #33 34. A pipe is closed at one end and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m Tippens - 022 Chapter... #34 35. A source of sound is moving at 24 m/s towards a stationary listener. If the source emits a 440 Hz tone, what frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 409Hz B. 411Hz C. 460 Hz D. 473 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #35 36. A 300 Hz source of sound is moving 25 m/s north. A listener is 1 mile away and traveling 25 m/s north. What frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 279 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 324 Hz D. 340 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #36 37. The closed end of a pipe must be a displacement ____________________; the open end must be a displacement ____________________. node, antinode Tippens - 022 Chapter... #37 38. If the temperature of air increases by 10oC, the speed of sound will increase approximately by__. 6 m/s. Tippens - 022 Chapter... #38 39. The three physical properties of sound that correspond to loudness, pitch, and quality are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________, respectively. intensity, frequency, waveform Tippens - 022 Chapter... #39 40. The __________ ____________ represents the standard zero of sound intensity. Its value is 10-16 W/cm2. hearing threshold, Tippens - 022 Chapter... #40 41. Sound waves having frequencies below the range of audible sound are termed ____________________; sounds having frequencies above this range are termed ____________________. infrasonic, ultrasonic Tippens - 022 Chapter... #41 42. A pipe is closed at one end. The second overtone corresponds to the ______ harmonic. 5th Tippens - 022 Chapter... #42 43. The power transmitted by a sound wave through a unit of area is a measure of ____________________. intensity Tippens - 022 Chapter... #43 44. The _________ ___________ refers to the apparent change in frequency of a source of sound when there is relative motion between the source and the observer. The pitch heard by an observer is ____________________ when a sound approaches her or him and ____________________ when the sound leaves. Doppler effect, higher, lower Tippens - 022 Chapter... #44 45. If source and listener are receding from each other, the frequency detected by the listener is ___ than the frequency of the source. less Tippens - 022 Chapter... #45 46. The separation between an adjacent compression and rarefaction is λ/_____. 2 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #46 47. Loudness is to Intensity as pitch is to _______________ frequency Tippens - 022 Chapter... #47 ch22 Summary Category # of Questions Tippens - 022 Chapter... 47 ch23 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Rubbing a glass rod with a silk cloth leaves a negative charge on the cloth. True False 2. A rubber rod cannot have a net charge because it is an insulator. True False 3. Bringing a negatively charged rod closer and closer to a positively charged electroscope causes the leaf to converge. True False 4. The process of charging an object by induction leaves a charge on the object that is opposite to that of the charging device. True False 5. An electroscope only works if there is charging by conduction. True False 6. According to Coulomb's law, the electric force will be doubled if the separation of two equal charges is cut in half. True False 7. If two nearby objects experience a mutual force of electric attraction, they must both be electrically charged. True False 8. When two or more charges are in the vicinity of another charge, the latter charge experiences an electric force equal to the algebraic sum of the forces due to each charge. True False 9. The plus and minus signs used to identify charge have significance primarily for determining direction when they are applied to Coulomb's law. True False 10. One coulomb is that quantity of charge that, when placed one meter away from an equal charge of the same sign, will experience a repulsive force of one newton. True False 11. An object is positively charged. The magnitude of the net charge must be greater or equal to 1.6 × 10-19 C. True False 12. The charge on a single proton in the nucleus of an atom will depend on the number of protons in the nucleus. True False 13. Two protons are 1 cm apart. The electric force of repulsion between them is much greater than the gravitational attraction between them. True False 14. A negatively charged body ____. A. has a deficiency of electrons B. has an excess of electrons C. is produced on glass by rubbing with silk D. repels a positively charged body 15. Which of the following represents the largest measure of charge? A. 1 µC B. 1 nC C. 1012 electrons D. 10-7 C 16. A positive ion of carbon has A. more electrons than neutral carbon. B. less electrons than neutral carbon C. more protons than neutral carbon. D. less protons than neutral carbon. 17. Decreasing the separation of two identical positive charges by one-half will cause the force of repulsion to change by a factor of ____. A. 4 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 1/4 18. A neutral atom has the same number of A. electrons and neutrons B. electrons and protons C. protons and neutrons 19. Two balls each having a charge of +12 µC are 8 cm apart. The electric force is approximately ____. A. 0.02 N B. 40 N C. 202 N D. 404 N 20. If a repulsive force of 2.0 N is observed between two identical 9-µC charges, their separation must be approximately ____. A. 6 cm B. 3.6 cm C. 60 cm D. 36 cm 21. How many coulombs are transferred in two seconds by a current of two amperes? A. 1 C B. 2 C C. 3 C D. 4 C 22. A copper ball has 3 × 1012 electrons added to its surface. What is the net charge of the ball? A. +3.0 × 1012 C B. -3.0 × 1012 C C. +4.8 × 10-7 C D. -4.8 × 10-7 C 23. As a positively charged rod is brought closer and closer to a positively charged electroscope, the gold leaf ____. A. diverges B. converges C. is neutralized D. is unaffected 24. Two charged particles a distance R apart are attracted to each other by a force F. If the charges are now separated by 2R, the new electrostatic force is ____. A. 4F. B. F/4. C. F/2. D. 2F. 25. Rubbing two objects such as plastic and wool together creates a static charge because ____. A. atoms are transferred from one object to another B. electrons are transferred from atoms in one object to atoms in the other object C. the electrons in one object are attracted to the nuclei in the other object D. electrons become more widely distributed in each object 26. Bits of paper stick to a plastic comb that has been rubbed because of ____. A. electrical charge B. nuclear forces C. kinetic energy D. gravity 27. An aluminum nucleus has 13 protons and 14 neutrons. A copper nucleus has 29 protons and 34 neutrons. What is the force of repulsion between an aluminum nucleus and a copper nucleus when they are separated by 10-9 m? A. 2.3 × 10-10 N B. 8.7 × 10-8 N C. 3.3 × 1030 N D. 540 N 28. A +10 µC charge is placed on the x-axis at x = 10 cm and a second charge of -8µC is placed at x = 15 cm. What is the force on a +3µC charge placed at the origin? A. 17.4 N (-x direction) B. 17.4 N (+x direction) C. 36.6 N (+x direction) D. 36.6 N (-x direction) 29. Touching an electroscope with a negatively charged rod is an example of ____. A. discharging electrostatic forces B. distributing unlike charges C. charging by conduction D. charging by induction 30. In charging by induction, ____. A. a neutral object can be used to separate like charges B. a charged object can be used to charge a neutral object without touching it C. no charges are separated D. a charged object can be used to change the charge of another charged object 31. The force that charge q exerts on charge Q is opposite and ____ the force that charge Q exerts on q. A. equal to B. greater than C. less than 32. Electric force is a vector quantity because it has magnitude and ____. A. strength B. frequency C. direction D. duration 33. Which of the following statements is NOT true of a charged object? A. It always attracts a neutral object. B. It always repels a neutral object. C. It may repel another charged object. D. It may attract another charged object. 34. The repulsive force between two electrons is 1.2 × 10-12 N. What is their separation? A. 5.29 × 10-9 m B. 6.92 × 10-12 m C. 1.92 × 10-16 m D. d.1.39 × 10-8 m 35. Two equal point charges repel each other with a force of 5.25 N. If they are separated by 4.0 cm, what is the magnitude of each charge? A. 0.013 µC B. 0.045 µC C. 0.97 µC D. 123 µC 36. Two small spheres are 5.0 cm apart. If 1018 electrons are transferred from one sphere to another, what is the force of attraction? A. 0 B. 9.22 × 1010 N C. 5.76 × 1011 N D. 3.6 × 1048 N 37. A +30 µC charge is placed 40 cm away from a -30 µC charge. What is the magnitude of the force on a -5 µC charge placed midway between them? A. 0 B. 34 N C. 203 N D. 21 N 38. An object that has an excess of electrons is ____________________ charged and will repel a(n) ____________________ charged body. ________________________________________ 39. A(n) ____________________ is a material through which charge may be transferred easily, whereas a(n) ____________________ resists the flow of charge. ________________________________________ 40. A charge of _________ µC is equivalent to a charge of 10-6 C. ________________________________________ 41. The first law of electrostatics states that like charges ____________________ and unlike charges ____________________. ________________________________________ 42. A carbon atom has six protons. If it loses two electrons, the carbon ion has a charge of ______. ________________________________________ 43. The process of charging without the necessity of direct contact with a charged body is called ____________________. ________________________________________ 44. According to ____________________ law, the electric force is inversely proportional to the square of the ____________________ between two charges. ________________________________________ 45. A charge of 1 C is equivalent to that charge represented by ________× 1018 electrons. ________________________________________ 46. A object has a net charge of 16 µC. If the object is broken into three pieces, one having a charge of 12 µC and the other 8 µC, the third piece has a charge of ________ µC. ________________________________________ 47. The ____________________ is a laboratory device used to detect the presence of charge. ________________________________________ 48. Two charges 2 m apart exert an electric force of 4 N on each other. If they are brought 1 m apart, the new force is ____. ________________________________________ 49. Uncharged atoms have the same number of ________ as ______. ________________________________________ 50. If an atom gains or loses one or more electrons, it becomes a(n) ____________. ________________________________________ ch23 Key 1. Rubbing a glass rod with a silk cloth leaves a negative charge on the cloth. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #1 2. A rubber rod cannot have a net charge because it is an insulator. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #2 3. Bringing a negatively charged rod closer and closer to a positively charged electroscope causes the leaf to converge. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #3 4. The process of charging an object by induction leaves a charge on the object that is opposite to that of the charging device. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #4 5. An electroscope only works if there is charging by conduction. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #5 6. According to Coulomb's law, the electric force will be doubled if the separation of two equal charges is cut in half. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #6 7. If two nearby objects experience a mutual force of electric attraction, they must both be electrically charged. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #7 8. When two or more charges are in the vicinity of another charge, the latter charge experiences an electric force equal to the algebraic sum of the forces due to each charge. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #8 9. The plus and minus signs used to identify charge have significance primarily for determining direction when they are applied to Coulomb's law. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #9 10. One coulomb is that quantity of charge that, when placed one meter away from an equal charge of the same sign, will experience a repulsive force of one newton. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #10 11. An object is positively charged. The magnitude of the net charge must be greater or equal to 1.6 × 10-19 C. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #11 12. The charge on a single proton in the nucleus of an atom will depend on the number of protons in the nucleus. FALSE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #12 13. Two protons are 1 cm apart. The electric force of repulsion between them is much greater than the gravitational attraction between them. TRUE Tippens - 023 Chapter... #13 14. A negatively charged body ____. A. has a deficiency of electrons B. has an excess of electrons C. is produced on glass by rubbing with silk D. repels a positively charged body Tippens - 023 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following represents the largest measure of charge? A. 1 µC B. 1 nC C. 1012 electrons D. 10-7 C Tippens - 023 Chapter... #15 16. A positive ion of carbon has A. more electrons than neutral carbon. B. less electrons than neutral carbon C. more protons than neutral carbon. D. less protons than neutral carbon. Tippens - 023 Chapter... #16 17. Decreasing the separation of two identical positive charges by one-half will cause the force of repulsion to change by a factor of ____. A. 4 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 1/4 Tippens - 023 Chapter... #17 18. A neutral atom has the same number of A. electrons and neutrons B. electrons and protons C. protons and neutrons Tippens - 023 Chapter... #18 19. Two balls each having a charge of +12 µC are 8 cm apart. The electric force is approximately ____. A. 0.02 N B. 40 N C. 202 N D. 404 N Tippens - 023 Chapter... #19 20. If a repulsive force of 2.0 N is observed between two identical 9-µC charges, their separation must be approximately ____. A. 6 cm B. 3.6 cm C. 60 cm D. 36 cm Tippens - 023 Chapter... #20 21. How many coulombs are transferred in two seconds by a current of two amperes? A. 1 C B. 2 C C. 3 C D. 4 C Tippens - 023 Chapter... #21 22. A copper ball has 3 × 1012 electrons added to its surface. What is the net charge of the ball? A. +3.0 × 1012 C B. -3.0 × 1012 C C. +4.8 × 10-7 C D. -4.8 × 10-7 C Tippens - 023 Chapter... #22 23. As a positively charged rod is brought closer and closer to a positively charged electroscope, the gold leaf ____. A. diverges B. converges C. is neutralized D. is unaffected Tippens - 023 Chapter... #23 24. Two charged particles a distance R apart are attracted to each other by a force F. If the charges are now separated by 2R, the new electrostatic force is ____. A. 4F. B. F/4. C. F/2. D. 2F. Tippens - 023 Chapter... #24 25. Rubbing two objects such as plastic and wool together creates a static charge because ____. A. atoms are transferred from one object to another B. electrons are transferred from atoms in one object to atoms in the other object C. the electrons in one object are attracted to the nuclei in the other object D. electrons become more widely distributed in each object Tippens - 023 Chapter... #25 26. Bits of paper stick to a plastic comb that has been rubbed because of ____. A. electrical charge B. nuclear forces C. kinetic energy D. gravity Tippens - 023 Chapter... #26 27. An aluminum nucleus has 13 protons and 14 neutrons. A copper nucleus has 29 protons and 34 neutrons. What is the force of repulsion between an aluminum nucleus and a copper nucleus when they are separated by 10-9 m? A. 2.3 × 10-10 N B. 8.7 × 10-8 N C. 3.3 × 1030 N D. 540 N Tippens - 023 Chapter... #27 28. A +10 µC charge is placed on the x-axis at x = 10 cm and a second charge of -8µC is placed at x = 15 cm. What is the force on a +3µC charge placed at the origin? A. 17.4 N (-x direction) B. 17.4 N (+x direction) C. 36.6 N (+x direction) D. 36.6 N (-x direction) Tippens - 023 Chapter... #28 29. Touching an electroscope with a negatively charged rod is an example of ____. A. discharging electrostatic forces B. distributing unlike charges C. charging by conduction D. charging by induction Tippens - 023 Chapter... #29 30. In charging by induction, ____. A. a neutral object can be used to separate like charges B. a charged object can be used to charge a neutral object without touching it C. no charges are separated D. a charged object can be used to change the charge of another charged object Tippens - 023 Chapter... #30 31. The force that charge q exerts on charge Q is opposite and ____ the force that charge Q exerts on q. A. equal to B. greater than C. less than Tippens - 023 Chapter... #31 32. Electric force is a vector quantity because it has magnitude and ____. A. strength B. frequency C. direction D. duration Tippens - 023 Chapter... #32 33. Which of the following statements is NOT true of a charged object? A. It always attracts a neutral object. B. It always repels a neutral object. C. It may repel another charged object. D. It may attract another charged object. Tippens - 023 Chapter... #33 34. The repulsive force between two electrons is 1.2 × 10-12 N. What is their separation? A. 5.29 × 10-9 m B. 6.92 × 10-12 m C. 1.92 × 10-16 m D. d.1.39 × 10-8 m Tippens - 023 Chapter... #34 35. Two equal point charges repel each other with a force of 5.25 N. If they are separated by 4.0 cm, what is the magnitude of each charge? A. 0.013 µC B. 0.045 µC C. 0.97 µC D. 123 µC Tippens - 023 Chapter... #35 36. Two small spheres are 5.0 cm apart. If 1018 electrons are transferred from one sphere to another, what is the force of attraction? A. 0 B. 9.22 × 1010 N C. 5.76 × 1011 N D. 3.6 × 1048 N Tippens - 023 Chapter... #36 37. A +30 µC charge is placed 40 cm away from a -30 µC charge. What is the magnitude of the force on a -5 µC charge placed midway between them? A. 0 B. 34 N C. 203 N D. 21 N Tippens - 023 Chapter... #37 38. An object that has an excess of electrons is ____________________ charged and will repel a(n) ____________________ charged body. negatively, negatively Tippens - 023 Chapter... #38 39. A(n) ____________________ is a material through which charge may be transferred easily, whereas a(n) ____________________ resists the flow of charge. conductor, insulator Tippens - 023 Chapter... #39 40. A charge of _________ µC is equivalent to a charge of 10-6 C. 1 Tippens - 023 Chapter... #40 41. The first law of electrostatics states that like charges ____________________ and unlike charges ____________________. repel, attract Tippens - 023 Chapter... #41 42. A carbon atom has six protons. If it loses two electrons, the carbon ion has a charge of ______. 2e Tippens - 023 Chapter... #42 43. The process of charging without the necessity of direct contact with a charged body is called ____________________. induction Tippens - 023 Chapter... #43 44. According to ____________________ law, the electric force is inversely proportional to the square of the ____________________ between two charges. Coulomb's, distance Tippens - 023 Chapter... #44 45. A charge of 1 C is equivalent to that charge represented by ________× 1018 electrons. 6.25 Tippens - 023 Chapter... #45 46. A object has a net charge of 16 µC. If the object is broken into three pieces, one having a charge of 12 µC and the other 8 µC, the third piece has a charge of ________ µC. -4 Tippens - 023 Chapter... #46 47. The ____________________ is a laboratory device used to detect the presence of charge. electroscope Tippens - 023 Chapter... #47 48. Two charges 2 m apart exert an electric force of 4 N on each other. If they are brought 1 m apart, the new force is ____. 16 N Tippens - 023 Chapter... #48 49. Uncharged atoms have the same number of ________ as ______. protons, electrons Tippens - 023 Chapter... #49 50. If an atom gains or loses one or more electrons, it becomes a(n) ____________. ion Tippens - 023 Chapter... #50 ch23 Summary Category Tippens - 023 Chapter... # of Questions 50 ch24 2 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. It is necessary that a charge be placed at a point to have an electric field at that point. True False 2. Electric field lines never intersect. True False 3. A Gaussian surface must be a closed surface. True False 4. The direction of the electric field at a given point A in the vicinity of a positive charge depends on the sign of a charge placed at point A. True False 5. The field in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the algebraic sum of the fields due to the individual charges. True False 6. The spacing of electric field lines is such that they are close together when the field is strong and far apart when the field is weak. True False 7. Gauss's law demonstrates that all the charge lies on the surface of a conductor. True False 8. A charged particle will follow the path of a curved electric field line. True False 9. The electric field intensity at the midpoint of a line joining identical charges will always be zero. True False 10. At a point twice as far away from a certain charge, the field intensity will be reduced by one-fourth. True False 11. The electric field at a point does not depend on the magnitude of the small test charge. True False 12. All excess charges lie on the surface of a conductor. True False 13. The direction of an electric field vector gives the direction an electron would move. True False 14. The force on a -3.0 µC charge is 6.0 × 10-5 N East. What is the electric field at this point? A. 180 N/C East B. 180 N/C West C. 20 N/C East D. 20 N/C West 15. The direction of the electric field intensity is ____. A. away from all negative charges B. toward all negative charges C. the same as the direction of an electric force D. dependent on the nature of a charge placed at the point in question 16. The force on a charged particle of mass 2.5 × 10-3 kg and charge 4.5 mC is observed to be 0.25 N/C. Neglecting gravity, what is the electric field felt by the particle? A. 56 N/C B. 0.021 N/C C. 5.4 N/C D. 45000 N/C 17. The spacing of electric field lines between two identical point charges of opposite sign is ____. A. not dependent on the magnitude of the charges B. an indication of the field direction C. an indication of the field strength D. large when the charges are large 18. An electron in a picture tube moves with an acceleration of 7.0 × 1016 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the electric field in the tube? A. 4.0 × 105 N/C B. 7.3 × 108 N/C C. 4.4 × 1035 N/C D. 30 N/C 19. The permittivity of a medium ____. A. is a measure of its density B. is equal to unity for air or a vacuum C. is dependent on the charge density of the medium D. determines the magnitude of an electric field that can be established by the medium 20. The electric field intensity at a distance of 4 m from a 6-µC charge is ____. A. 1.69 × 103 N/C B. 3.38 × 103 N/C C. 1.35 × 104 N/C D. 2 × 104 N/C 21. The electric field intensity between two oppositely charged plates is 4 × 105 N/C in a downward direction. The force on a –2nC charge passing between the plates is ____. A. 2 × 104 N upward B. 2 × 104 N downward C. 8 × 10-4 N upward D. 8 × 10-4 N downward 22. Two point charges of -4 and -6µC are 10 cm apart in air. The magnitude of the electric field midway between the two charges is approximately ____. A. 7.2 × 106 N/C B. 3.6 × 107 N/C C. 1.8 × 106 N/C D. 3.6 × 105 N/C 23. An 8-µC charge is 12 cm to the right of a -5µC charge. The magnitude of the electric field at a point 9 cm above the 8-µC charge is approximately ____. A. 3.72 MN/C B. 5 MN/C C. 6.4 MN/C D. 7.85 MN/C 24. An electric field is equal to ____. A. force per unit charge B. force per unit mass C. force times direction D. force per unit time 25. The force on a test charge in an electric field is ____. A. directly proportional to the magnitude of the field B. unrelated to the magnitude of the field C. inversely proportional to the square of the magnitude of the field D. inversely proportional to the magnitude of the field 26. The strength of the force on a charge in an electric field depends on ____. A. the magnitude of the field B. the size of the charge C. the magnitude of the field and the size of the charge D. the direction of the field 27. As an electric field becomes stronger, the field lines should be drawn ____. A. thicker B. farther apart C. closer together D. thinner 28. Which of the following is false about electric field lines? A. They are imaginary. B. They originate on positive charges. C. Charges follow the path of a curved field line. D. The field is strong where the field lines are close together. 29. A proton and electron are enclosed in a cube of length 0.50 cm. What is the net number of electric field lines crossing the cube? A. 3.20 × 10-19 B. 1.60 × 10-19 C. 1.22 × 10-38 D. 0 30. A uniform field of magnitude 1500 N/C points north. What is the force on an electron placed in the field? A. 1.4 × 10-27 N, North B. 1.4 × 10-27 N, South C. 2.4 × 10-16 N, North D. 2.4 × 10-16 N, South 31. Which of the following is true about Gaussian surfaces? A. They must be enclosed surfaces. B. They must enclose a nonzero net charge. C. They must spherical surfaces. D. They must be cylindrical surfaces. 32. An electric field due to a point charge 10.0 m from the charge has a magnitude of 400.0 N/C. What is the electric field 5.0 m away? A. 200 N/C B. 100 N/C C. 1600 N/C D. 800 N/C 33. A sphere of radius 13 cm has a surface charge density of 8.1 µC/m2. What is the total charge on the sphere? A. 1.7 µC B. 1.1 µC C. 0.43 µC D. 7.5 µC 34. The net number of lines penetrating a sphere is zero. What can be said about this situation? A. There are no charges inside the sphere. B. There are no charges outside the sphere. C. The net charge inside the sphere is zero. D. The net charge outside the sphere is zero. 35. A charged conducting sphere of radius 18 cm has 1012 electrons removed from its surface. What is the surface charge density of the sphere? A. -3.92 × 10-7 C/m2 B. +3.92 × 10-7 C/m2 C. -1.57 × 10-6 C/m2 D. +1.57 × 10-6 C/m2 36. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a net charge of -3 µC on its surface. What is the electric field 20 cm from its center? A. 0 B. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing away from the center of the sphere. C. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. D. 1.08 × 107 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. 37. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a net charge of -3 µC on its surface. What is the electric field 10 cm from its center? A. 0 B. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing away from the center of the sphere. C. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. D. 1.08 × 107 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. 38. The charge density on each of two oppositely charged parallel plates is 6.00 µC/m2. What force is felt by a 3.00 µC charge between the plates? A. 2.03 N B. 18.0 N C. 275 N D. 0.045 N 39. An electric field is said to exist in a region of space in which a(n) __________ __________ will experience a(n) __________ __________. ________________________________________ 40. The direction of the ________ _____ _______ at a point in space is the same as the direction in which a(n) _________ ___________ would move if it were placed at that point. ________________________________________ 41. The electric field intensity near a known charge is directly proportional to the ____________ ____ ____ __________ and inversely proportional to the ________ ___ ____ _____ ____ ____ __________. ________________________________________ 42. When more than one charge contributes to a field, the resultant field at a point is the _________ ___________ of the fields due to each charge. ________________________________________ 43. The spacing of electric field lines must be such that they are __________ __________ where the field is weak and _________ ___________ where the field is strong. ________________________________________ 44. ________ ______ ______ are imaginary lines drawn so that their direction at any point is the same as the direction of the _________ ___________ at that point. ________________________________________ 45. The direction of an electric field is __________ __________ a positive charge and ____________________ a negative charge. ________________________________________ 46. According to Gauss's Law, the net number of lines penetrating a closed surface is proportional to the net ______ within the surface. ________________________________________ 47. It can be shown from Gauss's law that all charge resides on the ____________________ of a conductor. ________________________________________ 48. The units of the proportionally constant k used in calculating the electric field intensity are _______2/C2. ________________________________________ 49. The electric field outside a capacitor is ___________. ________________________________________ 50. The electric field lines between the plates of a charged capacitor are straight lines that begin on the ____________ plate and terminate on the _________ plate. ________________________________________ 51. If the distance from a point charge is doubled, the magnitude of the electric field created by the charge is reduced by a factor of _________. ________________________________________ 52. A Gaussian surface surrounds a helium atom. The net flux through the surface is _______. ________________________________________ ch24 2 Key 1. It is necessary that a charge be placed at a point to have an electric field at that point. FALSE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #1 2. Electric field lines never intersect. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #2 3. A Gaussian surface must be a closed surface. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #3 4. The direction of the electric field at a given point A in the vicinity of a positive charge depends on the sign of a charge placed at point A. FALSE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #4 5. The field in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the algebraic sum of the fields due to the individual charges. FALSE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #5 6. The spacing of electric field lines is such that they are close together when the field is strong and far apart when the field is weak. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #6 7. Gauss's law demonstrates that all the charge lies on the surface of a conductor. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #7 8. A charged particle will follow the path of a curved electric field line. FALSE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #8 9. The electric field intensity at the midpoint of a line joining identical charges will always be zero. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #9 10. At a point twice as far away from a certain charge, the field intensity will be reduced by one-fourth. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #10 11. The electric field at a point does not depend on the magnitude of the small test charge. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #11 12. All excess charges lie on the surface of a conductor. TRUE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #12 13. The direction of an electric field vector gives the direction an electron would move. FALSE Tippens - 024 Chapter... #13 14. The force on a -3.0 µC charge is 6.0 × 10-5 N East. What is the electric field at this point? A. 180 N/C East B. 180 N/C West C. 20 N/C East D. 20 N/C West Tippens - 024 Chapter... #14 15. The direction of the electric field intensity is ____. A. away from all negative charges B. toward all negative charges C. the same as the direction of an electric force D. dependent on the nature of a charge placed at the point in question Tippens - 024 Chapter... #15 16. The force on a charged particle of mass 2.5 × 10-3 kg and charge 4.5 mC is observed to be 0.25 N/C. Neglecting gravity, what is the electric field felt by the particle? A. 56 N/C B. 0.021 N/C C. 5.4 N/C D. 45000 N/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #16 17. The spacing of electric field lines between two identical point charges of opposite sign is ____. A. not dependent on the magnitude of the charges B. an indication of the field direction C. an indication of the field strength D. large when the charges are large Tippens - 024 Chapter... #17 18. An electron in a picture tube moves with an acceleration of 7.0 × 1016 m/s2. What is the magnitude of the electric field in the tube? A. 4.0 × 105 N/C B. 7.3 × 108 N/C C. 4.4 × 1035 N/C D. 30 N/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #18 19. The permittivity of a medium ____. A. is a measure of its density B. is equal to unity for air or a vacuum C. is dependent on the charge density of the medium D. determines the magnitude of an electric field that can be established by the medium Tippens - 024 Chapter... #19 20. The electric field intensity at a distance of 4 m from a 6-µC charge is ____. A. 1.69 × 103 N/C B. 3.38 × 103 N/C C. 1.35 × 104 N/C D. 2 × 104 N/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #20 21. The electric field intensity between two oppositely charged plates is 4 × 105 N/C in a downward direction. The force on a –2nC charge passing between the plates is ____. A. 2 × 104 N upward B. 2 × 104 N downward C. 8 × 10-4 N upward D. 8 × 10-4 N downward Tippens - 024 Chapter... #21 22. Two point charges of -4 and -6µC are 10 cm apart in air. The magnitude of the electric field midway between the two charges is approximately ____. A. 7.2 × 106 N/C B. 3.6 × 107 N/C C. 1.8 × 106 N/C D. 3.6 × 105 N/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #22 23. An 8-µC charge is 12 cm to the right of a -5µC charge. The magnitude of the electric field at a point 9 cm above the 8-µC charge is approximately ____. A. 3.72 MN/C B. 5 MN/C C. 6.4 MN/C D. 7.85 MN/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #23 24. An electric field is equal to ____. A. force per unit charge B. force per unit mass C. force times direction D. force per unit time Tippens - 024 Chapter... #24 25. The force on a test charge in an electric field is ____. A. directly proportional to the magnitude of the field B. unrelated to the magnitude of the field C. inversely proportional to the square of the magnitude of the field D. inversely proportional to the magnitude of the field Tippens - 024 Chapter... #25 26. The strength of the force on a charge in an electric field depends on ____. A. the magnitude of the field B. the size of the charge C. the magnitude of the field and the size of the charge D. the direction of the field Tippens - 024 Chapter... #26 27. As an electric field becomes stronger, the field lines should be drawn ____. A. thicker B. farther apart C. closer together D. thinner Tippens - 024 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following is false about electric field lines? A. They are imaginary. B. They originate on positive charges. C. Charges follow the path of a curved field line. D. The field is strong where the field lines are close together. Tippens - 024 Chapter... #28 29. A proton and electron are enclosed in a cube of length 0.50 cm. What is the net number of electric field lines crossing the cube? A. 3.20 × 10-19 B. 1.60 × 10-19 C. 1.22 × 10-38 D. 0 Tippens - 024 Chapter... #29 30. A uniform field of magnitude 1500 N/C points north. What is the force on an electron placed in the field? A. 1.4 × 10-27 N, North B. 1.4 × 10-27 N, South C. 2.4 × 10-16 N, North D. 2.4 × 10-16 N, South Tippens - 024 Chapter... #30 31. Which of the following is true about Gaussian surfaces? A. They must be enclosed surfaces. B. They must enclose a nonzero net charge. C. They must spherical surfaces. D. They must be cylindrical surfaces. Tippens - 024 Chapter... #31 32. An electric field due to a point charge 10.0 m from the charge has a magnitude of 400.0 N/C. What is the electric field 5.0 m away? A. 200 N/C B. 100 N/C C. 1600 N/C D. 800 N/C Tippens - 024 Chapter... #32 33. A sphere of radius 13 cm has a surface charge density of 8.1 µC/m2. What is the total charge on the sphere? A. 1.7 µC B. 1.1 µC C. 0.43 µC D. 7.5 µC Tippens - 024 Chapter... #33 34. The net number of lines penetrating a sphere is zero. What can be said about this situation? A. There are no charges inside the sphere. B. There are no charges outside the sphere. C. The net charge inside the sphere is zero. D. The net charge outside the sphere is zero. Tippens - 024 Chapter... #34 35. A charged conducting sphere of radius 18 cm has 1012 electrons removed from its surface. What is the surface charge density of the sphere? A. -3.92 × 10-7 C/m2 B. +3.92 × 10-7 C/m2 C. -1.57 × 10-6 C/m2 D. +1.57 × 10-6 C/m2 Tippens - 024 Chapter... #35 36. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a net charge of -3 µC on its surface. What is the electric field 20 cm from its center? A. 0 B. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing away from the center of the sphere. C. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. D. 1.08 × 107 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. Tippens - 024 Chapter... #36 37. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a net charge of -3 µC on its surface. What is the electric field 10 cm from its center? A. 0 B. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing away from the center of the sphere. C. 6.75 × 105 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. D. 1.08 × 107 N/C pointing towards the center of the sphere. Tippens - 024 Chapter... #37 38. The charge density on each of two oppositely charged parallel plates is 6.00 µC/m2. What force is felt by a 3.00 µC charge between the plates? A. 2.03 N B. 18.0 N C. 275 N D. 0.045 N Tippens - 024 Chapter... #38 39. An electric field is said to exist in a region of space in which a(n) __________ __________ will experience a(n) __________ __________. electric charge, electric force Tippens - 024 Chapter... #39 40. The direction of the ________ _____ _______ at a point in space is the same as the direction in which a(n) _________ ___________ would move if it were placed at that point. electric field intensity, positive charge Tippens - 024 Chapter... #40 41. The electric field intensity near a known charge is directly proportional to the ____________ ____ ____ __________ and inversely proportional to the ________ ___ ____ _____ ____ ____ __________. magnitude of the charge, square of the distance from the charge Tippens - 024 Chapter... #41 42. When more than one charge contributes to a field, the resultant field at a point is the _________ ___________ of the fields due to each charge. vector sum Tippens - 024 Chapter... #42 43. The spacing of electric field lines must be such that they are __________ __________ where the field is weak and _________ ___________ where the field is strong. far apart, close together Tippens - 024 Chapter... #43 44. ________ ______ ______ are imaginary lines drawn so that their direction at any point is the same as the direction of the _________ ___________ at that point. Electric field lines, electric field Tippens - 024 Chapter... #44 45. The direction of an electric field is __________ __________ a positive charge and ____________________ a negative charge. away from, toward Tippens - 024 Chapter... #45 46. According to Gauss's Law, the net number of lines penetrating a closed surface is proportional to the net ______ within the surface. charge Tippens - 024 Chapter... #46 47. It can be shown from Gauss's law that all charge resides on the ____________________ of a conductor. surface Tippens - 024 Chapter... #47 48. The units of the proportionally constant k used in calculating the electric field intensity are _______2/C2. Nm Tippens - 024 Chapter... #48 49. The electric field outside a capacitor is ___________. zero Tippens - 024 Chapter... #49 50. The electric field lines between the plates of a charged capacitor are straight lines that begin on the ____________ plate and terminate on the _________ plate. positive, negative Tippens - 024 Chapter... #50 51. If the distance from a point charge is doubled, the magnitude of the electric field created by the charge is reduced by a factor of _________. four Tippens - 024 Chapter... #51 52. A Gaussian surface surrounds a helium atom. The net flux through the surface is _______. zero Tippens - 024 Chapter... #52 ch24 2 Summary Category Tippens - 024 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch25 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When the electric field does negative work in moving a charge from infinity to point B, the potential energy of the charge at B will also be negative. True False 2. The work done by an electric field on a charged particle does not depend on the particle's path. True False 3. Electric potential at a point is a property of the space, whereas electric potential energy cannot exist unless a charge is placed at that point. True False 4. Whenever a negative charge is moved from a point of high potential to a point of low potential, its potential energy is increased. True False 5. The electric potential in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the algebraic sum of the potentials due to each charge. True False 6. The potential energy inside an isolated, charged conducting sphere is zero. True False 7. If the potential is zero at a point, the electric field also must be zero at that point. True False 8. The electric field between two oppositely charged plates is equal to the product of the voltage and the plate separation. True False 9. The electronvolt is a unit of potential difference. True False 10. The surface of any conductor is an equipotential surface. True False 11. The potential an infinite distance from a charge is zero. True False 12. No work is done when a charge moves on an equipotential surface. True False 13. The equipotential surfaces between the plates of a capacitor are concentric circles. True False 14. When a negative charge is moved from a point of low potential to a point of high potential, ____. A. its potential energy increases B. its potential energy decreases C. no work is done by the field D. negative work is done by the field 15. The potential energy at a given point is independent of the ____. A. work required to bring a charge to that point B. electric field C. path taken to reach that point D. magnitude of a charge at that point 16. In the vicinity of a negative charge, ____. A. the potential is always negative B. the potential energy is always negative C. the potential energy is always positive D. the potential is always positive 17. Which of the following represents a unit of energy? A. V B. N/C C. J/C D. eV 18. The Millikan oil-drop experiment was used primarily to determine the ____. A. mass of an electron B. charge of an electron C. ratio of charge to mass for an electron D. density of oil 19. A -3µC charge is the origin. Find the potential difference between the points x = 4.0 cm, y = 0 and x = 0, y = 4.0 cm. A. 0 B. 67.5 MV C. 0.27 MV D. 16.9 MV 20. A 3-nC charge is located 2 m away from another charge of 40 µC. The potential energy is ____. A. 1.8 × 10-4 J B. 2.7 × 10-4 J C. 5.4 × 10-4 J D. 6.9 × 10-4 J 21. An isolated charged, conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a surface charge density of 8.0 µC/m2. What is the potential on the surface of the sphere? A. 0 B. 18.8 kV C. 0.136 MV D. 120 MV 22. Points A and B are located 6 and 10 cm away, respectively, from a -24µC charge. The potential difference V A – V B is approximately ____. A. –1.44 MV B. 1.44 MV C. –5.04 MV D. 5.04 MV 23. What speed will an electron acquire if it is accelerated through a potential difference of 150 V? A. 150 m/s B. 930 m/s C. 2.5 × 105 m/s D. 7.3 × 106 m/s 24. A -7.5 µC particle is between parallel plates separated 4 mm. If the electric field between the plates is 1500 N/C, how much kinetic energy does the charge acquire as it moves from the negative to positive plate? A. 6 µJ B. 45 µJ C. 112 µJ D. 450 µJ 25. Which is not a unit for electric field? A. V/m B. J/(C . m) C. N . m/C D. N/C 26. The potential inside a hollow conductor is ____. A. increasing as you go from the center to the surface B. zero C. infinity D. constant 27. Two oppositely charged parallel plates separated by 1.2 cm have a constant electric field of 1500 N/C between them. How much work does it take to move a proton from the negative plate to the positive plate? A. 18 J B. 2.9 × 10-18 J C. 2.0 × 10-14 J D. The work depends on the path taken. 28. In Millikan's oil-drop experiment, which of the following could NOT be the net charge on the oil drop? A. 4.8 × 10-19 C B. 4.0 × 10-18 C C. 0.5 × 10-19 C D. 1.6 × 19-19 C 29. The potential difference between points A and B is 100 V. The work required to bring a 2 µC charge from A to B and then back to A is ____. A. 4 × 10-4 J B. 2 × 10-4 J C. 0 J D. 5 × 10-4 J 30. A charge has a kinetic energy of 4.8 × 10-19 J. This is equivalent to ____. A. 7.7 × 10-19 eV B. The answer depends on the charge of the particle. C. 3.0 eV D. 7.7 eV 31. The electric potential on the surface of a conducting shell of radius 0.60 m and charge 3.5 × 10-9 C is ____. A. 210 V B. 53 V C. 88 V D. 0 V 32. Two point charges +Q are a distance r apart. The potential at a point equidistant between the two charges on a line connecting the charges is ____. A. 4kQ/r B. 0 C. 2kQ/r D. kQ/r 33. A proton travels from a high to low potential. Which of the following is true? A. The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy increases. B. The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy increases. C. The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy decreases. D. The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy decreases. 34. A 5.60 µC point charge is at the origin. What is the potential 4.00 m from the charge? A. 1.26 × 104 V B. 3.15 × 103 V C. 6.72 × 103 V D. 3.24 × 104 V 35. A 5.60 µC point charge is at the origin. How much work does it take to bring a proton from infinity and place it 4.00 m from the charge? A. 1.26 × 104 J B. 1.26 × 104 eV C. 3.15 × 103 J D. 3.15 × 103 eV 36. What is the potential midway between two -3.0 × 10-5 C charges separated by 6.0 m? A. +1.8 × 105 V B. -1.8 × 105 V C. +4.5 × 104 V D. -4.5 × 104 V 37. A 5.0 µC charge is placed 2 m from a 2.5 µC charge. What is the potential energy of the system? A. 0 b. 8.2 mJ B. 14 mJ C. 56 mJ 38. The ____________________ at a point is equal to the negative of the work per unit charge done by electric forces in bringing a positive charge from infinity. ________________________________________ 39. The potential in the vicinity of a positive charge is ____________________, and the potential in the vicinity of a negative charge is ____________________. ________________________________________ 40. The potential in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the ___________ __________ of the potentials due to each charge. ________________________________________ 41. A potential of 1 V means that a charge of ____________ will have a potential energy of ___________ when placed at that point. ________________________________________ 42. The potential difference between two oppositely charged plates is equal to the product of the _________ ___________ and the __________ __________. ________________________________________ 43. The ____________________ is a unit of energy equivalent to the energy acquired by an electron that accelerated through a potential difference of one volt. ________________________________________ 44. The work done by an electric field in moving a charge from a point of potential V A to a point of potential V B is equal to the product of ______ and V A – V B . ________________________________________ 45. The volt per meter is a unit of ________ ______ ________ and is equivalent to the unit ________ ___ ________. ________________________________________ 46. A(n) ____________________ potential energy means that work must be done ____________________ ; or positive by the electric field in removing a charge from the field. ________________________________________ 47. Whenever a positive charge is moved against the electric field, its potential energy _________________; whenever a negative charge moves against an electric field, its potential energy ________________. ________________________________________ 48. ____________ ____________ determined that any charges are always in multiples of e = 1.6 x 10-19 C ________________________________________ 49. A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 Volt. The energy gained by the proton is one _____. ________________________________________ 50. The potential on the surface of an isolated, charged sphere is 350 V. The potential at the center of the sphere is ___________. ________________________________________ 51. The metric unit for potential energy is the ______ while the metric unit for potential is the __________. ________________________________________ 52. Equipotential surfaces are always ___________ to electric field lines. ________________________________________ ch25 Key 1. When the electric field does negative work in moving a charge from infinity to point B, the potential energy of the charge at B will also be negative. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #1 2. The work done by an electric field on a charged particle does not depend on the particle's path. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #2 3. Electric potential at a point is a property of the space, whereas electric potential energy cannot exist unless a charge is placed at that point. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #3 4. Whenever a negative charge is moved from a point of high potential to a point of low potential, its potential energy is increased. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #4 5. The electric potential in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the algebraic sum of the potentials due to each charge. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #5 6. The potential energy inside an isolated, charged conducting sphere is zero. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #6 7. If the potential is zero at a point, the electric field also must be zero at that point. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #7 8. The electric field between two oppositely charged plates is equal to the product of the voltage and the plate separation. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #8 9. The electronvolt is a unit of potential difference. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #9 10. The surface of any conductor is an equipotential surface. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #10 11. The potential an infinite distance from a charge is zero. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #11 12. No work is done when a charge moves on an equipotential surface. TRUE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #12 13. The equipotential surfaces between the plates of a capacitor are concentric circles. FALSE Tippens - 025 Chapter... #13 14. When a negative charge is moved from a point of low potential to a point of high potential, ____. A. its potential energy increases B. its potential energy decreases C. no work is done by the field D. negative work is done by the field Tippens - 025 Chapter... #14 15. The potential energy at a given point is independent of the ____. A. work required to bring a charge to that point B. electric field C. path taken to reach that point D. magnitude of a charge at that point Tippens - 025 Chapter... #15 16. In the vicinity of a negative charge, ____. A. the potential is always negative B. the potential energy is always negative C. the potential energy is always positive D. the potential is always positive Tippens - 025 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following represents a unit of energy? A. V B. N/C C. J/C D. eV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #17 18. The Millikan oil-drop experiment was used primarily to determine the ____. A. mass of an electron B. charge of an electron C. ratio of charge to mass for an electron D. density of oil Tippens - 025 Chapter... #18 19. A -3µC charge is the origin. Find the potential difference between the points x = 4.0 cm, y = 0 and x = 0, y = 4.0 cm. A. 0 B. 67.5 MV C. 0.27 MV D. 16.9 MV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #19 20. A 3-nC charge is located 2 m away from another charge of 40 µC. The potential energy is ____. A. 1.8 × 10-4 J B. 2.7 × 10-4 J C. 5.4 × 10-4 J D. 6.9 × 10-4 J Tippens - 025 Chapter... #20 21. An isolated charged, conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a surface charge density of 8.0 µC/m2. What is the potential on the surface of the sphere? A. 0 B. 18.8 kV C. 0.136 MV D. 120 MV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #21 22. Points A and B are located 6 and 10 cm away, respectively, from a -24µC charge. The potential difference V A – V B is approximately ____. A. –1.44 MV B. 1.44 MV C. –5.04 MV D. 5.04 MV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #22 23. What speed will an electron acquire if it is accelerated through a potential difference of 150 V? A. 150 m/s B. 930 m/s C. 2.5 × 105 m/s D. 7.3 × 106 m/s Tippens - 025 Chapter... #23 24. A -7.5 µC particle is between parallel plates separated 4 mm. If the electric field between the plates is 1500 N/C, how much kinetic energy does the charge acquire as it moves from the negative to positive plate? A. 6 µJ B. 45 µJ C. 112 µJ D. 450 µJ Tippens - 025 Chapter... #24 25. Which is not a unit for electric field? A. V/m B. J/(C . m) C. N . m/C D. N/C Tippens - 025 Chapter... #25 26. The potential inside a hollow conductor is ____. A. increasing as you go from the center to the surface B. zero C. infinity D. constant Tippens - 025 Chapter... #26 27. Two oppositely charged parallel plates separated by 1.2 cm have a constant electric field of 1500 N/C between them. How much work does it take to move a proton from the negative plate to the positive plate? A. 18 J B. 2.9 × 10-18 J C. 2.0 × 10-14 J D. The work depends on the path taken. Tippens - 025 Chapter... #27 28. In Millikan's oil-drop experiment, which of the following could NOT be the net charge on the oil drop? A. 4.8 × 10-19 C B. 4.0 × 10-18 C C. 0.5 × 10-19 C D. 1.6 × 19-19 C Tippens - 025 Chapter... #28 29. The potential difference between points A and B is 100 V. The work required to bring a 2 µC charge from A to B and then back to A is ____. A. 4 × 10-4 J B. 2 × 10-4 J C. 0 J D. 5 × 10-4 J Tippens - 025 Chapter... #29 30. A charge has a kinetic energy of 4.8 × 10-19 J. This is equivalent to ____. A. 7.7 × 10-19 eV B. The answer depends on the charge of the particle. C. 3.0 eV D. 7.7 eV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #30 31. The electric potential on the surface of a conducting shell of radius 0.60 m and charge 3.5 × 10-9 C is ____. A. 210 V B. 53 V C. 88 V D. 0 V Tippens - 025 Chapter... #31 32. Two point charges +Q are a distance r apart. The potential at a point equidistant between the two charges on a line connecting the charges is ____. A. 4kQ/r B. 0 C. 2kQ/r D. kQ/r Tippens - 025 Chapter... #32 33. A proton travels from a high to low potential. Which of the following is true? A. The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy increases. B. The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy increases. C. The kinetic energy decreases and the potential energy decreases. D. The kinetic energy increases and the potential energy decreases. Tippens - 025 Chapter... #33 34. A 5.60 µC point charge is at the origin. What is the potential 4.00 m from the charge? A. 1.26 × 104 V B. 3.15 × 103 V C. 6.72 × 103 V D. 3.24 × 104 V Tippens - 025 Chapter... #34 35. A 5.60 µC point charge is at the origin. How much work does it take to bring a proton from infinity and place it 4.00 m from the charge? A. 1.26 × 104 J B. 1.26 × 104 eV C. 3.15 × 103 J D. 3.15 × 103 eV Tippens - 025 Chapter... #35 36. What is the potential midway between two -3.0 × 10-5 C charges separated by 6.0 m? A. +1.8 × 105 V B. -1.8 × 105 V C. +4.5 × 104 V D. -4.5 × 104 V Tippens - 025 Chapter... #36 37. A 5.0 µC charge is placed 2 m from a 2.5 µC charge. What is the potential energy of the system? A. 0 b. 8.2 mJ B. 14 mJ C. 56 mJ Tippens - 025 Chapter... #37 38. The ____________________ at a point is equal to the negative of the work per unit charge done by electric forces in bringing a positive charge from infinity. potential Tippens - 025 Chapter... #38 39. The potential in the vicinity of a positive charge is ____________________, and the potential in the vicinity of a negative charge is ____________________. positive, negative Tippens - 025 Chapter... #39 40. The potential in the vicinity of a number of charges is equal to the ___________ __________ of the potentials due to each charge. algebraic sum Tippens - 025 Chapter... #40 41. A potential of 1 V means that a charge of ____________ will have a potential energy of ___________ when placed at that point. 1 C, 1 J Tippens - 025 Chapter... #41 42. The potential difference between two oppositely charged plates is equal to the product of the _________ ___________ and the __________ __________. field intensity, plate separation Tippens - 025 Chapter... #42 43. The ____________________ is a unit of energy equivalent to the energy acquired by an electron that accelerated through a potential difference of one volt. electronvolt Tippens - 025 Chapter... #43 44. The work done by an electric field in moving a charge from a point of potential V A to a point of potential V B is equal to the product of ______ and V A – V B . q Tippens - 025 Chapter... #44 45. The volt per meter is a unit of ________ ______ ________ and is equivalent to the unit ________ ___ ________. electric field intensity, Newtons per coulomb Tippens - 025 Chapter... #45 46. A(n) ____________________ potential energy means that work must be done ____________________ ; or positive by the electric field in removing a charge from the field. negative, against Tippens - 025 Chapter... #46 47. Whenever a positive charge is moved against the electric field, its potential energy _________________; whenever a negative charge moves against an electric field, its potential energy ________________. increases, decreases Tippens - 025 Chapter... #47 48. ____________ ____________ determined that any charges are always in multiples of e = 1.6 x 10-19 C Millikan's Experiment Tippens - 025 Chapter... #48 49. A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 Volt. The energy gained by the proton is one _____. electronvolt (eV) Tippens - 025 Chapter... #49 50. The potential on the surface of an isolated, charged sphere is 350 V. The potential at the center of the sphere is ___________. 350 V Tippens - 025 Chapter... #50 51. The metric unit for potential energy is the ______ while the metric unit for potential is the __________. Joule, Volt Tippens - 025 Chapter... #51 52. Equipotential surfaces are always ___________ to electric field lines. perpendicular Tippens - 025 Chapter... #52 ch25 Summary Category Tippens - 025 Chapter... # of Questions 52 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium for transmission. True False 2. The Doppler effect is a change in frequency due to the sound waves entering different densities of air. True False 3. Sound waves travel faster in air than in metals because the air is less dense. True False 4. If the sound intensity doubles, the sound level doubles. True False 5. The quality of different sounds is demonstrated by the difference in tones when a C note is sounded on a flute, a violin, and a trumpet. True False 6. If sound and observer are moving with the same velocity, there is no measured Doppler effect. True False 7. Sound that fluctuates in intensity because of the simultaneous output of two sources is a consequence primarily of the Doppler effect. True False 8. At room temperature, the speed of sound in aluminum is faster than the speed in air. True False 9. Opening the end of a closed pipe will double the frequency produced. True False 10. The speed of sound in gases is larger for the gases with higher molecular masses. True False 11. The open end of a pipe is a region of maximum longitudinal air displacements. True False 12. 12.The speed of sound is greatest when the medium is ____. A. a vacuum B. air C. water D. metal 13. Which of the following is a sensory effect rather than a measurable physical quantity? A. Frequency B. Quality C. Intensity D. Waveform 14. For a closed pipe, the second overtone is the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic 15. Which of the following is NOT a unit for sound intensity? A. W/m2 B. µW/cm2 C. J/(s . m2) D. J m2 16. A pipe is closed at one end and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 560 Hz 17. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 331 m/s. Its speed at 30°C is approximately ____. A. 331 m/s B. 343 m/s C. 349 m/s D. 350 m/s 18. The fundamental frequency for a 20-cm closed pipe when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is ____. A. 4.25 Hz B. 8.25 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 825 Hz 19. The intensity level in decibels of a sound whose intensity is 2 x 10-6 mW/cm2 is approximately ____. A. 27 dB B. 43 dB C. 50 dB D. 103 dB 20. Compute the speed of sound in helium (M = 4.0 g/mol) at 20oC. Assume the adiabatic constant is 1.66. A. 263 m/s B. 1005 m/s C. 31.7 m/s D. 540 m/s 21. Two tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per second will be ____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 22. A pipe is open at both ends and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 520 Hz 23. The speed of any mechanical wave depends on ____. A. the medium through which it travels B. its frequency C. its reflection D. its amplitude 24. Sound is a(n) ____ wave. A. electromagnetic B. electron C. longitudinal D. transverse 25. As an ambulance approaches a stationary observer, the frequency of the sound heard by the observer ____ the frequency emitted by the ambulance. A. is the same as B. is greater than C. is less than 26. The frequency of the sound heard by an observer ____ as an approaching ambulance passes the observer. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same 27. A detected change in the frequency of a sound due to a moving source or a moving observer is ____. A. refraction B. sonar C. resonance D. the Doppler effect 28. Which of the following does NOT describe the pitch of a sound? A. a note on a musical scale B. frequency of vibration C. loud or soft D. high or low 29. A source with a sound level of 40 dB has a pressure amplitude that is ____ times greater than a source with a sound level of 20 dB. A. 100 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5 30. Which of the following is NOT true of open-pipe resonators? A. All harmonics are possible. B. There are displacement nodes at each end of the pipe. C. Nodes are separated by one-half wavelength. D. The open end of the pipe is a displacement antinode. 31. A pipe is open at both ends and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m 32. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the average power emitted by the source? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W 33. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the intensity at this point? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W 34. A pipe is closed at one end and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m 35. A source of sound is moving at 24 m/s towards a stationary listener. If the source emits a 440 Hz tone, what frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 409Hz B. 411Hz C. 460 Hz D. 473 Hz 36. A 300 Hz source of sound is moving 25 m/s north. A listener is 1 mile away and traveling 25 m/s north. What frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 279 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 324 Hz D. 340 Hz 37. The closed end of a pipe must be a displacement ____________________; the open end must be a displacement ____________________. ________________________________________ 38. If the temperature of air increases by 10oC, the speed of sound will increase approximately by__. ________________________________________ 39. The three physical properties of sound that correspond to loudness, pitch, and quality are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________, respectively. ________________________________________ 40. The __________ ____________ represents the standard zero of sound intensity. Its value is 10-16 W/cm2. ________________________________________ 41. Sound waves having frequencies below the range of audible sound are termed ____________________; sounds having frequencies above this range are termed ____________________. ________________________________________ 42. A pipe is closed at one end. The second overtone corresponds to the ______ harmonic. ________________________________________ 43. The power transmitted by a sound wave through a unit of area is a measure of ____________________. ________________________________________ 44. The _________ ___________ refers to the apparent change in frequency of a source of sound when there is relative motion between the source and the observer. The pitch heard by an observer is ____________________ when a sound approaches her or him and ____________________ when the sound leaves. ________________________________________ 45. If source and listener are receding from each other, the frequency detected by the listener is ___ than the frequency of the source. ________________________________________ 46. The separation between an adjacent compression and rarefaction is λ/_____. ________________________________________ 47. Loudness is to Intensity as pitch is to _______________ ________________________________________ 48. The electromotive force is a force exerted on an electric charge to keep it moving. True False 49. The direction of conventional current for a conductor is opposite to the direction of electron flow. True False 50. In a copper wire, motion of the protons gives rise to the conventional current. True False 51. According to Ohm's law, the electric current is inversely proportional to the applied voltage. True False 52. Electric resistance increases with an increase in the cross-sectional area of a conductor. True False 53. The resistivity of a wire is independent of the length of the wire. True False 54. A wire with a diameter of 0.002 in. has a cross-sectional area of 4 cmils. True False 55. The temperature coefficient of resistance is equal to the change in resistance per degree change in temperature. True False 56. The power loss in a wire is quadrupled if the current is doubled. True False 57. A rheostat is a meter that indicates the electric resistance in a circuit. True False 58. The unit for temperature coefficient of resistance can be 1/Co or 1/K. True False 59. The term I2R gives the total amount of energy converted to heat. True False 60. To measure the potential of a battery, a voltmeter is connected in parallel to the battery. True False 61. A battery is attached to a capacitor. A transient current will exist in the circuit for a very short time. True False 62. A unit of electromotive force is the ____. A. joule B. Newton C. volt D. watt 63. If one were to use a water analogy to study electric current, voltage would be most similar to ____. A. force B. pressure C. rate of flow D. density 64. The resistance of a wire is not dependent on its ____. A. temperature B. length C. area D. current 65. A 9 V battery is attached to a 4 µF capacitor and a 2 Ω resistor in series. After a long time, the current through the resistor is ______. A. 0 B. 2.5 A C. 4.5 A D. 9 A 66. Which of the following is not a unit of resistivity? A. Ω cm B. Ω cmil/ft C. Ω /ft D. Ω m 67. The potential difference between the terminals of a small heater is 60 V. If the resistance of the heater is 30 Ω, the current is ____. A. 0.5 A B. 2 A C. 1800 A D. 3 A 68. An emf of 12 V will move 6.25 × 1018 electrons past a given point in 2 s. The resistance is ____. A. 24 Ω B. 121 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 3.84 Ω 69. A 120-V heater has a resistance of 600 Ω. The heat energy generated in 1 min is ____. A. 24 J B. 120 J C. 1200 J D. 1440 J 70. An aluminum wire has a resistivity of 17 Ω ·cmils/ft and a cross-sectional diameter of 0.2 in. What length of this wire is needed to construct a 1700- Ω resistor? A. 200 ft B. 144.5 ft C. 4 × 106 ft D. 2 × 104 ft 71. The temperature coefficient of resistance for copper is 0.004/C°. If the resistance of a copper wire is 12 Ω at 20°C, its resistance at 100°C will be ____. A. 3.8 Ω B. 13 Ω C. 15.84 Ω D. 50.4 Ω 72. A 3.0 kΩ resistor is attached to a 12 V battery for one minute. The thermal energy generated in the resistor is A. 0.0025 J B. 0.050 J C. 2.9 J D. 3.6 J 73. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A has a resistance R. A second wire made of the same material has double the area and half the length as the first. Its resistance is: A. R/4 B. R/2 C. R D. 4R 74. The rate at which energy is transferred is ____. A. power B. conventional current C. electric current D. resistance 75. The resistance of a wire at 20oC is measured to be 1.545Ω. At 80oC, the resistance is 1.875Ω. What is the temperature coefficient of resistivity of this material? A. 2.93 × 10-3/Co B. 3.56 × 10-3/Co C. 0.28/Co D. 0.56/Co 76. The current flowing in an electric circuit can be increased by ____. A. increasing voltage or decreasing resistance B. decreasing voltage and decreasing resistance C. increasing voltage and increasing resistance D. decreasing voltage or increasing resistance 77. A device that measures the amount of current in a circuit is a(n) ____. A. voltmeter B. resistor C. potentiometer D. ammeter 78. Space heaters convert most of the electrical energy in a circuit into ____. A. mechanical energy B. light energy C. thermal energy D. sound energy 79. Utility companies measure energy use in ____ because other units are too small. A. kilowatt hours B. joules C. watt-seconds D. watts 80. A superconductor wire has a critical temperature of 90 K. If the wire is at 77 K, and an electromotive force of 6.0 V is attached to the wire, how much energy is lost to heat per second if a current of 2 A is running through the wire? A. 0 B. 9 J C. 18 J D. 36 J 81. An object has a resistance R. If the length and diameter of the material are both doubled, the new resistance is ____. A. 4R B. R/2 C. R D. R/4 82. A wire is attached to a 1.5 V battery. How much work is done on an electron in the wire? A. 1.07 × 10-19 J B. 2.40 × 10-19 J C. 1.5 J D. 0 83. If a refrigerator is rated at 300 W, how much does it cost to run a refrigerator for one day if the electric company charges $0.09/kWhr? A. $0.44 B. $0.65 C. $2.59 D. $7.20 84. A wire of length 45 m and radius 1.5 mm is connected to a 9.0 V battery. The current in the wire is measured to be 3.5 A. What is the resistivity of the wire? A. 4.0 × 10-7 Ω. m B. 2.7 × 10-4 Ω. m C. 3.6 × 10-4 Ω. m D. 3,9 × 10-6 Ω. m 85. A wire cable is rated to have a maximum power of 4000 W. If the potential difference is 220 V, what maximum current can the wire handle? A. 880 A B. 420 A C. 18.2 A D. 2.8 A 86. You have a piece of copper with a volume of 2 cm3, and wish to form a wire having a resistance of 0.15 Ω. How long should the wire be if the resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10-8 Ω. m? A. 3.5 m B. 2.1 m C. 4.2 m D. 9.7 m 87. A source of emf of one ____________________ will perform one ____________________ of ___________________ on each coulomb of charge that passes through it. ________________________________________ 88. The current in a resistor is directly proportional to the ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________. This is a statement of Ohm's law. ________________________________________ 89. Four factors that affect the resistance of a wire are ____________, _____________, _______________, and _________________. ________________________________________ 90. A lab instrument that is a variable resistor is known as a ____________. ________________________________________ 91. The rate of heat loss in a wire can be found from the product of the ____________________ and the square of the ____________________. ________________________________________ 92. The direction of conventional current is always the same as the direction in which _________ ___________ would move. ________________________________________ 93. The area of a wire in __________ __________ equals the square of the _____________________ in mils. ________________________________________ 94. A material that has no measurable resistance below at critical temperature is a ______________. ________________________________________ 95. In a resistor, electrical energy is converted to heat or __________ __________. ________________________________________ 96. A(n) __________ is a device used to measure the current in a circuit. ________________________________________ 97. To measure the current through a resistor in a circuit, an ammeter is attached in ________ to the resistor. ________________________________________ ch22 Key 1. Sound waves are longitudinal waves that require a medium for transmission. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #1 2. The Doppler effect is a change in frequency due to the sound waves entering different densities of air. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #2 3. Sound waves travel faster in air than in metals because the air is less dense. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #3 4. If the sound intensity doubles, the sound level doubles. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #4 5. The quality of different sounds is demonstrated by the difference in tones when a C note is sounded on a flute, a violin, and a trumpet. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #5 6. If sound and observer are moving with the same velocity, there is no measured Doppler effect. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #6 7. Sound that fluctuates in intensity because of the simultaneous output of two sources is a consequence primarily of the Doppler effect. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #7 8. At room temperature, the speed of sound in aluminum is faster than the speed in air. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #8 9. Opening the end of a closed pipe will double the frequency produced. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #9 10. The speed of sound in gases is larger for the gases with higher molecular masses. FALSE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #10 11. The open end of a pipe is a region of maximum longitudinal air displacements. TRUE Tippens - 022 Chapter... #11 12. 12.The speed of sound is greatest when the medium is ____. A. a vacuum B. air C. water D. metal Tippens - 022 Chapter... #12 13. Which of the following is a sensory effect rather than a measurable physical quantity? A. Frequency B. Quality C. Intensity D. Waveform Tippens - 022 Chapter... #13 14. For a closed pipe, the second overtone is the ____. A. second harmonic B. third harmonic C. fourth harmonic D. fifth harmonic Tippens - 022 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following is NOT a unit for sound intensity? A. W/m2 B. µW/cm2 C. J/(s . m2) D. J m2 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #15 16. A pipe is closed at one end and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 560 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #16 17. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 331 m/s. Its speed at 30°C is approximately ____. A. 331 m/s B. 343 m/s C. 349 m/s D. 350 m/s Tippens - 022 Chapter... #17 18. The fundamental frequency for a 20-cm closed pipe when the speed of sound is 340 m/s is ____. A. 4.25 Hz B. 8.25 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 825 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #18 19. The intensity level in decibels of a sound whose intensity is 2 x 10-6 mW/cm2 is approximately ____. A. 27 dB B. 43 dB C. 50 dB D. 103 dB Tippens - 022 Chapter... #19 20. Compute the speed of sound in helium (M = 4.0 g/mol) at 20oC. Assume the adiabatic constant is 1.66. A. 263 m/s B. 1005 m/s C. 31.7 m/s D. 540 m/s Tippens - 022 Chapter... #20 21. Two tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per second will be ____. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #21 22. A pipe is open at both ends and the fundamental frequency is 80 Hz. What frequency will NOT be heard? A. 160 Hz B. 240 Hz C. 400 Hz D. 520 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #22 23. The speed of any mechanical wave depends on ____. A. the medium through which it travels B. its frequency C. its reflection D. its amplitude Tippens - 022 Chapter... #23 24. Sound is a(n) ____ wave. A. electromagnetic B. electron C. longitudinal D. transverse Tippens - 022 Chapter... #24 25. As an ambulance approaches a stationary observer, the frequency of the sound heard by the observer ____ the frequency emitted by the ambulance. A. is the same as B. is greater than C. is less than Tippens - 022 Chapter... #25 26. The frequency of the sound heard by an observer ____ as an approaching ambulance passes the observer. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same Tippens - 022 Chapter... #26 27. A detected change in the frequency of a sound due to a moving source or a moving observer is ____. A. refraction B. sonar C. resonance D. the Doppler effect Tippens - 022 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following does NOT describe the pitch of a sound? A. a note on a musical scale B. frequency of vibration C. loud or soft D. high or low Tippens - 022 Chapter... #28 29. A source with a sound level of 40 dB has a pressure amplitude that is ____ times greater than a source with a sound level of 20 dB. A. 100 B. 10 C. 20 D. 5 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #29 30. Which of the following is NOT true of open-pipe resonators? A. All harmonics are possible. B. There are displacement nodes at each end of the pipe. C. Nodes are separated by one-half wavelength. D. The open end of the pipe is a displacement antinode. Tippens - 022 Chapter... #30 31. A pipe is open at both ends and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m Tippens - 022 Chapter... #31 32. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the average power emitted by the source? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W Tippens - 022 Chapter... #32 33. The sound level of a point source 5 m away is measured to be 20 dB. What is the intensity at this point? A. 3.14 × 10-8 W B. 1.00 × 10-8 W C. 1.00 × 10-10 W D. 5.60 × 10-10 W Tippens - 022 Chapter... #33 34. A pipe is closed at one end and has a fundamental frequency of 80.0 Hz. What is the length of the pipe? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 1.06 m B. 2.13 m C. 4.25 m D. 5.25 m Tippens - 022 Chapter... #34 35. A source of sound is moving at 24 m/s towards a stationary listener. If the source emits a 440 Hz tone, what frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 409Hz B. 411Hz C. 460 Hz D. 473 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #35 36. A 300 Hz source of sound is moving 25 m/s north. A listener is 1 mile away and traveling 25 m/s north. What frequency does the listener detect? Assume the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. A. 279 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 324 Hz D. 340 Hz Tippens - 022 Chapter... #36 37. The closed end of a pipe must be a displacement ____________________; the open end must be a displacement ____________________. node, antinode Tippens - 022 Chapter... #37 38. If the temperature of air increases by 10oC, the speed of sound will increase approximately by__. 6 m/s. Tippens - 022 Chapter... #38 39. The three physical properties of sound that correspond to loudness, pitch, and quality are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________, respectively. intensity, frequency, waveform Tippens - 022 Chapter... #39 40. The __________ ____________ represents the standard zero of sound intensity. Its value is 10-16 W/cm2. hearing threshold, Tippens - 022 Chapter... #40 41. Sound waves having frequencies below the range of audible sound are termed ____________________; sounds having frequencies above this range are termed ____________________. infrasonic, ultrasonic Tippens - 022 Chapter... #41 42. A pipe is closed at one end. The second overtone corresponds to the ______ harmonic. 5th Tippens - 022 Chapter... #42 43. The power transmitted by a sound wave through a unit of area is a measure of ____________________. intensity Tippens - 022 Chapter... #43 44. The _________ ___________ refers to the apparent change in frequency of a source of sound when there is relative motion between the source and the observer. The pitch heard by an observer is ____________________ when a sound approaches her or him and ____________________ when the sound leaves. Doppler effect, higher, lower Tippens - 022 Chapter... #44 45. If source and listener are receding from each other, the frequency detected by the listener is ___ than the frequency of the source. less Tippens - 022 Chapter... #45 46. The separation between an adjacent compression and rarefaction is λ/_____. 2 Tippens - 022 Chapter... #46 47. Loudness is to Intensity as pitch is to _______________ frequency Tippens - 022 Chapter... #47 48. The electromotive force is a force exerted on an electric charge to keep it moving. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #1 49. The direction of conventional current for a conductor is opposite to the direction of electron flow. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #2 50. In a copper wire, motion of the protons gives rise to the conventional current. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #3 51. According to Ohm's law, the electric current is inversely proportional to the applied voltage. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #4 52. Electric resistance increases with an increase in the cross-sectional area of a conductor. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #5 53. The resistivity of a wire is independent of the length of the wire. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #6 54. A wire with a diameter of 0.002 in. has a cross-sectional area of 4 cmils. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #7 55. The temperature coefficient of resistance is equal to the change in resistance per degree change in temperature. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #8 56. The power loss in a wire is quadrupled if the current is doubled. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #9 57. A rheostat is a meter that indicates the electric resistance in a circuit. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #10 58. The unit for temperature coefficient of resistance can be 1/Co or 1/K. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #11 59. The term I2R gives the total amount of energy converted to heat. FALSE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #12 60. To measure the potential of a battery, a voltmeter is connected in parallel to the battery. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #13 61. A battery is attached to a capacitor. A transient current will exist in the circuit for a very short time. TRUE Tippens - 027 Chapter... #14 62. A unit of electromotive force is the ____. A. joule B. Newton C. volt D. watt Tippens - 027 Chapter... #15 63. If one were to use a water analogy to study electric current, voltage would be most similar to ____. A. force B. pressure C. rate of flow D. density Tippens - 027 Chapter... #16 64. The resistance of a wire is not dependent on its ____. A. temperature B. length C. area D. current Tippens - 027 Chapter... #17 65. A 9 V battery is attached to a 4 µF capacitor and a 2 Ω resistor in series. After a long time, the current through the resistor is ______. A. 0 B. 2.5 A C. 4.5 A D. 9 A Tippens - 027 Chapter... #18 66. Which of the following is not a unit of resistivity? A. Ω cm B. Ω cmil/ft C. Ω /ft D. Ω m Tippens - 027 Chapter... #19 67. The potential difference between the terminals of a small heater is 60 V. If the resistance of the heater is 30 Ω, the current is ____. A. 0.5 A B. 2 A C. 1800 A D. 3 A Tippens - 027 Chapter... #20 68. An emf of 12 V will move 6.25 × 1018 electrons past a given point in 2 s. The resistance is ____. A. 24 Ω B. 121 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 3.84 Ω Tippens - 027 Chapter... #21 69. A 120-V heater has a resistance of 600 Ω. The heat energy generated in 1 min is ____. A. 24 J B. 120 J C. 1200 J D. 1440 J Tippens - 027 Chapter... #22 70. An aluminum wire has a resistivity of 17 Ω ·cmils/ft and a cross-sectional diameter of 0.2 in. What length of this wire is needed to construct a 1700- Ω resistor? A. 200 ft B. 144.5 ft C. 4 × 106 ft D. 2 × 104 ft Tippens - 027 Chapter... #23 71. The temperature coefficient of resistance for copper is 0.004/C°. If the resistance of a copper wire is 12 Ω at 20°C, its resistance at 100°C will be ____. A. 3.8 Ω B. 13 Ω C. 15.84 Ω D. 50.4 Ω Tippens - 027 Chapter... #24 72. A 3.0 kΩ resistor is attached to a 12 V battery for one minute. The thermal energy generated in the resistor is A. 0.0025 J B. 0.050 J C. 2.9 J D. 3.6 J Tippens - 027 Chapter... #25 73. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A has a resistance R. A second wire made of the same material has double the area and half the length as the first. Its resistance is: A. R/4 B. R/2 C. R D. 4R Tippens - 027 Chapter... #26 74. The rate at which energy is transferred is ____. A. power B. conventional current C. electric current D. resistance Tippens - 027 Chapter... #27 75. The resistance of a wire at 20oC is measured to be 1.545Ω. At 80oC, the resistance is 1.875Ω. What is the temperature coefficient of resistivity of this material? A. 2.93 × 10-3/Co B. 3.56 × 10-3/Co C. 0.28/Co D. 0.56/Co Tippens - 027 Chapter... #28 76. The current flowing in an electric circuit can be increased by ____. A. increasing voltage or decreasing resistance B. decreasing voltage and decreasing resistance C. increasing voltage and increasing resistance D. decreasing voltage or increasing resistance Tippens - 027 Chapter... #29 77. A device that measures the amount of current in a circuit is a(n) ____. A. voltmeter B. resistor C. potentiometer D. ammeter Tippens - 027 Chapter... #30 78. Space heaters convert most of the electrical energy in a circuit into ____. A. mechanical energy B. light energy C. thermal energy D. sound energy Tippens - 027 Chapter... #31 79. Utility companies measure energy use in ____ because other units are too small. A. kilowatt hours B. joules C. watt-seconds D. watts Tippens - 027 Chapter... #32 80. A superconductor wire has a critical temperature of 90 K. If the wire is at 77 K, and an electromotive force of 6.0 V is attached to the wire, how much energy is lost to heat per second if a current of 2 A is running through the wire? A. 0 B. 9 J C. 18 J D. 36 J Tippens - 027 Chapter... #33 81. An object has a resistance R. If the length and diameter of the material are both doubled, the new resistance is ____. A. 4R B. R/2 C. R D. R/4 Tippens - 027 Chapter... #34 82. A wire is attached to a 1.5 V battery. How much work is done on an electron in the wire? A. 1.07 × 10-19 J B. 2.40 × 10-19 J C. 1.5 J D. 0 Tippens - 027 Chapter... #35 83. If a refrigerator is rated at 300 W, how much does it cost to run a refrigerator for one day if the electric company charges $0.09/kWhr? A. $0.44 B. $0.65 C. $2.59 D. $7.20 Tippens - 027 Chapter... #36 84. A wire of length 45 m and radius 1.5 mm is connected to a 9.0 V battery. The current in the wire is measured to be 3.5 A. What is the resistivity of the wire? A. 4.0 × 10-7 Ω. m B. 2.7 × 10-4 Ω. m C. 3.6 × 10-4 Ω. m D. 3,9 × 10-6 Ω. m Tippens - 027 Chapter... #37 85. A wire cable is rated to have a maximum power of 4000 W. If the potential difference is 220 V, what maximum current can the wire handle? A. 880 A B. 420 A C. 18.2 A D. 2.8 A Tippens - 027 Chapter... #38 86. You have a piece of copper with a volume of 2 cm3, and wish to form a wire having a resistance of 0.15 Ω. How long should the wire be if the resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10-8 Ω. m? A. 3.5 m B. 2.1 m C. 4.2 m D. 9.7 m Tippens - 027 Chapter... #39 87. A source of emf of one ____________________ will perform one ____________________ of ___________________ on each coulomb of charge that passes through it. volt, joule, work Tippens - 027 Chapter... #40 88. The current in a resistor is directly proportional to the ____________________ and inversely proportional to the ____________________. This is a statement of Ohm's law. voltage, resistance Tippens - 027 Chapter... #41 89. Four factors that affect the resistance of a wire are ____________, _____________, _______________, and _________________. length, area, temperature, material Tippens - 027 Chapter... #42 90. A lab instrument that is a variable resistor is known as a ____________. rheostat Tippens - 027 Chapter... #43 91. The rate of heat loss in a wire can be found from the product of the ____________________ and the square of the ____________________. resistance, current Tippens - 027 Chapter... #44 92. The direction of conventional current is always the same as the direction in which _________ ___________ would move. positive charges Tippens - 027 Chapter... #45 93. The area of a wire in __________ __________ equals the square of the _____________________ in mils. circular mils, diameter Tippens - 027 Chapter... #46 94. A material that has no measurable resistance below at critical temperature is a ______________. superconductor Tippens - 027 Chapter... #47 95. In a resistor, electrical energy is converted to heat or __________ __________. thermal energy Tippens - 027 Chapter... #48 96. A(n) __________ is a device used to measure the current in a circuit. ammeter Tippens - 027 Chapter... #49 97. To measure the current through a resistor in a circuit, an ammeter is attached in ________ to the resistor. series Tippens - 027 Chapter... #50 ch22 Summary Category # of Questions Tippens - 022 Chapter... 47 Tippens - 027 Chapter... 50 ÿ ch28 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The equivalent resistance of a number of resistors in parallel is always less than the resistance of the smallest resistor. True False 2. The current is the same in all parts of a parallel circuit. True False 3. The equivalent resistance of two resistors in parallel is equal to their product divided by their sum. True False 4. The emf is essentially equal to the open-circuit potential difference. True False 5. The application of Kirchhoff's laws to a complex circuit always yields positive currents. True False 6. Kirchhoff's second law applies for each current loop in a complex circuit and not just for the total circuit. True False 7. In applying Kirchhoff's laws, the tracing direction must be the same as the current direction. True False 8. For a circuit with resistors in parallel, the resistor with the smallest value carries the largest current. True False 9. Kirchhoff's laws apply only for current loops that contain at least one source of emf. True False 10. When two identical resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each is one-half of the terminal potential difference at the source of emf. True False 11. The terminal potential difference of a battery is always greater than its emf. True False 12. If the tracing direction is the same as the current direction through a resistor, the potential drop is considered positive. True False 13. A load resistance of 10 Ω is connected to a 24 V battery with an internal resistance of 2 Ω. What is the current? A. 1.4 A B. 2.0 A C. 2.4 A D. 3.0 A 14. For a parallel circuit, which of the following is not true? A. The current through each resistance is the same. B. The voltage across each resistance is the same. C. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents through each resistance. D. The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances. 15. Which of the following is not affected by internal resistance? A. Terminal potential difference B. Source emf C. Current delivered to external circuit D. Power output 16. If a circuit contains three loops, how many independent equations can be obtained with Kirchhoff's two laws? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six 17. A load resistance of 10 Ω is connected to a 24 V battery with an internal resistance of 2 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery? A. 20 V B. 24 V C. 28 V D. 12 V Figure 28.1 18. For the circuit in Figure 28.1, the equivalent external resistance is approximately ____. A. 1.8 Ω B. 4 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 20 Ω 19. In Figure 28-1,the current through the 6·Ω resistance is ____. A. 1.0 A B. 1.33 A C. 1.67 A D. 2 A 20. The terminal voltage for the source of emf in the Figure 28.2 is ____. Figure 28.2 A. 24 V B. 22 V C. 21.8 V D. 20 V 21. The current through the 4Ω resistance in Figure 28.3, as found from Kirchhoff's laws, is ____. Figure 28.3 A. 1 A B. 1.5 A C. 2 A D. 2.5 A 22. What is the terminal potential difference of a 12.0 V battery that has an internal resistance of 0.100 Ω and is supplying a current of 3.00 A? A. 12.3 V B. 12.0 V C. 11.7 V D. 9.00 V 23. If there are four electrical devices connected in a series circuit, then the number of current paths is equal to ____. A. four B. one C. two D. three 24. A series circuit contains a generator, an ammeter, and a lamp. The current in the lamp is ____. A. less than the current in the ammeter B. equal to the current in the ammeter C. equal to the current in the generator D. equal to the current in the ammeter and in the generator 25. A 5-Ω resistor, a 20-Ω resistor, and a 25-Ω resistor are connected in series across a 90-V battery. The net change in potential going around the circuit is ____. A. zero B. 4 V C. 90 V D. 50 V 26. If three resistors are connected in parallel, there are ____ current paths in the circuit. A. three B. four C. one D. two 27. The equivalent resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____ the resistance of any resistor in the circuit. A. less than B. equal to C. greater than 28. Connecting a voltmeter across a resistor causes the potential across the resistor to ____. A. double B. remain about the same C. decrease to one-half 29. An ammeter is connected in ____ and a voltmeter is connected in ____. A. parallel, series B. series, series C. parallel, parallel D. series, parallel 30. A battery has an emf of ε and internal resistance r is supplying a current I to a resistor R. The potential difference across the resistor is A. εI B. Ir C. ε-Ir D. 0 31. An ammeter's resistance should be ____. A. as large as possible B. the same as the total circuit resistance being measured C. as small as possible 32. The terminal potential difference across a battery is ____. A. greater or less than the emf of the battery depending on the direction of the current B. always less than the emf of the battery C. always equal to the emf of the battery D. always greater than the emf of the battery 33. A battery has an emf of ε and internal resistance r is supplying a current I to a resistor R. The rate at which energy is lost as heat in the battery is ________. A. εI B. I2r C. εI-Ir2 D. IR 34. A circuit is made with 10 resistors, each with resistance R. If there is a pair of 5 resistors connected in series, and the pair is connected in parallel, what is the effective resistance? A. 0.2R B. 2.5R C. 5R D. 10R 35. When two identical resistors are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is 6 Ω. What is their equivalent resistance if they are connected in series? A. 3 Ω B. 6 Ω C. 12 Ω D. 24 Ω 36. Four wires are connected at a junction. Wire 1 carries 2.5 A into the junction, wire 2 carries 6.3 A out of the junction, and wire 3 carries 1.5 A into the junction. What is the current in wire 4? A. 2.3 A into the junction B. 2.3 A out of the junction C. 10.3 A into the junction D. 10.3 A out of the junction 37. A 5Ω, 10Ω, and 15Ω resistor are connected in series with a 60 V battery with negligible resistance. What is the potential difference across the 10 Ω resistor? A. 10 V B. 20 V C. 30 V D. 60 V 38. A 5Ω, 10Ω, and 15Ω resistor are connected in parallel and the combination connected in parallel to a 15 V battery with negligible resistance. What is the current through the battery? A. 0.6 A B. 2.7 A C. 5.5 A D. 6.0 A 39. The type of connection appropriate for most household electric devices would be a(n) ____________________ connection. ________________________________________ 40. For a series connection, the ____________________ is constant throughout the circuit, but the total ____________________ is the sum of the individual circuit values. ________________________________________ 41. If the current in a battery approaches zero, the terminal potential difference approaches the ______. ________________________________________ 42. As a battery ages, its terminal potential difference decreases because of ________ ____ _________ _________. ________________________________________ 43. State Kirchhoff's _______ _______: ΣI entering = ΣIleaving State Kirchhoff's ______ ______: Σe = ΣIR.___________ ________________________________________ 44. When current is reversed through a source of emf against its normal output direction, the terminal potential difference is equal to ε + _______ , where ε represents emf and r the internal resistance. ________________________________________ 45. Kirchhoff's first law can be considered a statement of the conservation of ___________. ________________________________________ 46. If a negative value is obtained for a current from Kirchhoff's method, it represents an error in ____________________ only. ________________________________________ 47. Kirchhoff's second law can be considered a statement of the conservation of ___________. ________________________________________ 48. If a circuit has m junction points, Kirchhoff's first law can be used _____ times. ________________________________________ 49. Charging a battery converts electrical energy to ___________. ________________________________________ ch28 Key 1. The equivalent resistance of a number of resistors in parallel is always less than the resistance of the smallest resistor. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #1 2. The current is the same in all parts of a parallel circuit. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #2 3. The equivalent resistance of two resistors in parallel is equal to their product divided by their sum. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #3 4. The emf is essentially equal to the open-circuit potential difference. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #4 5. The application of Kirchhoff's laws to a complex circuit always yields positive currents. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #5 6. Kirchhoff's second law applies for each current loop in a complex circuit and not just for the total circuit. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #6 7. In applying Kirchhoff's laws, the tracing direction must be the same as the current direction. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #7 8. For a circuit with resistors in parallel, the resistor with the smallest value carries the largest current. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #8 9. Kirchhoff's laws apply only for current loops that contain at least one source of emf. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #9 10. When two identical resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each is one-half of the terminal potential difference at the source of emf. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #10 11. The terminal potential difference of a battery is always greater than its emf. FALSE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #11 12. If the tracing direction is the same as the current direction through a resistor, the potential drop is considered positive. TRUE Tippens - 028 Chapter... #12 13. A load resistance of 10 Ω is connected to a 24 V battery with an internal resistance of 2 Ω. What is the current? A. 1.4 A B. 2.0 A C. 2.4 A D. 3.0 A Tippens - 028 Chapter... #13 14. For a parallel circuit, which of the following is not true? A. The current through each resistance is the same. B. The voltage across each resistance is the same. C. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents through each resistance. D. The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances. Tippens - 028 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following is not affected by internal resistance? A. Terminal potential difference B. Source emf C. Current delivered to external circuit D. Power output Tippens - 028 Chapter... #15 16. If a circuit contains three loops, how many independent equations can be obtained with Kirchhoff's two laws? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six Tippens - 028 Chapter... #16 17. A load resistance of 10 Ω is connected to a 24 V battery with an internal resistance of 2 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery? A. 20 V B. 24 V C. 28 V D. 12 V Tippens - 028 Chapter... #17 Figure 28.1 Tippens - 028 Chapter... 18. For the circuit in Figure 28.1, the equivalent external resistance is approximately ____. A. 1.8 Ω B. 4 Ω C. 6 Ω D. 20 Ω Tippens - 028 Chapter... #18 19. In Figure 28-1,the current through the 6·Ω resistance is ____. A. 1.0 A B. 1.33 A C. 1.67 A D. 2 A Tippens - 028 Chapter... #19 20. The terminal voltage for the source of emf in the Figure 28.2 is ____. Figure 28.2 A. 24 V B. 22 V C. 21.8 V D. 20 V Tippens - 028 Chapter... #20 21. The current through the 4Ω resistance in Figure 28.3, as found from Kirchhoff's laws, is ____. Figure 28.3 A. 1 A B. 1.5 A C. 2 A D. 2.5 A Tippens - 028 Chapter... #21 22. What is the terminal potential difference of a 12.0 V battery that has an internal resistance of 0.100 Ω and is supplying a current of 3.00 A? A. 12.3 V B. 12.0 V C. 11.7 V D. 9.00 V Tippens - 028 Chapter... #22 23. If there are four electrical devices connected in a series circuit, then the number of current paths is equal to ____. A. four B. one C. two D. three Tippens - 028 Chapter... #23 24. A series circuit contains a generator, an ammeter, and a lamp. The current in the lamp is ____. A. less than the current in the ammeter B. equal to the current in the ammeter C. equal to the current in the generator D. equal to the current in the ammeter and in the generator Tippens - 028 Chapter... #24 25. A 5-Ω resistor, a 20-Ω resistor, and a 25-Ω resistor are connected in series across a 90-V battery. The net change in potential going around the circuit is ____. A. zero B. 4 V C. 90 V D. 50 V Tippens - 028 Chapter... #25 26. If three resistors are connected in parallel, there are ____ current paths in the circuit. A. three B. four C. one D. two Tippens - 028 Chapter... #26 27. The equivalent resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____ the resistance of any resistor in the circuit. A. less than B. equal to C. greater than Tippens - 028 Chapter... #27 28. Connecting a voltmeter across a resistor causes the potential across the resistor to ____. A. double B. remain about the same C. decrease to one-half Tippens - 028 Chapter... #28 29. An ammeter is connected in ____ and a voltmeter is connected in ____. A. parallel, series B. series, series C. parallel, parallel D. series, parallel Tippens - 028 Chapter... #29 30. A battery has an emf of ε and internal resistance r is supplying a current I to a resistor R. The potential difference across the resistor is A. εI B. Ir C. ε-Ir D. 0 Tippens - 028 Chapter... #30 31. An ammeter's resistance should be ____. A. as large as possible B. the same as the total circuit resistance being measured C. as small as possible Tippens - 028 Chapter... #31 32. The terminal potential difference across a battery is ____. A. greater or less than the emf of the battery depending on the direction of the current B. always less than the emf of the battery C. always equal to the emf of the battery D. always greater than the emf of the battery Tippens - 028 Chapter... #32 33. A battery has an emf of ε and internal resistance r is supplying a current I to a resistor R. The rate at which energy is lost as heat in the battery is ________. A. εI B. I2r C. εI-Ir2 D. IR Tippens - 028 Chapter... #33 34. A circuit is made with 10 resistors, each with resistance R. If there is a pair of 5 resistors connected in series, and the pair is connected in parallel, what is the effective resistance? A. 0.2R B. 2.5R C. 5R D. 10R Tippens - 028 Chapter... #34 35. When two identical resistors are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is 6 Ω. What is their equivalent resistance if they are connected in series? A. 3 Ω B. 6 Ω C. 12 Ω D. 24 Ω Tippens - 028 Chapter... #35 36. Four wires are connected at a junction. Wire 1 carries 2.5 A into the junction, wire 2 carries 6.3 A out of the junction, and wire 3 carries 1.5 A into the junction. What is the current in wire 4? A. 2.3 A into the junction B. 2.3 A out of the junction C. 10.3 A into the junction D. 10.3 A out of the junction Tippens - 028 Chapter... #36 37. A 5Ω, 10Ω, and 15Ω resistor are connected in series with a 60 V battery with negligible resistance. What is the potential difference across the 10 Ω resistor? A. 10 V B. 20 V C. 30 V D. 60 V Tippens - 028 Chapter... #37 38. A 5Ω, 10Ω, and 15Ω resistor are connected in parallel and the combination connected in parallel to a 15 V battery with negligible resistance. What is the current through the battery? A. 0.6 A B. 2.7 A C. 5.5 A D. 6.0 A Tippens - 028 Chapter... #38 39. The type of connection appropriate for most household electric devices would be a(n) ____________________ connection. parallel Tippens - 028 Chapter... #39 40. For a series connection, the ____________________ is constant throughout the circuit, but the total ____________________ is the sum of the individual circuit values. current, voltage Tippens - 028 Chapter... #40 41. If the current in a battery approaches zero, the terminal potential difference approaches the ______. emf Tippens - 028 Chapter... #41 42. As a battery ages, its terminal potential difference decreases because of ________ ____ _________ _________. increase in internal resistance Tippens - 028 Chapter... #42 43. State Kirchhoff's _______ _______: ΣI entering = ΣIleaving State Kirchhoff's ______ ______: Σe = ΣIR.___________ first law, second law Tippens - 028 Chapter... #43 44. When current is reversed through a source of emf against its normal output direction, the terminal potential difference is equal to ε + _______ , where ε represents emf and r the internal resistance. Ir Tippens - 028 Chapter... #44 45. Kirchhoff's first law can be considered a statement of the conservation of ___________. charge Tippens - 028 Chapter... #45 46. If a negative value is obtained for a current from Kirchhoff's method, it represents an error in ____________________ only. direction Tippens - 028 Chapter... #46 47. Kirchhoff's second law can be considered a statement of the conservation of ___________. energy Tippens - 028 Chapter... #47 48. If a circuit has m junction points, Kirchhoff's first law can be used _____ times. m-1 Tippens - 028 Chapter... #48 49. Charging a battery converts electrical energy to ___________. chemical energy Tippens - 028 Chapter... #49 ch28 Summary Category Tippens - 028 Chapter... # of Questions 50 ch29 2 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Like magnetic poles repel each other, whereas unlike magnetic poles attract each other. True False 2. Magnetic flux lines are drawn in such a way that the direction at any point is the same as the direction of the force exerted on a unit south pole placed at that point. True False 3. The Weber is a unit of magnetic flux density. True False 4. The flux through a window whose surface is parallel to magnetic field lines is zero. True False 5. The area of a hysteresis loop is a measure of flux density. True False 6. The right-hand rule can be used to determine the direction of a magnetic field surrounding a current-carrying conductor. True False 7. Two current-carrying conductors placed near each other will experience a force of attraction if their currents are oppositely directed. True False 8. An electron is placed between the poles of a horseshoe magnet. The force on the electron is zero. True False 9. A large hysteresis loop means a more efficient electromagnetic device. True False 10. Magnetic materials having a high permeability will generally have a low retentivity. True False 11. A straight wire carries a current. The magnetic field lines will be move radically outward from the wire. True False 12. A material that remains highly magnetized after a magnetization cycle has a large hysteresis area. True False 13. Paramagnetic materials are used in compass needles. True False 14. Which of the following is not a unit of magnetic induction of flux density? A. Weber per square meter B. Gauss C. Tesla D. Weber 15. Magnetic fields have no effect on ____. A. electric charges at rest B. electric charges in motion C. permanent magnets at rest D. permanent magnets in motion 16. The magnetic flux density at a distance d from a long, current-carrying straight wire is proportional to ____. A. d B. 1/d C . d2 D. 1/d2 17. A magnetic flux density has magnitude 0.1 T and is directed north. An electron is moving at 1.2 × 106 m/s west. What is the force on the electron? A. 9.1 × 10-14 N, up B. 1.9 × 10-14 N, up C. 9.1 × 10-14 N, down D. 1.9 × 10-14 N, down 18. The current through a wire is directed into the page. If a magnetic field is directed from right to left, the force on the wire will be ____. A. to the right B. to the left C. upward D. downward 19. An electron is projected from left to right into a flux density of 0.3 T directed into the paper. If the speed of the electron is 2 × 106 m/s, the magnetic force will be ____. A. 9.6 × 10-14 N B. 6.9 × 10-14 N C. 5 × 10-13 N D. 4.8 × 10-14 N 20. A proton (+1.6 × 10-19 C) is projected from left to right at a velocity of 2 × 106 m/s. If an upward force of 1 × 10-13 N is observed, the magnetic flux density perpendicular to the velocity is approximately ____. A. 1.25 T out of the paper B. 1.25 T into the paper C. 0.31 T out of the paper D. 0.31 T into the paper 21. A rectangular loop of wire 20 cm wide and 30 cm long makes an angle of 40° with a magnetic flux density of 0.3 T. The flux penetrating the loop is approximately ____. A. 0.01 Wb B. 0.02 Wb C. 2 Wb D. 115 Wb 22. The magnetic induction at a distance of 6 cm in air from a long, current-carrying conductor is 12 × 10-6 T. The current in the wire is ____. A. 1.8 A B. 3.6 A C. 4.8 A D. 6.4 A 23. A solenoid has 60 turns of wire and a length of 16 cm and supports a current of 10 A. The relative permeability of the core is 1200. The magnetic induction at the center is approximately ____. A. 1.4 T B. 2.83 T C. 5.65 T D. 11 T 24. Which of the following are units for magnetic field intensity? A. Amps/meter B. Tesla C. Webers D. Webers/m2 25. When iron filings are sprinkled around a bar magnet, the pattern that forms shows that field lines ____. A. leave the ends of the bar and enter the middle B. form closed loops that leave the north pole and enter the south pole C. point straight out in all directions D. leave the middle of the bar and enter the ends 26. Increasing the number of loops in an electromagnetic causes the strength of the magnetic field to ____. A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same 27. The magnetic force on a current-carrying wire is ____ the direction of the current. A. parallel to B. the same as C. opposite to D. perpendicular to 28. A proton is traveling horizontally at 5.4 × 106 m/s in a direction 45o north of west. A magnetic flux density has a magnitude of 0.25 T and is directed north. What is the force on the proton? A. 2.1 × 10-13 N, up B. 1.5 × 10-13 N, up C. 2.1 × 10-13 N, down D. 1.5 × 10-13 N, down 29. Electrons follow a straight line path when forces due to the electric and magnetic fields are ____. A. in opposite directions B. in the same direction C. equal in magnitude and opposite in direction D. equal in magnitude 30. A proton is traveling horizontally at 5.4 × 106 m/s south. A magnetic flux density has a magnitude of 0.25 T and is directed north. What is the force on the proton? A. 0 B. 1.5 × 10-13 N, up C. 2.1 × 10-13 N, down D. 1.5 × 10-13 N, down 31. A bar magnet is broken in two pieces. The result is ____. A. two magnets B. two nonmagnetic pieces C. one piece with two north poles, the other with two south poles D. one piece magnetic, the other piece nonmagnetic 32. Which of the following does NOT depend on the permeability? A. magnetic flux B. magnetic flux density of a solenoid C. magnetic flux density of a long wire D. magnetic field intensity 33. In a magnetization cycle, a large hysteresis loop indicates ____. A. the material is nonmagnetic B. the size of the material is large C. a large amount of energy loss due to heating D. the material will not remain well magnetized 34. A man stands underneath a power line carrying a current of 150 A. If the power line is 15 m above the man, what is the magnetic flux density measured by the man (Neglect the Earth's magnetic field). A. 2.0 × 10-6 T B. 6.2 × 10-6 T C. 1.3 × 10-7 T D. 7.3 × 10-7 T 35. An air core solenoid with a radius of 2.0 cm and length 12 cm is closely wound with 350 turns of wire. How much current is required to produce a magnetic flux density of 0.15 T at the center of the core? A. 3.5 A B. 13 A C. 25 A D. 41 A 36. A wire 15 cm long carries a current of 5.4 A and makes an angle of 30o with a uniform B-field. If the force on the wire is 0.12 N, what is the magnitude of the B-field? A. 0.10 T B. 0.30 T C. 0.50 T D. d.0.70 T 37. A circular coil having 80 loops has a radius of 8.1 cm. It is submerged in a ferromagnetic material. If a current of 12 A produces a B-field at the center of the coil of 1.5 T, what is the relative permeability of the material? A. 100 B. 200 C. 3000 D. 8000 38. A charged particle is projected into a uniform B-field. Its velocity vector is perpendicular to the B-field vector. What type of path will the particle travel? Neglect gravity. A. straight line motion B. parabolic motion C. circular motion D. elliptical motion 39. A wire carries a current of 2.50 A. A 1.00 cm length is in a magnetic field of 0.15 T. The angle between the current direction and the B-field is 60o. What is the magnitude of the force on the wire? A. 0 B. 1.88 mN C. 3.25 mN D. 3.75 mN 40. The ratio of the magnetic flux intensity to the magnetic field intensity is the________________. ________________________________________ 41. According to the right-hand rule, if a current-carrying wire is grasped with the right hand so that the thumb points in the direction of the ____________________, the curled fingers of that hand point in the direction of _______ ______ ________. ________________________________________ 42. A circular coil in the plane of the paper supports a clockwise electric current. The direction of the magnetic flux near the center is _______ _____ ________. ________________________________________ 43. The area contained in a hysteresis loop indicates the degree of _________ ________ generated in a magnetization cycle. ________________________________________ 44. _________ ___________ refers to the condition under which all the magnetic domains in a material are aligned. ________________________________________ 45. The unit of flux density in the metric system of units is the ____________________, and the unit of magnetic flux is the ____________________. ________________________________________ 46. If most of the magnetic domains in a material are aligned, the material is considered highly __________. ________________________________________ 47. A magnetic field having a flux density of one tesla will exert force of one ____________________ on a charge of one ____________________ moving perpendicular to the field with a velocity of one _______ _____ ________. ________________________________________ 48. Materials with a relative permeability slightly less than unity are said to be ____________________; ____________________ materials have permeabilities slightly greater than unity. ________________________________________ 49. The ability of some materials to retain magnetism after the magnetizing force has been removed is referred to as ____________________. ________________________________________ 50. Materials that have a very high relative permeability are called ______________. ________________________________________ 51. The maximum force on a charged particle in a magnetic field occurs when the velocity is ___________ to the field vector. ________________________________________ ch29 2 Key 1. Like magnetic poles repel each other, whereas unlike magnetic poles attract each other. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #1 2. Magnetic flux lines are drawn in such a way that the direction at any point is the same as the direction of the force exerted on a unit south pole placed at that point. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #2 3. The Weber is a unit of magnetic flux density. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #3 4. The flux through a window whose surface is parallel to magnetic field lines is zero. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #4 5. The area of a hysteresis loop is a measure of flux density. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #5 6. The right-hand rule can be used to determine the direction of a magnetic field surrounding a current-carrying conductor. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #6 7. Two current-carrying conductors placed near each other will experience a force of attraction if their currents are oppositely directed. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #7 8. An electron is placed between the poles of a horseshoe magnet. The force on the electron is zero. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #8 9. A large hysteresis loop means a more efficient electromagnetic device. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #9 10. Magnetic materials having a high permeability will generally have a low retentivity. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #10 11. A straight wire carries a current. The magnetic field lines will be move radically outward from the wire. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #11 12. A material that remains highly magnetized after a magnetization cycle has a large hysteresis area. TRUE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #12 13. Paramagnetic materials are used in compass needles. FALSE Tippens - 029 Chapter... #13 14. Which of the following is not a unit of magnetic induction of flux density? A. Weber per square meter B. Gauss C. Tesla D. Weber Tippens - 029 Chapter... #14 15. Magnetic fields have no effect on ____. A. electric charges at rest B. electric charges in motion C. permanent magnets at rest D. permanent magnets in motion Tippens - 029 Chapter... #15 16. The magnetic flux density at a distance d from a long, current-carrying straight wire is proportional to ____. A. d B. 1/d C. d2 D. 1/d2 Tippens - 029 Chapter... #16 17. A magnetic flux density has magnitude 0.1 T and is directed north. An electron is moving at 1.2 × 106 m/s west. What is the force on the electron? A. 9.1 × 10-14 N, up B. 1.9 × 10-14 N, up C. 9.1 × 10-14 N, down D. 1.9 × 10-14 N, down Tippens - 029 Chapter... #17 18. The current through a wire is directed into the page. If a magnetic field is directed from right to left, the force on the wire will be ____. A. to the right B. to the left C. upward D. downward Tippens - 029 Chapter... #18 19. An electron is projected from left to right into a flux density of 0.3 T directed into the paper. If the speed of the electron is 2 × 106 m/s, the magnetic force will be ____. A. 9.6 × 10-14 N B. 6.9 × 10-14 N C. 5 × 10-13 N D. 4.8 × 10-14 N Tippens - 029 Chapter... #19 20. A proton (+1.6 × 10-19 C) is projected from left to right at a velocity of 2 × 106 m/s. If an upward force of 1 × 10-13 N is observed, the magnetic flux density perpendicular to the velocity is approximately ____. A. 1.25 T out of the paper B. 1.25 T into the paper C. 0.31 T out of the paper D. 0.31 T into the paper Tippens - 029 Chapter... #20 21. A rectangular loop of wire 20 cm wide and 30 cm long makes an angle of 40° with a magnetic flux density of 0.3 T. The flux penetrating the loop is approximately ____. A. 0.01 Wb B. 0.02 Wb C. 2 Wb D. 115 Wb Tippens - 029 Chapter... #21 22. The magnetic induction at a distance of 6 cm in air from a long, current-carrying conductor is 12 × 10-6 T. The current in the wire is ____. A. 1.8 A B. 3.6 A C. 4.8 A D. 6.4 A Tippens - 029 Chapter... #22 23. A solenoid has 60 turns of wire and a length of 16 cm and supports a current of 10 A. The relative permeability of the core is 1200. The magnetic induction at the center is approximately ____. A. 1.4 T B. 2.83 T C. 5.65 T D. 11 T Tippens - 029 Chapter... #23 24. Which of the following are units for magnetic field intensity? A. Amps/meter B. Tesla C. Webers D. Webers/m2 Tippens - 029 Chapter... #24 25. When iron filings are sprinkled around a bar magnet, the pattern that forms shows that field lines ____. A. leave the ends of the bar and enter the middle B. form closed loops that leave the north pole and enter the south pole C. point straight out in all directions D. leave the middle of the bar and enter the ends Tippens - 029 Chapter... #25 26. Increasing the number of loops in an electromagnetic causes the strength of the magnetic field to ____. A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same Tippens - 029 Chapter... #26 27. The magnetic force on a current-carrying wire is ____ the direction of the current. A. parallel to B. the same as C. opposite to D. perpendicular to Tippens - 029 Chapter... #27 28. A proton is traveling horizontally at 5.4 × 106 m/s in a direction 45o north of west. A magnetic flux density has a magnitude of 0.25 T and is directed north. What is the force on the proton? A. 2.1 × 10-13 N, up B. 1.5 × 10-13 N, up C. 2.1 × 10-13 N, down D. 1.5 × 10-13 N, down Tippens - 029 Chapter... #28 29. Electrons follow a straight line path when forces due to the electric and magnetic fields are ____. A. in opposite directions B. in the same direction C. equal in magnitude and opposite in direction D. equal in magnitude Tippens - 029 Chapter... #29 30. A proton is traveling horizontally at 5.4 × 106 m/s south. A magnetic flux density has a magnitude of 0.25 T and is directed north. What is the force on the proton? A. 0 B. 1.5 × 10-13 N, up C. 2.1 × 10-13 N, down D. 1.5 × 10-13 N, down Tippens - 029 Chapter... #30 31. A bar magnet is broken in two pieces. The result is ____. A. two magnets B. two nonmagnetic pieces C. one piece with two north poles, the other with two south poles D. one piece magnetic, the other piece nonmagnetic Tippens - 029 Chapter... #31 32. Which of the following does NOT depend on the permeability? A. magnetic flux B. magnetic flux density of a solenoid C. magnetic flux density of a long wire D. magnetic field intensity Tippens - 029 Chapter... #32 33. In a magnetization cycle, a large hysteresis loop indicates ____. A. the material is nonmagnetic B. the size of the material is large C. a large amount of energy loss due to heating D. the material will not remain well magnetized Tippens - 029 Chapter... #33 34. A man stands underneath a power line carrying a current of 150 A. If the power line is 15 m above the man, what is the magnetic flux density measured by the man (Neglect the Earth's magnetic field). A. 2.0 × 10-6 T B. 6.2 × 10-6 T C. 1.3 × 10-7 T D. 7.3 × 10-7 T Tippens - 029 Chapter... #34 35. An air core solenoid with a radius of 2.0 cm and length 12 cm is closely wound with 350 turns of wire. How much current is required to produce a magnetic flux density of 0.15 T at the center of the core? A. 3.5 A B. 13 A C. 25 A D. 41 A Tippens - 029 Chapter... #35 36. A wire 15 cm long carries a current of 5.4 A and makes an angle of 30o with a uniform B-field. If the force on the wire is 0.12 N, what is the magnitude of the B-field? A. 0.10 T B. 0.30 T C. 0.50 T D. d.0.70 T Tippens - 029 Chapter... #36 37. A circular coil having 80 loops has a radius of 8.1 cm. It is submerged in a ferromagnetic material. If a current of 12 A produces a B-field at the center of the coil of 1.5 T, what is the relative permeability of the material? A. 100 B. 200 C. 3000 D. 8000 Tippens - 029 Chapter... #37 38. A charged particle is projected into a uniform B-field. Its velocity vector is perpendicular to the B-field vector. What type of path will the particle travel? Neglect gravity. A. straight line motion B. parabolic motion C. circular motion D. elliptical motion Tippens - 029 Chapter... #38 39. A wire carries a current of 2.50 A. A 1.00 cm length is in a magnetic field of 0.15 T. The angle between the current direction and the B-field is 60o. What is the magnitude of the force on the wire? A. 0 B. 1.88 mN C. 3.25 mN D. 3.75 mN Tippens - 029 Chapter... #39 40. The ratio of the magnetic flux intensity to the magnetic field intensity is the________________. permeability Tippens - 029 Chapter... #40 41. According to the right-hand rule, if a current-carrying wire is grasped with the right hand so that the thumb points in the direction of the ____________________, the curled fingers of that hand point in the direction of _______ ______ ________. current, magnetic field lines Tippens - 029 Chapter... #41 42. A circular coil in the plane of the paper supports a clockwise electric current. The direction of the magnetic flux near the center is _______ _____ ________. into the paper Tippens - 029 Chapter... #42 43. The area contained in a hysteresis loop indicates the degree of _________ ________ generated in a magnetization cycle. thermal energy Tippens - 029 Chapter... #43 44. _________ ___________ refers to the condition under which all the magnetic domains in a material are aligned. Magnetic saturation Tippens - 029 Chapter... #44 45. The unit of flux density in the metric system of units is the ____________________, and the unit of magnetic flux is the ____________________. Tesla, weber Tippens - 029 Chapter... #45 46. If most of the magnetic domains in a material are aligned, the material is considered highly __________. magnetized Tippens - 029 Chapter... #46 47. A magnetic field having a flux density of one tesla will exert force of one ____________________ on a charge of one ____________________ moving perpendicular to the field with a velocity of one _______ _____ ________. Newton, coulomb, meter per second Tippens - 029 Chapter... #47 48. Materials with a relative permeability slightly less than unity are said to be ____________________; ____________________ materials have permeabilities slightly greater than unity. diamagnetic, paramagnetic Tippens - 029 Chapter... #48 49. The ability of some materials to retain magnetism after the magnetizing force has been removed is referred to as ____________________. retentivity Tippens - 029 Chapter... #49 50. Materials that have a very high relative permeability are called ______________. ferromagnetic Tippens - 029 Chapter... #50 51. The maximum force on a charged particle in a magnetic field occurs when the velocity is ___________ to the field vector. perpendicular Tippens - 029 Chapter... #51 ch29 2 Summary Category Tippens - 029 Chapter... # of Questions 51 ch30 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The sensitivity of a galvanometer is determined entirely by its electric resistance. True False 2. The resistance of a galvanometer is always small. True False 3. The magnetic torque on a current loop is a maximum when the angle between the plane of the loop and the magnetic field is 90°. True False 4. A galvanometer can be used directly as an ammeter if the currents measured are less than the full-scale deflection current. True False 5. The radial magnetic field for a galvanometer helps to ensure that the pointer deflection will be directly proportional to the current in the coil. True False 6. Placing a low-resistance wire across the terminals of an ammeter will decrease the range of currents that can be measured. True False 7. Increasing the multiplier resistance for a voltmeter will increase the range of the voltmeter. True False 8. Voltmeters must be connected in parallel because of the low multiplier resistance that would short-circuit the circuit if it were placed in series. True False 9. The proper insertion of an ammeter or a voltmeter into a circuit will alter the current in that circuit slightly, introducing some error. True False 10. The torque output by a simple dc motor is not uniform. True False 11. In a voltmeter, the multiplier resistor is always placed in parallel with the galvanometer. True False 12. The purpose of a shunt resistor in an ammeter is to make sure a small current enters the galvanometer. True False 13. A galvanometer is essentially a simple dc motor without springs and a mechanism to allow continuous motion in one direction. True False 14. The torque on a solenoid in a magnetic field is not a function of its ____. A. loop area B. number of loops C. length D. current 15. Which of the following must be a high-resistance instrument? A. Voltmeter B. Ammeter C. Motor D. Galvanometer 16. A voltmeter has a maximum range of 150 V and has 100 divisions. The total resistance of the voltmeter is 75 kΩ. What is the sensitivity of the galvanometer? A. 10 µA/div B. 20 µA/div C. 25 µA/div D. 50 µA/div 17. The sensitivity of a galvanometer does not depend on the _________. A. spring torque B. friction in the bearings C. shunt resistance D. magnetic field strength 18. The range of a dc voltmeter can be increased by ____. A. increasing the circuit load resistance B. increasing the multiplier resistance C. decreasing the multiplier resistance D. placing a shunt resistance across the voltmeter terminals 19. A galvanometer has an internal resistance of 0.2 Ω and gives a full-scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. What multiplier resistance is required to convert this instrument to a voltmeter whose maximum range is 200 V? A. 66 Ω B. 33 Ω C. 3.3 × 104 Ω D. 6.67 × 104 Ω 20. In a combination voltmeter/ammeter you measure three resistances, 1.0 Ω, 52 Ω, and 55,000 Ω. Which resistance is the multiplier resistance? A. 1.0 Ω B. 52 Ω C. 55,000 Ω D. The sum of all the resistances. 21. A commercial 5-V voltmeter requires a current of 10 mA to produce full-scale deflection. It can be converted to an instrument with a range of 50 V by adding a multiplier resistance of ____. A. 9000 Ω B. 4500 Ω C. 2250 Ω D. 1125 Ω 22. A galvanometer is used as an ammeter by adding ___________. A. a large resistance in parallel B. a small resistance in parallel C. a large resistance in series D. a small resistance in series 23. A galvanometer is used as an voltmeter by adding __________. A. a large resistance in parallel B. a small resistance in parallel C. a large resistance in series D. a small resistance in series 24. A device used to measure very small electric currents is a(n) ____. A. ammeter B. galvanometer C. electric meter D. voltmeter 25. A galvanometer consists of ____. A. a small coil of wire placed in the magnetic field of a permanent magnet B. a straight wire connecting two electromagnets C. a small coil of wire connecting two electromagnets D. a small coil of wire attached to a source of potential difference and an electromagnet 26. Which of the following would give the largest torque in a magnetic field if the current through each is the same. A. a circular loop, radius 6 cm B. 10 circular loops, radius 2 cm C. a rectangular loop 8 cm × 10 cm D. 20 rectangular loops, each 2 cm × 3 cm 27. The speed of an electric motor can be controlled by ____. A. varying the current flow B. changing the direction of current flow C. changing the direction of force on the wire loops D. limiting the rotation of the wire loops 28. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the torque on a loop of wire? A. the current in the wire B. the area of the loop C. the shape of the loop D. the angle the loop makes with the magnetic field 29. The maximum torque is exerted on a loop of wire ____. A. when the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop B. when one-half the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop C. when the minimum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop D. when one-quarter the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop 30. A coil of wire has 400 turns, each of area 50 cm2. What B-field is required if a 4.5 A current produces a maximum 3.5 N . m torque? A. 0.97 mT B. 0.39 T C. 1.54 T D. 156 T 31. Which of the following is used to provide continuous rotation of the coil in a dc motor? A. multiplier B. armature C. split-ring commutator D. galvanometer 32. A galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 35.0 µA/div. If full deflection is 25 divisions, the current for full-scale deflection is ____. A. This would depend on the galvanometer's resistance. B. 60.0 µA C. 875 µA D. 1.40 µA 33. A solenoid has 800 turns and radius 2.0 cm, and is in a uniform 0.35 T B-field. If a current of 8.0 A is sent through the solenoid wire, what maximum torque results? A. 2.81 N . m B. 0.89 N . m C. 14 N . m D. 25 N . m 34. A galvanometer has a coil resistance of 54 Ω and a full-scale deflection current of 350 mA. What shunt resistance is required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter with a maximum range of 20 A? A. 135 kΩ B. 0.96 Ω C. 0.90 Ω D. 55 Ω 35. An ideal ammeter has _____________________ resistance, whereas the ideal voltmeter has a(n) _____________________ resistance. ________________________________________ 36. When the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field, the resultant torque on the loop when it supports a current is _____________________. ________________________________________ 37. Any device used for the detection of an electric current is called a(n) ____________________. ________________________________________ 38. When you insert a voltmeter into a circuit, it must be connected in ____________________ while an ammeter is connected in ____________________. ________________________________________ 39. A galvanometer has 100 divisions (50 to the left, 50 to the right) and a sensitivity of 75 µA/division. The current required for full-scale deflection to the right is _________ µA. ________________________________________ 40. The current reversals required for continuous rotation of the armature in a dc motor are accomplished by using a(n) ____________________. ________________________________________ 41. A galvanometer can be used to measure both ____________________ and ____________________. ________________________________________ 42. A part of a motor made of a slotted iron core which holds many coils of wire is called a(n) ________________. ________________________________________ 43. Three essential parts of a galvanometer are the ____________________, ____________________, and ___________________. ________________________________________ 44. The torque on a solenoid is a maximum when the solenoid axis is ___ to the magnetic field. ________________________________________ ch30 Key 1. The sensitivity of a galvanometer is determined entirely by its electric resistance. FALSE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #1 2. The resistance of a galvanometer is always small. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #2 3. The magnetic torque on a current loop is a maximum when the angle between the plane of the loop and the magnetic field is 90°. FALSE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #3 4. A galvanometer can be used directly as an ammeter if the currents measured are less than the full-scale deflection current. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #4 5. The radial magnetic field for a galvanometer helps to ensure that the pointer deflection will be directly proportional to the current in the coil. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #5 6. Placing a low-resistance wire across the terminals of an ammeter will decrease the range of currents that can be measured. FALSE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #6 7. Increasing the multiplier resistance for a voltmeter will increase the range of the voltmeter. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #7 8. Voltmeters must be connected in parallel because of the low multiplier resistance that would short-circuit the circuit if it were placed in series. FALSE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #8 9. The proper insertion of an ammeter or a voltmeter into a circuit will alter the current in that circuit slightly, introducing some error. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #9 10. The torque output by a simple dc motor is not uniform. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #10 11. In a voltmeter, the multiplier resistor is always placed in parallel with the galvanometer. FALSE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #11 12. The purpose of a shunt resistor in an ammeter is to make sure a small current enters the galvanometer. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #12 13. A galvanometer is essentially a simple dc motor without springs and a mechanism to allow continuous motion in one direction. TRUE Tippens - 030 Chapter... #13 14. The torque on a solenoid in a magnetic field is not a function of its ____. A. loop area B. number of loops C. length D. current Tippens - 030 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following must be a high-resistance instrument? A. Voltmeter B. Ammeter C. Motor D. Galvanometer Tippens - 030 Chapter... #15 16. A voltmeter has a maximum range of 150 V and has 100 divisions. The total resistance of the voltmeter is 75 kΩ. What is the sensitivity of the galvanometer? A. 10 µA/div B. 20 µA/div C. 25 µA/div D. 50 µA/div Tippens - 030 Chapter... #16 17. The sensitivity of a galvanometer does not depend on the _________. A. spring torque B. friction in the bearings C. shunt resistance D. magnetic field strength Tippens - 030 Chapter... #17 18. The range of a dc voltmeter can be increased by ____. A. increasing the circuit load resistance B. increasing the multiplier resistance C. decreasing the multiplier resistance D. placing a shunt resistance across the voltmeter terminals Tippens - 030 Chapter... #18 19. A galvanometer has an internal resistance of 0.2 Ω and gives a full-scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. What multiplier resistance is required to convert this instrument to a voltmeter whose maximum range is 200 V? A. 66 Ω B. 33 Ω C. 3.3 × 104 Ω D. 6.67 × 104 Ω Tippens - 030 Chapter... #19 20. In a combination voltmeter/ammeter you measure three resistances, 1.0 Ω, 52 Ω, and 55,000 Ω. Which resistance is the multiplier resistance? A. 1.0 Ω B. 52 Ω C. 55,000 Ω D. The sum of all the resistances. Tippens - 030 Chapter... #20 21. A commercial 5-V voltmeter requires a current of 10 mA to produce full-scale deflection. It can be converted to an instrument with a range of 50 V by adding a multiplier resistance of ____. A. 9000 Ω B. 4500 Ω C. 2250 Ω D. 1125 Ω Tippens - 030 Chapter... #21 22. A galvanometer is used as an ammeter by adding ___________. A. a large resistance in parallel B. a small resistance in parallel C. a large resistance in series D. a small resistance in series Tippens - 030 Chapter... #22 23. A galvanometer is used as an voltmeter by adding __________. A. a large resistance in parallel B. a small resistance in parallel C. a large resistance in series D. a small resistance in series Tippens - 030 Chapter... #23 24. A device used to measure very small electric currents is a(n) ____. A. ammeter B. galvanometer C. electric meter D. voltmeter Tippens - 030 Chapter... #24 25. A galvanometer consists of ____. A. a small coil of wire placed in the magnetic field of a permanent magnet B. a straight wire connecting two electromagnets C. a small coil of wire connecting two electromagnets D. a small coil of wire attached to a source of potential difference and an electromagnet Tippens - 030 Chapter... #25 26. Which of the following would give the largest torque in a magnetic field if the current through each is the same. A. a circular loop, radius 6 cm B. 10 circular loops, radius 2 cm C. a rectangular loop 8 cm × 10 cm D. 20 rectangular loops, each 2 cm × 3 cm Tippens - 030 Chapter... #26 27. The speed of an electric motor can be controlled by ____. A. varying the current flow B. changing the direction of current flow C. changing the direction of force on the wire loops D. limiting the rotation of the wire loops Tippens - 030 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the torque on a loop of wire? A. the current in the wire B. the area of the loop C. the shape of the loop D. the angle the loop makes with the magnetic field Tippens - 030 Chapter... #28 29. The maximum torque is exerted on a loop of wire ____. A. when the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop B. when one-half the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop C. when the minimum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop D. when one-quarter the maximum amount of magnetic flux penetrates the loop Tippens - 030 Chapter... #29 30. A coil of wire has 400 turns, each of area 50 cm2. What B-field is required if a 4.5 A current produces a maximum 3.5 N . m torque? A. 0.97 mT B. 0.39 T C. 1.54 T D. 156 T Tippens - 030 Chapter... #30 31. Which of the following is used to provide continuous rotation of the coil in a dc motor? A. multiplier B. armature C. split-ring commutator D. galvanometer Tippens - 030 Chapter... #31 32. A galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 35.0 µA/div. If full deflection is 25 divisions, the current for full-scale deflection is ____. A. This would depend on the galvanometer's resistance. B. 60.0 µA C. 875 µA D. 1.40 µA Tippens - 030 Chapter... #32 33. A solenoid has 800 turns and radius 2.0 cm, and is in a uniform 0.35 T B-field. If a current of 8.0 A is sent through the solenoid wire, what maximum torque results? A. 2.81 N . m B. 0.89 N . m C. 14 N . m D. 25 N . m Tippens - 030 Chapter... #33 34. A galvanometer has a coil resistance of 54 Ω and a full-scale deflection current of 350 mA. What shunt resistance is required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter with a maximum range of 20 A? A. 135 kΩ B. 0.96 Ω C. 0.90 Ω D. 55 Ω Tippens - 030 Chapter... #34 35. An ideal ammeter has _____________________ resistance, whereas the ideal voltmeter has a(n) _____________________ resistance. zero, infinite Tippens - 030 Chapter... #35 36. When the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the field, the resultant torque on the loop when it supports a current is _____________________. zero Tippens - 030 Chapter... #36 37. Any device used for the detection of an electric current is called a(n) ____________________. galvanometer Tippens - 030 Chapter... #37 38. When you insert a voltmeter into a circuit, it must be connected in ____________________ while an ammeter is connected in ____________________. parallel, series Tippens - 030 Chapter... #38 39. A galvanometer has 100 divisions (50 to the left, 50 to the right) and a sensitivity of 75 µA/division. The current required for full-scale deflection to the right is _________ µA. 3750 Tippens - 030 Chapter... #39 40. The current reversals required for continuous rotation of the armature in a dc motor are accomplished by using a(n) ____________________. commutator Tippens - 030 Chapter... #40 41. A galvanometer can be used to measure both ____________________ and ____________________. current, voltage Tippens - 030 Chapter... #41 42. A part of a motor made of a slotted iron core which holds many coils of wire is called a(n) ________________. armature Tippens - 030 Chapter... #42 43. Three essential parts of a galvanometer are the ____________________, ____________________, and ___________________. magnet, coil, pointer Tippens - 030 Chapter... #43 44. The torque on a solenoid is a maximum when the solenoid axis is ___ to the magnetic field. perpendicular Tippens - 030 Chapter... #44 ch30 Summary Category Tippens - 030 Chapter... # of Questions 44 ch31 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Lenz's law is a consequence of the fact that energy must be conserved. True False 2. The magnitude of an induced emf is directly proportional to the rate at which magnetic flux lines are cut by a conductor. True False 3. A generator is a device that converts magnetic energy to electric energy. True False 4. A transformer can be used for alternating current only. True False 5. The back emf in the armature of an electric motor is zero when the motor is started and rises as the motor's speed increases. True False 6. If the armature of a generator is rotating with a constant angular velocity in a constant magnetic field, the induced emf will be constant. True False 7. For an ac generator, the maximum current occurs when the induced emf is a minimum. True False 8. Every motor is also a generator. True False 9. In a shunt-wound motor, the output speed can be controlled by varying the input current to either the field windings or the armature windings. True False 10. A series-wound motor is preferable if a large starting torque is desirable. True False 11. A bar magnet is moving 3 m/s to the right. A coil of wire is also moving 3 m/s to the right. There is no induced emf. True False 12. If the length of a current-carrying wire is anti-parallel to magnetic field lines, there is no induced emf across the length of wire. True False 13. If a circular coil of wire is in a constant magnetic field and never changes shape, the flux through the coil will always be constant. True False 14. A consequence of a stalled motor is an increased back emf. True False 15. If the direction of electron motion due to electromagnetic induction is desired, Fleming's rule requires the use of your left hand. True False 16. A flexible coil 25 cm long is shaped into a circle with its face perpendicular to a 0.25 T magnetic field. If the coil is then pulled to collapse the area in 2.0 ms, what emf is induced in the coil? A. 2.5 µV B. 6.5 mV C. c.0.63 V D. 25 V 17. A car antenna is 1.5 m long. The car is moving at 15 m/s in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 4.5 × 10-5 T and is directed perpendicular to the length of the antenna. What emf is induced in the antenna? A. 1.0 mV B. 2.0 mV C. 3.0 mV D. 4.5 mV 18. The maximum emf produced in an ac generator does not depend on A. the type of magnet used B. the area of the coil C. the rate of rotation D. the number of turns of wire 19. The instantaneous emf produced by a simple ac generator is a maximum when the angular displacement of the loop is an ____. A. integral multiple of π/2 B. odd multiple of π/2 C. even multiple of π D. odd multiple of π 20. The ratio of the primary voltage to the secondary voltage for a transformer does not depend on the ____. A. relative number of turns in the windings B. permeability of the core C. primary voltage D. resistance in the windings 21. A coil of wire of area 0.3 m2 has 90 turns of wire and is suspended with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. An emf of –2 V is induced when the coil is flipped parallel to the field in 0.4 s. The flux density of the field is approximately ____. A. 0.01 T B. 0.02 T C. 0.03 T D. 0.04 T 22. An armature in an ac generator consists of 600 turns, each having an area of 0.4 m2. The coil rotates in a field of flux density 2 × 10-3 T. What must the rotational frequency of the armature be to induce a maximum emf of 12 V? A. 200 rpm B. 226 rpm C. 239 rpm D. 478 rpm 23. A wire 0.2 m long moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s in a direction that is 37o with respect to a magnetic field of 0.2 T directed perpendicular to the wire. The induced emf is approximately ____. A. 0.12 V B. 0.16 V C. 0.20 V D. 0.24 V 24. Which of the following is in a dc generator but not in an ac generator? A. Field magnet B. Split-ring commutator C. Armature D. Brushes 25. A transformer has 400 secondary turns and only 50 primary turns. If an ac voltage of 120 V is connected to the primary coil, the output voltage is ____. A. 15 V B. 240 V C. 430 V D. 960 V 26. An electric current is generated in a wire when the wire is ____. A. moved parallel to a magnetic field B. moved so that it cuts across magnetic field lines C. held stationary in a magnetic field D. placed in a magnetic field of large intensity 27. Current can be made to flow in a stationary conductor by ____. A. moving a magnetic field across the wire B. moving a magnetic field parallel to the wire C. holding a magnet over the wire D. touching the wire with a magnet 28. Which of the following motors usually produces the largest starting torque? A. series-wound B. shunt-wound C. compound D. permanent-magnet 29. An electric generator converts ____. A. mechanical energy to heat energy B. electrical energy to heat energy C. electrical energy to mechanical energy D. mechanical energy to electrical energy 30. As a motor begins to turn, a black-EMF is induced that ____ the current flow. A. opposes B. is in the same direction as C. is perpendicular to D. has no effect on 31. According to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current is such that the magnetic field resulting from the induced current ____ the change in flux that caused the current. A. is perpendicular to B. opposes C. strengthens D. has no effect on 32. If a generator produces only a small current, then the opposing force on the armature will be ____ and the armature will be ____ to turn. A. small, easy B. small, hard C. large, easy D. large, hard 33. An electric motor is almost identical in construction to an electric generator, but the motor converts ____. A. electrical energy to mechanical energy B. mechanical energy to electrical energy C. mechanical energy to heat energy D. electrical energy to heat energy 34. In a step-up transformer, the primary voltage is ____ the secondary voltage. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to 35. If the direction of a constant field is south to north and a wire moves downward, the direction of the induced current is ____. A. north to south B. east to west C. south to north D. west to east 36. A 5A current at 220 V enters the primary side of an ideal transformer. If the voltage at the secondary side is 440 V, the current in the secondary is _________. A. 5 A B. 2.5 A C. 10 A D. 25 A 37. A step-down transformer is 90% efficient. If the primary side draws a current of 0.5 A at a voltage of 120 V, what is the output current if the turns ratio is 20:1? A. 10 A B. 56 mA C. 18 A D. 9 A 38. A 120 V motor runs at full speed when there is a 15 A current through a 4.0 Ω armature. The back emf is A. 10 V B. 60 V C. 80 V D. 180 V 39. A 0.15 T B-field directed into the page becomes zero in 25.0 ms. What is the induced current in a 1.50 Ω coil of wire 5.00 cm in radius in the plane of the paper? A. 16.9 mA B. 25.5 mA C. 31.5 mA D. 41.7 mA 40. A step-up transformer has 300 primary turns and 600 secondary turns. A 240 V constant potential difference is applied to the primary side. What is the secondary voltage? A. 0 B. 120 V C. 240 V D. 480 V 41. The current produced in a generator that rotates at a constant rate and has a constant magnetic field varies ______________. ________________________________________ 42. In a transformer, the ratio of the primary to secondary voltage is equal to the ratio of the primary to secondary ______________. ________________________________________ 43. For a dc motor in operation, the net voltage delivered to the armature coils is equal to the _________ ___________ less the __________ __________. ________________________________________ 44. The major components of a simple ac generator are the __________ __________, ____________________, and _________ ___________ with ____________________. ________________________________________ 45. Three types of motors discussed in this text are the ______-______ ________, __________ __________, and__________ __________. ________________________________________ 46. The current drawn by an electric motor is a maximum when the motor is ____________________. ________________________________________ 47. In an ideal transformer, the power output is equal to the __________ __________. ________________________________________ 48. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is ___________. ________________________________________ 49. A simple transformer consists of three essential parts: __________ __________, __________ __________, and ___ _____-_____ _______. ________________________________________ 50. In a(n) _____-_______ ________, the field windings and the armature windings are connected in parallel. ________________________________________ 51. In transmission of ac electric power, the transmission voltages are very high. In order to bring lower voltages into homes, a _____-______ _________ is used. ________________________________________ 52. In a ______-______ motor, the current is the same through the field windings and the armature windings. ________________________________________ ch31 Key 1. Lenz's law is a consequence of the fact that energy must be conserved. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #1 2. The magnitude of an induced emf is directly proportional to the rate at which magnetic flux lines are cut by a conductor. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #2 3. A generator is a device that converts magnetic energy to electric energy. FALSE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #3 4. A transformer can be used for alternating current only. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #4 5. The back emf in the armature of an electric motor is zero when the motor is started and rises as the motor's speed increases. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #5 6. If the armature of a generator is rotating with a constant angular velocity in a constant magnetic field, the induced emf will be constant. FALSE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #6 7. For an ac generator, the maximum current occurs when the induced emf is a minimum. FALSE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #7 8. Every motor is also a generator. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #8 9. In a shunt-wound motor, the output speed can be controlled by varying the input current to either the field windings or the armature windings. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #9 10. A series-wound motor is preferable if a large starting torque is desirable. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #10 11. A bar magnet is moving 3 m/s to the right. A coil of wire is also moving 3 m/s to the right. There is no induced emf. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #11 12. If the length of a current-carrying wire is anti-parallel to magnetic field lines, there is no induced emf across the length of wire. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #12 13. If a circular coil of wire is in a constant magnetic field and never changes shape, the flux through the coil will always be constant. FALSE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #13 14. A consequence of a stalled motor is an increased back emf. FALSE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #14 15. If the direction of electron motion due to electromagnetic induction is desired, Fleming's rule requires the use of your left hand. TRUE Tippens - 031 Chapter... #15 16. A flexible coil 25 cm long is shaped into a circle with its face perpendicular to a 0.25 T magnetic field. If the coil is then pulled to collapse the area in 2.0 ms, what emf is induced in the coil? A. 2.5 µV B. 6.5 mV C. c.0.63 V D. 25 V Tippens - 031 Chapter... #16 17. A car antenna is 1.5 m long. The car is moving at 15 m/s in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 4.5 × 10-5 T and is directed perpendicular to the length of the antenna. What emf is induced in the antenna? A. 1.0 mV B. 2.0 mV C. 3.0 mV D. 4.5 mV Tippens - 031 Chapter... #17 18. The maximum emf produced in an ac generator does not depend on A. the type of magnet used B. the area of the coil C. the rate of rotation D. the number of turns of wire Tippens - 031 Chapter... #18 19. The instantaneous emf produced by a simple ac generator is a maximum when the angular displacement of the loop is an ____. A. integral multiple of π/2 B. odd multiple of π/2 C. even multiple of π D. odd multiple of π Tippens - 031 Chapter... #19 20. The ratio of the primary voltage to the secondary voltage for a transformer does not depend on the ____. A. relative number of turns in the windings B. permeability of the core C. primary voltage D. resistance in the windings Tippens - 031 Chapter... #20 21. A coil of wire of area 0.3 m2 has 90 turns of wire and is suspended with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. An emf of –2 V is induced when the coil is flipped parallel to the field in 0.4 s. The flux density of the field is approximately ____. A. 0.01 T B. 0.02 T C. 0.03 T D. 0.04 T Tippens - 031 Chapter... #21 22. An armature in an ac generator consists of 600 turns, each having an area of 0.4 m2. The coil rotates in a field of flux density 2 × 10-3 T. What must the rotational frequency of the armature be to induce a maximum emf of 12 V? A. 200 rpm B. 226 rpm C. 239 rpm D. 478 rpm Tippens - 031 Chapter... #22 23. A wire 0.2 m long moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s in a direction that is 37o with respect to a magnetic field of 0.2 T directed perpendicular to the wire. The induced emf is approximately ____. A. 0.12 V B. 0.16 V C. 0.20 V D. 0.24 V Tippens - 031 Chapter... #23 24. Which of the following is in a dc generator but not in an ac generator? A. Field magnet B. Split-ring commutator C. Armature D. Brushes Tippens - 031 Chapter... #24 25. A transformer has 400 secondary turns and only 50 primary turns. If an ac voltage of 120 V is connected to the primary coil, the output voltage is ____. A. 15 V B. 240 V C. 430 V D. 960 V Tippens - 031 Chapter... #25 26. An electric current is generated in a wire when the wire is ____. A. moved parallel to a magnetic field B. moved so that it cuts across magnetic field lines C. held stationary in a magnetic field D. placed in a magnetic field of large intensity Tippens - 031 Chapter... #26 27. Current can be made to flow in a stationary conductor by ____. A. moving a magnetic field across the wire B. moving a magnetic field parallel to the wire C. holding a magnet over the wire D. touching the wire with a magnet Tippens - 031 Chapter... #27 28. Which of the following motors usually produces the largest starting torque? A. series-wound B. shunt-wound C. compound D. permanent-magnet Tippens - 031 Chapter... #28 29. An electric generator converts ____. A. mechanical energy to heat energy B. electrical energy to heat energy C. electrical energy to mechanical energy D. mechanical energy to electrical energy Tippens - 031 Chapter... #29 30. As a motor begins to turn, a black-EMF is induced that ____ the current flow. A. opposes B. is in the same direction as C. is perpendicular to D. has no effect on Tippens - 031 Chapter... #30 31. According to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current is such that the magnetic field resulting from the induced current ____ the change in flux that caused the current. A. is perpendicular to B. opposes C. strengthens D. has no effect on Tippens - 031 Chapter... #31 32. If a generator produces only a small current, then the opposing force on the armature will be ____ and the armature will be ____ to turn. A. small, easy B. small, hard C. large, easy D. large, hard Tippens - 031 Chapter... #32 33. An electric motor is almost identical in construction to an electric generator, but the motor converts ____. A. electrical energy to mechanical energy B. mechanical energy to electrical energy C. mechanical energy to heat energy D. electrical energy to heat energy Tippens - 031 Chapter... #33 34. In a step-up transformer, the primary voltage is ____ the secondary voltage. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to Tippens - 031 Chapter... #34 35. If the direction of a constant field is south to north and a wire moves downward, the direction of the induced current is ____. A. north to south B. east to west C. south to north D. west to east Tippens - 031 Chapter... #35 36. A 5A current at 220 V enters the primary side of an ideal transformer. If the voltage at the secondary side is 440 V, the current in the secondary is _________. A. 5 A B. 2.5 A C. 10 A D. 25 A Tippens - 031 Chapter... #36 37. A step-down transformer is 90% efficient. If the primary side draws a current of 0.5 A at a voltage of 120 V, what is the output current if the turns ratio is 20:1? A. 10 A B. 56 mA C. 18 A D. 9 A Tippens - 031 Chapter... #37 38. A 120 V motor runs at full speed when there is a 15 A current through a 4.0 Ω armature. The back emf is A. 10 V B. 60 V C. 80 V D. 180 V Tippens - 031 Chapter... #38 39. A 0.15 T B-field directed into the page becomes zero in 25.0 ms. What is the induced current in a 1.50 Ω coil of wire 5.00 cm in radius in the plane of the paper? A. 16.9 mA B. 25.5 mA C. 31.5 mA D. 41.7 mA Tippens - 031 Chapter... #39 40. A step-up transformer has 300 primary turns and 600 secondary turns. A 240 V constant potential difference is applied to the primary side. What is the secondary voltage? A. 0 B. 120 V C. 240 V D. 480 V Tippens - 031 Chapter... #40 41. The current produced in a generator that rotates at a constant rate and has a constant magnetic field varies ______________. sinusoidally Tippens - 031 Chapter... #41 42. In a transformer, the ratio of the primary to secondary voltage is equal to the ratio of the primary to secondary ______________. number of turns Tippens - 031 Chapter... #42 43. For a dc motor in operation, the net voltage delivered to the armature coils is equal to the _________ ___________ less the __________ __________. applied voltage, back emf Tippens - 031 Chapter... #43 44. The major components of a simple ac generator are the __________ __________, ____________________, and _________ ___________ with ____________________. field magnet, armature, slip rings, brushes Tippens - 031 Chapter... #44 45. Three types of motors discussed in this text are the ______-______ ________, __________ __________, and__________ __________. series-wound motor, shunt motor, compound motor Tippens - 031 Chapter... #45 46. The current drawn by an electric motor is a maximum when the motor is ____________________. starting Tippens - 031 Chapter... #46 47. In an ideal transformer, the power output is equal to the __________ __________. power input Tippens - 031 Chapter... #47 48. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is ___________. one Tippens - 031 Chapter... #48 49. A simple transformer consists of three essential parts: __________ __________, __________ __________, and ___ _____-_____ _______. primary coil, secondary coil, a soft-iron core Tippens - 031 Chapter... #49 50. In a(n) _____-_______ ________, the field windings and the armature windings are connected in parallel. shunt-wound motor Tippens - 031 Chapter... #50 51. In transmission of ac electric power, the transmission voltages are very high. In order to bring lower voltages into homes, a _____-______ _________ is used. step-down transformer Tippens - 031 Chapter... #51 52. In a ______-______ motor, the current is the same through the field windings and the armature windings. series-wound Tippens - 031 Chapter... #52 ch31 Summary Category Tippens - 031 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch32 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. In a purely resistive circuit, the power factor is zero. True False 2. In an inductive circuit, the current decays to 37 percent of its initial value in a period of one time constant. True False 3. A capacitor with a breakdown voltage of 150 V would be safe to use in an ac circuit if the ac voltage were only 120 V. True False 4. Capacitive reactance and inductive reactance increase with an increase in frequency of an alternating current. True False 5. The effective voltage V in a series ac circuit can be defined as the algebraic sum of V C , V L , and V R . True False 6. The power factor in an ac circuit is the ratio of its resistance to its impedance. True False 7. Under a condition of resonance in an ac circuit, the current will be in phase with the voltage. True False 8. Reactance, impedance, and resistance are all measured in the same physical unit (ohms). True False 9. In a circuit containing pure capacitance, the voltage leads the current by 90°. True False 10. A negative phase angle occurs when the current leads the voltage in an ac circuit. True False 11. The resonant frequency increases with the total resistance of the circuit. True False 12. In an inductive circuit, the phase angle is positive. True False 13. The maximum voltage entering a house is usually ±120 V. True False 14. In a RLC series circuit with a dc source, the impedance is infinite. True False 15. A 12-V battery is connected to a 5-Ω resistor and 5-µF capacitor in series. After a long time, what is the potential difference across the resistor? A. 0 B. 2.5 V C. 6 V D. 12 V 16. An alternating voltage has a maximum value of 30 V. The effective value is approximately ____. A. 15 V B. 21.2 V C. 30 V D. 42.9 V 17. As the capacitance in an ac circuit increases, the resonant frequency ____. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. approaches zero 18. The ratio of the pure resistance in an ac circuit to the impedance is known as the ____. A. power factor B. phase angle C. resonant frequency D. net reactance 19. In a purely capacitive ac circuit, which of the following is true? A. The current and voltage are in phase. B. The voltage leads the current by 90o. C. The current leads the voltage by 90o. D. The power factor is 0.5. 20. In an ac circuit containing a coil with an inductance of 0.3 H, the voltage is 120 V at 60 Hz. If we neglect resistance, the effective current in the coil is ____. A. 0.27 A B. 0.53 A C. 1.06 A D. 2.12 A 21. A 50-W resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12-mF capacitor are connected in series with a 120-V, 60-Hz alternating current. The effective current is approximately ____. A. 2 A B. 4 A C. 6 A D. 8 A 22. An 800-Ω resistor, a 0.6-H inductor, and a 4-µF capacitor are connected in series with a 220-V, 50-Hz source of alternating current. The phase angle is approximately ____. A. -31o B. -37o C. 31o D. 37o 23. A circuit contains a 12-µF capacitor, a 40- Ω resistor, a switch, and a 20-V dc battery connected in series. After the switch is closed, the capacitor can be considered fully charged after ____. A. 0.00048 s B. 0.0012 s C. 0.0024 s D. 0.0048 s 24. A series dc circuit containing a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 µF capacitor is connected to a 120 V, 60.0 Hz source. After a long time, the potential difference across the capacitor is ____. A. 0.0 V. B. 120 V. C. 62 V. D. 0.67 V. 25. In an ac circuit containing only capacitance reactance, the capacitance is 6.0-µF. The source voltage is 120 V at 60-Hz. The current in the circuit is ____. A. 0.27 A B. 0.53 A C. 1.06 A D. 2.12 A 26. A 50-Ω resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12-µF capacitor are connected in series to a 120 V 60 Hz, alternating source. The impedance of the circuit is ___. A. 33.2 Ω B. 59.8 Ω C. 126 Ω D. 189 Ω 27. The resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit depends on ____. A. capacitance only B. inductance, capacitance, and resistance C. inductance and capacitance only D. inductance only 28. The power factor at resonance is ____. A. 0 B. 1 C. infinite D. 29. In a series ac circuit, a negative phase angle indicates ____. A. the capacitive reactance is larger than the inductive reactance B. the inductive reactance is larger than the capacitive reactance C. the inductive reactance is larger than the reactance D. the resistance is larger than the capacitive reactance 30. A series dc circuit containing a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 mH inductor is connected to a 120 V, 60.0 Hz source. After a long time, the potential difference across the inductor is ____. A. 62 V B. 120 V C. 0.0 V D. 58 V 31. A series RLC circuit is operating at its resonance frequency. If the frequency is increased, which of the following will decrease? A. effective current B. phase angle C. impedance D. resistance 32. For an ac series LC circuit, the phase angle will be ____. A. ±45o B. 0o C. ±90o D. 180o 33. The resonant frequency of a RLC circuit is f 0 . What is the new resonant frequency if the resistance, capacitance, and inductance are all doubled? A. f 0 /4. B. f 0 /2. C. f 0 . D. 4f 0 . 34. A 50 Ω resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12 F capacitor are connected in series to a 120 V 60 Hz, alternating source. The power factor of the circuit is ___. A. 0.84 B. 33 C. 126 D. 240 35. Which of the following is not a unit for inductance? A. Henry B. (Volt)(sec)/Amp C. (Ω)(sec) D. Volt/sec 36. A series dc circuit contains a 12-Ω resistor and a 350-mH inductor. What is the time constant for the circuit? A. 29.2 ms B. 34.3 ms C. 4.2 s D. 34.3 s 37. A 12-µF capacitor is connected to a 350-Ω resistor and a 12-V battery in series. What is the current in the circuit after 2.1 ms? A. 20.8 mA B. 34.3 mA C. 12.6 mA D. 34.3 s 38. An RLC series circuit with a 25-Ω resistor, 0.35-H inductor, and tunable capacitor is connected to a 120-V, 60-Hz source. What value should the capacitor have to operate at resonance? A. 11.6-µF B. 20.1-µF C. 22.8-µF D. 25.0-µF 39. One effective ampere is that alternating current that will develop the same ____________________ as _________ ___________ of direct current. ________________________________________ 40. In a RLC, the voltage across the capacitor and inductor combination is ______ at resonance. ________________________________________ 41. In a capacitive circuit, the ____________________ leads the ____________________, and the phase angle is ____________________. ________________________________________ 42. For an ac circuit containing capacitance, inductance, and resistance, the current will be a maximum when the frequency of the alternating voltage is equal to the__________ __________. ________________________________________ 43. The power factor is equal to the _____________ of the circuit divided by the ______________. ________________________________________ 44. When the voltage and current reach maximum and minimum values at the same time, they are said to be ________ ____________. ________________________________________ 45. A given inductor has an inductance of one ______________ if an emf of one ______________ is induced by a current changing at the rate of one _________ ____ __________. ________________________________________ 46. In an inductive circuit, an increase in frequency of the applied voltage will ___________________ the effective current. ________________________________________ 47. At resonant frequency, an ac circuit containing resistance, inductance, and capacitance acts as if it contained only ____________________. ________________________________________ 48. A household ac circuit has a 110-V, 60-Hz source of current. The actual voltage varies from ____________________ to ____________________. ________________________________________ 49. At resonance, the ________ _________ and _________ _________ are equal. ________________________________________ 50. The term RC has units of _________. ________________________________________ 51. In a capacitive circuit, the frequency is _______ ______ the resonant frequency for that circuit. ________________________________________ 52. In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the effective power is ________ times _______. ________________________________________ ch32 Key 1. In a purely resistive circuit, the power factor is zero. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #1 2. In an inductive circuit, the current decays to 37 percent of its initial value in a period of one time constant. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #2 3. A capacitor with a breakdown voltage of 150 V would be safe to use in an ac circuit if the ac voltage were only 120 V. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #3 4. Capacitive reactance and inductive reactance increase with an increase in frequency of an alternating current. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #4 5. The effective voltage V in a series ac circuit can be defined as the algebraic sum of V C , V L , and V R . FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #5 6. The power factor in an ac circuit is the ratio of its resistance to its impedance. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #6 7. Under a condition of resonance in an ac circuit, the current will be in phase with the voltage. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #7 8. Reactance, impedance, and resistance are all measured in the same physical unit (ohms). TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #8 9. In a circuit containing pure capacitance, the voltage leads the current by 90°. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #9 10. A negative phase angle occurs when the current leads the voltage in an ac circuit. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #10 11. The resonant frequency increases with the total resistance of the circuit. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #11 12. In an inductive circuit, the phase angle is positive. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #12 13. The maximum voltage entering a house is usually ±120 V. FALSE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #13 14. In a RLC series circuit with a dc source, the impedance is infinite. TRUE Tippens - 032 Chapter... #14 15. A 12-V battery is connected to a 5-Ω resistor and 5-µF capacitor in series. After a long time, what is the potential difference across the resistor? A. 0 B. 2.5 V C. 6 V D. 12 V Tippens - 032 Chapter... #15 16. An alternating voltage has a maximum value of 30 V. The effective value is approximately ____. A. 15 V B. 21.2 V C. 30 V D. 42.9 V Tippens - 032 Chapter... #16 17. As the capacitance in an ac circuit increases, the resonant frequency ____. A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. approaches zero Tippens - 032 Chapter... #17 18. The ratio of the pure resistance in an ac circuit to the impedance is known as the ____. A. power factor B. phase angle C. resonant frequency D. net reactance Tippens - 032 Chapter... #18 19. In a purely capacitive ac circuit, which of the following is true? A. The current and voltage are in phase. B. The voltage leads the current by 90o. C. The current leads the voltage by 90o. D. The power factor is 0.5. Tippens - 032 Chapter... #19 20. In an ac circuit containing a coil with an inductance of 0.3 H, the voltage is 120 V at 60 Hz. If we neglect resistance, the effective current in the coil is ____. A. 0.27 A B. 0.53 A C. 1.06 A D. 2.12 A Tippens - 032 Chapter... #20 21. A 50-W resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12-mF capacitor are connected in series with a 120-V, 60-Hz alternating current. The effective current is approximately ____. A. 2 A B. 4 A C. 6 A D. 8 A Tippens - 032 Chapter... #21 22. An 800-Ω resistor, a 0.6-H inductor, and a 4-µF capacitor are connected in series with a 220-V, 50-Hz source of alternating current. The phase angle is approximately ____. A. -31o B. -37o C. 31o D. 37o Tippens - 032 Chapter... #22 23. A circuit contains a 12-µF capacitor, a 40- Ω resistor, a switch, and a 20-V dc battery connected in series. After the switch is closed, the capacitor can be considered fully charged after ____. A. 0.00048 s B. 0.0012 s C. 0.0024 s D. 0.0048 s Tippens - 032 Chapter... #23 24. A series dc circuit containing a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 µF capacitor is connected to a 120 V, 60.0 Hz source. After a long time, the potential difference across the capacitor is ____. A. 0.0 V. B. 120 V. C. 62 V. D. 0.67 V. Tippens - 032 Chapter... #24 25. In an ac circuit containing only capacitance reactance, the capacitance is 6.0-µF. The source voltage is 120 V at 60-Hz. The current in the circuit is ____. A. 0.27 A B. 0.53 A C. 1.06 A D. 2.12 A Tippens - 032 Chapter... #25 26. A 50-Ω resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12-µF capacitor are connected in series to a 120 V 60 Hz, alternating source. The impedance of the circuit is ___. A. 33.2 Ω B. 59.8 Ω C. 126 Ω D. 189 Ω Tippens - 032 Chapter... #26 27. The resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit depends on ____. A. capacitance only B. inductance, capacitance, and resistance C. inductance and capacitance only D. inductance only Tippens - 032 Chapter... #27 28. The power factor at resonance is ____. A. 0 B. 1 C. infinite D. Tippens - 032 Chapter... #28 29. In a series ac circuit, a negative phase angle indicates ____. A. the capacitive reactance is larger than the inductive reactance B. the inductive reactance is larger than the capacitive reactance C. the inductive reactance is larger than the reactance D. the resistance is larger than the capacitive reactance Tippens - 032 Chapter... #29 30. A series dc circuit containing a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 mH inductor is connected to a 120 V, 60.0 Hz source. After a long time, the potential difference across the inductor is ____. A. 62 V B. 120 V C. 0.0 V D. 58 V Tippens - 032 Chapter... #30 31. A series RLC circuit is operating at its resonance frequency. If the frequency is increased, which of the following will decrease? A. effective current B. phase angle C. impedance D. resistance Tippens - 032 Chapter... #31 32. For an ac series LC circuit, the phase angle will be ____. A. ±45o B. 0o C. ±90o D. 180o Tippens - 032 Chapter... #32 33. The resonant frequency of a RLC circuit is f 0 . What is the new resonant frequency if the resistance, capacitance, and inductance are all doubled? A. f 0 /4. B. f 0 /2. C. f 0 . D. 4f 0 . Tippens - 032 Chapter... #33 34. A 50 Ω resistor, a 0.5-H inductor, and a 12 F capacitor are connected in series to a 120 V 60 Hz, alternating source. The power factor of the circuit is ___. A. 0.84 B. 33 C. 126 D. 240 Tippens - 032 Chapter... #34 35. Which of the following is not a unit for inductance? A. Henry B. (Volt)(sec)/Amp C. (Ω)(sec) D. Volt/sec Tippens - 032 Chapter... #35 36. A series dc circuit contains a 12-Ω resistor and a 350-mH inductor. What is the time constant for the circuit? A. 29.2 ms B. 34.3 ms C. 4.2 s D. 34.3 s Tippens - 032 Chapter... #36 37. A 12-µF capacitor is connected to a 350-Ω resistor and a 12-V battery in series. What is the current in the circuit after 2.1 ms? A. 20.8 mA B. 34.3 mA C. 12.6 mA D. 34.3 s Tippens - 032 Chapter... #37 38. An RLC series circuit with a 25-Ω resistor, 0.35-H inductor, and tunable capacitor is connected to a 120-V, 60-Hz source. What value should the capacitor have to operate at resonance? A. 11.6-µF B. 20.1-µF C. 22.8-µF D. 25.0-µF Tippens - 032 Chapter... #38 39. One effective ampere is that alternating current that will develop the same ____________________ as _________ ___________ of direct current. power, one ampere Tippens - 032 Chapter... #39 40. In a RLC, the voltage across the capacitor and inductor combination is ______ at resonance. zero Tippens - 032 Chapter... #40 41. In a capacitive circuit, the ____________________ leads the ____________________, and the phase angle is ____________________. current, voltage, negative Tippens - 032 Chapter... #41 42. For an ac circuit containing capacitance, inductance, and resistance, the current will be a maximum when the frequency of the alternating voltage is equal to the__________ __________. resonant frequency Tippens - 032 Chapter... #42 43. The power factor is equal to the _____________ of the circuit divided by the ______________. resistance, impedance Tippens - 032 Chapter... #43 44. When the voltage and current reach maximum and minimum values at the same time, they are said to be ________ ____________. in phase Tippens - 032 Chapter... #44 45. A given inductor has an inductance of one ______________ if an emf of one ______________ is induced by a current changing at the rate of one _________ ____ __________. Henry, volt, ampere per second Tippens - 032 Chapter... #45 46. In an inductive circuit, an increase in frequency of the applied voltage will ___________________ the effective current. decrease Tippens - 032 Chapter... #46 47. At resonant frequency, an ac circuit containing resistance, inductance, and capacitance acts as if it contained only ____________________. resistance Tippens - 032 Chapter... #47 48. A household ac circuit has a 110-V, 60-Hz source of current. The actual voltage varies from ____________________ to ____________________. -155, +155 V Tippens - 032 Chapter... #48 49. At resonance, the ________ _________ and _________ _________ are equal. capacitive reactance, inductive reactance. Tippens - 032 Chapter... #49 50. The term RC has units of _________. time Tippens - 032 Chapter... #50 51. In a capacitive circuit, the frequency is _______ ______ the resonant frequency for that circuit. less than Tippens - 032 Chapter... #51 52. In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the effective power is ________ times _______. current, voltage Tippens - 032 Chapter... #52 ch32 Summary Category Tippens - 032 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch33 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Although earlier scientists believed light was transmitted by particles, it is now established that light is a wave phenomenon. True False 2. Electromagnetic radiation is produced by accelerated charges. True False 3. Interference of light waves is explained more easily on the basis of the wave theory of light. True False 4. The propagation of light through outer space is possible because of the presence of a light-carrying ether. True False 5. Reflection of light off a mirror is best explained by the wave theory of light. True False 6. The nanometer is 10 times as large as the angstrom. True False 7. The energy of light is directly proportional to the wavelength. True False 8. Huygen's principle describes light as mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. True False 9. The photoelectric effect occurs when light is emitted as a result of electron bombardment. True False 10. The energy of an ultraviolet photon is greater than the energy of a visible photon. True False 11. In an incandescent light bulb, all the electromagnetic energy emitted is luminous flux. True False 12. If a person on the earth sees a quarter moon, that person must be within the penumbra of its shadow. True False 13. If the distance between a surface and a source of light is increased by a factor of 3, the illumination will be one-ninth of its original value. True False 14. A point source of light will produce only an umbra shadow. True False 15. Since one candela is equal to one lumen per steradian, the units of intensity and illumination are the same. True False 16. The luminous intensity is not dependent on the angle a surface makes with incident flux from a source of light. True False 17. An isotropic source of 1 cd emits a luminous flux of 4p lm. True False 18. The units of flux and luminous intensity have the same physical dimensions, even though they do not represent the same physical quantity. True False 19. A lumen is the luminous flux falling on 1 m2, all points of which are located 1 m from a uniform source of 1 cd. True False 20. The luminous intensity does not change as a surface is moved farther and farther from a light source. True False 21. Blue light travels faster than red light in vacuum. True False 22. If you double the radius of a sphere, the number of steradians in a complete sphere is doubled. True False 23. The sun is an example of an isotropic source of light. True False 24. An observer in the penumbra will see the entire source of light. True False 25. Only the wave theory is appropriate for describing x-ray behavior. True False 26. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic phenomenon? A. Heat rays B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Light 27. Which of the following best applies for yellow light? A. 640 nm B. 0.4 nm C. 5 × 1014 Hz D. 580 A 28. The man most responsible for explaining the photoelectric effect was ____. A. Einstein B. Planck C. Huygens D. Maxwell 29. The wavelength corresponding to light with a frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz is ____. A. 1.33 m B. 0.075 mm C. 7500 nm D. 750 nm 30. A radio frequency of 780 kHz has a wavelength of approximately ____. A. 38 m B. 385 m C. 0.0026 m D. 26 nm 31. The theory that light is emitted in discrete amounts of energy rather than in a continuous fashion is known as ____. A. the photoelectric effect B. the quantum theory C. Huygen's principle D. the electromagnetic theory 32. The moon is located approximately 240,000 mi from the earth. A radio signal will reach the earth from the moon in ____. A. 1.3 min B. 0.775 s C. 1.29 s D. 0.7 min 33. If Planck's constant is h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js, what energy is associated with light with a wavelength of 160 nm? A. 1.24 × 10-18 J B. 1.88 × 1015J C. 1.24 × 10-15 J D. 1.88 × 10-15 J 34. Which of the following cannot produce electromagnetic radiation? A. an electron moving with a constant velocity in a wire B. an electron moving up and down in a wire C. a proton moving in a circle D. a proton de-accelerated 35. Which of the following terms best describes the nature of light from the modern point of view? A. Photons B. Waves C. Particles D. Rays 36. Which of the following light sources of equal radiant power appears brightest? A. Red light B. Green light C. Blue light D. All are the same 37. What is the energy of red light with wavelength 632 nm? A. 1.27 × 10-21 J B. 3.15 × 10-19 J C. 7.56 × 10-19 J D. 1.25 × 10-20 J 38. What is the luminous flux emitted by a 30-cd isotropic source of light? A. 30 lm B. 4 lm C. 2.4 lm D. 120π lm 39. A 200-cd lamp is 4 m directly above a surface. The illumination is approximately ____. A. 12.5 lm/m2 B. 25 lm/m2 C. 50 lm/m2 D. 80 lm/m2 40. What angle should a surface make with the incident flux if the illumination of a surface is to be reduced by a factor of one-half? A. 30o B. 45o C. 60o D. 90o 41. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing wavelength? A. infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays B. infrared, ultraviolet, visible, x-rays C. ultraviolet, x-rays, visible, infrared D. x-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared 42. What solid angle is subtended at the center of a 8.4 cm radius sphere by a 15 cm2 area on its surface? A. 0.126 sr B. 126 sr C. 0.21 sr D. 2100 sr 43. Luminous flux is associated most closely with ____. A. the source B. the surface C. the space between the source and the surface D. none of these 44. A movie screen is 10 m from a light source in a projector. The screen makes an angle of 37o with the incident flux. What luminous intensity is required to give an illumination of 6 lx? A. 75.1 cd B. 751 cd C. 890 cd D. 997 cd 45. A 200-cd light provides an illumination of 50 lx at a distance of ____. A. 1 m B. 2 m C. 3 m D. 4 m 46. When waves spread out around the edge of a barrier, ____ occurs. A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction D. resonance 47. Light is a(n) ____ wave. A. compressional B. electromagnetic C. mechanical D. longitudinal 48. Violet light has a wavelength of about ____. A. 0.4 mm B. 500 nm C. 700 nm D. 0.2 mm 49. The wavelength of red light is ____. A. 500 nm B. 0.2 mm C. 700 nm D. 0.4 mm 50. The ____ of light is a defined value. A. wavelength B. speed C. frequency D. amplitude 51. What is the total flux emitted by a 15-cd isotropic source of light? A. 15 lm B. 60 lm C. 45 lm D. 190 lm 52. Illuminance directly under a small light source is ____. A. indirectly proportional to luminous flux B. directly proportional to 4πd2 C. indirectly proportional to luminous intensity D. directly proportional to luminous flux 53. Which of the following is not an isotropic source of light? A. sun B. star C. match D. flashlight 54. A photon of infrared light has a wavelength that is ten times longer than a photon of green light. The energy of the infrared photon is ____ times the energy of the green photon. A. 100 B. 10 C. 0.1 D. 1.0 55. The human eye is most sensitive to ____. A. blue light B. green light C. red light D. all visible light equally 56. What is the wavelength of a radar wave of frequency 17,500 MHz? A. 5.89 µm B. 1.71 cm C. 5.25 cm D. 525 m 57. What is the energy of a radar wave of wavelength 2.0 cm? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 1.50 × 10-2 eV B. 9.35 × 10-4 eV C. 6.21 × 10-5 eV D. 1.27 eV 58. Which of the following correctly describes electromagnetic waves? A. longitudinal electric and magnetic fields one-half cycle out of phase B. longitudinal electric and magnetic fields in phase C. transverse electric and magnetic fields one-half cycle out of phase D. transverse electric and magnetic fields in phase 59. Which of the following is not a unit for luminous intensity? A. candela B. lumen/steradian C. lux 60. Which of the following is not a unit for illumination? A. candela/m2 B. lumens/m2 C. lux D. candela 61. A particular star is 2.34 × 1014 km from the earth. Approximately how long does it take the light from the star to reach earth? A. 920 yrs B. 25 yrs C. 920 min D. 25 min 62. A point source of light is 25 cm from an upright 8 cm ruler. What length shadow is formed on a wall 75 cm from the pencil? A. 18 cm B. 32 cm C. 55 cm D. 64 cm 63. Four squares equal in size are painted different colors. Which color square gives the greatest luminous flux? A. blue B. violet C. green D. red 64. What is the luminous flux of a 555 nm, 15 W monochromatic source? A. 1.02 × 104 lm B. 3.77 × 105 lm C. 8.32 × 103 lm D. 5.87 × 103 lm 65. Every point on an advancing wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary ____________________. This is known as _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 66. The ____________________ is a unit of wavelength that is equal to one ten-thousandth of a micrometer. ________________________________________ 67. Electromagnetic radiation of immediately higher energy than visible light is called ____________________ radiation. ________________________________________ 68. Electromagnetic radiation is produced by ______________. ________________________________________ 69. The conversion factor relating light frequency to light energy is known as __________ __________. ________________________________________ 70. The bending of light around obstacles is known as _____________. ________________________________________ 71. The process by which light is emitted when electrons strike a metallic surface is known as the __________ __________. ________________________________________ 72. The behavior of either the magnetic or electric field in an electromagnetic wave is _________. ________________________________________ 73. The energy of a photon is __________ __________ to its wavelength. ________________________________________ 74. Light energy is divided equally between ____________________ and ____________________ fields, which are mutually perpendicular. ________________________________________ 75. One ____________________ is equivalent to 1/680 W of yellow-green light of wavelength ____________________. ________________________________________ 76. The inner portion of a shadow that receives no light from the source is called the ____________________. The other region is known as the ____________________. ________________________________________ 77. The luminous flux per unit solid angle is known as the __________ __________ and is measured in ____________________. ________________________________________ 78. The wavelength range of electromagnetic energy responsible for luminous flux is from _______ to ____ nm. ________________________________________ 79. A grease-spot photometer is used to measure ____________________ by comparison with a standard source. ________________________________________ 80. A ____________________ is the solid angle subtended at the center of a sphere by an area on its surface that is equal to the square of its ____________________. ________________________________________ 81. The ____________________ of a surface is proportional to the luminous intensity of the light source and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. This is sometimes called the __________-__________ law. ________________________________________ 82. When a surface makes an angle with the incident flux, the ____________________ is proportional to the component of the surface ____________________ to the flux. ________________________________________ 83. A(n) ____________________ source is one that emits light uniformly in all directions. ________________________________________ 84. The _________ ___________ is part of the total radiant power emitted from a light source that is capable of affecting the sense of sight. ________________________________________ 85. _____ millimeter contains 106 nanometers. ________________________________________ 86. According to Bohr's model of the atom, the energies of electrons in an atom are ___________ or discrete. ________________________________________ 87. Rays are always drawn _____ to wavefronts. ________________________________________ 88. The solid angle for any isotropic source is ______ π steradians. ________________________________________ 89. The illumination of a surface is defined as the ________ per _________. ________________________________________ ch33 Key 1. Although earlier scientists believed light was transmitted by particles, it is now established that light is a wave phenomenon. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #1 2. Electromagnetic radiation is produced by accelerated charges. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #2 3. Interference of light waves is explained more easily on the basis of the wave theory of light. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #3 4. The propagation of light through outer space is possible because of the presence of a light-carrying ether. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #4 5. Reflection of light off a mirror is best explained by the wave theory of light. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #5 6. The nanometer is 10 times as large as the angstrom. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #6 7. The energy of light is directly proportional to the wavelength. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #7 8. Huygen's principle describes light as mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #8 9. The photoelectric effect occurs when light is emitted as a result of electron bombardment. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #9 10. The energy of an ultraviolet photon is greater than the energy of a visible photon. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #10 11. In an incandescent light bulb, all the electromagnetic energy emitted is luminous flux. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #11 12. If a person on the earth sees a quarter moon, that person must be within the penumbra of its shadow. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #12 13. If the distance between a surface and a source of light is increased by a factor of 3, the illumination will be one-ninth of its original value. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #13 14. A point source of light will produce only an umbra shadow. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #14 15. Since one candela is equal to one lumen per steradian, the units of intensity and illumination are the same. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #15 16. The luminous intensity is not dependent on the angle a surface makes with incident flux from a source of light. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #16 17. An isotropic source of 1 cd emits a luminous flux of 4p lm. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #17 18. The units of flux and luminous intensity have the same physical dimensions, even though they do not represent the same physical quantity. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #18 19. A lumen is the luminous flux falling on 1 m2, all points of which are located 1 m from a uniform source of 1 cd. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #19 20. The luminous intensity does not change as a surface is moved farther and farther from a light source. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #20 21. Blue light travels faster than red light in vacuum. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #21 22. If you double the radius of a sphere, the number of steradians in a complete sphere is doubled. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #22 23. The sun is an example of an isotropic source of light. TRUE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #23 24. An observer in the penumbra will see the entire source of light. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #24 25. Only the wave theory is appropriate for describing x-ray behavior. FALSE Tippens - 033 Chapter... #25 26. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic phenomenon? A. Heat rays B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Light Tippens - 033 Chapter... #26 27. Which of the following best applies for yellow light? A. 640 nm B. 0.4 nm C. 5 × 1014 Hz D. 580 A Tippens - 033 Chapter... #27 28. The man most responsible for explaining the photoelectric effect was ____. A. Einstein B. Planck C. Huygens D. Maxwell Tippens - 033 Chapter... #28 29. The wavelength corresponding to light with a frequency of 4 × 1014 Hz is ____. A. 1.33 m B. 0.075 mm C. 7500 nm D. 750 nm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #29 30. A radio frequency of 780 kHz has a wavelength of approximately ____. A. 38 m B. 385 m C. 0.0026 m D. 26 nm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #30 31. The theory that light is emitted in discrete amounts of energy rather than in a continuous fashion is known as ____. A. the photoelectric effect B. the quantum theory C. Huygen's principle D. the electromagnetic theory Tippens - 033 Chapter... #31 32. The moon is located approximately 240,000 mi from the earth. A radio signal will reach the earth from the moon in ____. A. 1.3 min B. 0.775 s C. 1.29 s D. 0.7 min Tippens - 033 Chapter... #32 33. If Planck's constant is h = 6.626 × 10-34 Js, what energy is associated with light with a wavelength of 160 nm? A. 1.24 × 10-18 J B. 1.88 × 1015J C. 1.24 × 10-15 J D. 1.88 × 10-15 J Tippens - 033 Chapter... #33 34. Which of the following cannot produce electromagnetic radiation? A. an electron moving with a constant velocity in a wire B. an electron moving up and down in a wire C. a proton moving in a circle D. a proton de-accelerated Tippens - 033 Chapter... #34 35. Which of the following terms best describes the nature of light from the modern point of view? A. Photons B. Waves C. Particles D. Rays Tippens - 033 Chapter... #35 36. Which of the following light sources of equal radiant power appears brightest? A. Red light B. Green light C. Blue light D. All are the same Tippens - 033 Chapter... #36 37. What is the energy of red light with wavelength 632 nm? A. 1.27 × 10-21 J B. 3.15 × 10-19 J C. 7.56 × 10-19 J D. 1.25 × 10-20 J Tippens - 033 Chapter... #37 38. What is the luminous flux emitted by a 30-cd isotropic source of light? A. 30 lm B. 4 lm C. 2.4 lm D. 120π lm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #38 39. A 200-cd lamp is 4 m directly above a surface. The illumination is approximately ____. A. 12.5 lm/m2 B. 25 lm/m2 C. 50 lm/m2 D. 80 lm/m2 Tippens - 033 Chapter... #39 40. What angle should a surface make with the incident flux if the illumination of a surface is to be reduced by a factor of one-half? A. 30o B. 45o C. 60o D. 90o Tippens - 033 Chapter... #40 41. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing wavelength? A. infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x-rays B. infrared, ultraviolet, visible, x-rays C. ultraviolet, x-rays, visible, infrared D. x-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared Tippens - 033 Chapter... #41 42. What solid angle is subtended at the center of a 8.4 cm radius sphere by a 15 cm2 area on its surface? A. 0.126 sr B. 126 sr C. 0.21 sr D. 2100 sr Tippens - 033 Chapter... #42 43. Luminous flux is associated most closely with ____. A. the source B. the surface C. the space between the source and the surface D. none of these Tippens - 033 Chapter... #43 44. A movie screen is 10 m from a light source in a projector. The screen makes an angle of 37o with the incident flux. What luminous intensity is required to give an illumination of 6 lx? A. 75.1 cd B. 751 cd C. 890 cd D. 997 cd Tippens - 033 Chapter... #44 45. A 200-cd light provides an illumination of 50 lx at a distance of ____. A. 1 m B. 2 m C. 3 m D. 4 m Tippens - 033 Chapter... #45 46. When waves spread out around the edge of a barrier, ____ occurs. A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction D. resonance Tippens - 033 Chapter... #46 47. Light is a(n) ____ wave. A. compressional B. electromagnetic C. mechanical D. longitudinal Tippens - 033 Chapter... #47 48. Violet light has a wavelength of about ____. A. 0.4 mm B. 500 nm C. 700 nm D. 0.2 mm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #48 49. The wavelength of red light is ____. A. 500 nm B. 0.2 mm C. 700 nm D. 0.4 mm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #49 50. The ____ of light is a defined value. A. wavelength B. speed C. frequency D. amplitude Tippens - 033 Chapter... #50 51. What is the total flux emitted by a 15-cd isotropic source of light? A. 15 lm B. 60 lm C. 45 lm D. 190 lm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #51 52. Illuminance directly under a small light source is ____. A. indirectly proportional to luminous flux B. directly proportional to 4πd2 C. indirectly proportional to luminous intensity D. directly proportional to luminous flux Tippens - 033 Chapter... #52 53. Which of the following is not an isotropic source of light? A. sun B. star C. match D. flashlight Tippens - 033 Chapter... #53 54. A photon of infrared light has a wavelength that is ten times longer than a photon of green light. The energy of the infrared photon is ____ times the energy of the green photon. A. 100 B. 10 C. 0.1 D. 1.0 Tippens - 033 Chapter... #54 55. The human eye is most sensitive to ____. A. blue light B. green light C. red light D. all visible light equally Tippens - 033 Chapter... #55 56. What is the wavelength of a radar wave of frequency 17,500 MHz? A. 5.89 µm B. 1.71 cm C. 5.25 cm D. 525 m Tippens - 033 Chapter... #56 57. What is the energy of a radar wave of wavelength 2.0 cm? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 1.50 × 10-2 eV B. 9.35 × 10-4 eV C. 6.21 × 10-5 eV D. 1.27 eV Tippens - 033 Chapter... #57 58. Which of the following correctly describes electromagnetic waves? A. longitudinal electric and magnetic fields one-half cycle out of phase B. longitudinal electric and magnetic fields in phase C. transverse electric and magnetic fields one-half cycle out of phase D. transverse electric and magnetic fields in phase Tippens - 033 Chapter... #58 59. Which of the following is not a unit for luminous intensity? A. candela B. lumen/steradian C. lux Tippens - 033 Chapter... #59 60. Which of the following is not a unit for illumination? A. candela/m2 B. lumens/m2 C. lux D. candela Tippens - 033 Chapter... #60 61. A particular star is 2.34 × 1014 km from the earth. Approximately how long does it take the light from the star to reach earth? A. 920 yrs B. 25 yrs C. 920 min D. 25 min Tippens - 033 Chapter... #61 62. A point source of light is 25 cm from an upright 8 cm ruler. What length shadow is formed on a wall 75 cm from the pencil? A. 18 cm B. 32 cm C. 55 cm D. 64 cm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #62 63. Four squares equal in size are painted different colors. Which color square gives the greatest luminous flux? A. blue B. violet C. green D. red Tippens - 033 Chapter... #63 64. What is the luminous flux of a 555 nm, 15 W monochromatic source? A. 1.02 × 104 lm B. 3.77 × 105 lm C. 8.32 × 103 lm D. 5.87 × 103 lm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #64 65. Every point on an advancing wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary ____________________. This is known as _________ ___________. wavelets, Huygen's principle Tippens - 033 Chapter... #65 66. The ____________________ is a unit of wavelength that is equal to one ten-thousandth of a micrometer. Angstrom Tippens - 033 Chapter... #66 67. Electromagnetic radiation of immediately higher energy than visible light is called ____________________ radiation. ultraviolet Tippens - 033 Chapter... #67 68. Electromagnetic radiation is produced by ______________. accelerated charges Tippens - 033 Chapter... #68 69. The conversion factor relating light frequency to light energy is known as __________ __________. Planck's constant Tippens - 033 Chapter... #69 70. The bending of light around obstacles is known as _____________. diffraction Tippens - 033 Chapter... #70 71. The process by which light is emitted when electrons strike a metallic surface is known as the __________ __________. photoelectric effect Tippens - 033 Chapter... #71 72. The behavior of either the magnetic or electric field in an electromagnetic wave is _________. oscillatory Tippens - 033 Chapter... #72 73. The energy of a photon is __________ __________ to its wavelength. inversely proportional Tippens - 033 Chapter... #73 74. Light energy is divided equally between ____________________ and ____________________ fields, which are mutually perpendicular. electric, magnetic Tippens - 033 Chapter... #74 75. One ____________________ is equivalent to 1/680 W of yellow-green light of wavelength ____________________. lumen, 555 nm Tippens - 033 Chapter... #75 76. The inner portion of a shadow that receives no light from the source is called the ____________________. The other region is known as the ____________________. umbra, penumbra Tippens - 033 Chapter... #76 77. The luminous flux per unit solid angle is known as the __________ __________ and is measured in ____________________. luminous intensity, candelas Tippens - 033 Chapter... #77 78. The wavelength range of electromagnetic energy responsible for luminous flux is from _______ to ____ nm. 400, 700 Tippens - 033 Chapter... #78 79. A grease-spot photometer is used to measure ____________________ by comparison with a standard source. intensity Tippens - 033 Chapter... #79 80. A ____________________ is the solid angle subtended at the center of a sphere by an area on its surface that is equal to the square of its ____________________. Steradian, radius Tippens - 033 Chapter... #80 81. The ____________________ of a surface is proportional to the luminous intensity of the light source and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. This is sometimes called the __________-__________ law. illumination, inverse-square Tippens - 033 Chapter... #81 82. When a surface makes an angle with the incident flux, the ____________________ is proportional to the component of the surface ____________________ to the flux. illumination, perpendicular Tippens - 033 Chapter... #82 83. A(n) ____________________ source is one that emits light uniformly in all directions. isotropic Tippens - 033 Chapter... #83 84. The _________ ___________ is part of the total radiant power emitted from a light source that is capable of affecting the sense of sight. luminous flux Tippens - 033 Chapter... #84 85. _____ millimeter contains 106 nanometers. One Tippens - 033 Chapter... #85 86. According to Bohr's model of the atom, the energies of electrons in an atom are ___________ or discrete. quantized Tippens - 033 Chapter... #86 87. Rays are always drawn _____ to wavefronts. perpendicular Tippens - 033 Chapter... #87 88. The solid angle for any isotropic source is ______ π steradians. 4 Tippens - 033 Chapter... #88 89. The illumination of a surface is defined as the ________ per _________. luminous flux, unit area Tippens - 033 Chapter... #89 ch33 Summary Category Tippens - 033 Chapter... # of Questions 89 ch34 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A negative magnification results whenever the image is virtual. True False 2. A virtual image cannot be formed on a screen. True False 3. Images formed by convex spherical mirrors are always virtual, erect, and enlarged. True False 4. For concave spherical mirrors, the magnification is always greater than 1 when the object is located between the center of curvature and the focal point. True False 5. A plane mirror forms real images. True False 6. Objects moving closer and closer to the vertex of a convex mirror form smaller and smaller images. True False 7. In a concave shaving mirror, greater magnification is achieved when the object is closer to the focal point. True False 8. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is zero. True False 9. A ray parallel to the mirror axis passes through the center of curvature after reflection from a converging mirror. True False 10. The laws of reflection are derived from the wave nature of light. True False 11. The effects of spherical aberrations are more apparent in spherical mirrors with large linear apertures. True False 12. Rays from the center of curvature are reflected along its original path. True False 13. The field of view is large for convex mirrors. True False 14. For a spherical concave mirror, virtual images are formed when the object is located ____. A. between the focal length and the center of curvature B. beyond the center of curvature C. at the center of curvature D. inside the center of curvature 15. Which of the following is not true when an image is formed by an object located between C and F of a concave mirror? A. Negative magnification B. Negative image distance C. Inverted image D. Enlarged image 16. Find the magnification of an image formed if an object is 8 cm from a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 12 cm. A. +0.43 B. -0.43 C. -24 D. +24 17. Which of the following is not true for images formed by a plane mirror? A. Magnification is +1 B. Image distance is negative C. Right and left are reversed D. Images are real 18. A source of light 12 cm high is placed 50 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 100 cm. The image distance is ____. A. -100 cm B. +100 cm C. +50 cm D. -50 cm 19. An object is placed 10 cm from the vertex of a convex spherical mirror whose radius is 20 cm. The magnification is ____. A. +0.667 B. -0.667 C. +1/2 D. -1/2 20. A 6-ft person stands 20 ft from a plane mirror. The shortest mirror required to view the entire image is ____. A. 3 ft B. 6 ft C. 9 ft D. 12 ft 21. At what distance must an object be placed to form an image on a screen 30 cm from the vertex of a mirror whose radius is 20 cm? A. 20 cm B. 15 cm C. 10 cm D. 5 cm 22. The magnification of a mirror is -1/3. What is the image distance when an object is placed 24 cm from this mirror? A. 8 cm B. -8 cm C. 12 cm D. -12 cm 23. What should be the object distance for a concave shaving mirror of radius 3.2 m to form an erect image twice as large as the object? A. 80 cm B. 1.6 m C. 2.4 m D. 3.2 m 24. When light from the air enters a body of water, some of the energy moves back into the air as a(n) ____ wave. A. incident B. transmitted C. sound D. reflected 25. The ____ states that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. A. principle of refraction B. principle of superposition C. law of reflection D. law of standing waves 26. According to the law of reflection, ____. A. light rays are reflected in the same direction from a smooth surface B. the angles of reflection and incidence are equal C. the incident ray and the reflected ray are in different planes D. the normal is parallel to the angle of reflection 27. Which of the following is not true of plane mirrors and the images they form? A. A virtual image is formed at the same distance behind the mirror that the object is in front of the mirror. B. The light rays intersect at a point behind the mirror to form a real erect image. C. The virtual image that forms is the same size as the actual object. D. The angles of reflection and incidence are equal. 28. From which of the following surfaces would light rays undergo regular reflection? A. sandpaper B. a piece of black cloth C. a concrete sidewalk D. a telescope mirror 29. For very small angles, the focal length of a concave mirror is ____. A. equal to the radius of the mirror B. equal to twice the radius of the mirror C. two times the length of the principal axis D. half the distance between the center of curvature and the mirror's surface 30. A 2 cm high object is 12 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm. Find the size of the image. A. 1 cm B. 2 cm C. 4 cm D. 8 cm 31. A real image is formed when ____. A. rays farthest from the principal axis meet at the mirror's surface B. light rays converge and pass through the image C. the image cannot be projected onto a screen D. light rays seem to diverge from behind the mirror 32. If an object is located between the focal point and a concave mirror, the image formed will be ____ than the object. A. virtual and smaller B. real and larger C. real and smaller D. virtual and larger 33. Which of the following is not true of a convex mirror? A. It forms real images. B. The focal length of the mirror is negative. C. It reflects light from its outer surface. D. The focal point is behind the mirror. 34. You are 15 cm from the center of a Christmas ball 5.0 cm in radius. Where is your image relative to the center of the ball? A. 2.14 cm inside the ball B. 2.14 cm outside the ball C. 2.86 cm inside the ball D. 2.86 cm outside the ball 35. A 2 cm object placed 12 cm from a spherical mirror gives a virtual image 8 cm tall. What is the focal length of the mirror? A. -9.6 cm B. +9.6 cm C. -16 cm D. +16 cm 36. Which of the following is false? A. Highly polished surfaces form images by specular reflection. B. Diffuse reflection does not obey the law of reflection. C. Images formed by mirrors are right-left reversed. D. Plane mirrors always form virtual images. 37. A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an object is placed 18 cm in front of it the image position is ______________. A. 7.2 cm behind the mirror B. 7.2 cm in front of the mirror C. 36 cm behind the mirror D. 36 cm in front of the mirror 38. A convex mirror produces an erect image 1/4 the size of the object. The magnitude of the radius of curvature is 20 cm. What is the image distance? A. -7.5 cm B. +7.5 cm C. -36 cm D. +36 cm 39. How far away from a pencil is its image if the pencil is 2 ft from a plane mirror? A. 0.5 ft B. 2 ft C. 4 ft D. 8 ft 40. A pencil 5 cm long is placed 100 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length +50 cm. The image is _____________. A. 2.5 cm long and erect B. 2.5cm long and inverted C. 5.0 cm long and erect D. 5.0 cm long and inverted 41. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is equal to _______ ____ _______ ________. ________________________________________ 42. All images formed by convex mirrors are _______________, _______________, and _____________ in size. ________________________________________ 43. In a ___________ shaped mirror, spherical aberrations are minimized. ________________________________________ 44. A magnification less than 0 but greater than -1 means that the image is ____________________ than the object in size and is also ____________________. ________________________________________ 45. When an object is placed inside the focus of a concave mirror, the image is ___________________, ____________________, and ____________________ in size. ________________________________________ 46. The magnification is equal to the ratio of the _________ ___________ to the __________ __________ and will be _______________ for erect images and ________________ for inverted images. ________________________________________ 47. When an object is located at the focal point of a concave mirror, all reflected rays are ____________________. ________________________________________ 48. A ray that proceeds toward the focal point of a concave mirror is reflected ________ ____ _____ _________ ________. ________________________________________ 49. Light reflection from a highly polished surface is ___________________ reflection. ________________________________________ 50. The effects of _________ aberrations are more apparent in large mirrors. ________________________________________ ch34 Key 1. A negative magnification results whenever the image is virtual. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #1 2. A virtual image cannot be formed on a screen. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #2 3. Images formed by convex spherical mirrors are always virtual, erect, and enlarged. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #3 4. For concave spherical mirrors, the magnification is always greater than 1 when the object is located between the center of curvature and the focal point. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #4 5. A plane mirror forms real images. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #5 6. Objects moving closer and closer to the vertex of a convex mirror form smaller and smaller images. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #6 7. In a concave shaving mirror, greater magnification is achieved when the object is closer to the focal point. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #7 8. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is zero. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #8 9. A ray parallel to the mirror axis passes through the center of curvature after reflection from a converging mirror. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #9 10. The laws of reflection are derived from the wave nature of light. FALSE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #10 11. The effects of spherical aberrations are more apparent in spherical mirrors with large linear apertures. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #11 12. Rays from the center of curvature are reflected along its original path. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #12 13. The field of view is large for convex mirrors. TRUE Tippens - 034 Chapter... #13 14. For a spherical concave mirror, virtual images are formed when the object is located ____. A. between the focal length and the center of curvature B. beyond the center of curvature C. at the center of curvature D. inside the center of curvature Tippens - 034 Chapter... #14 15. Which of the following is not true when an image is formed by an object located between C and F of a concave mirror? A. Negative magnification B. Negative image distance C. Inverted image D. Enlarged image Tippens - 034 Chapter... #15 16. Find the magnification of an image formed if an object is 8 cm from a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 12 cm. A. +0.43 B. -0.43 C. -24 D. +24 Tippens - 034 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following is not true for images formed by a plane mirror? A. Magnification is +1 B. Image distance is negative C. Right and left are reversed D. Images are real Tippens - 034 Chapter... #17 18. A source of light 12 cm high is placed 50 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 100 cm. The image distance is ____. A. -100 cm B. +100 cm C. +50 cm D. -50 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #18 19. An object is placed 10 cm from the vertex of a convex spherical mirror whose radius is 20 cm. The magnification is ____. A. +0.667 B. -0.667 C. +1/2 D. -1/2 Tippens - 034 Chapter... #19 20. A 6-ft person stands 20 ft from a plane mirror. The shortest mirror required to view the entire image is ____. A. 3 ft B. 6 ft C. 9 ft D. 12 ft Tippens - 034 Chapter... #20 21. At what distance must an object be placed to form an image on a screen 30 cm from the vertex of a mirror whose radius is 20 cm? A. 20 cm B. 15 cm C. 10 cm D. 5 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #21 22. The magnification of a mirror is -1/3. What is the image distance when an object is placed 24 cm from this mirror? A. 8 cm B. -8 cm C. 12 cm D. -12 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #22 23. What should be the object distance for a concave shaving mirror of radius 3.2 m to form an erect image twice as large as the object? A. 80 cm B. 1.6 m C. 2.4 m D. 3.2 m Tippens - 034 Chapter... #23 24. When light from the air enters a body of water, some of the energy moves back into the air as a(n) ____ wave. A. incident B. transmitted C. sound D. reflected Tippens - 034 Chapter... #24 25. The ____ states that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection. A. principle of refraction B. principle of superposition C. law of reflection D. law of standing waves Tippens - 034 Chapter... #25 26. According to the law of reflection, ____. A. light rays are reflected in the same direction from a smooth surface B. the angles of reflection and incidence are equal C. the incident ray and the reflected ray are in different planes D. the normal is parallel to the angle of reflection Tippens - 034 Chapter... #26 27. Which of the following is not true of plane mirrors and the images they form? A. A virtual image is formed at the same distance behind the mirror that the object is in front of the mirror. B. The light rays intersect at a point behind the mirror to form a real erect image. C. The virtual image that forms is the same size as the actual object. D. The angles of reflection and incidence are equal. Tippens - 034 Chapter... #27 28. From which of the following surfaces would light rays undergo regular reflection? A. sandpaper B. a piece of black cloth C. a concrete sidewalk D. a telescope mirror Tippens - 034 Chapter... #28 29. For very small angles, the focal length of a concave mirror is ____. A. equal to the radius of the mirror B. equal to twice the radius of the mirror C. two times the length of the principal axis D. half the distance between the center of curvature and the mirror's surface Tippens - 034 Chapter... #29 30. A 2 cm high object is 12 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm. Find the size of the image. A. 1 cm B. 2 cm C. 4 cm D. 8 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #30 31. A real image is formed when ____. A. rays farthest from the principal axis meet at the mirror's surface B. light rays converge and pass through the image C. the image cannot be projected onto a screen D. light rays seem to diverge from behind the mirror Tippens - 034 Chapter... #31 32. If an object is located between the focal point and a concave mirror, the image formed will be ____ than the object. A. virtual and smaller B. real and larger C. real and smaller D. virtual and larger Tippens - 034 Chapter... #32 33. Which of the following is not true of a convex mirror? A. It forms real images. B. The focal length of the mirror is negative. C. It reflects light from its outer surface. D. The focal point is behind the mirror. Tippens - 034 Chapter... #33 34. You are 15 cm from the center of a Christmas ball 5.0 cm in radius. Where is your image relative to the center of the ball? A. 2.14 cm inside the ball B. 2.14 cm outside the ball C. 2.86 cm inside the ball D. 2.86 cm outside the ball Tippens - 034 Chapter... #34 35. A 2 cm object placed 12 cm from a spherical mirror gives a virtual image 8 cm tall. What is the focal length of the mirror? A. -9.6 cm B. +9.6 cm C. -16 cm D. +16 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #35 36. Which of the following is false? A. Highly polished surfaces form images by specular reflection. B. Diffuse reflection does not obey the law of reflection. C. Images formed by mirrors are right-left reversed. D. Plane mirrors always form virtual images. Tippens - 034 Chapter... #36 37. A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an object is placed 18 cm in front of it the image position is ______________. A. 7.2 cm behind the mirror B. 7.2 cm in front of the mirror C. 36 cm behind the mirror D. 36 cm in front of the mirror Tippens - 034 Chapter... #37 38. A convex mirror produces an erect image 1/4 the size of the object. The magnitude of the radius of curvature is 20 cm. What is the image distance? A. -7.5 cm B. +7.5 cm C. -36 cm D. +36 cm Tippens - 034 Chapter... #38 39. How far away from a pencil is its image if the pencil is 2 ft from a plane mirror? A. 0.5 ft B. 2 ft C. 4 ft D. 8 ft Tippens - 034 Chapter... #39 40. A pencil 5 cm long is placed 100 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length +50 cm. The image is _____________. A. 2.5 cm long and erect B. 2.5cm long and inverted C. 5.0 cm long and erect D. 5.0 cm long and inverted Tippens - 034 Chapter... #40 41. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is equal to _______ ____ _______ ________. twice the focal length Tippens - 034 Chapter... #41 42. All images formed by convex mirrors are _______________, _______________, and _____________ in size. virtual, erect, demagnified Tippens - 034 Chapter... #42 43. In a ___________ shaped mirror, spherical aberrations are minimized. parabolic Tippens - 034 Chapter... #43 44. A magnification less than 0 but greater than -1 means that the image is ____________________ than the object in size and is also ____________________. smaller, inverted Tippens - 034 Chapter... #44 45. When an object is placed inside the focus of a concave mirror, the image is ___________________, ____________________, and ____________________ in size. virtual, erect, enlarged Tippens - 034 Chapter... #45 46. The magnification is equal to the ratio of the _________ ___________ to the __________ __________ and will be _______________ for erect images and ________________ for inverted images. image size, object size, positive, negative Tippens - 034 Chapter... #46 47. When an object is located at the focal point of a concave mirror, all reflected rays are ____________________. parallel Tippens - 034 Chapter... #47 48. A ray that proceeds toward the focal point of a concave mirror is reflected ________ ____ _____ _________ ________. parallel to the mirror axis Tippens - 034 Chapter... #48 49. Light reflection from a highly polished surface is ___________________ reflection. specular or regular Tippens - 034 Chapter... #49 50. The effects of _________ aberrations are more apparent in large mirrors. spherical Tippens - 034 Chapter... #50 ch34 Summary Category Tippens - 034 Chapter... # of Questions 50 ch35 2 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When light enters from a medium of lower refractive index into a medium of larger refractive index, the path of the light bends toward the normal. True False 2. A light ray in air enters a glass plate with parallel faces. When it exits the plate, the light ray is parallel to the incident ray but displaced sideways. True False 3. Objects of higher optical density have greater critical angles. True False 4. When white light is dispersed by a prism, the smaller-wavelength components are deviated the most. True False 5. For total internal reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. True False 6. When an object in air is viewed from a position under water, the object appears to be farther away than it actually is. True False 7. Whenever light enters a denser medium, both the velocity and frequency of the light are reduced. True False 8. The index of refraction of a material is a measure of its optical density. True False 9. The critical angle for right-angle prisms should not exceed 45o. True False 10. The lateral displacement of light as it passes through a pane of glass is greater when the optical density of the glass is large. True False 11. The phenomenon known as total internal reflection occurs only when light travels from a low n material to a high n material. True False 12. At an interface, light always bends towards the normal. True False 13. Reflection of light off the surface of water is the main reason for the apparent depth phenomenon. True False 14. The speed of light in quartz is 1.95 × 108 m/s. What is its index of refraction? A. 0.66 B. 1.54 C. 1.33 D. 2.17 15. The index of refraction for a substance is ____. A. constant B. constant for a given wavelength C. variable with the speed of light D. never constant 16. Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is ____. A. greater than the angle of refraction B. equal to the critical angle C. greater than the critical angle D. greater than 45o 17. The refractive index of benzene is 1.5. The velocity of light in benzene is approximately ____. A. 1.5 × 108 m/s B. 1.75 × 108 m/s C. 2 × 108 m/s D. 2.5 × 108 m/s 18. Light passes at an angle of incidence of 37° from water to air. The angle of refraction in the air is approximately ____. A. 27° B. 53° C. 45° D. 60° 19. Monochromatic green light has a wavelength of 520 nm. The wavelength of this light inside glass of refractive index 1.5 is approximately ____. A. 300 nm B. 340 nm C. 520 nm D. 780 nm 20. The critical angle for diamond (n = 2.42) surrounded by air is approximately ____. A. 24o B. 35o C. 45o D. 66o 21. A fish is located 2 m from the surface of a small pond. The apparent depth is ____. A. 1.0 m B. 1.5 m C. 2.0 m D. 2.66 m 22. Light is incident from water at an angle of 60o into a transparent medium. If the angle of refraction is 30o, the index for the medium is ____. A. 1.15 B. 1.5 C. 2.3 D. 3.1 23. Light travels from air at an angle of incidence of 41o. What will the speed of light in the second medium be if the angle of refraction is 30o? A. 1.5 × 108 m/s B. 2.1 × 108 m/s C. 2.29 × 108 m/s D. 2.5 × 108 m/s 24. Refraction occurs when ____. A. the angle of incidence equals zero B. light strikes the boundary of two media with the same optical density C. the angle of reflection equals zero D. light travels through two adjacent media with different optical densities 25. When light rays travel from an optically dense medium into a less-dense medium, ____. A. the rays increase in speed B. the refracted rays bend toward the normal C. the angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction D. the angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence 26. The wavelength of light is cut in half as it enters a transparent material. Which of the following is true? A. The index of refraction of the material is 0.5. B. The index of refraction of the material is 2.0. C. The frequency of the light doubles. D. The frequency of the light is also cut in half. 27. The incident angle for which a refracted ray emerges tangent to the surface of a medium is the ____ angle. A. zero B. reflected C. normal D. critical 28. The sine of the critical angle of a substance is ____. A. directly proportional to the index of refraction of the substance B. indirectly proportional to the sine of 90o C. directly proportional to the cosine of 90o D. indirectly proportional to the index of refraction of the substance 29. A rainbow is a phenomenon caused by ____. A. refraction and total internal reflection B. a mirage C. refraction D. total internal reflection 30. In an optical fiber, the index of refraction of the core is ____ that of the outer layer. A. equal to B. greater than C. less than 31. The index of refraction of the mineral, beryl, ranges between 1.57 and 1.61. Transparent quartz has an index of 1.54. Which of the following statements is true? A. Both minerals will disperse the same amount of light. B. Quartz will disperse more light than beryl. C. Beryl will disperse more light than the quartz. D. Both minerals will disperse more light than diamond. 32. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection at the ice (n=1.31) zircon (n=1.92) interface? A. 0o B. 1.47o C. 36.9o D. 43.0o 33. Which of the following travels fastest in glass? A. blue light B. red light C. yellow light D. green light 34. Light is incident at an angle of 25o from ice (n=1.31) into quartz (n=1.54). What is the angle of refraction? A. 21.1o B. 30.0o C. 14.2o D. 53.2o 35. Light in air enters a soap film (n = 1.33) 400 nm thick at an incident angle of 30o. What is the emergent angle as it reenters the air? A. 22o B. 30o C. 53o D. 60o 36. A coin is at the bottom of a fountain 60 cm deep. The water in the fountain is frozen. What is the apparent depth of the coin? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31. A. 22 cm B. 46 cm C. 65 cm D. 120 cm 37. The critical angle for a liquid in air is 52o. What is the liquid's index of refraction? A. 0.62 B. 0.79 C. 1.27 D. 1.30 38. Light of frequency 4.6 × 1014 Hz in vacuum enters a material whose index of refraction is 1.95. What is the wavelength of the light in the material? A. 652 nm B. 334 nm C. 127 nm D. 1590 nm 39. The critical angle for the air/quartz interface is 40.5o. Which of the following situations will result in total internal reflection? A. The incident light is in air and the incident angle is less than 40.5o. B. The incident light is in air and the incident angle is greater than 40.5o. C. The incident light is in quartz and the incident angle is less than 40.5o. D. The incident light is in quartz and the incident angle is greater than 40.5o. 40. In an optical fiber, the signal travels in the ____________. A. core B. cladding C. buffer 41. The _______ ___ __________ of a material is the ratio of the free-space velocity of light to the velocity of light through the material. ________________________________________ 42. For refraction, the ____________________, the __________ __________, and the _______ ___ ___ __________ all lie in the same plane. ________________________________________ 43. Whenever light enters glass from air, the _______________ remains unchanged, but the _______________ and the _______________ are reduced. ________________________________________ 44. Whenever white light enters a prism, it separates into its component _______________. This phenomenon is known as _______________. ________________________________________ 45. The _________ ___________ is the limiting angle of incidence in a denser medium that results in an angle of refraction of 90o. ________________________________________ 46. Total internal reflection occurs when a light ray from a certain medium is incident upon another medium of ______________ optical density at an angle of incidence greater than the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 47. _______ Law determines the relationship between the incident and refracted angles. ________________________________________ 48. Right-angle prisms make use of the principle of ________ _______ ________ to deviate the path of light along right angles. ________________________________________ 49. The small dependence of the index of refraction on wavelength is seen in ___________. ________________________________________ 50. The minimum value of the index of refraction is________. ________________________________________ 51. White light is sent through a prism. The resulting continuous spread of colors is known as a _____. ________________________________________ 52. Compared to older communications systems, optical fiber communications are an advantage because of ___________ ____ ___________ _____________, ________ ______ _______, _______ _________ _______, and _________ ________ ________. ________________________________________ 53. The phenomenon known as apparent depth is caused by __________. ________________________________________ ch35 2 Key 1. When light enters from a medium of lower refractive index into a medium of larger refractive index, the path of the light bends toward the normal. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #1 2. A light ray in air enters a glass plate with parallel faces. When it exits the plate, the light ray is parallel to the incident ray but displaced sideways. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #2 3. Objects of higher optical density have greater critical angles. FALSE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #3 4. When white light is dispersed by a prism, the smaller-wavelength components are deviated the most. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #4 5. For total internal reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #5 6. When an object in air is viewed from a position under water, the object appears to be farther away than it actually is. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #6 7. Whenever light enters a denser medium, both the velocity and frequency of the light are reduced. FALSE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #7 8. The index of refraction of a material is a measure of its optical density. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #8 9. The critical angle for right-angle prisms should not exceed 45o. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #9 10. The lateral displacement of light as it passes through a pane of glass is greater when the optical density of the glass is large. TRUE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #10 11. The phenomenon known as total internal reflection occurs only when light travels from a low n material to a high n material. FALSE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #11 12. At an interface, light always bends towards the normal. FALSE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #12 13. Reflection of light off the surface of water is the main reason for the apparent depth phenomenon. FALSE Tippens - 035 Chapter... #13 14. The speed of light in quartz is 1.95 × 108 m/s. What is its index of refraction? A. 0.66 B. 1.54 C. 1.33 D. 2.17 Tippens - 035 Chapter... #14 15. The index of refraction for a substance is ____. A. constant B. constant for a given wavelength C. variable with the speed of light D. never constant Tippens - 035 Chapter... #15 16. Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence is ____. A. greater than the angle of refraction B. equal to the critical angle C. greater than the critical angle D. greater than 45o Tippens - 035 Chapter... #16 17. The refractive index of benzene is 1.5. The velocity of light in benzene is approximately ____. A. 1.5 × 108 m/s B. 1.75 × 108 m/s C. 2 × 108 m/s D. 2.5 × 108 m/s Tippens - 035 Chapter... #17 18. Light passes at an angle of incidence of 37° from water to air. The angle of refraction in the air is approximately ____. A. 27° B. 53° C. 45° D. 60° Tippens - 035 Chapter... #18 19. Monochromatic green light has a wavelength of 520 nm. The wavelength of this light inside glass of refractive index 1.5 is approximately ____. A. 300 nm B. 340 nm C. 520 nm D. 780 nm Tippens - 035 Chapter... #19 20. The critical angle for diamond (n = 2.42) surrounded by air is approximately ____. A. 24o B. 35o C. 45o D. 66o Tippens - 035 Chapter... #20 21. A fish is located 2 m from the surface of a small pond. The apparent depth is ____. A. 1.0 m B. 1.5 m C. 2.0 m D. 2.66 m Tippens - 035 Chapter... #21 22. Light is incident from water at an angle of 60o into a transparent medium. If the angle of refraction is 30o, the index for the medium is ____. A. 1.15 B. 1.5 C. 2.3 D. 3.1 Tippens - 035 Chapter... #22 23. Light travels from air at an angle of incidence of 41o. What will the speed of light in the second medium be if the angle of refraction is 30o? A. 1.5 × 108 m/s B. 2.1 × 108 m/s C. 2.29 × 108 m/s D. 2.5 × 108 m/s Tippens - 035 Chapter... #23 24. Refraction occurs when ____. A. the angle of incidence equals zero B. light strikes the boundary of two media with the same optical density C. the angle of reflection equals zero D. light travels through two adjacent media with different optical densities Tippens - 035 Chapter... #24 25. When light rays travel from an optically dense medium into a less-dense medium, ____. A. the rays increase in speed B. the refracted rays bend toward the normal C. the angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction D. the angle of refraction is smaller than the angle of incidence Tippens - 035 Chapter... #25 26. The wavelength of light is cut in half as it enters a transparent material. Which of the following is true? A. The index of refraction of the material is 0.5. B. The index of refraction of the material is 2.0. C. The frequency of the light doubles. D. The frequency of the light is also cut in half. Tippens - 035 Chapter... #26 27. The incident angle for which a refracted ray emerges tangent to the surface of a medium is the ____ angle. A. zero B. reflected C. normal D. critical Tippens - 035 Chapter... #27 28. The sine of the critical angle of a substance is ____. A. directly proportional to the index of refraction of the substance B. indirectly proportional to the sine of 90o C. directly proportional to the cosine of 90o D. indirectly proportional to the index of refraction of the substance Tippens - 035 Chapter... #28 29. A rainbow is a phenomenon caused by ____. A. refraction and total internal reflection B. a mirage C. refraction D. total internal reflection Tippens - 035 Chapter... #29 30. In an optical fiber, the index of refraction of the core is ____ that of the outer layer. A. equal to B. greater than C. less than Tippens - 035 Chapter... #30 31. The index of refraction of the mineral, beryl, ranges between 1.57 and 1.61. Transparent quartz has an index of 1.54. Which of the following statements is true? A. Both minerals will disperse the same amount of light. B. Quartz will disperse more light than beryl. C. Beryl will disperse more light than the quartz. D. Both minerals will disperse more light than diamond. Tippens - 035 Chapter... #31 32. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection at the ice (n=1.31) zircon (n=1.92) interface? A. 0o B. 1.47o C. 36.9o D. 43.0o Tippens - 035 Chapter... #32 33. Which of the following travels fastest in glass? A. blue light B. red light C. yellow light D. green light Tippens - 035 Chapter... #33 34. Light is incident at an angle of 25o from ice (n=1.31) into quartz (n=1.54). What is the angle of refraction? A. 21.1o B. 30.0o C. 14.2o D. 53.2o Tippens - 035 Chapter... #34 35. Light in air enters a soap film (n = 1.33) 400 nm thick at an incident angle of 30o. What is the emergent angle as it reenters the air? A. 22o B. 30o C. 53o D. 60o Tippens - 035 Chapter... #35 36. A coin is at the bottom of a fountain 60 cm deep. The water in the fountain is frozen. What is the apparent depth of the coin? The index of refraction of ice is 1.31. A. 22 cm B. 46 cm C. 65 cm D. 120 cm Tippens - 035 Chapter... #36 37. The critical angle for a liquid in air is 52o. What is the liquid's index of refraction? A. 0.62 B. 0.79 C. 1.27 D. 1.30 Tippens - 035 Chapter... #37 38. Light of frequency 4.6 × 1014 Hz in vacuum enters a material whose index of refraction is 1.95. What is the wavelength of the light in the material? A. 652 nm B. 334 nm C. 127 nm D. 1590 nm Tippens - 035 Chapter... #38 39. The critical angle for the air/quartz interface is 40.5o. Which of the following situations will result in total internal reflection? A. The incident light is in air and the incident angle is less than 40.5o. B. The incident light is in air and the incident angle is greater than 40.5o. C. The incident light is in quartz and the incident angle is less than 40.5o. D. The incident light is in quartz and the incident angle is greater than 40.5o. Tippens - 035 Chapter... #39 40. In an optical fiber, the signal travels in the ____________. A. core B. cladding C. buffer Tippens - 035 Chapter... #40 41. The _______ ___ __________ of a material is the ratio of the free-space velocity of light to the velocity of light through the material. index of refraction Tippens - 035 Chapter... #41 42. For refraction, the ____________________, the __________ __________, and the _______ ___ ___ __________ all lie in the same plane. incident ray, refracted ray, normal to the surface Tippens - 035 Chapter... #42 43. Whenever light enters glass from air, the _______________ remains unchanged, but the _______________ and the _______________ are reduced. frequency, wavelength, velocity Tippens - 035 Chapter... #43 44. Whenever white light enters a prism, it separates into its component _______________. This phenomenon is known as _______________. wavelengths, dispersion Tippens - 035 Chapter... #44 45. The _________ ___________ is the limiting angle of incidence in a denser medium that results in an angle of refraction of 90o. critical angle Tippens - 035 Chapter... #45 46. Total internal reflection occurs when a light ray from a certain medium is incident upon another medium of ______________ optical density at an angle of incidence greater than the _________ ___________. lower, critical angle Tippens - 035 Chapter... #46 47. _______ Law determines the relationship between the incident and refracted angles. Snell's Tippens - 035 Chapter... #47 48. Right-angle prisms make use of the principle of ________ _______ ________ to deviate the path of light along right angles. total internal reflection Tippens - 035 Chapter... #48 49. The small dependence of the index of refraction on wavelength is seen in ___________. dispersion Tippens - 035 Chapter... #49 50. The minimum value of the index of refraction is________. 1 Tippens - 035 Chapter... #50 51. White light is sent through a prism. The resulting continuous spread of colors is known as a _____. spectrum Tippens - 035 Chapter... #51 52. Compared to older communications systems, optical fiber communications are an advantage because of ___________ ____ ___________ _____________, ________ ______ _______, _______ _________ _______, and _________ ________ ________. immunity to electromagnetic interference, improved data security, higher transmission speed, increased signal bandwidth Tippens - 035 Chapter... #52 53. The phenomenon known as apparent depth is caused by __________. refraction Tippens - 035 Chapter... #53 ch35 2 Summary Category Tippens - 035 Chapter... # of Questions 53 ch36 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A lens that is thinner in the middle than it is at the edges will be a diverging lens. True False 2. A plano-concave lens has a virtual focus. True False 3. Both surfaces of a converging meniscus lens should be reckoned as positive, according to convention. True False 4. Virtual images are formed on the same side of the lens as the object. True False 5. The overall magnification of a compound optical instrument is equal to the product of the magnifications of the component lenses. True False 6. Chromatic aberration is a lens defect in which the extreme rays are brought to a focus nearer the lens than those rays entering near the optical center of the lens. True False 7. Most lenses have spherical surfaces to minimize aberrations. True False 8. All images formed by diverging lenses are virtual, diminished, and erect. True False 9. In a simple lens, the greatest magnification occurs as the object gets closer and closer to the lens surface. True False 10. Whenever the object is beyond the focal point of a converging lens, the magnification will always be negative. True False 11. Combining a converging lens and a diverging lens minimizes spherical aberrations. True False 12. A lens thicker in the middle than at its edges always has a positive focal length. True False 13. The focal length can be calculated by taking the average of the two radii of curvature. True False 14. A point source of light placed at the focal point of a diverging lens will result in parallel rays after passing through the lens. True False 15. Images formed from real objects by diverging lenses are always ____. A. virtual B. enlarged C. inverted D. real 16. A diverging lens may not have ____. A. a negative focal length B. a positive focal length C. one plane surface D. one convex surface 17. For a compound microscope, the image formed by the eyepiece is ____. A. real B. inverted C. erect D. diminished 18. A negative magnification always means that the image is ____. A. erect B. real C. virtual D. inverted 19. Which of the following is not characteristic of images formed by real objects located inside the focal point of a converging lens? A. Virtual B. Erect C. Real D. Enlarged 20. A meniscus lens has a convex surface of curvature 20 cm and a concave surface of curvature -30 cm. If the lens is constructed from glass (n = 1.5), the focal length will be ____. A. - 4 cm B. +4 cm C. -120 cm D. +120 cm 21. An object is located 10 in. from a thin converging lens whose focal length is 30 in. The image distance is approximately ____. A. -7.5 in. B. +7.5 in. C. 15 in. D. -15 in. 22. A diverging meniscus lens has a focal length of -20 cm. If the lens is held 10 cm from the object, the magnification is ____. A. -0.667 B. +0.667 C. -2 D. +2 23. A plano-convex lens is ground from glass (n = 1.5). If the focal length is to be 20 cm, the radius of the curved surface should be ____. A. 10 cm B. 20 cm C. 30 cm D. 40 cm 24. A plano-convex lens is to be made out of glass with index of refraction 1.5. If the curved surface has radius 25 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? A. +50 cm B. -50 cm C. -25 cm D. +25 cm 25. The image formed of an object located beyond the focal point of a convex lens is ____ than the actual object. A. virtual and larger B. real and larger C. virtual and smaller D. real and smaller 26. Where must an object be placed in front of a converging lens to get a virtual image? A. between the lens and the focal point B. between the focal point and twice the focal point C. at twice the focal point D. at the focal point 27. Which of the following is not true of a concave lens? A. The image is formed due to divergence of the light rays. B. It forms a virtual, erect, and reduced image. C. It has a positive focal length. D. It is thinner in the middle than at the edges. 28. Chromatic aberration can be reduced by cementing ____ together to form a single lens. A. two converging lenses B. three converging lenses C. a converging lens and a diverging lens D. two diverging lenses 29. What is the focal length of a meniscus lens that has a convex surface of radius 32 cm and a concave surface of radius -16 cm? Assume the index of refraction of the glass is 1.50. A. +32 cm B. -32 cm C. +64 cm D. -64 cm 30. A converging lens with a focal length f will produce an image the same size as the object if the distance is ____. A. f B. f/2 C. 4f D. 2f 31. Which of the following is a diverging lens? A. a lens having a positive focal length B. a lens that can produce a real image C. a lens that produces negative magnification D. a lens that produces a diminished, virtual image 32. In a compound microscope, the objective lens forms a ____ image while the eyepiece forms a ____ image. A. virtual, virtual B. virtual, real C. real, real D. real, virtual 33. The focal length of a lens does not depend on the ____. A. The focal length depends on all the above quantities. B. lens material C. diameter of the lens D. radii of curvature 34. The distance from a film projector lens to the film is ____. A. less than the focal length of the lens B. the focal length C. between one and two focal lengths of the lens D. beyond two focal lengths of the lens 35. Two lenses are placed 25 cm apart and have the same axis. The first lens is diverging and has a focal length of -15 cm. The second lens is converging. Parallel light enters the diverging lens and the beam is again parallel when it emerges from the converging lens. What is the focal length of the converging lens? A. +10 cm B. +15 cm C. +40 cm D. +30 cm 36. An object 2 mm high is 12 cm to the left of a diverging lens of focal length -4 cm. How tall is the image? A. 2/3 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 8 cm D. 12 mm 37. An object is located 5 cm from a thin diverging lens having a focal length of -10 cm. What is the magnification? A. 0.67 B. 3.3 C. 0.15 D. 2.0 38. A projector lens is placed 5 cm from the film, and an image is formed on a screen 15 m from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? A. 4.98 cm B. 5.02 cm C. 7.50 m D. 15.0 m 39. A camera has a single lens of focal length 55 mm. How far from the film should the lens be placed when the object photographed is 75 cm from the lens? A. 5.13 cm B. 5.50 cm C. 5.95 cm D. 20.6 cm 40. An object is 36 cm from a lens. If the resulting image has a magnification of -0.75, what is the focal length of the lens? A. -7.51 cm B. +15.4 cm C. +108 cm D. -108 cm 41. Which of the following is never an achromatic lens? A. a diverging lens combined with a converging lens B. a lens made of flint glass and one made of crown glass C. two diverging lenses 42. An object is placed at the focal point of a converging lens of focal length 22 cm. What is the image distance? A. 22 cm B. 44 cm C. 0.045 cm D. infinity 43. Images formed by diverging lenses are always ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ in size. ________________________________________ 44. The _________ ___________ of a lens is the distance from the optical center of the lens to either focus. ________________________________________ 45. The defect minimized by blocking rays close to the edge of a lens is called ______ _______. ________________________________________ 46. The object distance and the image distance are considered ____________________ for real images and objects and ____________________ for virtual images and objects. ________________________________________ 47. A positive magnification means that the image is ____________________, and a negative magnification means the image is ____________________. ________________________________________ 48. Three examples of converging lens are _________ ___________, _________-___________, and ________ ____________. ________________________________________ 49. A converging lens is ____________________ in the middle than at the edges, whereas a diverging lens is ____________________ in the middle. ________________________________________ 50. A ray parallel to the axis passes through the _______ _______ ______ of a converging lens or appears to come from the ______ ______ ________ of a diverging lens. ________________________________________ 51. A(n) ____________________ image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object; a(n) ____________________ image is formed on the opposite side. ________________________________________ 52. A ray that passes through the ____________________ of a lens will not be deviated. ________________________________________ 53. The defect of a lens caused by the dependence of index of refraction with wavelength is ________ ________. ________________________________________ 54. The eyepiece in microscopes and telescopes always form _______, _________ images. ________________________________________ 55. A(n) ___________ lens is constructed to prevent chromatic aberrations. ________________________________________ 56. A _________ lens has the center of curvature of both surfaces on the same side. ________________________________________ ch36 Key 1. A lens that is thinner in the middle than it is at the edges will be a diverging lens. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #1 2. A plano-concave lens has a virtual focus. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #2 3. Both surfaces of a converging meniscus lens should be reckoned as positive, according to convention. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #3 4. Virtual images are formed on the same side of the lens as the object. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #4 5. The overall magnification of a compound optical instrument is equal to the product of the magnifications of the component lenses. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #5 6. Chromatic aberration is a lens defect in which the extreme rays are brought to a focus nearer the lens than those rays entering near the optical center of the lens. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #6 7. Most lenses have spherical surfaces to minimize aberrations. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #7 8. All images formed by diverging lenses are virtual, diminished, and erect. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #8 9. In a simple lens, the greatest magnification occurs as the object gets closer and closer to the lens surface. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #9 10. Whenever the object is beyond the focal point of a converging lens, the magnification will always be negative. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #10 11. Combining a converging lens and a diverging lens minimizes spherical aberrations. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #11 12. A lens thicker in the middle than at its edges always has a positive focal length. TRUE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #12 13. The focal length can be calculated by taking the average of the two radii of curvature. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #13 14. A point source of light placed at the focal point of a diverging lens will result in parallel rays after passing through the lens. FALSE Tippens - 036 Chapter... #14 15. Images formed from real objects by diverging lenses are always ____. A. virtual B. enlarged C. inverted D. real Tippens - 036 Chapter... #15 16. A diverging lens may not have ____. A. a negative focal length B. a positive focal length C. one plane surface D. one convex surface Tippens - 036 Chapter... #16 17. For a compound microscope, the image formed by the eyepiece is ____. A. real B. inverted C. erect D. diminished Tippens - 036 Chapter... #17 18. A negative magnification always means that the image is ____. A. erect B. real C. virtual D. inverted Tippens - 036 Chapter... #18 19. Which of the following is not characteristic of images formed by real objects located inside the focal point of a converging lens? A. Virtual B. Erect C. Real D. Enlarged Tippens - 036 Chapter... #19 20. A meniscus lens has a convex surface of curvature 20 cm and a concave surface of curvature -30 cm. If the lens is constructed from glass (n = 1.5), the focal length will be ____. A. - 4 cm B. +4 cm C. -120 cm D. +120 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #20 21. An object is located 10 in. from a thin converging lens whose focal length is 30 in. The image distance is approximately ____. A. -7.5 in. B. +7.5 in. C. 15 in. D. -15 in. Tippens - 036 Chapter... #21 22. A diverging meniscus lens has a focal length of -20 cm. If the lens is held 10 cm from the object, the magnification is ____. A. -0.667 B. +0.667 C. -2 D. +2 Tippens - 036 Chapter... #22 23. A plano-convex lens is ground from glass (n = 1.5). If the focal length is to be 20 cm, the radius of the curved surface should be ____. A. 10 cm B. 20 cm C. 30 cm D. 40 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #23 24. A plano-convex lens is to be made out of glass with index of refraction 1.5. If the curved surface has radius 25 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? A. +50 cm B. -50 cm C. -25 cm D. +25 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #24 25. The image formed of an object located beyond the focal point of a convex lens is ____ than the actual object. A. virtual and larger B. real and larger C. virtual and smaller D. real and smaller Tippens - 036 Chapter... #25 26. Where must an object be placed in front of a converging lens to get a virtual image? A. between the lens and the focal point B. between the focal point and twice the focal point C. at twice the focal point D. at the focal point Tippens - 036 Chapter... #26 27. Which of the following is not true of a concave lens? A. The image is formed due to divergence of the light rays. B. It forms a virtual, erect, and reduced image. C. It has a positive focal length. D. It is thinner in the middle than at the edges. Tippens - 036 Chapter... #27 28. Chromatic aberration can be reduced by cementing ____ together to form a single lens. A. two converging lenses B. three converging lenses C. a converging lens and a diverging lens D. two diverging lenses Tippens - 036 Chapter... #28 29. What is the focal length of a meniscus lens that has a convex surface of radius 32 cm and a concave surface of radius -16 cm? Assume the index of refraction of the glass is 1.50. A. +32 cm B. -32 cm C. +64 cm D. -64 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #29 30. A converging lens with a focal length f will produce an image the same size as the object if the distance is ____. A. f B. f/2 C. 4f D. 2f Tippens - 036 Chapter... #30 31. Which of the following is a diverging lens? A. a lens having a positive focal length B. a lens that can produce a real image C. a lens that produces negative magnification D. a lens that produces a diminished, virtual image Tippens - 036 Chapter... #31 32. In a compound microscope, the objective lens forms a ____ image while the eyepiece forms a ____ image. A. virtual, virtual B. virtual, real C. real, real D. real, virtual Tippens - 036 Chapter... #32 33. The focal length of a lens does not depend on the ____. A. The focal length depends on all the above quantities. B. lens material C. diameter of the lens D. radii of curvature Tippens - 036 Chapter... #33 34. The distance from a film projector lens to the film is ____. A. less than the focal length of the lens B. the focal length C. between one and two focal lengths of the lens D. beyond two focal lengths of the lens Tippens - 036 Chapter... #34 35. Two lenses are placed 25 cm apart and have the same axis. The first lens is diverging and has a focal length of -15 cm. The second lens is converging. Parallel light enters the diverging lens and the beam is again parallel when it emerges from the converging lens. What is the focal length of the converging lens? A. +10 cm B. +15 cm C. +40 cm D. +30 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #35 36. An object 2 mm high is 12 cm to the left of a diverging lens of focal length -4 cm. How tall is the image? A. 2/3 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 8 cm D. 12 mm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #36 37. An object is located 5 cm from a thin diverging lens having a focal length of -10 cm. What is the magnification? A. 0.67 B. 3.3 C. 0.15 D. 2.0 Tippens - 036 Chapter... #37 38. A projector lens is placed 5 cm from the film, and an image is formed on a screen 15 m from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens? A. 4.98 cm B. 5.02 cm C. 7.50 m D. 15.0 m Tippens - 036 Chapter... #38 39. A camera has a single lens of focal length 55 mm. How far from the film should the lens be placed when the object photographed is 75 cm from the lens? A. 5.13 cm B. 5.50 cm C. 5.95 cm D. 20.6 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #39 40. An object is 36 cm from a lens. If the resulting image has a magnification of -0.75, what is the focal length of the lens? A. -7.51 cm B. +15.4 cm C. +108 cm D. -108 cm Tippens - 036 Chapter... #40 41. Which of the following is never an achromatic lens? A. a diverging lens combined with a converging lens B. a lens made of flint glass and one made of crown glass C. two diverging lenses Tippens - 036 Chapter... #41 42. An object is placed at the focal point of a converging lens of focal length 22 cm. What is the image distance? A. 22 cm B. 44 cm C. 0.045 cm D. infinity Tippens - 036 Chapter... #42 43. Images formed by diverging lenses are always ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ in size. virtual, erect, diminished Tippens - 036 Chapter... #43 44. The _________ ___________ of a lens is the distance from the optical center of the lens to either focus. focal length Tippens - 036 Chapter... #44 45. The defect minimized by blocking rays close to the edge of a lens is called ______ _______. spherical aberration Tippens - 036 Chapter... #45 46. The object distance and the image distance are considered ____________________ for real images and objects and ____________________ for virtual images and objects. positive, negative Tippens - 036 Chapter... #46 47. A positive magnification means that the image is ____________________, and a negative magnification means the image is ____________________. erect, inverted Tippens - 036 Chapter... #47 48. Three examples of converging lens are _________ ___________, _________-___________, and ________ ____________. double convex, plane-convex, converging meniscus Tippens - 036 Chapter... #48 49. A converging lens is ____________________ in the middle than at the edges, whereas a diverging lens is ____________________ in the middle. thicker, thinner Tippens - 036 Chapter... #49 50. A ray parallel to the axis passes through the _______ _______ ______ of a converging lens or appears to come from the ______ ______ ________ of a diverging lens. second focal point, first focal point Tippens - 036 Chapter... #50 51. A(n) ____________________ image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object; a(n) ____________________ image is formed on the opposite side. virtual, real Tippens - 036 Chapter... #51 52. A ray that passes through the ____________________ of a lens will not be deviated. center Tippens - 036 Chapter... #52 53. The defect of a lens caused by the dependence of index of refraction with wavelength is ________ ________. chromatic aberration Tippens - 036 Chapter... #53 54. The eyepiece in microscopes and telescopes always form _______, _________ images. virtual, magnified Tippens - 036 Chapter... #54 55. A(n) ___________ lens is constructed to prevent chromatic aberrations. achromatic Tippens - 036 Chapter... #55 56. A _________ lens has the center of curvature of both surfaces on the same side. meniscus Tippens - 036 Chapter... #56 ch36 Summary Category Tippens - 036 Chapter... # of Questions 56 ch37 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. In an interference pattern, the bright lines are due to constructive interference, and the dark lines are caused by destructive interference. True False 2. A diffraction grating deviates red light more than blue light. True False 3. In Young's experiment, decreasing the separation of the two slits will also decrease the separation of the interference fringes. True False 4. The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of its objective lens and is not a function of the magnification. True False 5. First-order images are bright lines, and second-order images are dark lines. True False 6. The limit of resolution for two objects occurs when the central maximum of the interference pattern of one object coincides with the first dark fringe of the interference pattern from the other object. True False 7. Both transverse and longitudinal waves can be polarized by an appropriate choice of material for the polarizer. True False 8. In Young's experiment, the distance traveled by one wave arriving at a point on the screen is one-half wavelength more than the second. A bright spot will appear at that point. True False 9. The greater the number of lines per inch on a diffraction grating, the greater the angle of deviation for the diffracted light. True False 10. A polarizer can be used as an analyzer in studying polarized light. True False 11. An analyzer determines the degree of polarization of a longitudinal wave. True False 12. The effect of an analyzer on electromagnetic radiation depends on its spatial orientation. True False 13. The second-order bright fringe of a diffraction grating is due to the paths of the secondary waves differing by two wavelengths. True False 14. The angles in a Young's double slit experiment are much smaller than the angles measured in a diffraction grating experiment. True False 15. The resolving power of an instrument is determined by ____. A. magnification B. focal length of the objective lens C. diameter of the objective lens D. shape of the lens 16. Four similar objects are the same distance away from a telescope. Which object can be resolved the easiest? A. the red object B. the green object C. the yellow object D. the blue object 17. Which of the following demonstrates the transverse nature of light waves? A. Interference B. Polarization C. Diffraction D. Refraction 18. The resolving power of an eye depends primarily on ________. A. the diameter of the pupil B. the effective focal length of the eye C. the size of the retina 19. A diffraction grating with a spacing of 15,000 lines/in. has a slit separation of ____. A. 6.67 × 10-6 in. B. 5.9 × 10-3 cm C. 3.81 µm D. 1.69 × 10-4 cm 20. In Young's experiment, the slit separation is 0.02 mm, and the screen is 1 m away. If the slit is illuminated with light of wavelength 500 nm, the second bright fringe will be displaced from the central fringe by approximately ____. A. 3 cm B. 4 cm C. 5 cm D. 6 cm 21. A diffraction grating having 7000 lines/cm is illuminated by light of wavelength 589 nm. The angular separation of the second-order bright fringe is approximately ____. A. 51.2o B. 55.5o C. 61.5o D. 65o 22. A parallel beam of light illuminates a diffraction grating with 15,000 lines/in. The first-order image is located 16 cm from the central image of a screen 50 cm from the grating. The wavelength of the light is approximately ____. A. 515 nm B. 571 nm C. 541 nm D. 592 nm 23. A 30-in.-diameter optical telescope examines a large skylab orbiting 150 mi above the earth. The minimum separation of two points that can be resolved by the telescope, receiving light of average wavelength 500 nm, is approximately ____. A. 0.56 ft B. 0.634 ft C. 0.75 ft D. 2.67 ft 24. The destructive and constructive interference of light that passes through two closely-spaced slits produces ____. A. monochromatic light sources B. coherent light waves C. interference fringes D. diffraction gratings 25. The bending of waves around the edges of barriers is ____. A. interference B. reflection C. refraction D. diffraction 26. The paths of the light waves that interfere to cause first-order bright lines ____. A. are the same length B. differ in length by the wavelength of the light C. are curved lines D. are parallel lines 27. A slit is 1 mm in width. Which of the following should be used to observe diffraction? A. x -rays B. ultraviolet light C. visible light D. microwaves 28. Approximately how far away can a pair of headlights, spaced 1.5 m apart, be resolved if your eye opening is 3 mm? Assume the wavelength of the light to be 550 nm. A. 1.3 km B. 5.5 km C. 6.7 km D. 28 km 29. A binary star system can be misinterpreted as a single star because ____. A. the telescope lens acts as a double slit B. the light is refracted as it enters Earth's atmosphere C. the lens has a limited resolution D. a binary star system contains only one star 30. The effects of diffraction on the resolving power of the telescope can be reduced by ____. A. increasing the size of the lens B. decreasing the size of the lens C. using yellow filters to view the objects D. magnifying the images being viewed 31. Which of the following cannot be polarized? A. transverse waves on a string B. sound waves C. light waves D. All of these waves can be polarized. 32. When monochromatic light of wavelength 700.0 nm is used in a double-slit experiment, the adjacent bright bands are separated by 1.6 mm. What would be the separation of adjacent bright bands if light of wavelength 550.0 nm was used? A. 1.6 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 1.3 mm D. 2.4 mm 33. Polarization of light shows that light ____. A. consists of packets of energy called photons B. is traveling at 3 × 108 m/s C. is longitudinal D. is transverse 34. A diffraction grating has 5767 slits per centimeter. Using red laser light of wavelength 632.8 nm, what is the angular deviation of the second-order bright fringe? A. 21.7o B. 46.9o C. 54.8o D. 76.7o 35. Two planes are 25 km away from a radar dish. If the dish is 7.1 meters in diameter and uses 3.0 cm wavelength waves, what is the minimum distance the two planes can be separated and still be resolved as distinct? A. 55 m B. 130 m C. 180 m D. 15 km 36. Red laser light of wavelength 632 nm illuminates two parallel slits 0.25 mm apart. How far apart are adjacent bright fringes on a screen 2.5 m away? A. 6.32 mm B. 7.66 mm C. 2.54 mm D. 63.2 mm 37. Young's experiment is performed using two parallel slits spaced 0.20 mm apart. On a screen 2.5 m from the slits, alternate bright fringes are separated by 5.4 mm. What is the wavelength of the light? A. 356 nm B. 432 nm C. 550 nm D. 653 nm 38. A diffraction grating having 600 lines per mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 489 nm. What is the highest order bright fringe observed? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 39. A double slit is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The m = 2 and m = 3 bright fringes are separated by 3.0 mm on a screen which is located 4.0 m from the slits. What is the separation between the slits? A. 4.0 × 10-4 m B. 8.0 × 10-4 m C. 1.2 × 10-3 m D. 1.6 × 10-3 m 40. The ability of waves to bend around obstacles in their path is called ________________. ________________________________________ 41. The minimum separation of two objects that can just be distinguished as separate images by a telescope is a measure of its _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 42. A polarizer and an analyzer can be used to demonstrate that light waves are _________________ waves. ________________________________________ 43. The second bright line on either side of the central maximum for a diffraction grating is referred to as the _________-___________ fringe. ________________________________________ 44. When two or more waves exist simultaneously in the same medium, the resultant ____________________ at any point is the sum of the ____________________ of the composite waves at that point. ________________________________________ 45. The dark lines in Young's experiment are the result of ____________________ interference. ________________________________________ 46. The resolving power of an instrument for use with light of constant wavelength is determined by the ____________________ of the objective lens. ________________________________________ 47. An optical device that produces a spectrum as a result of interference of light passing through thousands of parallel slits is called a(n) __________ __________. ________________________________________ 48. Two images are at the limit of resolution when the __________ __________ of one pattern coincides with the __________ __________ fringe of the other pattern. ________________________________________ 49. In Young's interference experiment, the light passing through the each slit is monochromatic and ________ ___ ___ ________. ________________________________________ 50. Two factors that determine the resolution of two distant objects are _________ ___ _____ ___and ________ ___ _________. ________________________________________ 51. In a diffraction grating, each slit opening can be considered a source of secondary waves called __________ ___________. ________________________________________ 52. The pattern obtained from a diffraction grating is due to both ______ and _______ phenomena. ________________________________________ ch37 Key 1. In an interference pattern, the bright lines are due to constructive interference, and the dark lines are caused by destructive interference. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #1 2. A diffraction grating deviates red light more than blue light. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #2 3. In Young's experiment, decreasing the separation of the two slits will also decrease the separation of the interference fringes. FALSE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #3 4. The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of its objective lens and is not a function of the magnification. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #4 5. First-order images are bright lines, and second-order images are dark lines. FALSE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #5 6. The limit of resolution for two objects occurs when the central maximum of the interference pattern of one object coincides with the first dark fringe of the interference pattern from the other object. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #6 7. Both transverse and longitudinal waves can be polarized by an appropriate choice of material for the polarizer. FALSE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #7 8. In Young's experiment, the distance traveled by one wave arriving at a point on the screen is one-half wavelength more than the second. A bright spot will appear at that point. FALSE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #8 9. The greater the number of lines per inch on a diffraction grating, the greater the angle of deviation for the diffracted light. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #9 10. A polarizer can be used as an analyzer in studying polarized light. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #10 11. An analyzer determines the degree of polarization of a longitudinal wave. FALSE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #11 12. The effect of an analyzer on electromagnetic radiation depends on its spatial orientation. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #12 13. The second-order bright fringe of a diffraction grating is due to the paths of the secondary waves differing by two wavelengths. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #13 14. The angles in a Young's double slit experiment are much smaller than the angles measured in a diffraction grating experiment. TRUE Tippens - 037 Chapter... #14 15. The resolving power of an instrument is determined by ____. A. magnification B. focal length of the objective lens C. diameter of the objective lens D. shape of the lens Tippens - 037 Chapter... #15 16. Four similar objects are the same distance away from a telescope. Which object can be resolved the easiest? A. the red object B. the green object C. the yellow object D. the blue object Tippens - 037 Chapter... #16 17. Which of the following demonstrates the transverse nature of light waves? A. Interference B. Polarization C. Diffraction D. Refraction Tippens - 037 Chapter... #17 18. The resolving power of an eye depends primarily on ________. A. the diameter of the pupil B. the effective focal length of the eye C. the size of the retina Tippens - 037 Chapter... #18 19. A diffraction grating with a spacing of 15,000 lines/in. has a slit separation of ____. A. 6.67 × 10-6 in. B. 5.9 × 10-3 cm C. 3.81 µm D. 1.69 × 10-4 cm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #19 20. In Young's experiment, the slit separation is 0.02 mm, and the screen is 1 m away. If the slit is illuminated with light of wavelength 500 nm, the second bright fringe will be displaced from the central fringe by approximately ____. A. 3 cm B. 4 cm C. 5 cm D. 6 cm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #20 21. A diffraction grating having 7000 lines/cm is illuminated by light of wavelength 589 nm. The angular separation of the second-order bright fringe is approximately ____. A. 51.2o B. 55.5o C. 61.5o D. 65o Tippens - 037 Chapter... #21 22. A parallel beam of light illuminates a diffraction grating with 15,000 lines/in. The first-order image is located 16 cm from the central image of a screen 50 cm from the grating. The wavelength of the light is approximately ____. A. 515 nm B. 571 nm C. 541 nm D. 592 nm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #22 23. A 30-in.-diameter optical telescope examines a large skylab orbiting 150 mi above the earth. The minimum separation of two points that can be resolved by the telescope, receiving light of average wavelength 500 nm, is approximately ____. A. 0.56 ft B. 0.634 ft C. 0.75 ft D. 2.67 ft Tippens - 037 Chapter... #23 24. The destructive and constructive interference of light that passes through two closely-spaced slits produces ____. A. monochromatic light sources B. coherent light waves C. interference fringes D. diffraction gratings Tippens - 037 Chapter... #24 25. The bending of waves around the edges of barriers is ____. A. interference B. reflection C. refraction D. diffraction Tippens - 037 Chapter... #25 26. The paths of the light waves that interfere to cause first-order bright lines ____. A. are the same length B. differ in length by the wavelength of the light C. are curved lines D. are parallel lines Tippens - 037 Chapter... #26 27. A slit is 1 mm in width. Which of the following should be used to observe diffraction? A. x -rays B. ultraviolet light C. visible light D. microwaves Tippens - 037 Chapter... #27 28. Approximately how far away can a pair of headlights, spaced 1.5 m apart, be resolved if your eye opening is 3 mm? Assume the wavelength of the light to be 550 nm. A. 1.3 km B. 5.5 km C. 6.7 km D. 28 km Tippens - 037 Chapter... #28 29. A binary star system can be misinterpreted as a single star because ____. A. the telescope lens acts as a double slit B. the light is refracted as it enters Earth's atmosphere C. the lens has a limited resolution D. a binary star system contains only one star Tippens - 037 Chapter... #29 30. The effects of diffraction on the resolving power of the telescope can be reduced by ____. A. increasing the size of the lens B. decreasing the size of the lens C. using yellow filters to view the objects D. magnifying the images being viewed Tippens - 037 Chapter... #30 31. Which of the following cannot be polarized? A. transverse waves on a string B. sound waves C. light waves D. All of these waves can be polarized. Tippens - 037 Chapter... #31 32. When monochromatic light of wavelength 700.0 nm is used in a double-slit experiment, the adjacent bright bands are separated by 1.6 mm. What would be the separation of adjacent bright bands if light of wavelength 550.0 nm was used? A. 1.6 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 1.3 mm D. 2.4 mm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #32 33. Polarization of light shows that light ____. A. consists of packets of energy called photons B. is traveling at 3 × 108 m/s C. is longitudinal D. is transverse Tippens - 037 Chapter... #33 34. A diffraction grating has 5767 slits per centimeter. Using red laser light of wavelength 632.8 nm, what is the angular deviation of the second-order bright fringe? A. 21.7o B. 46.9o C. 54.8o D. 76.7o Tippens - 037 Chapter... #34 35. Two planes are 25 km away from a radar dish. If the dish is 7.1 meters in diameter and uses 3.0 cm wavelength waves, what is the minimum distance the two planes can be separated and still be resolved as distinct? A. 55 m B. 130 m C. 180 m D. 15 km Tippens - 037 Chapter... #35 36. Red laser light of wavelength 632 nm illuminates two parallel slits 0.25 mm apart. How far apart are adjacent bright fringes on a screen 2.5 m away? A. 6.32 mm B. 7.66 mm C. 2.54 mm D. 63.2 mm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #36 37. Young's experiment is performed using two parallel slits spaced 0.20 mm apart. On a screen 2.5 m from the slits, alternate bright fringes are separated by 5.4 mm. What is the wavelength of the light? A. 356 nm B. 432 nm C. 550 nm D. 653 nm Tippens - 037 Chapter... #37 38. A diffraction grating having 600 lines per mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 489 nm. What is the highest order bright fringe observed? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Tippens - 037 Chapter... #38 39. A double slit is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The m = 2 and m = 3 bright fringes are separated by 3.0 mm on a screen which is located 4.0 m from the slits. What is the separation between the slits? A. 4.0 × 10-4 m B. 8.0 × 10-4 m C. 1.2 × 10-3 m D. 1.6 × 10-3 m Tippens - 037 Chapter... #39 40. The ability of waves to bend around obstacles in their path is called ________________. diffraction Tippens - 037 Chapter... #40 41. The minimum separation of two objects that can just be distinguished as separate images by a telescope is a measure of its _________ ___________. resolving power Tippens - 037 Chapter... #41 42. A polarizer and an analyzer can be used to demonstrate that light waves are _________________ waves. transverse Tippens - 037 Chapter... #42 43. The second bright line on either side of the central maximum for a diffraction grating is referred to as the _________-___________ fringe. second-order Tippens - 037 Chapter... #43 44. When two or more waves exist simultaneously in the same medium, the resultant ____________________ at any point is the sum of the ____________________ of the composite waves at that point. amplitude, amplitudes Tippens - 037 Chapter... #44 45. The dark lines in Young's experiment are the result of ____________________ interference. destructive Tippens - 037 Chapter... #45 46. The resolving power of an instrument for use with light of constant wavelength is determined by the ____________________ of the objective lens. diameter Tippens - 037 Chapter... #46 47. An optical device that produces a spectrum as a result of interference of light passing through thousands of parallel slits is called a(n) __________ __________. diffraction grating Tippens - 037 Chapter... #47 48. Two images are at the limit of resolution when the __________ __________ of one pattern coincides with the __________ __________ fringe of the other pattern. central maximum, first dark Tippens - 037 Chapter... #48 49. In Young's interference experiment, the light passing through the each slit is monochromatic and ________ ___ ___ ________. coherent or in-phase Tippens - 037 Chapter... #49 50. Two factors that determine the resolution of two distant objects are _________ ___ _____ ___and ________ ___ _________. wavelength of light uses, diameter of instrument. Tippens - 037 Chapter... #50 51. In a diffraction grating, each slit opening can be considered a source of secondary waves called __________ ___________. Huygen's wavelets Tippens - 037 Chapter... #51 52. The pattern obtained from a diffraction grating is due to both ______ and _______ phenomena. interference, diffraction Tippens - 037 Chapter... #52 ch37 Summary Category Tippens - 037 Chapter... # of Questions 52 ch38 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When two rocket ships A and B move toward each other at uniform speed, it is not possible for the astronauts on either ship to determine whether - ship A is moving and ship B is at rest; ship B is moving and ship A is at rest; or both ships are moving. True False 2. Einstein's second postulate tells us that the velocity of light is always constant. True False 3. The kinetic energy of a particle traveling at relativistic speeds is equal to the difference between its total energy and its rest mass energy. True False 4. In the photoelectric effect, a surface with a large work function is likely to produce photoelectrons with higher kinetic energy. True False 5. de Broglie wavelengths can be calculated only for charged particles such as protons and electrons. True False 6. Rutherford's experiment to determine the structure of the atom could be performed with neutrons instead of alpha particles. True False 7. The Balmer spectral series in an emission spectrum results from electrons in higher energy levels dropping to the ground state for the hydrogen atom. True False 8. The stable electron orbits are those that contain an integral number of de Broglie wavelengths. True False 9. The energy of an electron in the first excited states is 4 times its energy in the ground state. True False 10. Rutherford's work with the scattering of alpha particles resulted in a nuclear theory of matter. True False 11. Two points in space are at rest relative to an observer. The length between the two points measured by the observer is the proper length. True False 12. In the photoelectric experiment, if the intensity of the incident light is increased, the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons increases. True False 13. The momentum of a photon is zero since it has no mass. True False 14. The Thomson model of the atom has positive charge distributed over the entire atom. True False 15. According to the modern theory of relativity, newtonian mechanics is ____. A. totally incorrect B. approximately correct for any velocity C. approximately correct for speeds much less than the speed of light D. correct for all velocities 16. Which of the following experiments gives the best evidence for Bohr's postulates? A. Rutherford's scattering experiments B. absorption and emission spectra C. photoelectric effect D. atom smashers 17. The rest mass of a proton is 1.673 × 10-27 kg. The relativistic mass of a proton when its velocity is 0.6c is approximately ____. A. 1.3 × 10-27 kg B. 2.1 × 10-27 kg C. 2.6 × 10-27 kg D. 8.4 × 10-27 kg 18. What is the relativistic mass of an electron whose kinetic energy is 1.0 MeV? A. 35.6 × 10-31 kg B. 29.2 × 10-31 kg C. 26.9 × 10-31 kg D. 22.5 × 10-31 kg 19. According to the Bohr theory of an atom, an electron may circle the nucleus indefinitely without radiating energy if ____. A. the radius of its orbit is an integral multiple of the nuclear radius B. its orbital path is an integral number of de Broglie wavelengths C. its orbit is an integral multiple of its angular momentum D. the coulomb force is constant 20. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 200 V? (1pm = 10-12 m) A. 86.8 pm B. 62.2 pm C. 23.6 pm D. 6.92 pm 21. For the hydrogen atom, which of the following energy-level transitions will result in the emission of a photon with the greatest frequency? A. From n = 2 to n = 1 B. From n = 1 to n = 4 C. From n = 4 to n = 2 D. From n = 3 to n = 1 22. The threshold frequency for a surface is known to be 5 × 1014 Hz. What is the wavelength of light required to eject a photoelectron having a kinetic energy of 5 eV? A. 120 nm B. 176 nm C. 211 nm D. 306 nm 23. The frequency of the first line in the Lyman series for hydrogen is approximately ____. A. 2.47 × 1015 Hz B. 2.92 × 1015 Hz C. 3.08 × 1015 Hz D. 3.29 × 1015 Hz 24. The energy of the photon emitted when an electron in the hydrogen atom drops from the n = 3 level to the n = 2 level is ____. A. 10.2 eV B. 6.8 eV C. 1.89 eV D. 1.51 eV 25. The wavelength of a particle is ____. A. indirectly proportional to Planck's constant B. directly proportional to the produce of the mass and velocity of the particle C. indirectly proportional to the particle's momentum D. directly proportional to the particle's momentum 26. To understand the nature of light, ____ properties of light need to be taken into consideration. A. wave B. particle C. both wave and particle 27. In the photoelectric effect, the work function is ____. A. the energy needed to free an electron from the metal B. the energy needed to free an atom from the metal C. the energy needed to free a proton from the metal D. all of these answers 28. An atom has only two levels, a ground state with energy -25.0 eV and an excited state with energy -20.0 eV. What wavelength photon is required for stimulated emission of an electron in the excited state? A. 49.6 nm B. 62.0 nm C. 250 nm D. 2800 nm 29. 29.How fast would a meter stick be moving if an observer measures a length of 80.0 cm? A. 0.6c B. 1.7c C. 0.1c D. 0.4c 30. Which of the following is not required for operation of a laser? A. population inversion B. stimulated emission C. chain reaction of emitted photons D. relativistic speeds of electrons 31. According to the nuclear model of the atom, electrons ____. A. are inside the nucleus but do not contribute a significant amount to mass B. are packed together near the nucleus C. are outside the nucleus and do not contribute a significant amount of mass D. have more mass than the nucleus 32. Which of the following is not characteristic of the emission spectrum for a gas? A. light emitted at wavelengths characteristic of the atoms in the gas B. a continuous band of colors from red through violet C. a series of lines of different colors 33. Which of the following is the order of magnitude ratio of the size of an atom to the size of a nucleus? A. 0.001 B. 1 C. 100 D. 10,000 34. Light of wavelength 380 nm is required to cause electrons to be ejected from the surface of a metal. What is the work function of the metal? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 0.27 eV B. 1.67 eV C. 3.27 eV D. 3.80 eV 35. Light of wavelength 380 nm is required to cause electrons to be ejected from the surface of a metal. What is the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons if light of wavelength 350 nm is incident on the metal? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 0.27 eV B. 1.67 eV C. 3.27 eV D. 3.54 eV 36. The time interval between two events is the proper time if the two events occur ____. A. at the same time in the same reference frame B. at the same point in the same reference frame C. when the two events are moving with the same velocity D. far away from each other 37. A particle of rest mass 1.67 × 10-27 kg is moving at 0.80c. What is the particle's kinetic energy? A. 4.81 × 10-11 J B. 1.01 × 10-10 J C. 1.86 × 10-10 J D. 2.56 × 10-9 J 38. A rod is measured to be 15 cm by an observer moving at 0.80c with respect to the length of the rod. What is the proper length of the rod? A. 9.0 cm B. 15 cm C. 25 cm D. 35 cm 39. What is the speed of an electron with a deBroglie wavelength of 300 nm? A. 2400 m/s B. 221 m/s C. 13, 675 m/s D. 2.9 × 106 m/s 40. The first excited state of an atom has energy -5.96 eV and the ground state is -8.97 eV. What photon wavelength is absorbed when an electron is excited from the ground state to first excited state? A. 412 nm B. 208 nm C. 138 nm D. 83.3 nm 41. The proper time interval occurs between two events that occur at the same _______ __ ________. ________________________________________ 42. For objects traveling past an observer at relativistic speeds, the measurements of length are ____________________, the measurements of mass are ____________________, and the time intervals on the object are observed to be ____________________ than when at rest. ________________________________________ 43. The _____ ______ ______ ___ __________ is constant for all observers independent of their state of motion. This statement is known as _________ __________ ___________. ________________________________________ 44. The maximum kinetic energy of an ejected photoelectron is equal to the difference between the ________ ___ _______ ________ and ______ _______ __ ___ _______. ________________________________________ 45. The lowest energy level in an atom is known as its __________________ state. ________________________________________ 46. In the photoelectric equation, a plot of maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons versus frequency of incident light gives a straight line with slope of ________ _______ and a y-intercept of minus the _____ ______. ________________________________________ 47. If light from an incandescent platinum wire passes through sodium vapor before reaching the slit of a spectroscope, the resulting spectrum lacks the wavelength's characteristic of __________ __________. Such a spectrum is known as a(n) ____________________ spectrum. ________________________________________ 48. The ___ ________ _________ is calculated by dividing Planck's constant by the product of the mass and velocity of a particle. ________________________________________ 49. According to ____________________ first postulate, an electron may occupy only those orbits for which its angular momentum is an integral multiple of h/(2π). ________________________________________ 50. The minimum energy required to eject a photoelectron from a surface is known as the _________ ___________. ________________________________________ 51. The three ways photons interact with matter are ________, _________ __________, and _________ _________. ________________________________________ 52. The emitted photon in _________ ________has the same wavelength, direction, and polarization as the incident photon. ________________________________________ 53. The work required to accelerate a particle approaches __________ as the particle approaches the speed of light. ________________________________________ ch38 Key 1. When two rocket ships A and B move toward each other at uniform speed, it is not possible for the astronauts on either ship to determine whether - ship A is moving and ship B is at rest; ship B is moving and ship A is at rest; or both ships are moving. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #1 2. Einstein's second postulate tells us that the velocity of light is always constant. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #2 3. The kinetic energy of a particle traveling at relativistic speeds is equal to the difference between its total energy and its rest mass energy. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #3 4. In the photoelectric effect, a surface with a large work function is likely to produce photoelectrons with higher kinetic energy. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #4 5. de Broglie wavelengths can be calculated only for charged particles such as protons and electrons. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #5 6. Rutherford's experiment to determine the structure of the atom could be performed with neutrons instead of alpha particles. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #6 7. The Balmer spectral series in an emission spectrum results from electrons in higher energy levels dropping to the ground state for the hydrogen atom. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #7 8. The stable electron orbits are those that contain an integral number of de Broglie wavelengths. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #8 9. The energy of an electron in the first excited states is 4 times its energy in the ground state. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #9 10. Rutherford's work with the scattering of alpha particles resulted in a nuclear theory of matter. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #10 11. Two points in space are at rest relative to an observer. The length between the two points measured by the observer is the proper length. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #11 12. In the photoelectric experiment, if the intensity of the incident light is increased, the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons increases. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #12 13. The momentum of a photon is zero since it has no mass. FALSE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #13 14. The Thomson model of the atom has positive charge distributed over the entire atom. TRUE Tippens - 038 Chapter... #14 15. According to the modern theory of relativity, newtonian mechanics is ____. A. totally incorrect B. approximately correct for any velocity C. approximately correct for speeds much less than the speed of light D. correct for all velocities Tippens - 038 Chapter... #15 16. Which of the following experiments gives the best evidence for Bohr's postulates? A. Rutherford's scattering experiments B. absorption and emission spectra C. photoelectric effect D. atom smashers Tippens - 038 Chapter... #16 17. The rest mass of a proton is 1.673 × 10-27 kg. The relativistic mass of a proton when its velocity is 0.6c is approximately ____. A. 1.3 × 10-27 kg B. 2.1 × 10-27 kg C. 2.6 × 10-27 kg D. 8.4 × 10-27 kg Tippens - 038 Chapter... #17 18. What is the relativistic mass of an electron whose kinetic energy is 1.0 MeV? A. 35.6 × 10-31 kg B. 29.2 × 10-31 kg C. 26.9 × 10-31 kg D. 22.5 × 10-31 kg Tippens - 038 Chapter... #18 19. According to the Bohr theory of an atom, an electron may circle the nucleus indefinitely without radiating energy if ____. A. the radius of its orbit is an integral multiple of the nuclear radius B. its orbital path is an integral number of de Broglie wavelengths C. its orbit is an integral multiple of its angular momentum D. the coulomb force is constant Tippens - 038 Chapter... #19 20. What is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 200 V? (1pm = 10-12 m) A. 86.8 pm B. 62.2 pm C. 23.6 pm D. 6.92 pm Tippens - 038 Chapter... #20 21. For the hydrogen atom, which of the following energy-level transitions will result in the emission of a photon with the greatest frequency? A. From n = 2 to n = 1 B. From n = 1 to n = 4 C. From n = 4 to n = 2 D. From n = 3 to n = 1 Tippens - 038 Chapter... #21 22. The threshold frequency for a surface is known to be 5 × 1014 Hz. What is the wavelength of light required to eject a photoelectron having a kinetic energy of 5 eV? A. 120 nm B. 176 nm C. 211 nm D. 306 nm Tippens - 038 Chapter... #22 23. The frequency of the first line in the Lyman series for hydrogen is approximately ____. A. 2.47 × 1015 Hz B. 2.92 × 1015 Hz C. 3.08 × 1015 Hz D. 3.29 × 1015 Hz Tippens - 038 Chapter... #23 24. The energy of the photon emitted when an electron in the hydrogen atom drops from the n = 3 level to the n = 2 level is ____. A. 10.2 eV B. 6.8 eV C. 1.89 eV D. 1.51 eV Tippens - 038 Chapter... #24 25. The wavelength of a particle is ____. A. indirectly proportional to Planck's constant B. directly proportional to the produce of the mass and velocity of the particle C. indirectly proportional to the particle's momentum D. directly proportional to the particle's momentum Tippens - 038 Chapter... #25 26. To understand the nature of light, ____ properties of light need to be taken into consideration. A. wave B. particle C. both wave and particle Tippens - 038 Chapter... #26 27. In the photoelectric effect, the work function is ____. A. the energy needed to free an electron from the metal B. the energy needed to free an atom from the metal C. the energy needed to free a proton from the metal D. all of these answers Tippens - 038 Chapter... #27 28. An atom has only two levels, a ground state with energy -25.0 eV and an excited state with energy -20.0 eV. What wavelength photon is required for stimulated emission of an electron in the excited state? A. 49.6 nm B. 62.0 nm C. 250 nm D. 2800 nm Tippens - 038 Chapter... #28 29. 29.How fast would a meter stick be moving if an observer measures a length of 80.0 cm? A. 0.6c B. 1.7c C. 0.1c D. 0.4c Tippens - 038 Chapter... #29 30. Which of the following is not required for operation of a laser? A. population inversion B. stimulated emission C. chain reaction of emitted photons D. relativistic speeds of electrons Tippens - 038 Chapter... #30 31. According to the nuclear model of the atom, electrons ____. A. are inside the nucleus but do not contribute a significant amount to mass B. are packed together near the nucleus C. are outside the nucleus and do not contribute a significant amount of mass D. have more mass than the nucleus Tippens - 038 Chapter... #31 32. Which of the following is not characteristic of the emission spectrum for a gas? A. light emitted at wavelengths characteristic of the atoms in the gas B. a continuous band of colors from red through violet C. a series of lines of different colors Tippens - 038 Chapter... #32 33. Which of the following is the order of magnitude ratio of the size of an atom to the size of a nucleus? A. 0.001 B. 1 C. 100 D. 10,000 Tippens - 038 Chapter... #33 34. Light of wavelength 380 nm is required to cause electrons to be ejected from the surface of a metal. What is the work function of the metal? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 0.27 eV B. 1.67 eV C. 3.27 eV D. 3.80 eV Tippens - 038 Chapter... #34 35. Light of wavelength 380 nm is required to cause electrons to be ejected from the surface of a metal. What is the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons if light of wavelength 350 nm is incident on the metal? (1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J) A. 0.27 eV B. 1.67 eV C. 3.27 eV D. 3.54 eV Tippens - 038 Chapter... #35 36. The time interval between two events is the proper time if the two events occur ____. A. at the same time in the same reference frame B. at the same point in the same reference frame C. when the two events are moving with the same velocity D. far away from each other Tippens - 038 Chapter... #36 37. A particle of rest mass 1.67 × 10-27 kg is moving at 0.80c. What is the particle's kinetic energy? A. 4.81 × 10-11 J B. 1.01 × 10-10 J C. 1.86 × 10-10 J D. 2.56 × 10-9 J Tippens - 038 Chapter... #37 38. A rod is measured to be 15 cm by an observer moving at 0.80c with respect to the length of the rod. What is the proper length of the rod? A. 9.0 cm B. 15 cm C. 25 cm D. 35 cm Tippens - 038 Chapter... #38 39. What is the speed of an electron with a deBroglie wavelength of 300 nm? A. 2400 m/s B. 221 m/s C. 13, 675 m/s D. 2.9 × 106 m/s Tippens - 038 Chapter... #39 40. The first excited state of an atom has energy -5.96 eV and the ground state is -8.97 eV. What photon wavelength is absorbed when an electron is excited from the ground state to first excited state? A. 412 nm B. 208 nm C. 138 nm D. 83.3 nm Tippens - 038 Chapter... #40 41. The proper time interval occurs between two events that occur at the same _______ __ ________. point in space Tippens - 038 Chapter... #41 42. For objects traveling past an observer at relativistic speeds, the measurements of length are ____________________, the measurements of mass are ____________________, and the time intervals on the object are observed to be ____________________ than when at rest. shorter, larger, longer Tippens - 038 Chapter... #42 43. The _____ ______ ______ ___ __________ is constant for all observers independent of their state of motion. This statement is known as _________ __________ ___________. free-space velocity of light, Einstein's second postulate Tippens - 038 Chapter... #43 44. The maximum kinetic energy of an ejected photoelectron is equal to the difference between the ________ ___ _______ ________ and ______ _______ __ ___ _______. energy of incident light, work function of the surface Tippens - 038 Chapter... #44 45. The lowest energy level in an atom is known as its __________________ state. ground Tippens - 038 Chapter... #45 46. In the photoelectric equation, a plot of maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons versus frequency of incident light gives a straight line with slope of ________ _______ and a y-intercept of minus the _____ ______. Planck's constant, work function. Tippens - 038 Chapter... #46 47. If light from an incandescent platinum wire passes through sodium vapor before reaching the slit of a spectroscope, the resulting spectrum lacks the wavelength's characteristic of __________ __________. Such a spectrum is known as a(n) ____________________ spectrum. sodium vapor, absorption Tippens - 038 Chapter... #47 48. The ___ ________ _________ is calculated by dividing Planck's constant by the product of the mass and velocity of a particle. de Broglie wavelength Tippens - 038 Chapter... #48 49. According to ____________________ first postulate, an electron may occupy only those orbits for which its angular momentum is an integral multiple of h/(2π). Bohr's Tippens - 038 Chapter... #49 50. The minimum energy required to eject a photoelectron from a surface is known as the _________ ___________. work function Tippens - 038 Chapter... #50 51. The three ways photons interact with matter are ________, _________ __________, and _________ _________. absorption, spontaneous emission, stimulated emission Tippens - 038 Chapter... #51 52. The emitted photon in _________ ________has the same wavelength, direction, and polarization as the incident photon. stimulated emission Tippens - 038 Chapter... #52 53. The work required to accelerate a particle approaches __________ as the particle approaches the speed of light. infinity Tippens - 038 Chapter... #53 ch38 Summary Category Tippens - 038 Chapter... # of Questions 53 ch39 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The diameter of an atom is approximately 10,000 times the diameter of its nucleus. True False 2. The difference between the mass number of an isotope and its atomic number is equal to the number of nucleons in the nucleus. True False 3. An element may have more than one mass number, but the mass number for a stable isotope is fixed. True False 4. The radioactive half-life of a substance is one-half of the time required for all the unstable atoms in that substance to decay. True False 5. In alpha decay, the mass number of an unstable isotope is reduced by 4 and the atomic number is reduced by 2. True False 6. When 27 13 Al is bombarded by a neutron, the collision produces 27 12 Mg and a beta-plus particle. True False 7. The binding energy of an element is equivalent to the product of the mass defect and the square of the velocity of light. True False 8. In a balanced nuclear equation, the sum of the atomic numbers must be the same on both sides of the nuclear equation. This is a statement of conservation of charge. True False 9. In nuclear fission, energy is emitted; whereas in nuclear fusion, energy is absorbed. True False 10. The function of the moderator in a nuclear reactor is to slow down the nuclear fission process and thereby control the release of energy. True False 11. Gravity and the strong nuclear force are similar in that they act over large distances. True False 12. An alpha particle is a doubly ionized helium atom. True False 13. All by-products of nuclear reactors are stable isotopes. True False 14. Photons and neutrinos are emitted in some radioactive processes. True False 15. One atomic mass unit is exactly equal to one-fourth the mass of a helium atom. True False 16. Isotopes are atoms that have the same ____. A. number of neutrons B. atomic number C. number of nucleons D. atomic mass 17. The process by which a nucleus with a large mass number splits into light nuclei is called ____. A. fission B. fusion C. alpha decay D. beta decay 18. In the mass spectrometer, the distance from the slit to the impact on the plate is 10 cm for isotope A and 12 cm for isotope B. The ratio of their masses M A /M B is approximately ____. A. 0.83 B. 0.93 C. 1.2 D. 1.33 19. If two light nuclei are fused in a nuclear reaction, the average energy per nucleon ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases D. cannot be determined 20. A sample of radioactive material contains N radioactive nuclei at a given instant. If the half-life is 20 s, how many unstable nuclei remain after 1 h? A. N/2 B. N/4 C. N/6 D. N/8 21. Which of the following nuclear reactions is possible? A. 1 1 H + 3 2 He → 4 2 He B. 4 2 He + 27 13 Al → 30 15 P + 1 0 n C. 2 1 H + 31 15 P → 29 13 Al + 4 2 He D. 224 88 Ra → 219 86 Rn + 4 2 He 22. When a beta-plus particle encounters an electron, they cancel each other and both disappear. This annihilation of matter produces two photons, each having an energy of approximately ____. A. 0.466 MeV B. 0.511 MeV C. 0.931 MeV D. 1.02 MeV 23. A deuteron is a particle consisting of a neutron and a proton bound together by nuclear forces. If the rest mass of a deuteron is 3.34313 × 10-27 kg, the binding energy is approximately ____. A. 2.22 MeV B. 3.11 MeV C. 4.44 MeV D. 6.22 MeV 24. In a nuclear reactor, which of the following is used to slow down the fast neutrons released in the fission process? A. Moderator B. Control rods C. Radiation shielding D. Heat exchanger 25. The binding energy per nucleon for 235 92 U, whose mass is 235.043925 u, is approximately ____. A. 7.11 MeV B. 6.40 MeV C. 7.61 MeV D. 7.92 MeV 26. An atom's atomic number refers to the ____. A. number of protons in a neutral atom B. number of isotopes of the atom C. half the atom's atomic mass D. number of neutrons in a neutral atom 27. The mass number of an atom is equal to ____. A. half its atomic number B. the sum of its protons and electrons C. twice the number of neutrons D. the sum of its protons and neutrons 28. All nuclides of an element have ____. A. the same number of protons B. different numbers of protons C. different number of electrons D. the same number of neutrons 29. The number of decays per second in a sample of radioactive material is its ____. A. activity B. half-life C. lepton D. gamma decay 30. Binding energy refers to the amount of energy required to ____. A. separate the nucleons into individual protons B. combine individual nucleons C. separate the nucleons into individual neutrons D. separate the nucleons into individual nucleons 31. Which of the following types of radioactive decay occurs when a neutron is changed to a proton within the nucleus? A. alpha and beta decay B. alpha decay C. beta and neutrino decay D. gamma decay 32. The time required for half the atoms in any given quantity of radioactive isotope to decay is the ____ of that element. A. half-life B. weak interaction C. ionization rate D. activity 33. Neutrinos carry all the following except: A. energy B. momentum C. mass 34. The mass of the assembled nucleus is ____ the sum of the masses of the nucleons that compose it. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to 35. In a nuclear reaction, the binding energy before the reaction is ____ it is after the reaction. A. the same as B. greater than C. less than 36. Nuclear fission refers to ____. A. the division of a nucleus B. the separation of two atoms C. the combining of two nuclei D. a chemical reaction in which an atom dissociates into ions 37. If 226 88 Ra emits an alpha particle, the decay product is ____. A. 218 84 Po B. 222 86 Rn C. 222 88 Ra D. 234 90 Th 38. A moderator in a nuclear reactor decreases the speed of ____. A. protons B. neutrons C. electrons D. none of these answers 39. The rate of a chain reaction is changed by the use of ____. A. moderators B. uranium rods C. control rods D. nucleons 40. In the fusion process in the sun, a helium nucleus is formed by ____. A. the fusion of four hydrogen nuclei B. the fusion of four neutrons C. the transmutation of a hydrogen nucleus D. the fission of a beryllium nucleus 41. Which of the following is not always conserved in a nuclear reaction? A. charge B. photon number C. nucleons D. mass-energy 42. A particle travels in a cloud chamber, which is in a magnetic field. The resulting track left by the particle is a straight line. The particle is a _____________. A. neutron B. proton C. alpha particle D. beta particle 43. Which of the following statements concerning the electrostatic force and nuclear force is incorrect? A. Both are stronger than the gravitational force. B. Both act without particles contacting each other. C. Both act inside an atom. D. Both act over long distances. 44. A sample with half-life T 1/2 has N unstable nuclei. How long does it take for 15/16 of the nuclei to decay? A. 2T 1/2 B. 3T 1/2 C. 4T 1/2 D. 16T 1/2 45. What is the binding energy per nucleon for the 9 4 Be nucleus? (mass = 9.012186u) A. 6.22 MeV/nucleon B. 6.46 MeV/nucleon C. 55.6 MeV/nucleon D. 58.13 MeV/nucleon 46. The nucleus 55 24 Cr decays into 55 25 Mn plus a(n) A. proton B. neutron C. alpha particle D. electron 47. The half-life of 32 15 P is 14 days. The initial activity of a sample is 3000 counts/minute. What is the activity 21 days later? A. 3000 counts/minute B. 1500 counts/minute C. 1062 counts/minute D. 750 counts/minute 48. How many neutrons are in 49 24 Cr? A. 24 B. 25 C. 49 D. 73 49. What is the unknown particle X is the following reaction: 24 12 Mg + 2 1 H → 22 11 Na + X A. proton B. neutron C. alpha particle D. electron 50. In general, the _________ ___________ is defined as the energy required to break up a nucleus into its constituent protons and neutrons. ________________________________________ 51. The number of protons in an elements' nucleus is also the _______ _______ of the element. ________________________________________ 52. The half-life for alpha decay for deuterium is 10.2 s. One-fourth of the unstable atoms will remain after ________ s. ________________________________________ 53. An activity of __________ __________ is equal to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second. ________________________________________ 54. The _________ ___________ is the total number of nucleons in the nucleus. It can be computed by adding the number of ____________________ to the number of ____________________. ________________________________________ 55. Basic components of a nuclear reactor are __________ __________, _________ ___________, _________ ___________, ____________________, and __________ __________. ________________________________________ 56. 31 15 P has ____ protons and _____ neutrons. ________________________________________ 57. Isotopes are atoms that have the same _________ ___________ but different _________ _________. ________________________________________ 58. A mass defect of 1 u is equivalent to an energy of _____________. ________________________________________ 59. A way to separate isotopes in a sample is accomplished by a _______ _____________. ________________________________________ 60. A particular isotope with a particular number of nuclear particles is referred to as a _________. ________________________________________ 61. Compared to beta particles, gamma rays have no _______ _______ or _________. ________________________________________ 62. A _______ reactor produces additional fissionable material as part of the reactor's operation. ________________________________________ ch39 Key 1. The diameter of an atom is approximately 10,000 times the diameter of its nucleus. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #1 2. The difference between the mass number of an isotope and its atomic number is equal to the number of nucleons in the nucleus. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #2 3. An element may have more than one mass number, but the mass number for a stable isotope is fixed. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #3 4. The radioactive half-life of a substance is one-half of the time required for all the unstable atoms in that substance to decay. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #4 5. In alpha decay, the mass number of an unstable isotope is reduced by 4 and the atomic number is reduced by 2. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #5 6. When 27 13 Al is bombarded by a neutron, the collision produces 27 12 Mg and a beta-plus particle. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #6 7. The binding energy of an element is equivalent to the product of the mass defect and the square of the velocity of light. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #7 8. In a balanced nuclear equation, the sum of the atomic numbers must be the same on both sides of the nuclear equation. This is a statement of conservation of charge. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #8 9. In nuclear fission, energy is emitted; whereas in nuclear fusion, energy is absorbed. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #9 10. The function of the moderator in a nuclear reactor is to slow down the nuclear fission process and thereby control the release of energy. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #10 11. Gravity and the strong nuclear force are similar in that they act over large distances. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #11 12. An alpha particle is a doubly ionized helium atom. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #12 13. All by-products of nuclear reactors are stable isotopes. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #13 14. Photons and neutrinos are emitted in some radioactive processes. TRUE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #14 15. One atomic mass unit is exactly equal to one-fourth the mass of a helium atom. FALSE Tippens - 039 Chapter... #15 16. Isotopes are atoms that have the same ____. A. number of neutrons B. atomic number C. number of nucleons D. atomic mass Tippens - 039 Chapter... #16 17. The process by which a nucleus with a large mass number splits into light nuclei is called ____. A. fission B. fusion C. alpha decay D. beta decay Tippens - 039 Chapter... #17 18. In the mass spectrometer, the distance from the slit to the impact on the plate is 10 cm for isotope A and 12 cm for isotope B. The ratio of their masses M A /M B is approximately ____. A. 0.83 B. 0.93 C. 1.2 D. 1.33 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #18 19. If two light nuclei are fused in a nuclear reaction, the average energy per nucleon ____. A. increases B. remains the same C. decreases D. cannot be determined Tippens - 039 Chapter... #19 20. A sample of radioactive material contains N radioactive nuclei at a given instant. If the half-life is 20 s, how many unstable nuclei remain after 1 h? A. N/2 B. N/4 C. N/6 D. N/8 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #20 21. Which of the following nuclear reactions is possible? A. 1 1 H + 3 2 He → 4 2 He B. 4 2 He + 27 13 Al → 30 15 P + 1 0 n C. 2 1 H + 31 15 P → 29 13 Al + 4 2 He D. 224 88 Ra → 219 86 Rn + 4 2 He Tippens - 039 Chapter... #21 22. When a beta-plus particle encounters an electron, they cancel each other and both disappear. This annihilation of matter produces two photons, each having an energy of approximately ____. A. 0.466 MeV B. 0.511 MeV C. 0.931 MeV D. 1.02 MeV Tippens - 039 Chapter... #22 23. A deuteron is a particle consisting of a neutron and a proton bound together by nuclear forces. If the rest mass of a deuteron is 3.34313 × 10-27 kg, the binding energy is approximately ____. A. 2.22 MeV B. 3.11 MeV C. 4.44 MeV D. 6.22 MeV Tippens - 039 Chapter... #23 24. In a nuclear reactor, which of the following is used to slow down the fast neutrons released in the fission process? A. Moderator B. Control rods C. Radiation shielding D. Heat exchanger Tippens - 039 Chapter... #24 25. The binding energy per nucleon for 235 92 U, whose mass is 235.043925 u, is approximately ____. A. 7.11 MeV B. 6.40 MeV C. 7.61 MeV D. 7.92 MeV Tippens - 039 Chapter... #25 26. An atom's atomic number refers to the ____. A. number of protons in a neutral atom B. number of isotopes of the atom C. half the atom's atomic mass D. number of neutrons in a neutral atom Tippens - 039 Chapter... #26 27. The mass number of an atom is equal to ____. A. half its atomic number B. the sum of its protons and electrons C. twice the number of neutrons D. the sum of its protons and neutrons Tippens - 039 Chapter... #27 28. All nuclides of an element have ____. A. the same number of protons B. different numbers of protons C. different number of electrons D. the same number of neutrons Tippens - 039 Chapter... #28 29. The number of decays per second in a sample of radioactive material is its ____. A. activity B. half-life C. lepton D. gamma decay Tippens - 039 Chapter... #29 30. Binding energy refers to the amount of energy required to ____. A. separate the nucleons into individual protons B. combine individual nucleons C. separate the nucleons into individual neutrons D. separate the nucleons into individual nucleons Tippens - 039 Chapter... #30 31. Which of the following types of radioactive decay occurs when a neutron is changed to a proton within the nucleus? A. alpha and beta decay B. alpha decay C. beta and neutrino decay D. gamma decay Tippens - 039 Chapter... #31 32. The time required for half the atoms in any given quantity of radioactive isotope to decay is the ____ of that element. A. half-life B. weak interaction C. ionization rate D. activity Tippens - 039 Chapter... #32 33. Neutrinos carry all the following except: A. energy B. momentum C. mass Tippens - 039 Chapter... #33 34. The mass of the assembled nucleus is ____ the sum of the masses of the nucleons that compose it. A. greater than B. less than C. equal to Tippens - 039 Chapter... #34 35. In a nuclear reaction, the binding energy before the reaction is ____ it is after the reaction. A. the same as B. greater than C. less than Tippens - 039 Chapter... #35 36. Nuclear fission refers to ____. A. the division of a nucleus B. the separation of two atoms C. the combining of two nuclei D. a chemical reaction in which an atom dissociates into ions Tippens - 039 Chapter... #36 37. If 226 88 Ra emits an alpha particle, the decay product is ____. A. 218 84 Po B. 222 86 Rn C. 222 88 Ra D. 234 90 Th Tippens - 039 Chapter... #37 38. A moderator in a nuclear reactor decreases the speed of ____. A. protons B. neutrons C. electrons D. none of these answers Tippens - 039 Chapter... #38 39. The rate of a chain reaction is changed by the use of ____. A. moderators B. uranium rods C. control rods D. nucleons Tippens - 039 Chapter... #39 40. In the fusion process in the sun, a helium nucleus is formed by ____. A. the fusion of four hydrogen nuclei B. the fusion of four neutrons C. the transmutation of a hydrogen nucleus D. the fission of a beryllium nucleus Tippens - 039 Chapter... #40 41. Which of the following is not always conserved in a nuclear reaction? A. charge B. photon number C. nucleons D. mass-energy Tippens - 039 Chapter... #41 42. A particle travels in a cloud chamber, which is in a magnetic field. The resulting track left by the particle is a straight line. The particle is a _____________. A. neutron B. proton C. alpha particle D. beta particle Tippens - 039 Chapter... #42 43. Which of the following statements concerning the electrostatic force and nuclear force is incorrect? A. Both are stronger than the gravitational force. B. Both act without particles contacting each other. C. Both act inside an atom. D. Both act over long distances. Tippens - 039 Chapter... #43 44. A sample with half-life T 1/2 has N unstable nuclei. How long does it take for 15/16 of the nuclei to decay? A. 2T 1/2 B. 3T 1/2 C. 4T 1/2 D. 16T 1/2 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #44 45. What is the binding energy per nucleon for the 9 4 Be nucleus? (mass = 9.012186u) A. 6.22 MeV/nucleon B. 6.46 MeV/nucleon C. 55.6 MeV/nucleon D. 58.13 MeV/nucleon Tippens - 039 Chapter... #45 46. The nucleus 55 24 Cr decays into 55 25 Mn plus a(n) A. proton B. neutron C. alpha particle D. electron Tippens - 039 Chapter... #46 47. The half-life of 32 15 P is 14 days. The initial activity of a sample is 3000 counts/minute. What is the activity 21 days later? A. 3000 counts/minute B. 1500 counts/minute C. 1062 counts/minute D. 750 counts/minute Tippens - 039 Chapter... #47 48. How many neutrons are in 49 24 Cr? A. 24 B. 25 C. 49 D. 73 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #48 49. What is the unknown particle X is the following reaction: 24 12 Mg + 2 1 H → 22 11 Na + X A. proton B. neutron C. alpha particle D. electron Tippens - 039 Chapter... #49 50. In general, the _________ ___________ is defined as the energy required to break up a nucleus into its constituent protons and neutrons. binding energy Tippens - 039 Chapter... #50 51. The number of protons in an elements' nucleus is also the _______ _______ of the element. atomic number Tippens - 039 Chapter... #51 52. The half-life for alpha decay for deuterium is 10.2 s. One-fourth of the unstable atoms will remain after ________ s. 20.4 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #52 53. An activity of __________ __________ is equal to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second. one curie Tippens - 039 Chapter... #53 54. The _________ ___________ is the total number of nucleons in the nucleus. It can be computed by adding the number of ____________________ to the number of ____________________. mass number, protons, neutrons Tippens - 039 Chapter... #54 55. Basic components of a nuclear reactor are __________ __________, _________ ___________, _________ ___________, ____________________, and __________ __________. nuclear core, control rods, heat exchanger, moderator, radiation shielding Tippens - 039 Chapter... #55 56. 31 15 P has ____ protons and _____ neutrons. 15, 16 Tippens - 039 Chapter... #56 57. Isotopes are atoms that have the same _________ ___________ but different _________ _________. atomic number, mass number Tippens - 039 Chapter... #57 58. A mass defect of 1 u is equivalent to an energy of _____________. 931 MeV Tippens - 039 Chapter... #58 59. A way to separate isotopes in a sample is accomplished by a _______ _____________. mass spectrometer Tippens - 039 Chapter... #59 60. A particular isotope with a particular number of nuclear particles is referred to as a _________. nuclide Tippens - 039 Chapter... #60 61. Compared to beta particles, gamma rays have no _______ _______ or _________. rest mass, charge Tippens - 039 Chapter... #61 62. A _______ reactor produces additional fissionable material as part of the reactor's operation. breeder Tippens - 039 Chapter... #62 ch39 Summary Category Tippens - 039 Chapter... # of Questions 62 ...
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